Daily Prelims Test (Day-14)

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 155, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. According to Article 156(1), the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. This means the President can remove a Governor at any time without assigning a reason (though the Supreme Court in the B.P. Singhal case noted this power shouldn’t be exercised arbitrarily).

Statement 2 is incorrect: While Article 156(3) states that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years, this term is subject to the pleasure of the President. Therefore, the tenure is not fixed in the sense that it cannot be curtailed; a Governor can be removed or asked to resign before the five-year period ends.

Statement 3 is correct: The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 amended Article 153 to provide that “nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States.”

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 157, a person must be a citizen of India to be eligible for appointment as a Governor.

Statement 2 is correct: Also under Article 157, the person must have completed the age of 35 years.

Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 158(2), the Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. This is a “Condition of Office” that functions as a disqualification if not met.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Constitution does not require a person to be a resident of the state where they are appointed. In fact, there is a long-standing political convention (recommended by the Sarkaria Commission) that the Governor should be an “outsider” meaning they should not belong to the state where they are appointed to ensure they remain a neutral figure in state politics.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Reserving a Bill (Constitutional Discretion): Under Article 200, the Governor can reserve a bill for the President’s consideration. While usually done on advice, the Governor can exercise this independently if they believe the bill violates the Constitution or endangers the High Court’s position.

Recommending President’s Rule (Constitutional Discretion): Under Article 356, the Governor sends a report to the President stating that the state government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. This is a personal assessment and is not done on the advice of the State Cabinet.

Appointing the Chief Minister (Situational Discretion): When no single party or coalition has a clear majority after an election, the Governor must use their own judgment to invite the person most likely to command a majority.

Dissolving the Assembly (Situational Discretion): While the Governor normally dissolves the Assembly on the advice of the Chief Minister, they can exercise discretion if the Council of Ministers has lost the majority or if the Chief Minister’s advice is deemed to be for a narrow partisan purpose rather than the public interest.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 168 of the Constitution, for every State, there is a Legislature which consists of the Governor and either one House (Legislative Assembly) or two Houses (Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council).

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not mandate a bicameral legislature for all states. It provides a choice between a unicameral (only Legislative Assembly) and a bicameral system. As of 2026, only six states Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh have a bicameral legislature.

Statement 3 is correct: According to Article 169, the Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council in a state if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution to that effect. This resolution must be passed by a special majority (a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting).

Answer: B

Explanation:

Based on Article 171(3) of the Indian Constitution, the composition of the Legislative Council includes:

• • 1) Members elected by local authorities: Approximately 1/3 of members.
  • 2) Members elected by graduates: 1/12 of members.
  • 3) Members nominated by the Governor: 1/6 of members, specifically from fields like literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.

Category 4 is incorrect because Members of Parliament (MPs) do not elect Legislative Council members; rather, 1/3 are elected by state MLAs.

Full Composition Breakdown (Article 171)

• • 1/3: Elected by Local Authorities
  • 1/3: Elected by State MLAs
  • 1/12: Elected by Graduates (3+ years)
  • 1/12: Elected by Teachers (Secondary+ level, 3+ years)
  • 1/6: Nominated by Governor

Answer: D

Explanation: All three statements correctly reflect the major milestones in the evolution of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India:

Statement 1 is correct: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (appointed in 1957) was the first to recommend a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, consisting of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level.

Statement 2 is correct: The Ashok Mehta Committee (appointed in 1977) recommended replacing the three-tier system with a two-tier system, comprising the Zila Parishad at the district level and the Mandal Panchayat for a group of villages.

Statement 3 is correct: The G.V.K. Rao Committee (appointed in 1985) emphasized that the Zila Parishad should be the pivotal body for rural development and poverty alleviation programs. It notably referred to the Panchayati Raj system at that time as “grass without roots” due to excessive bureaucratization.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The SEC is solely responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities. (Note: Elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by the Election Commission of India).

Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 243K(1), the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the State.

Statement 3 is correct: To ensure independence, the Constitution provides that the State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court. This means they can only be removed by the President following a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 243-I and Article 243-Y of the Constitution, the Governor of a State is required to constitute a State Finance Commission (SFC) at the expiration of every fifth year. This was introduced by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts to strengthen local self-government.

Statement 2 is correct: The primary function of the SFC is to review the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities and make recommendations to the Governor regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees between the State government and the local bodies. It also recommends the principles for providing grants-in-aid to these bodies from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The recommendations made by the State Finance Commission are advisory in nature and are not binding on the State government. The State government can choose to accept, reject, or partially implement the recommendations.

Answer: D

Explanation: All four are recognised forms of urban local governance in India. While they serve different purposes and population types, they collectively form the structure for administering urban areas.

Explanation of Urban Local Bodies

Municipal Corporation: These are established for the administration of large urban areas (big cities) with high populations, typically exceeding one million.

Municipality (Municipal Council): These are set up for smaller cities and towns that do not yet justify a full corporation.

Nagar Panchayat: These govern transitional areas, which are regions currently evolving from a rural character to an urban setup.

Cantonment Board: These are unique urban bodies established under the Cantonments Act, 2006, to provide municipal services to the civilian population living in areas where military forces are permanently stationed.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 243ZD of the Constitution, the primary function of the District Planning Committee (DPC) is to consolidate the plans prepared by the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district. It then prepares a draft development plan for the district as a whole.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Provisions for District Planning Committees were introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 (which deals with Municipalities), not the 73rd Amendment (which focuses on Panchayats). The DPC is established under Article 243ZD, which falls within Part IX-A of the Constitution.

Statement 3 is correct: The DPC aims to facilitate integrated rural and urban development planning by serving as a bridge between the two levels of local governance. In preparing the draft plan, it must have regard to matters of common interest between Panchayats and Municipalities, such as spatial planning, sharing of water and natural resources, and environmental conservation.