Prelims Mantra (Practice Questions) (27/05/2026)
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Prelims Mantra (Practice Questions) (27/05/2026)
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
With reference to the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls and the powers of the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
1. The ECI derives its constitutional backing to examine and verify citizenship for the limited purpose of inclusion in electoral rolls under Article 324.
2. The verification conducted by the ECI during an SIR serves as the final, binding adjudication on a person’s citizenship status.
3. If an individual fails to produce required identity proofs during an SIR inquiry, the ECI holds the final judicial power to deport or strip the individual of civil rights under the Citizenship Act.
4. The Supreme Court has ruled that adding document requirements during an SIR automatically and arbitrarily reverses the burden of proof onto the voters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court of India ruled that the Election Commission of India (ECI) is constitutionally backed under Article 324 to conduct a limited inquiry into a voter’s citizenship status. This power is explicitly granted for the limited purpose of verifying eligibility and maintaining the integrity and purity of electoral rolls, ensuring free and fair elections.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The ECI’s scrutiny is strictly contextual and administrative; it is not a final, binding adjudication on a person’s nationality. The Supreme Court emphasized that an entry or deletion in the electoral roll does not amount to a conclusive legal declaration of citizenship status.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The ECI possesses no judicial or executive power under the Citizenship Act to deport individuals or permanently strip them of civil rights. If an individual fails to meet the statutory criteria for inclusion during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR), the ECI’s mandate is restricted to removing them from the draft rolls and referring their case to the competent authority within the Central Government (Ministry of Home Affairs) for official legal adjudication.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the SIR process, explicitly rejecting the argument that procedural requirements or asking for updated documentation arbitrarily or illegally reverses the burden of proof onto the voters. The Court observed that the exercise has proper safeguards, procedural fairness, and a robust mechanism for filing claims and objections.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court of India ruled that the Election Commission of India (ECI) is constitutionally backed under Article 324 to conduct a limited inquiry into a voter’s citizenship status. This power is explicitly granted for the limited purpose of verifying eligibility and maintaining the integrity and purity of electoral rolls, ensuring free and fair elections.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The ECI’s scrutiny is strictly contextual and administrative; it is not a final, binding adjudication on a person’s nationality. The Supreme Court emphasized that an entry or deletion in the electoral roll does not amount to a conclusive legal declaration of citizenship status.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The ECI possesses no judicial or executive power under the Citizenship Act to deport individuals or permanently strip them of civil rights. If an individual fails to meet the statutory criteria for inclusion during the Special Intensive Revision (SIR), the ECI’s mandate is restricted to removing them from the draft rolls and referring their case to the competent authority within the Central Government (Ministry of Home Affairs) for official legal adjudication.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the SIR process, explicitly rejecting the argument that procedural requirements or asking for updated documentation arbitrarily or illegally reverses the burden of proof onto the voters. The Court observed that the exercise has proper safeguards, procedural fairness, and a robust mechanism for filing claims and objections.
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the surplus distribution and financial operations of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
1. The RBI transfers its surplus profits to the Central Government under the statutory provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
2. Aggressive US Dollar-selling operations by the RBI to defend a depreciating Indian Rupee act as a source that generates substantial fiscal dividends.
3. The economic risk framework and Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB) parameters governing surplus distribution are based on the recommendations of the Bimal Jalan Committee.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) transfers its surplus profits to the Central Government under Section 47 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (not the Banking Regulation Act, 1949). Section 47 explicitly mandates that after making provisions for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, and contributions to staff funds, the remaining surplus profit must be transferred to the Central Government.
- Statement 2 is correct: When the Indian Rupee depreciates against the US Dollar, the RBI often sells US Dollars from its foreign exchange reserves to stabilize the currency. Because the RBI originally acquired these dollars at a historically lower cost, selling them at current, higher market rates results in substantial foreign exchange booking gains. This gross profit expands the disposable surplus that the RBI can eventually transfer to the government as a dividend.
- Statement 3 is correct: The revised Economic Capital Framework (ECF) that dictates how much surplus the RBI keeps versus how much it transfers was formulated by the Bimal Jalan Committee in 2019. The committee recommended that the Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB)—which is the country’s financial rainy-day fund—should be maintained within a specific band of 5% to 6.5% of the RBI’s total balance sheet.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) transfers its surplus profits to the Central Government under Section 47 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (not the Banking Regulation Act, 1949). Section 47 explicitly mandates that after making provisions for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, and contributions to staff funds, the remaining surplus profit must be transferred to the Central Government.
- Statement 2 is correct: When the Indian Rupee depreciates against the US Dollar, the RBI often sells US Dollars from its foreign exchange reserves to stabilize the currency. Because the RBI originally acquired these dollars at a historically lower cost, selling them at current, higher market rates results in substantial foreign exchange booking gains. This gross profit expands the disposable surplus that the RBI can eventually transfer to the government as a dividend.
- Statement 3 is correct: The revised Economic Capital Framework (ECF) that dictates how much surplus the RBI keeps versus how much it transfers was formulated by the Bimal Jalan Committee in 2019. The committee recommended that the Contingency Risk Buffer (CRB)—which is the country’s financial rainy-day fund—should be maintained within a specific band of 5% to 6.5% of the RBI’s total balance sheet.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to recent forest fire mitigation strategies and Himalayan ecology, consider the following statements:
1. The “Bambi Bucket” operation involves deploying specialized aerial buckets suspended from helicopters to drop water on active fire zones.
2. Chir Pine (Pinus roxburghii) forests are highly susceptible to high-intensity crown fires due to the accumulation of dry, resin-rich needles on the forest floor.
3. The sub-Himalayan Shivalik range is inherently less prone to seasonal forest fires compared to the higher alpine zones.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The Bambi Bucket (also known as a helicopter bucket) is a specialized aerial firefighting tool. Suspended from the underbelly of helicopters (such as the Indian Air Force’s Mi-17 helicopters used frequently in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh), it is dipped into local water bodies and used to drop targeted water or fire retardants onto active, inaccessible forest fire zones.
- Statement 2 is correct: Chir Pine (Pinus roxburghii) forests are notorious for being a primary driver of devastating forest fires in the Himalayan region. During the summer, these trees shed massive amounts of long, dry needles. These needles are highly inflammable because they are heavily laced with resin (a natural combustible hydrocarbon) and decompose very slowly. This forms a thick, slippery carpet on the forest floor that catches fire instantly and can easily escalate into high-intensity crown fires (fires spreading through the tops of trees).
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The sub-Himalayan Shivalik range is highly prone to seasonal forest fires, significantly more so than the higher alpine zones. The Shivalik range is characterized by dry deciduous vegetation, Chir Pine forests, lower humidity, and higher summer temperatures, creating an ideal recipe for seasonal wildfires. In contrast, higher alpine zones feature colder climates, moist meadows, rocky terrain, or permanent snow covers, which makes them inherently resilient or less susceptible to large-scale forest fires.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The Bambi Bucket (also known as a helicopter bucket) is a specialized aerial firefighting tool. Suspended from the underbelly of helicopters (such as the Indian Air Force’s Mi-17 helicopters used frequently in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh), it is dipped into local water bodies and used to drop targeted water or fire retardants onto active, inaccessible forest fire zones.
- Statement 2 is correct: Chir Pine (Pinus roxburghii) forests are notorious for being a primary driver of devastating forest fires in the Himalayan region. During the summer, these trees shed massive amounts of long, dry needles. These needles are highly inflammable because they are heavily laced with resin (a natural combustible hydrocarbon) and decompose very slowly. This forms a thick, slippery carpet on the forest floor that catches fire instantly and can easily escalate into high-intensity crown fires (fires spreading through the tops of trees).
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The sub-Himalayan Shivalik range is highly prone to seasonal forest fires, significantly more so than the higher alpine zones. The Shivalik range is characterized by dry deciduous vegetation, Chir Pine forests, lower humidity, and higher summer temperatures, creating an ideal recipe for seasonal wildfires. In contrast, higher alpine zones feature colder climates, moist meadows, rocky terrain, or permanent snow covers, which makes them inherently resilient or less susceptible to large-scale forest fires.
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
With reference to the vision strategy for Viksit Bharat 2047, consider the following statements:
1. It advocates a structural transition from entitlement-based welfare to empowerment-driven economic policies.
2. The document identifies Nari Shakti (Women), Youth, Farmers, and the socio-economically marginalized as the four foundational pillars for targeted state welfare.
3. It outlines a completely top-down, purely bureaucratic execution model to avoid regional disparities in the Aspirational Districts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: A core philosophy of the Viksit Bharat @ 2047 vision is driving a structural shift from traditional, entitlement-based passive welfare to empowerment-driven economic policies. The focus is on capability building, skill development, digital financial inclusion, and promoting entrepreneurship so that citizens become self-reliant contributors to a developed economy.
- Statement 2 is correct: The vision document and recent government policy frameworks explicitly identify four major pillars (often referred to as the four “castes” or foundational segments by the government) for targeted developmental focus. These are:
- Gareeb (The Socio-economically Marginalized/Poor)
- Mahilayen (Nari Shakti / Women)
- Yuva (Youth)
- Anndata (Farmers)
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The execution model for Viksit Bharat does not advocate for a completely top-down, purely bureaucratic framework. Instead, it emphasizes cooperative federalism, decentralization, and public participation (Jan Bhagidari). Programs like the Aspirational Districts Programme rely heavily on localized, data-driven governance, competition among districts, and ground-up implementation rather than centralized bureaucratic dictates.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: A core philosophy of the Viksit Bharat @ 2047 vision is driving a structural shift from traditional, entitlement-based passive welfare to empowerment-driven economic policies. The focus is on capability building, skill development, digital financial inclusion, and promoting entrepreneurship so that citizens become self-reliant contributors to a developed economy.
- Statement 2 is correct: The vision document and recent government policy frameworks explicitly identify four major pillars (often referred to as the four “castes” or foundational segments by the government) for targeted developmental focus. These are:
- Gareeb (The Socio-economically Marginalized/Poor)
- Mahilayen (Nari Shakti / Women)
- Yuva (Youth)
- Anndata (Farmers)
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The execution model for Viksit Bharat does not advocate for a completely top-down, purely bureaucratic framework. Instead, it emphasizes cooperative federalism, decentralization, and public participation (Jan Bhagidari). Programs like the Aspirational Districts Programme rely heavily on localized, data-driven governance, competition among districts, and ground-up implementation rather than centralized bureaucratic dictates.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
The prominent archaeologist Shereen Ratnagar, who recently passed away, is best known for which of the following contributions to Indian history?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shereen Ratnagar was a highly distinguished Indian archaeologist and a leading authority on the Indus Valley Civilization. Her seminal work, particularly her published PhD thesis Encounters: The Westerly Trade of the Harappa Civilization (1981), pioneered the theoretical and empirical study of the extensive maritime and overland Bronze Age trade networks linking the Harappan world with the Persian Gulf, Iran, and Mesopotamia.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shereen Ratnagar was a highly distinguished Indian archaeologist and a leading authority on the Indus Valley Civilization. Her seminal work, particularly her published PhD thesis Encounters: The Westerly Trade of the Harappa Civilization (1981), pioneered the theoretical and empirical study of the extensive maritime and overland Bronze Age trade networks linking the Harappan world with the Persian Gulf, Iran, and Mesopotamia.
