Prelims Mantra (Practice Questions) (04 and 05/05/2026)
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Prelims Mantra (Practice Questions) (04 and 05/05/2026)
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Question 1 of 9
1. Question
With reference to wheat procurement in India, consider the following statements:
1. Wheat is a Rabi crop primarily produced in the states of Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
2. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) procures wheat at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) to maintain buffer stocks.
3. Procurement helps in stabilizing market prices and supports the Public Distribution System (PDS).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: Wheat is the primary Rabi (winter) crop in India. Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh are the leading producers, contributing the bulk of the central pool procurement.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Food Corporation of India (FCI), along with state agencies, procures wheat at the MSP (declared by the government based on CACP recommendations) to ensure remunerative prices for farmers and maintain mandatory buffer stocks for national food security.
- Statement 3 is correct: By removing surplus grain from the market during harvest, procurement prevents price crashes (stabilizing market prices). This grain is then channeled through the Public Distribution System (PDS) to provide subsidized food to vulnerable sections.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: Wheat is the primary Rabi (winter) crop in India. Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh are the leading producers, contributing the bulk of the central pool procurement.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Food Corporation of India (FCI), along with state agencies, procures wheat at the MSP (declared by the government based on CACP recommendations) to ensure remunerative prices for farmers and maintain mandatory buffer stocks for national food security.
- Statement 3 is correct: By removing surplus grain from the market during harvest, procurement prevents price crashes (stabilizing market prices). This grain is then channeled through the Public Distribution System (PDS) to provide subsidized food to vulnerable sections.
-
Question 2 of 9
2. Question
Which of the following factors contribute to the high vulnerability of Uttarakhand to forest fires?
1. The predominance of pine forests in the Himalayan region.
2. Human negligence and dry vegetation during the summer months (March–June).
3. Early warning systems based on satellite detection managed by the Forest Survey of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The predominance of Chir Pine forests (Pinus roxburghii) is a major geographical factor. Pine needles are highly rich in resin, making them extremely flammable and slow to decompose, which creates a thick layer of combustible litter on the forest floor.
- Statement 2 is correct: Human activities are responsible for over 95% of forest fires in the region. This includes negligence (discarded cigarette stubs), traditional practices (controlled agricultural burning that spreads), and intentional arson for land clearing or to promote the growth of fresh grass for livestock. Dry vegetation during the hot summer months (March–June) provides the necessary fuel load.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: While it is true that the Forest Survey of India (FSI) manages satellite-based early warning systems (using sensors like MODIS and VIIRS), this is a mitigation and management tool, not a factor that contributes to the vulnerability or causes the fires. Vulnerability refers to the inherent characteristics of the region that make it prone to igniting and spreading fire, such as topography and fuel type.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The predominance of Chir Pine forests (Pinus roxburghii) is a major geographical factor. Pine needles are highly rich in resin, making them extremely flammable and slow to decompose, which creates a thick layer of combustible litter on the forest floor.
- Statement 2 is correct: Human activities are responsible for over 95% of forest fires in the region. This includes negligence (discarded cigarette stubs), traditional practices (controlled agricultural burning that spreads), and intentional arson for land clearing or to promote the growth of fresh grass for livestock. Dry vegetation during the hot summer months (March–June) provides the necessary fuel load.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: While it is true that the Forest Survey of India (FSI) manages satellite-based early warning systems (using sensors like MODIS and VIIRS), this is a mitigation and management tool, not a factor that contributes to the vulnerability or causes the fires. Vulnerability refers to the inherent characteristics of the region that make it prone to igniting and spreading fire, such as topography and fuel type.
-
Question 3 of 9
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Coal Gasification Mission:
1. Coal gasification involves converting coal into syngas, which is a mixture of Carbon Monoxide and Oxygen.
2. Syngas produced through this process can be used as a feedstock for the production of methanol and ammonia.
3. Coal gasification is considered a cleaner technology as it has lower emissions compared to the direct burning of coal.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Coal gasification converts coal into syngas (synthesis gas), which is primarily a mixture of Carbon Monoxide (CO) and Hydrogen (H₂), along with some Carbon Dioxide and Water Vapor. It does not produce a mixture of CO and Oxygen (as Oxygen is consumed during the partial oxidation process).
- Statement 2 is correct: Syngas is a versatile chemical building block. It is used as a feedstock to produce Methanol, Ammonia (for fertilizers), synthetic natural gas, and other chemicals.
- Statement 3 is correct: It is considered a “clean coal” technology because the pollutants (like sulfur and particulate matter) are removed from the syngas before it is burned or used, resulting in lower emissions of SOx, NOx, and particulate matter compared to traditional direct coal combustion in thermal power plants.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Coal gasification converts coal into syngas (synthesis gas), which is primarily a mixture of Carbon Monoxide (CO) and Hydrogen (H₂), along with some Carbon Dioxide and Water Vapor. It does not produce a mixture of CO and Oxygen (as Oxygen is consumed during the partial oxidation process).
- Statement 2 is correct: Syngas is a versatile chemical building block. It is used as a feedstock to produce Methanol, Ammonia (for fertilizers), synthetic natural gas, and other chemicals.
- Statement 3 is correct: It is considered a “clean coal” technology because the pollutants (like sulfur and particulate matter) are removed from the syngas before it is burned or used, resulting in lower emissions of SOx, NOx, and particulate matter compared to traditional direct coal combustion in thermal power plants.
-
Question 4 of 9
4. Question
With reference to India’s maritime strategy, what does the term ‘MAHASAGAR’ (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions) signify?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- MAHASAGAR is a high-level virtual interaction initiated by the Indian Navy for promoting active collaboration among the maritime heads of Indian Ocean Region (IOR) littorals.
- Strategic Alignment: It is closely linked with India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) doctrine.
- Objective: It focuses on “Mutual and Holistic Advancement” by addressing common maritime challenges such as piracy, smuggling, and disaster relief, fostering a collective approach to security and economic prosperity.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- MAHASAGAR is a high-level virtual interaction initiated by the Indian Navy for promoting active collaboration among the maritime heads of Indian Ocean Region (IOR) littorals.
- Strategic Alignment: It is closely linked with India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) doctrine.
- Objective: It focuses on “Mutual and Holistic Advancement” by addressing common maritime challenges such as piracy, smuggling, and disaster relief, fostering a collective approach to security and economic prosperity.
-
Question 5 of 9
5. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. China is the largest exporter of generic medicines globally.
2. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme has been launched to support the manufacturing of Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs).
3. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is the primary body regulating pharmaceutical exports.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: India, not China, is the largest exporter of generic medicines globally, accounting for approximately 20% of the global supply by volume. This is why India is often referred to as the “Pharmacy of the World.” While China is a major producer of APIs, India leads in finished generic formulations.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India launched the PLI scheme for Pharmaceuticals specifically to reduce dependency on imports (especially from China) for Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs), Key Starting Materials (KSMs), and Drug Intermediates.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), headed by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI), is the national regulatory body for cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, and medical devices. It is responsible for the approval of drugs, conduct of clinical trials, and laying down standards for quality control and exports.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: India, not China, is the largest exporter of generic medicines globally, accounting for approximately 20% of the global supply by volume. This is why India is often referred to as the “Pharmacy of the World.” While China is a major producer of APIs, India leads in finished generic formulations.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India launched the PLI scheme for Pharmaceuticals specifically to reduce dependency on imports (especially from China) for Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs), Key Starting Materials (KSMs), and Drug Intermediates.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), headed by the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI), is the national regulatory body for cosmetics, pharmaceuticals, and medical devices. It is responsible for the approval of drugs, conduct of clinical trials, and laying down standards for quality control and exports.
-
Question 6 of 9
6. Question
Which of the following indicators are used by Reporters Without Borders (RSF) to compile the World Press Freedom Index?
1. Pluralism and Independence
2. Legal framework and Transparency
3. Safety of journalists
4. Per capita income of journalists
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
The World Press Freedom Index, published annually by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), evaluates countries based on their environment for journalism using five contextual indicators:
-
- Indicator 1: Pluralism and Independence: This assesses the degree to which media can represent a diversity of opinions and function independently from political, governmental, or corporate interference.
- Indicator 2: Legal Framework and Transparency: This examines the laws and regulations impacting press freedom, including the ability to access information, protection of sources, and the absence of censorship.
- Indicator 3: Safety of Journalists: This measures the degree of bodily, psychological, and professional harm faced by journalists, including a quantitative tally of abuses such as murders, arrests, and harassment.
- Indicator 4: Per capita income of journalists (Incorrect): While the Economic Context (e.g., government subsidies, corruption, and media ownership) is an indicator, the personal per capita income of individual journalists is not a criterion used to rank countries in this index.
- Indicator 5: Sociocultural context: This indicator measures the social and cultural pressures that can lead to journalist self-censorship or media interference. It specifically looks at:
- Social constraints: Attacks or denigration of the press based on gender, class, ethnicity, or religion.
- Cultural constraints: Pressures on journalists not to question specific “bastions of power” or influential groups because doing so would conflict with the prevailing culture.
As of the 2026 report, India is ranked 157th out of 180 countries, highlighting significant concerns regarding journalist safety and media independence. Norway consistently retains the top position due to its robust legal protections and media pluralism. Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
The World Press Freedom Index, published annually by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), evaluates countries based on their environment for journalism using five contextual indicators:
-
- Indicator 1: Pluralism and Independence: This assesses the degree to which media can represent a diversity of opinions and function independently from political, governmental, or corporate interference.
- Indicator 2: Legal Framework and Transparency: This examines the laws and regulations impacting press freedom, including the ability to access information, protection of sources, and the absence of censorship.
- Indicator 3: Safety of Journalists: This measures the degree of bodily, psychological, and professional harm faced by journalists, including a quantitative tally of abuses such as murders, arrests, and harassment.
- Indicator 4: Per capita income of journalists (Incorrect): While the Economic Context (e.g., government subsidies, corruption, and media ownership) is an indicator, the personal per capita income of individual journalists is not a criterion used to rank countries in this index.
- Indicator 5: Sociocultural context: This indicator measures the social and cultural pressures that can lead to journalist self-censorship or media interference. It specifically looks at:
- Social constraints: Attacks or denigration of the press based on gender, class, ethnicity, or religion.
- Cultural constraints: Pressures on journalists not to question specific “bastions of power” or influential groups because doing so would conflict with the prevailing culture.
As of the 2026 report, India is ranked 157th out of 180 countries, highlighting significant concerns regarding journalist safety and media independence. Norway consistently retains the top position due to its robust legal protections and media pluralism. -
Question 7 of 9
7. Question
The Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC) 2025 highlights acute food insecurity. Consider the following statements regarding it:
I. The report is published by the Food Security Information Network (FSIN).
II. According to the report, conflict, climate shocks, and economic instability are the primary drivers of food insecurity.
III. The report uses the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) system to assess hunger levels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
-
- Statement I is correct: The Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC) is an annual publication produced by the Food Security Information Network (FSIN) and launched by the Global Network Against Food Crises (GNAFC), which includes UN agencies like the FAO and WFP, along with the EU and USAID.
- Statement II is correct: The GRFC 2025 identifies conflict, climate shocks (including El Nino-induced droughts), and economic instability (inflation and currency devaluation) as the three main drivers. Conflict remains the leading cause, affecting roughly 140 million people in 2024.
- Statement III is correct: To ensure a standard global measure of hunger severity, the report relies on the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) and the Cadre Harmonise (CH). These systems use a five-phase scale, where Phase 5 (Catastrophe/Famine) represents the most severe level of acute food insecurity.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
-
- Statement I is correct: The Global Report on Food Crises (GRFC) is an annual publication produced by the Food Security Information Network (FSIN) and launched by the Global Network Against Food Crises (GNAFC), which includes UN agencies like the FAO and WFP, along with the EU and USAID.
- Statement II is correct: The GRFC 2025 identifies conflict, climate shocks (including El Nino-induced droughts), and economic instability (inflation and currency devaluation) as the three main drivers. Conflict remains the leading cause, affecting roughly 140 million people in 2024.
- Statement III is correct: To ensure a standard global measure of hunger severity, the report relies on the Integrated Food Security Phase Classification (IPC) and the Cadre Harmonise (CH). These systems use a five-phase scale, where Phase 5 (Catastrophe/Famine) represents the most severe level of acute food insecurity.
-
Question 8 of 9
8. Question
With reference to the ‘Holistic Development of Great Nicobar Island’ project, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. The project is being implemented by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation (ANIIDCO).
2. It involves the development of an International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT) at Galathea Bay.
3. The project area overlaps with the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve, which is home to indigenous tribes like the Shompen.
4. The proposed greenfield international airport will serve a dual-use purpose for both civilian and military operations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The project, formally titled the ‘Holistic Development of Great Nicobar Island’, is being implemented by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation (ANIIDCO), which serves as the nodal agency for this mega-infrastructure initiative.
- Statement 2 is correct: A primary component of the project is the International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT) located at Galathea Bay. Its strategic deep-water location is intended to rival regional transshipment hubs like Singapore and Colombo.
- Statement 3 is correct: The project spans approximately 166 sq. km of the island, a portion of which overlaps with the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve. This biosphere is the ancestral home of indigenous tribes, specifically the Shompen, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG), and the Nicobarese.
- Statement 4 is correct: The planned greenfield international airport is designed as a dual-use facility. It will serve both civilian passengers (to boost tourism and connectivity) and military operations to strengthen India’s maritime surveillance and naval presence in the Indo-Pacific.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is correct: The project, formally titled the ‘Holistic Development of Great Nicobar Island’, is being implemented by the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation (ANIIDCO), which serves as the nodal agency for this mega-infrastructure initiative.
- Statement 2 is correct: A primary component of the project is the International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT) located at Galathea Bay. Its strategic deep-water location is intended to rival regional transshipment hubs like Singapore and Colombo.
- Statement 3 is correct: The project spans approximately 166 sq. km of the island, a portion of which overlaps with the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve. This biosphere is the ancestral home of indigenous tribes, specifically the Shompen, a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG), and the Nicobarese.
- Statement 4 is correct: The planned greenfield international airport is designed as a dual-use facility. It will serve both civilian passengers (to boost tourism and connectivity) and military operations to strengthen India’s maritime surveillance and naval presence in the Indo-Pacific.
-
Question 9 of 9
9. Question
With reference to the indigenous communities of the Great Nicobar Island and the strategic significance of the region, consider the following pairs:
Tribe / Feature Significance / Characteristics 1. Shompen Semi-nomadic Hunter-gatherers classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG). 2. Nicobarese Primarily horticulturalists and pig-rearers belonging to the Mongoloid stock. 3. Galathea Bay Strategic location for India’s farthest southern military command (INS Baaz). 4. Campbell Bay Significant nesting site for the Giant Leatherback Turtle and site for the transshipment port. How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- Shompen (Correct): They are indeed semi-nomadic hunter-gatherers and are designated as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
- Nicobarese (Correct): They are primarily horticulturalists and pig-rearers and belong to the Mongoloid
- Galathea Bay (Incorrectly Matched): While it is the site for the transshipment port, the strategic military command (INS Baaz) is located at Campbell Bay, not Galathea Bay.
- Campbell Bay (Incorrectly Matched): While it is the location for INS Baaz, the primary nesting site for the Giant Leatherback Turtle is Galathea Bay.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- Shompen (Correct): They are indeed semi-nomadic hunter-gatherers and are designated as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
- Nicobarese (Correct): They are primarily horticulturalists and pig-rearers and belong to the Mongoloid
- Galathea Bay (Incorrectly Matched): While it is the site for the transshipment port, the strategic military command (INS Baaz) is located at Campbell Bay, not Galathea Bay.
- Campbell Bay (Incorrectly Matched): While it is the location for INS Baaz, the primary nesting site for the Giant Leatherback Turtle is Galathea Bay.
