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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
With reference to administrative relations between the Union and the States, consider the following statements:
1. The executive power of every State shall be exercised in a manner that ensures compliance with laws made by Parliament.
2. The Union Government may issue directions to States for the purpose of ensuring such compliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 256, the executive power of every State must be exercised in a way that ensures compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws that apply in that State. This creates a constitutional obligation on the State executive to implement and respect Central legislation.
Statement 2 is correct: The same Article (256) specifies that the executive power of the Union extends to giving such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for the purpose of ensuring that compliance.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 256, the executive power of every State must be exercised in a way that ensures compliance with the laws made by Parliament and any existing laws that apply in that State. This creates a constitutional obligation on the State executive to implement and respect Central legislation.
Statement 2 is correct: The same Article (256) specifies that the executive power of the Union extends to giving such directions to a State as may appear to the Government of India to be necessary for the purpose of ensuring that compliance.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government may deploy armed forces in a State to deal with grave situations affecting law and order.
2. Such deployment necessarily requires the prior consent of the State Government concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 355 of the Constitution, the Union has a duty to protect every State against “external aggression and internal disturbance“. To fulfill this duty, the Union Government has the authority to deploy its armed forces or other forces to deal with grave law and order situations that the State machinery cannot handle alone.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Union typically consults with the State Government as a matter of cooperative federalism, the prior consent of the State is not a constitutional necessity for such deployment. The Supreme Court in the Naga People’s Movement of Human Rights v. Union of India (1998) upheld that the Central Government can deploy its forces even without a request from the State if it deems it necessary to fulfill its obligations under Article 355.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 355 of the Constitution, the Union has a duty to protect every State against “external aggression and internal disturbance“. To fulfill this duty, the Union Government has the authority to deploy its armed forces or other forces to deal with grave law and order situations that the State machinery cannot handle alone.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Union typically consults with the State Government as a matter of cooperative federalism, the prior consent of the State is not a constitutional necessity for such deployment. The Supreme Court in the Naga People’s Movement of Human Rights v. Union of India (1998) upheld that the Central Government can deploy its forces even without a request from the State if it deems it necessary to fulfill its obligations under Article 355.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
With reference to All India Services, consider the following statements:
1. Officers of All India Services serve both the Union and the States.
2. The creation of a new All India Service requires a resolution of the Council of States supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: All India Services (AIS) officers are recruited and trained by the Union Government but are assigned to various State cadres. They serve both the Union and the States, holding top positions in both administrative hierarchies, which helps ensure uniform standards and national integration.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 312 of the Constitution, the Parliament can create a new All India Service only after the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) passes a resolution declaring it necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: All India Services (AIS) officers are recruited and trained by the Union Government but are assigned to various State cadres. They serve both the Union and the States, holding top positions in both administrative hierarchies, which helps ensure uniform standards and national integration.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 312 of the Constitution, the Parliament can create a new All India Service only after the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) passes a resolution declaring it necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:
1. It recommends the principles governing the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.
2. It functions as a permanent constitutional body with a fixed institutional structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 280(3) of the Constitution, one of the primary duties of the Finance Commission is to make recommendations to the President regarding the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States (vertical devolution) and the allocation between the States of their respective shares (horizontal devolution).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Finance Commission is not a permanent body. It is a quasi-judicial, periodic body constituted by the President of India every five years (or earlier if deemed necessary). Once it submits its report and the recommendations are processed, the Commission is dissolved. It does not have a “fixed institutional structure” in the sense of a permanent, ongoing department like the Election Commission or the CAG.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 280(3) of the Constitution, one of the primary duties of the Finance Commission is to make recommendations to the President regarding the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States (vertical devolution) and the allocation between the States of their respective shares (horizontal devolution).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Finance Commission is not a permanent body. It is a quasi-judicial, periodic body constituted by the President of India every five years (or earlier if deemed necessary). Once it submits its report and the recommendations are processed, the Commission is dissolved. It does not have a “fixed institutional structure” in the sense of a permanent, ongoing department like the Election Commission or the CAG.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
With reference to grants-in-aid to States, consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament may provide grants-in-aid to States that are in need of financial assistance.
2. Such grants are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 275 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to provide grants-in-aid of the revenues to such States as it determines to be in need of assistance. These are known as Statutory Grants. While the Finance Commission recommends the principles for these grants, the ultimate authority to provide them by law rests with Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution explicitly states in Article 275(1) that these sums shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India each year. This means they are not subject to the annual voting of Parliament, ensuring a degree of financial certainty for the recipient States.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 275 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to provide grants-in-aid of the revenues to such States as it determines to be in need of assistance. These are known as Statutory Grants. While the Finance Commission recommends the principles for these grants, the ultimate authority to provide them by law rests with Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution explicitly states in Article 275(1) that these sums shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India each year. This means they are not subject to the annual voting of Parliament, ensuring a degree of financial certainty for the recipient States.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
During the operation of President’s Rule in a State, consider the following:
1. The State Legislative Assembly may be either suspended or dissolved.
2. The legislative powers of the State Legislature may be exercised by Parliament.
3. The jurisdiction and powers of the High Court of the State may be suspended.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: When President’s Rule (Article 356) is imposed, the State Legislative Assembly is not necessarily dissolved immediately. The President has the power to either suspend the assembly (keeping it in “suspended animation”) or dissolve it. Under the S.R. Bommai (1994) guidelines, the assembly should typically only be dissolved after Parliament has approved the proclamation.
Statement 2 is correct: A core consequence of Article 356 is that the President can declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. Parliament then assumes the responsibility for passing the state’s legislative bills and its budget.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution explicitly prohibits the President from assuming the powers of a High Court or suspending any constitutional provisions relating to it. Even during President’s Rule, the constitutional position, status, and jurisdiction of the State High Court remain unaffected.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: When President’s Rule (Article 356) is imposed, the State Legislative Assembly is not necessarily dissolved immediately. The President has the power to either suspend the assembly (keeping it in “suspended animation”) or dissolve it. Under the S.R. Bommai (1994) guidelines, the assembly should typically only be dissolved after Parliament has approved the proclamation.
Statement 2 is correct: A core consequence of Article 356 is that the President can declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. Parliament then assumes the responsibility for passing the state’s legislative bills and its budget.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution explicitly prohibits the President from assuming the powers of a High Court or suspending any constitutional provisions relating to it. Even during President’s Rule, the constitutional position, status, and jurisdiction of the State High Court remain unaffected.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
With reference to Financial Emergency in India, consider the following statements:
1. It may be proclaimed under Article 360 of the Constitution.
2. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving the Union or a State.
3. A Financial Emergency has been proclaimed in India on at least one occasion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if they are satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India, or any part of its territory, is threatened.
Statement 2 is correct: During the operation of a Financial Emergency, the President is constitutionally competent to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the Union or a State. This specifically includes the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, whose salaries are otherwise protected from such reductions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India since the Constitution came into effect in 1950. Even during the severe 1991 balance of payments crisis, the government managed the situation without invoking Article 360.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if they are satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India, or any part of its territory, is threatened.
Statement 2 is correct: During the operation of a Financial Emergency, the President is constitutionally competent to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the Union or a State. This specifically includes the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, whose salaries are otherwise protected from such reductions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India since the Constitution came into effect in 1950. Even during the severe 1991 balance of payments crisis, the government managed the situation without invoking Article 360.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
With reference to the distribution of taxation powers between the Union and the States, consider the following:
1. Taxes that are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
2. Taxes that are levied and collected by the Union but shared with the States.
3. Taxes that are levied, collected and retained by the States.
Which of the above categories is/are provided for in the Constitution of India?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Category 1 (Article 268): Taxes levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
These include stamp dutieson specific financial instruments like bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes, and policies of insurance.
The revenue stays with the state where it is collected and does not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Category 2 (Article 270): Taxes levied and collected by the Union but shared with the States.
This is the largest category and includes most major central taxes such as Income Tax(other than agricultural income), Corporation Tax, and the central share of GST.
The distribution ratio is determined by the President based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
Category 3 (State List): Taxes levied, collected, and retained by the States.
These are subjects found in List II (State List)of the Seventh Schedule.
Common examples include land revenue, taxes on agricultural income, duties on alcoholic liquorsfor human consumption, and taxes on lands and buildings.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Category 1 (Article 268): Taxes levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
These include stamp dutieson specific financial instruments like bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes, and policies of insurance.
The revenue stays with the state where it is collected and does not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Category 2 (Article 270): Taxes levied and collected by the Union but shared with the States.
This is the largest category and includes most major central taxes such as Income Tax(other than agricultural income), Corporation Tax, and the central share of GST.
The distribution ratio is determined by the President based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
Category 3 (State List): Taxes levied, collected, and retained by the States.
These are subjects found in List II (State List)of the Seventh Schedule.
Common examples include land revenue, taxes on agricultural income, duties on alcoholic liquorsfor human consumption, and taxes on lands and buildings.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, consider the following statements:
1. It is a federal institutional mechanism for cooperative decision-making between the Union and the States.
2. The Union Finance Minister functions as its Chairperson.
3. Decisions of the Council require a three-fourths majority of the weighted votes of members present and voting.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The GST Council is a constitutional body that serves as a federal institutional mechanism. It brings the Union and the States together on a common platform to ensure cooperative federalism in decision-making for the nationwide indirect tax reform.
Statement 2 is correct: The Union Finance Minister functions as the Chairperson of the GST Council. Other members include the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance and the Finance/Taxation Ministers of each State government.
Statement 3 is correct: Every decision of the Council must be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The GST Council is a constitutional body that serves as a federal institutional mechanism. It brings the Union and the States together on a common platform to ensure cooperative federalism in decision-making for the nationwide indirect tax reform.
Statement 2 is correct: The Union Finance Minister functions as the Chairperson of the GST Council. Other members include the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance and the Finance/Taxation Ministers of each State government.
Statement 3 is correct: Every decision of the Council must be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Judicial Review in India:
Statement I: Judicial Review is a basic feature of the Constitution of India and cannot be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment.
Statement II: The power of Judicial Review enables the judiciary to examine the constitutional validity of laws enacted by the legislature and actions taken by the executive.
Statement III: The Constitution explicitly mentions the term “Judicial Review” and provides a single specific Article that exclusively defines this power.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: The power of Judicial Review is considered part of the Basic Structure Doctrine. In the landmark case Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, the Supreme Court held that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution. Judicial Review is one such essential feature because it ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and prevents misuse of legislative or executive power.
Statement II is correct and explains Statement I: Judicial Review empowers courts to examine whether laws passed by Parliament or State Legislatures and actions of the executive are consistent with the Constitution. If a law violates constitutional provisions, courts can declare it ultra vires (unconstitutional). This power mainly flows from provisions such as Article 13, Article 32, Article 131, Article 136, Article 226, and Article 227. Because this power safeguards constitutional supremacy, it is treated as a part of the basic structure.
Statement III is incorrect: The term Judicial Review is not explicitly mentioned as a single defined concept in the Constitution. Instead, the power emerges implicitly through several constitutional provisions, especially Article 13 (laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void), Article 32, and Article 226. Therefore, there is no single article that exclusively defines Judicial Review, making Statement III incorrect.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: The power of Judicial Review is considered part of the Basic Structure Doctrine. In the landmark case Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, the Supreme Court held that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution. Judicial Review is one such essential feature because it ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and prevents misuse of legislative or executive power.
Statement II is correct and explains Statement I: Judicial Review empowers courts to examine whether laws passed by Parliament or State Legislatures and actions of the executive are consistent with the Constitution. If a law violates constitutional provisions, courts can declare it ultra vires (unconstitutional). This power mainly flows from provisions such as Article 13, Article 32, Article 131, Article 136, Article 226, and Article 227. Because this power safeguards constitutional supremacy, it is treated as a part of the basic structure.
Statement III is incorrect: The term Judicial Review is not explicitly mentioned as a single defined concept in the Constitution. Instead, the power emerges implicitly through several constitutional provisions, especially Article 13 (laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void), Article 32, and Article 226. Therefore, there is no single article that exclusively defines Judicial Review, making Statement III incorrect.
