Daily Prelims Test (Day-11)
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Daily Prelims Test (Day-11)
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
With reference to the distribution of legislative powers in India, consider the following statements:
1. Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on subjects enumerated in the Union List.
2. In exceptional circumstances, Parliament may legislate on subjects in the State List.
3. A State Legislature may legislate on matters in the Union List if authorized by Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 246 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Union List (List I).
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution provides five exceptional circumstances where Parliament can legislate on items in the State List (List II), such as when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution (Art. 249), during a National Emergency (Art. 250), or when two or more states request it (Art. 252).
Statement 3 is incorrect: A State Legislature cannot legislate on matters in the Union List under any circumstances. While the Union can delegate executive functions to a state (with consent), the legislative power over List I remains strictly with Parliament to maintain national uniformity.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 246 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Union List (List I).
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution provides five exceptional circumstances where Parliament can legislate on items in the State List (List II), such as when the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution (Art. 249), during a National Emergency (Art. 250), or when two or more states request it (Art. 252).
Statement 3 is incorrect: A State Legislature cannot legislate on matters in the Union List under any circumstances. While the Union can delegate executive functions to a state (with consent), the legislative power over List I remains strictly with Parliament to maintain national uniformity.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Parliament’s power to legislate on matters in the State List:
1. Parliament may legislate on a matter in the State List if the Council of States declares by resolution that it is necessary in the national interest.
2. Such a resolution must be passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) declares by resolution that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws regarding a matter in the State List, Parliament becomes empowered to legislate on that subject.
Statement 2 is incorrect: For such a resolution to be valid, it must be passed by a special majority, specifically a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. A simple majority is insufficient for this particular constitutional provision.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, if the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) declares by resolution that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws regarding a matter in the State List, Parliament becomes empowered to legislate on that subject.
Statement 2 is incorrect: For such a resolution to be valid, it must be passed by a special majority, specifically a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. A simple majority is insufficient for this particular constitutional provision.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
With reference to the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule, consider the following statements:
1. Both Parliament and State Legislatures are competent to enact laws on matters enumerated in the Concurrent List.
2. In the event of inconsistency between a Central law and a State law on a Concurrent List subject, the State law automatically prevails.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 246, both the Parliament and the State Legislatures have the power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List (List III).
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 254, if there is a conflict or inconsistency between a Central law and a State law on a Concurrent subject, the Central law prevails and the State law becomes void to the extent of the repugnancy.
The Important Exception: There is one specific scenario where a State law can prevail over a Central law on a Concurrent subject: if the State law was reserved for the President’s consideration and received the President’s assent, it will prevail in that particular state. However, Parliament can still override this later by enacting a fresh law on the same matter.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 246, both the Parliament and the State Legislatures have the power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the Concurrent List (List III).
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to Article 254, if there is a conflict or inconsistency between a Central law and a State law on a Concurrent subject, the Central law prevails and the State law becomes void to the extent of the repugnancy.
The Important Exception: There is one specific scenario where a State law can prevail over a Central law on a Concurrent subject: if the State law was reserved for the President’s consideration and received the President’s assent, it will prevail in that particular state. However, Parliament can still override this later by enacting a fresh law on the same matter.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding residuary legislative powers in India:
1. Matters not enumerated in the Union List, State List or Concurrent List fall within the legislative competence of Parliament.
2. Residuary powers include the authority to impose taxes not mentioned in any of the three lists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. These are known as “residuary powers,” and they ensure that unforeseen or emerging subjects such as cyber law or space exploration can be governed uniformly across the country.
Statement 2 is correct: Clause (2) of Article 248 explicitly states that the Parliament’s residuary power “shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists”.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. These are known as “residuary powers,” and they ensure that unforeseen or emerging subjects such as cyber law or space exploration can be governed uniformly across the country.
Statement 2 is correct: Clause (2) of Article 248 explicitly states that the Parliament’s residuary power “shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists”.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
With reference to the reservation of State Bills for Presidential consideration, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor may reserve a bill for the consideration of the President.
2. The President may return such a bill for reconsideration of the State Legislature.
3. The Constitution prescribes a time limit within which the President must decide on the bill.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 200 of the Constitution, when a bill passed by a State Legislature is presented to the Governor, they have the discretionary power to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President. This is mandatory if the bill endangers the position of the State High Court.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 201, if the bill is not a Money Bill, the President may direct the Governor to return it to the State Legislature for reconsideration. The Legislature must then reconsider the bill within six months.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not prescribe a time limit within which the President must decide on a reserved bill. While a two-judge bench of the Supreme Court briefly attempted to set a three-month deadline in April 2025 (in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu), a five-judge Constitution Bench clarified in November 2025 that the judiciary cannot impose binding timelines on the President as it would be contrary to the “elasticity” intended by the Constitution’s framers.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 200 of the Constitution, when a bill passed by a State Legislature is presented to the Governor, they have the discretionary power to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President. This is mandatory if the bill endangers the position of the State High Court.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 201, if the bill is not a Money Bill, the President may direct the Governor to return it to the State Legislature for reconsideration. The Legislature must then reconsider the bill within six months.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not prescribe a time limit within which the President must decide on a reserved bill. While a two-judge bench of the Supreme Court briefly attempted to set a three-month deadline in April 2025 (in State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu), a five-judge Constitution Bench clarified in November 2025 that the judiciary cannot impose binding timelines on the President as it would be contrary to the “elasticity” intended by the Constitution’s framers.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Consider the following Commissions with their focus areas:
Commission Focus Sarkaria Commission Centre-State relations Punchhi Commission Review of federal relations Finance Commission Distribution of tax revenues How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sarkaria Commission (Centre-State relations): Established in 1983 and headed by Justice R.S. Sarkaria, this commission was specifically tasked with examining the relationship and balance of power between the Union and the States. It made over 247 recommendations, including the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
Punchhi Commission (Review of federal relations): Formed in 2007 under the chairmanship of Madan Mohan Punchhi, this was the second commission on Centre-State relations. It was mandated to review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and States, effectively revisiting and updating federal relations in light of changes since the Sarkaria report.
Finance Commission (Distribution of tax revenues): Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the primary role of the Finance Commission of India is to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States (vertical devolution) and among the states themselves (horizontal devolution).
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Sarkaria Commission (Centre-State relations): Established in 1983 and headed by Justice R.S. Sarkaria, this commission was specifically tasked with examining the relationship and balance of power between the Union and the States. It made over 247 recommendations, including the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
Punchhi Commission (Review of federal relations): Formed in 2007 under the chairmanship of Madan Mohan Punchhi, this was the second commission on Centre-State relations. It was mandated to review the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and States, effectively revisiting and updating federal relations in light of changes since the Sarkaria report.
Finance Commission (Distribution of tax revenues): Under Article 280 of the Constitution, the primary role of the Finance Commission of India is to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States (vertical devolution) and among the states themselves (horizontal devolution).
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
With reference to the Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council under Article 263.
2. The establishment of the Council is mandatory under the Constitution.
3. One of its functions is to facilitate coordination of policy and action between the Union and the States.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to establish an Inter-State Council if at any time it appears that the “public interests would be served” by its creation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The establishment of the Council is not mandatory. The language of Article 263 uses the phrase “if at any time it appears to the President,” making its creation discretionary rather than a constitutional requirement. While the Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended it be a permanent body, it was only first formally set up in 1990 by a Presidential Order.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the core constitutional duties of the Council is making recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action between the Union and the States, or among the States themselves.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution, the President is empowered to establish an Inter-State Council if at any time it appears that the “public interests would be served” by its creation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The establishment of the Council is not mandatory. The language of Article 263 uses the phrase “if at any time it appears to the President,” making its creation discretionary rather than a constitutional requirement. While the Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended it be a permanent body, it was only first formally set up in 1990 by a Presidential Order.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the core constitutional duties of the Council is making recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action between the Union and the States, or among the States themselves.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
With reference to Inter-State River Water Disputes, consider the following statements:
1. Parliament may provide by law for the adjudication of disputes relating to the waters of inter-State rivers.
2. Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction over such disputes.
3. Adjudicatory tribunals for such disputes are constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 262(1) of the Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to provide by law for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution, and control of waters of any inter-state river or river valley.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 262(2), Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction over such disputes. This is a rare constitutional provision that allows the exclusion of the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction (under Article 131) in specific matters.
Statement 3 is correct: In exercise of the powers under Article 262, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956. This Act provides the legal framework for the Central Government to establish ad-hoc tribunals (such as the Cauvery or Krishna Water Disputes Tribunals) to adjudicate water disputes between states when negotiations fail.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 262(1) of the Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to provide by law for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution, and control of waters of any inter-state river or river valley.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 262(2), Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction over such disputes. This is a rare constitutional provision that allows the exclusion of the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction (under Article 131) in specific matters.
Statement 3 is correct: In exercise of the powers under Article 262, Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956. This Act provides the legal framework for the Central Government to establish ad-hoc tribunals (such as the Cauvery or Krishna Water Disputes Tribunals) to adjudicate water disputes between states when negotiations fail.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
During the operation of a National Emergency, which of the following consequences may follow?
1. Parliament acquires the power to legislate on matters in the State List.
2. The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond five years.
3. The freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 may remain suspended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 250 of the Constitution of India, when a National Emergency is in operation, the Parliament is empowered to legislate on subjects in the State List, which normally fall within the exclusive legislative domain of the State Legislatures. This provision temporarily alters the federal balance in favor of the Union so that national interests can be effectively addressed during extraordinary situations. However, such laws do not remain permanent; they cease to operate six months after the emergency ends, unless they are re-enacted under normal constitutional provisions.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 83(2), the term of the Lok Sabha, which is normally five years, may be extended by Parliament during a National Emergency. The extension can be granted for one year at a time, provided the emergency continues. However, the Constitution places a safeguard: the Lok Sabha cannot remain extended beyond six months after the National Emergency has ceased to operate. This provision ensures continuity of governance during crisis situations when conducting general elections may not be feasible.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 358, when a National Emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression, the six freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended for the duration of the emergency. During this period, the State can make laws or take executive actions that may otherwise violate Article 19 freedoms. However, after the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), this automatic suspension does not apply when the emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion. Since the question uses the phrase “may remain suspended”, the statement is considered correct in the context of emergencies declared due to war or external aggression.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 250 of the Constitution of India, when a National Emergency is in operation, the Parliament is empowered to legislate on subjects in the State List, which normally fall within the exclusive legislative domain of the State Legislatures. This provision temporarily alters the federal balance in favor of the Union so that national interests can be effectively addressed during extraordinary situations. However, such laws do not remain permanent; they cease to operate six months after the emergency ends, unless they are re-enacted under normal constitutional provisions.
Statement 2 is correct: According to Article 83(2), the term of the Lok Sabha, which is normally five years, may be extended by Parliament during a National Emergency. The extension can be granted for one year at a time, provided the emergency continues. However, the Constitution places a safeguard: the Lok Sabha cannot remain extended beyond six months after the National Emergency has ceased to operate. This provision ensures continuity of governance during crisis situations when conducting general elections may not be feasible.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 358, when a National Emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression, the six freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended for the duration of the emergency. During this period, the State can make laws or take executive actions that may otherwise violate Article 19 freedoms. However, after the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), this automatic suspension does not apply when the emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion. Since the question uses the phrase “may remain suspended”, the statement is considered correct in the context of emergencies declared due to war or external aggression.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
With reference to President’s Rule in a State, consider the following statements:
1. It may be proclaimed if the President is satisfied that the governance of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
2. The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month of its issue.
3. It may continue indefinitely so long as Parliament grants periodic approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, the President can proclaim President’s Rule if he is satisfied (based on a report from the Governor or otherwise) that a situation has arisen where the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue, not one month. The one-month deadline applies to a National Emergency (Article 352).
Statement 3 is incorrect: President’s Rule cannot continue indefinitely. It has a maximum limit of three years. Furthermore, beyond one year, it can only be extended in six-month increments if a National Emergency is in operation or the Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be held.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, the President can proclaim President’s Rule if he is satisfied (based on a report from the Governor or otherwise) that a situation has arisen where the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue, not one month. The one-month deadline applies to a National Emergency (Article 352).
Statement 3 is incorrect: President’s Rule cannot continue indefinitely. It has a maximum limit of three years. Furthermore, beyond one year, it can only be extended in six-month increments if a National Emergency is in operation or the Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be held.
