Daily Prelims Test (Day-13)
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Daily Prelims Test (Day-13)
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
With reference to the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 131 can be invoked by private individuals when fundamental rights are violated.
3. Disputes between two or more States fall within the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
4. Disputes arising out of treaties, agreements, covenants or similar instruments executed before the commencement of the Constitution may be excluded from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 131, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India (Union) and one or more States. “Exclusive” means no other court can hear these disputes, and “original” means they can be filed directly in the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The original jurisdiction under Article 131 is strictly for federal disputes between the constituent units of the Indian federation (Union and States). Private individuals cannot invoke Article 131; they must use Article 32 (Writ Jurisdiction) to approach the Supreme Court for fundamental rights violations.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 131 explicitly includes disputes between two or more States within the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction.
Statement 4 is correct: The proviso to Article 131 states that this jurisdiction does not extend to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, or similar instrument that was executed before the commencement of the Constitution and continues in operation, or which specifically excludes such jurisdiction.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 131, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction in any dispute between the Government of India (Union) and one or more States. “Exclusive” means no other court can hear these disputes, and “original” means they can be filed directly in the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The original jurisdiction under Article 131 is strictly for federal disputes between the constituent units of the Indian federation (Union and States). Private individuals cannot invoke Article 131; they must use Article 32 (Writ Jurisdiction) to approach the Supreme Court for fundamental rights violations.
Statement 3 is correct: Article 131 explicitly includes disputes between two or more States within the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction.
Statement 4 is correct: The proviso to Article 131 states that this jurisdiction does not extend to disputes arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, or similar instrument that was executed before the commencement of the Constitution and continues in operation, or which specifically excludes such jurisdiction.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
With reference to the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court exercises its writ jurisdiction under Article 32 of the Constitution.
2. The Supreme Court can issue writs against the Government of India and its authorities.
3. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
4. The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is wider than that of the High Courts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court of India exercises its writ jurisdiction specifically under Article 32 of the Constitution. This article is itself a Fundamental Right, which is why Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously called it the “heart and soul” of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs against any person or authority, including the Government of India, throughout the entire territory of the country.
Statement 3 is correct: The primary purpose of Article 32 is the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). The court can issue five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is actually narrower than that of the High Courts. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. High Courts, under Article 226, can issue writs not only for Fundamental Rights but also for any other legal purpose (such as administrative or statutory rights). While the Supreme Court has a wider territorial jurisdiction (all of India), the legal scope of the High Court’s writ power is broader.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court of India exercises its writ jurisdiction specifically under Article 32 of the Constitution. This article is itself a Fundamental Right, which is why Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously called it the “heart and soul” of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs against any person or authority, including the Government of India, throughout the entire territory of the country.
Statement 3 is correct: The primary purpose of Article 32 is the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution). The court can issue five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is actually narrower than that of the High Courts. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. High Courts, under Article 226, can issue writs not only for Fundamental Rights but also for any other legal purpose (such as administrative or statutory rights). While the Supreme Court has a wider territorial jurisdiction (all of India), the legal scope of the High Court’s writ power is broader.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
With reference to the single integrated judicial system in India, consider the following statements:
1. It implies that all courts in India are part of a unified judicial hierarchy headed by the Supreme Court.
2. The Constitution explicitly establishes the single integrated judicial system through Article 141.
3. The High Courts exercise supervisory jurisdiction over the subordinate courts within their territorial jurisdiction.
4. The system ensures uniformity in the interpretation and application of law throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike the USA, which has separate federal and state court systems, India has a single integrated judicial system. This means the Supreme Court stands at the apex, followed by High Courts and then the Subordinate Courts (District and Sessions Courts), all forming one unified hierarchy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts in India, the Constitution does not explicitly use the term “single integrated judicial system” in any specific Article. This concept is a structural feature derived from the entire scheme of Part V (The Union) and Part VI (The States).
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 227, every High Court has supervisory jurisdiction over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction. This includes administrative and judicial superintendence over subordinate courts.
Statement 4 is correct: A primary objective of an integrated system is to ensure uniformity in the interpretation and application of both Central and State laws. Decisions made by the Supreme Court serve as binding precedents for all other courts, preventing conflicting legal interpretations across different states.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike the USA, which has separate federal and state court systems, India has a single integrated judicial system. This means the Supreme Court stands at the apex, followed by High Courts and then the Subordinate Courts (District and Sessions Courts), all forming one unified hierarchy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts in India, the Constitution does not explicitly use the term “single integrated judicial system” in any specific Article. This concept is a structural feature derived from the entire scheme of Part V (The Union) and Part VI (The States).
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 227, every High Court has supervisory jurisdiction over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction. This includes administrative and judicial superintendence over subordinate courts.
Statement 4 is correct: A primary objective of an integrated system is to ensure uniformity in the interpretation and application of both Central and State laws. Decisions made by the Supreme Court serve as binding precedents for all other courts, preventing conflicting legal interpretations across different states.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
With reference to the appointment and qualifications of judges of High Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Judges of High Courts are appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the concerned State, and the Chief Justice of the respective High Court.
2. A person is also qualified if they have been an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession for at least ten years.
3. A person is qualified for appointment as a judge of a High Court if they have held a judicial office in India for at least ten years.
4. The Constitution prescribes the minimum number of judges that must be appointed to every High Court.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution, every judge of a High Court is appointed by the President. The appointment is made after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the concerned State, and, in the case of a judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court to which the appointment is being made.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 217(2)(b), a person is qualified for appointment if they are a citizen of India and have been an advocate of a High Court (or two or more such courts in succession) for at least ten years.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 217(2)(a), another qualification is that the person must have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Constitution does not prescribe a minimum or fixed number of judges for every High Court. Instead, Article 216 states that a High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other judges as the President may from time to time deem necessary to appoint. This allows the strength of a High Court to vary based on its specific workload.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 217(1) of the Constitution, every judge of a High Court is appointed by the President. The appointment is made after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the concerned State, and, in the case of a judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court to which the appointment is being made.
Statement 2 is correct: As per Article 217(2)(b), a person is qualified for appointment if they are a citizen of India and have been an advocate of a High Court (or two or more such courts in succession) for at least ten years.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 217(2)(a), another qualification is that the person must have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Constitution does not prescribe a minimum or fixed number of judges for every High Court. Instead, Article 216 states that a High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other judges as the President may from time to time deem necessary to appoint. This allows the strength of a High Court to vary based on its specific workload.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
With reference to the powers of High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of other legal rights.
3. High Courts can issue writs against any authority within their territorial jurisdiction, including the government.
4. High Courts can issue writs against the President of India in the exercise of his constitutional powers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 226, every High Court has the power to issue directions, orders, or writs (such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, etc.) for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Unlike the Supreme Court (which only handles Fundamental Rights under Article 32), High Courts can also issue writs “for any other purpose”. This means they can enforce ordinary legal rights or statutory rights.
Statement 3 is correct: High Courts can issue these writs to any person or authority, including any government, within the territories in relation to which they exercise jurisdiction.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Under Article 361, the President of India (and Governors of States) enjoys personal immunity from legal proceedings. They are not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office. While the actions of the government can be challenged via a writ, the President personally cannot be sued in a High Court for his constitutional acts.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 226, every High Court has the power to issue directions, orders, or writs (such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, etc.) for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: Unlike the Supreme Court (which only handles Fundamental Rights under Article 32), High Courts can also issue writs “for any other purpose”. This means they can enforce ordinary legal rights or statutory rights.
Statement 3 is correct: High Courts can issue these writs to any person or authority, including any government, within the territories in relation to which they exercise jurisdiction.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Under Article 361, the President of India (and Governors of States) enjoys personal immunity from legal proceedings. They are not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office. While the actions of the government can be challenged via a writ, the President personally cannot be sued in a High Court for his constitutional acts.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
With reference to the Delimitation Commission in India, consider the following statements:
1. Delimitation is the process of fixing the number of seats and boundaries of constituencies for both the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. The orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.
3. The Parliament can modify the orders of the Delimitation Commission if it finds them unsuitable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Delimitation is the process of fixing the number of seats and redrawing the boundaries of territorial constituencies for both the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to reflect population changes.
Statement 2 is correct: The orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and, as per Article 329(a) of the Constitution, they cannot be challenged in any court. This ensures that the electoral process is not indefinitely delayed by legal disputes over constituency boundaries.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Once the orders of the Delimitation Commission are finalized and laid before the Lok Sabha or the respective State Legislative Assembly, these legislative bodies cannot make any modifications or amendments to them.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Delimitation is the process of fixing the number of seats and redrawing the boundaries of territorial constituencies for both the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies to reflect population changes.
Statement 2 is correct: The orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and, as per Article 329(a) of the Constitution, they cannot be challenged in any court. This ensures that the electoral process is not indefinitely delayed by legal disputes over constituency boundaries.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Once the orders of the Delimitation Commission are finalized and laid before the Lok Sabha or the respective State Legislative Assembly, these legislative bodies cannot make any modifications or amendments to them.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the definition of ‘public servant’ under the PCA, 1988:
1. Any person in the service or pay of the Government or a local authority.
2. Any person remunerated by the Government by fees or commission for performance of public duty.
3. Any judge or person empowered to discharge adjudicatory functions.
4. Only government employees, excluding judges, are covered under the Act.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 2(c)(i) and (ii) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, the definition of a public servant includes any person in the service or pay of the Government or a local authority.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act explicitly covers individuals remunerated by the Government by fees or commission specifically for the performance of a public duty.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Section 2(c)(iv), any judge or any person empowered by law to discharge adjudicatory functions (whether alone or as part of a body) is considered a public servant.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The definition of “public servant” under the PCA is intentionally broad to ensure accountability across various sectors. It is not limited to government employees and specifically includes judges, as well as officials in universities, cooperative societies, and government-aided institutions.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Section 2(c)(i) and (ii) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, the definition of a public servant includes any person in the service or pay of the Government or a local authority.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act explicitly covers individuals remunerated by the Government by fees or commission specifically for the performance of a public duty.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Section 2(c)(iv), any judge or any person empowered by law to discharge adjudicatory functions (whether alone or as part of a body) is considered a public servant.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The definition of “public servant” under the PCA is intentionally broad to ensure accountability across various sectors. It is not limited to government employees and specifically includes judges, as well as officials in universities, cooperative societies, and government-aided institutions.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of Atal Pension Yojana (APY):
1. To promote voluntary retirement savings with defined pension benefits based on age of entry and contribution levels.
2. To ensure universal social security for the poor, underprivileged, and unorganised sector workers.
3. To replace all other social security schemes for workers in the unorganised sector.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a voluntary, contributory retirement savings scheme where the amount of fixed monthly pension (ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000) is determined based on the age of entry and the contribution levels chosen by the subscriber.
Statement 2 is correct: A primary objective of the scheme is to create a universal social security system for all Indians, with a specific focus on providing old-age income security to the poor, underprivileged, and workers in the unorganised sector who are not covered by any other statutory social security.
Statement 3 is incorrect: APY was launched to replace the Swavalamban Yojana (NPS Lite). However, it does not aim to “replace all other social security schemes” for the unorganised sector. In fact, it co-exists with other schemes such as the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM), which is another pension scheme specifically for unorganised workers with different eligibility criteria and benefits.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a voluntary, contributory retirement savings scheme where the amount of fixed monthly pension (ranging from ₹1,000 to ₹5,000) is determined based on the age of entry and the contribution levels chosen by the subscriber.
Statement 2 is correct: A primary objective of the scheme is to create a universal social security system for all Indians, with a specific focus on providing old-age income security to the poor, underprivileged, and workers in the unorganised sector who are not covered by any other statutory social security.
Statement 3 is incorrect: APY was launched to replace the Swavalamban Yojana (NPS Lite). However, it does not aim to “replace all other social security schemes” for the unorganised sector. In fact, it co-exists with other schemes such as the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM), which is another pension scheme specifically for unorganised workers with different eligibility criteria and benefits.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding benefits and implementation features of PM SVANidhi:
1. The scheme promotes financial inclusion and digital payments by providing cashback incentives up to ₹1,600 for retail and wholesale transactions.
2. Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) administers graded guarantee coverage for sanctioned loans.
3. Monthly Lok Kalyan Melas under “SVANidhi se Samriddhi” link street vendors with other welfare schemes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: While PM SVANidhi does promote digital payments through cashback incentives, the maximum annual cashback is ₹1,200 (₹100 per month), not ₹1,600. Furthermore, these incentives are specifically for digital transactions (digital receipts/payments) performed by the street vendor, not generally for “retail and wholesale transactions.”
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme features a Graded Guarantee Cover for the loans sanctioned to street vendors. This credit guarantee is administered by the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) on a portfolio basis.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the “SVANidhi se Samriddhi” initiative, the government organizes socio-economic profiling of beneficiaries and their families to link them with eight other Central Government welfare schemes (such as PM-JAY, PMJJBY, and PMSBY). These linkages are often facilitated through camps and melas to ensure holistic social security for street vendors.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: While PM SVANidhi does promote digital payments through cashback incentives, the maximum annual cashback is ₹1,200 (₹100 per month), not ₹1,600. Furthermore, these incentives are specifically for digital transactions (digital receipts/payments) performed by the street vendor, not generally for “retail and wholesale transactions.”
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme features a Graded Guarantee Cover for the loans sanctioned to street vendors. This credit guarantee is administered by the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) on a portfolio basis.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the “SVANidhi se Samriddhi” initiative, the government organizes socio-economic profiling of beneficiaries and their families to link them with eight other Central Government welfare schemes (such as PM-JAY, PMJJBY, and PMSBY). These linkages are often facilitated through camps and melas to ensure holistic social security for street vendors.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
With reference to the Controller General of Accounts (CGA), consider the following statements:
1. CGA is the principal accounting adviser to the Union Government and works under the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
2. Unlike the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), CGA is a non-constitutional authority.
3. CGA is responsible for auditing the accounts of State Governments.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Controller General of Accounts (CGA) is the principal accounting adviser to the Union Government. It functions under the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. Its primary role is to develop and maintain a sound management accounting system for the Union Government.
Statement 2 is correct: The CGA is a non-constitutional (statutory/departmental) authority derived from the allocation of business rules. In contrast, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The CGA is not responsible for auditing accounts; auditing is the mandate of the CAG. Furthermore, the CGA’s jurisdiction is limited to the Union Government’s accounts. The preparation and audit of State Government accounts are handled by the CAG (through the Accountants General in various states).
Key Differences: CGA vs. CAG
Feature Controller General of Accounts (CGA) Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) Status Non-Constitutional (Departmental) Constitutional (Article 148) Primary Function Accounting (Preparing accounts) Auditing (Checking accounts) Ministry Ministry of Finance (Dept. of Expenditure) Independent Constitutional Body Scope Union Government only Union and State Governments Reporting Reports to the Finance Minister Reports to the President/Governor (who lays reports before Parliament/Legislature) Note on Separation of Accounts: The separation of accounts from audit in the Central Government took place in 1976, leading to the creation of the departmentalized accounting system headed by the CGA.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Controller General of Accounts (CGA) is the principal accounting adviser to the Union Government. It functions under the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. Its primary role is to develop and maintain a sound management accounting system for the Union Government.
Statement 2 is correct: The CGA is a non-constitutional (statutory/departmental) authority derived from the allocation of business rules. In contrast, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The CGA is not responsible for auditing accounts; auditing is the mandate of the CAG. Furthermore, the CGA’s jurisdiction is limited to the Union Government’s accounts. The preparation and audit of State Government accounts are handled by the CAG (through the Accountants General in various states).
Key Differences: CGA vs. CAG
Feature Controller General of Accounts (CGA) Comptroller & Auditor General (CAG) Status Non-Constitutional (Departmental) Constitutional (Article 148) Primary Function Accounting (Preparing accounts) Auditing (Checking accounts) Ministry Ministry of Finance (Dept. of Expenditure) Independent Constitutional Body Scope Union Government only Union and State Governments Reporting Reports to the Finance Minister Reports to the President/Governor (who lays reports before Parliament/Legislature) Note on Separation of Accounts: The separation of accounts from audit in the Central Government took place in 1976, leading to the creation of the departmentalized accounting system headed by the CGA.
