DTRS-6
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT):
1.It has appellate jurisdiction over decisions of the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT).
2.Only retired Supreme Court judges can be appointed as Chairperson of the NCLAT.
3.Decisions of the NCLAT can be challenged directlyin the High Courts.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) Chennai on 6 December 2024 told Manipal Group Chief Ranjan Pai-backed Aakash Educational Services Ltd. to move an application before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Bengaluru, to lift the stay granted by the latter for amending the company’s Articles of Association (AoA).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The NCLAT does not have appellate jurisdiction over the decisions of the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT). NCLAT primarily deals with appeals against the orders passed by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under the Companies Act, 2013 and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). DRT decisions are appealed in the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT), not in NCLAT. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairperson of NCLAT is typically a retired Chief Justice of India (CJI) or a retired Supreme Court judge, but this is not a strict requirement. The Chairperson can also be a retired Chief Justice of a High Court, as long as they have relevant judicial experience and qualifications.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Decisions of the NCLAT can be appealed to the Supreme Court of India, not directly to the High Courts. Under Section 62 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), an appeal from the NCLAT lies directly to the Supreme Court, and not to the High Courts.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/business/nclat-tells-aakash-to-move-appeal-before-nclt-to-lift-stay-granted- on-amending-its-articles-of-association/article68955837.eceIncorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) Chennai on 6 December 2024 told Manipal Group Chief Ranjan Pai-backed Aakash Educational Services Ltd. to move an application before the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), Bengaluru, to lift the stay granted by the latter for amending the company’s Articles of Association (AoA).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The NCLAT does not have appellate jurisdiction over the decisions of the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT). NCLAT primarily deals with appeals against the orders passed by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under the Companies Act, 2013 and the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). DRT decisions are appealed in the Debt Recovery Appellate Tribunal (DRAT), not in NCLAT. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chairperson of NCLAT is typically a retired Chief Justice of India (CJI) or a retired Supreme Court judge, but this is not a strict requirement. The Chairperson can also be a retired Chief Justice of a High Court, as long as they have relevant judicial experience and qualifications.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Decisions of the NCLAT can be appealed to the Supreme Court of India, not directly to the High Courts. Under Section 62 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), an appeal from the NCLAT lies directly to the Supreme Court, and not to the High Courts.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/business/nclat-tells-aakash-to-move-appeal-before-nclt-to-lift-stay-granted- on-amending-its-articles-of-association/article68955837.ece -
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Q2. The Lekki Deep Sea Port, recently seen in the news, is located in which of the following countries?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, during the PM Visit to Nigeria, both countries discussed “India’s strategic focus on West Africa”.The visit highlights India’s rising global stature, demonstrated by the PM receiving Nigeria’s second-highest national award, the Grand Commander of the Order of the Niger, a rare honour previously conferred on Queen Elizabeth II.
About the Lekki Deep Sea Port:
Lekki Deep Sea Port is located in the Lagos Free Zone, Nigeria.
It is the largest seaport in Nigeria and one of the largest in West Africa.
It began full commercial operations in April 2023 and is the country’s only operating deep sea port.
Capacity and Operations:
The port is designed to handle a significant cargo volume, including containers and bulk cargoes.
In its expanded phase, it will have a capacity of 6 million TEUs (Twenty-Foot Equivalent Units) for containers and will handle both liquid and dry bulk cargo.
The port is designed to accommodate ships carrying over 14,500 containers.
Development Phases:
The port development is taking place in phases.
Phase one, which started operation in 2023, includes three container berths (1.8 million TEUs capacity) two berths for liquid cargo and one for dry bulk.
Financing and Area:
The port is funded by private investors and a consortium of banks, amounting to a $1.5 billion investment as of March 2021.
The port occupies 90 hectares of land.
Design and Infrastructure:
The port layout, including the approach channel, turning circle, and harbor basins, was optimized for future expansion.
The main breakwater is 1.5 km long, built using rubble mound with geo-bag core for near-shore sections and composite breakwater for exposed sections.
A secondary barrier replaces the secondary breakwater, with a revetment and artificial beach.
The turning circle has a 600-meter radius, allowing vessels up to 16,000 TEUs to dock.
The approach channel extends 11 km in length.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/indias-strategic-focus-on-west-africa/article68946565.eceIncorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, during the PM Visit to Nigeria, both countries discussed “India’s strategic focus on West Africa”.The visit highlights India’s rising global stature, demonstrated by the PM receiving Nigeria’s second-highest national award, the Grand Commander of the Order of the Niger, a rare honour previously conferred on Queen Elizabeth II.
About the Lekki Deep Sea Port:
Lekki Deep Sea Port is located in the Lagos Free Zone, Nigeria.
It is the largest seaport in Nigeria and one of the largest in West Africa.
It began full commercial operations in April 2023 and is the country’s only operating deep sea port.
Capacity and Operations:
The port is designed to handle a significant cargo volume, including containers and bulk cargoes.
In its expanded phase, it will have a capacity of 6 million TEUs (Twenty-Foot Equivalent Units) for containers and will handle both liquid and dry bulk cargo.
The port is designed to accommodate ships carrying over 14,500 containers.
Development Phases:
The port development is taking place in phases.
Phase one, which started operation in 2023, includes three container berths (1.8 million TEUs capacity) two berths for liquid cargo and one for dry bulk.
Financing and Area:
The port is funded by private investors and a consortium of banks, amounting to a $1.5 billion investment as of March 2021.
The port occupies 90 hectares of land.
Design and Infrastructure:
The port layout, including the approach channel, turning circle, and harbor basins, was optimized for future expansion.
The main breakwater is 1.5 km long, built using rubble mound with geo-bag core for near-shore sections and composite breakwater for exposed sections.
A secondary barrier replaces the secondary breakwater, with a revetment and artificial beach.
The turning circle has a 600-meter radius, allowing vessels up to 16,000 TEUs to dock.
The approach channel extends 11 km in length.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/indias-strategic-focus-on-west-africa/article68946565.ece -
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Q3. Consider the following statement about the Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA):
1.It is the national rating system of India for any completed building construction.
2.It was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
Inland Waterways Authority of India’s Intermodal Terminal (IMT) at Kalughat in Bihar has recently received five star SVAGRIHA rating from the GRIHA council.
Statement 1 is correct: The Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is the national rating
system of India for any completed building construction.
• GRIHA is recognised as India’s own green building rating system in India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC) submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was conceived by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) and developed
jointly with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080813Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
Inland Waterways Authority of India’s Intermodal Terminal (IMT) at Kalughat in Bihar has recently received five star SVAGRIHA rating from the GRIHA council.
Statement 1 is correct: The Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is the national rating
system of India for any completed building construction.
• GRIHA is recognised as India’s own green building rating system in India’s Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC) submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was conceived by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) and developed
jointly with the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080813 -
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Q4. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA), consider the following statements:
1.It aims to make six crore rural households digitallyliterate.
2.It targets the youth exclusively, aged between 15 to 25 years, for digital literacy training.
3.It is being implemented under the aegis of theMinistry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Context:
Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) was launched by the Government of India
to promote digital literacy in rural India. The aim was to reach 6 crore rural households (one person per household) nationwide. The scheme has ended, as against 6 crore, 6.39 crore individuals were trained across the country as of March 31, 2024.
Statement 1 is correct: The Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) aims to make 6
crore rural households digitally literate, focusing on imparting basic digital literacy skills to rural citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect: The PMGDISHA does not target only youth aged 15 to 25 years. It is aimed at all rural citizens, especially those in the age group of 14 to 60 years, with a particular focus on empowering women, differently-abled individuals, and those from disadvantaged backgrounds.
Statement 3 is incorrect: PMGDISHA is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Rural Development. MeitY is the primary body overseeing the program, with state governments and other stakeholders assisting in implementation.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080854#:~:text=The%20aim%20was%20to%20reach,as%2 0on%20March%2031%2C%202024.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Context:
Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) was launched by the Government of India
to promote digital literacy in rural India. The aim was to reach 6 crore rural households (one person per household) nationwide. The scheme has ended, as against 6 crore, 6.39 crore individuals were trained across the country as of March 31, 2024.
Statement 1 is correct: The Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) aims to make 6
crore rural households digitally literate, focusing on imparting basic digital literacy skills to rural citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect: The PMGDISHA does not target only youth aged 15 to 25 years. It is aimed at all rural citizens, especially those in the age group of 14 to 60 years, with a particular focus on empowering women, differently-abled individuals, and those from disadvantaged backgrounds.
Statement 3 is incorrect: PMGDISHA is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Rural Development. MeitY is the primary body overseeing the program, with state governments and other stakeholders assisting in implementation.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080854#:~:text=The%20aim%20was%20to%20reach,as%2 0on%20March%2031%2C%202024. -
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Q5.With reference to the biodiversity, Sting rays,Manta rays and Eagle rays are
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Context: According to a new study, the world’s sharks and rays have declined by more than 50 per cent since 1970. The primary reason for the decrease
has been overfishing, which has decimated populations of chondrichthyan fishes sharks, rays, and chimaeras by more than half in the past 50 years.
Sting rays, Manta rays and eagle rays are fishes. Rays are cartilaginous fish, which means they have skeletons made of cartilage.
Eagle Rays
Spotted eagle rays are easy to identify by the white spots on the dorsal side. Their size, from fin tip to fin is 6-8 feet or 2-3m.
They are usually found in shallow coastal waters and in warm and temperate oceans all over the world, where they feed on small fish and crustaceans. They find their food by digging with their snout through the sandy rubble.
Spotted eagle rays have venomous barbed stingers behind the pelvic fins, located by the tail. And as you can see in the picture below, they’re spotted all
over their backs – which gave them their name.
These guys are not aggressive and pose no danger unless you come too close; they are really shy and get spooked easily.
Manta Rays
The manta ray is the largest of the three ocean rays. There are two types: the reef manta we often encounter on our moonlight manta swim adventures – and the giant manta ray or pelagic manta, their more mysterious counterpart. Mature reef manta females can reach a ginormous 12-14 feet or 4-5m wingspan.
Reef mantas are found among coral reefs, in temperate to tropical waters worldwide.
They have no stinger, teeth or barb, their only way of defending themselves is to swim away.
Manta rays filter-feed on plankton with a complex system of brachial filters.
Sting Rays
Stingrays are rarely seen in the ocean around Hawaii as they live at a depth of more than 50 feet (deeper than 17 meters). That doesn’t mean they’re not
there though!
The Hawaiian Stingray is native to Hawaii and can grow to a wingspan of 3 feet (1m).
Hawaiian stingrays lay half-buried in the sea bed when resting and they are masters of camouflage. Their mouth is located underneath the body and their
diet consists of both invertebrates and bony fish.
Additional information:
·Reproduction: Rays give birth to live young, but they don’t have a placenta like mammals do. Instead, their embryos are sustained by a yolk sac for the first few weeks after birth.
·Other characteristics: Rays have strong jaws, flat stomachs, and venomous tails. They can live in oceans or freshwater, and some species can survive in both. Rays use electro-sensors called Ampullae of Lorenzini to find prey, instead of their eyes.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/over-50-decline-in-sharks-rays-since-1970-studyIncorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Context: According to a new study, the world’s sharks and rays have declined by more than 50 per cent since 1970. The primary reason for the decrease
has been overfishing, which has decimated populations of chondrichthyan fishes sharks, rays, and chimaeras by more than half in the past 50 years.
Sting rays, Manta rays and eagle rays are fishes. Rays are cartilaginous fish, which means they have skeletons made of cartilage.
Eagle Rays
Spotted eagle rays are easy to identify by the white spots on the dorsal side. Their size, from fin tip to fin is 6-8 feet or 2-3m.
They are usually found in shallow coastal waters and in warm and temperate oceans all over the world, where they feed on small fish and crustaceans. They find their food by digging with their snout through the sandy rubble.
Spotted eagle rays have venomous barbed stingers behind the pelvic fins, located by the tail. And as you can see in the picture below, they’re spotted all
over their backs – which gave them their name.
These guys are not aggressive and pose no danger unless you come too close; they are really shy and get spooked easily.
Manta Rays
The manta ray is the largest of the three ocean rays. There are two types: the reef manta we often encounter on our moonlight manta swim adventures – and the giant manta ray or pelagic manta, their more mysterious counterpart. Mature reef manta females can reach a ginormous 12-14 feet or 4-5m wingspan.
Reef mantas are found among coral reefs, in temperate to tropical waters worldwide.
They have no stinger, teeth or barb, their only way of defending themselves is to swim away.
Manta rays filter-feed on plankton with a complex system of brachial filters.
Sting Rays
Stingrays are rarely seen in the ocean around Hawaii as they live at a depth of more than 50 feet (deeper than 17 meters). That doesn’t mean they’re not
there though!
The Hawaiian Stingray is native to Hawaii and can grow to a wingspan of 3 feet (1m).
Hawaiian stingrays lay half-buried in the sea bed when resting and they are masters of camouflage. Their mouth is located underneath the body and their
diet consists of both invertebrates and bony fish.
Additional information:
·Reproduction: Rays give birth to live young, but they don’t have a placenta like mammals do. Instead, their embryos are sustained by a yolk sac for the first few weeks after birth.
·Other characteristics: Rays have strong jaws, flat stomachs, and venomous tails. They can live in oceans or freshwater, and some species can survive in both. Rays use electro-sensors called Ampullae of Lorenzini to find prey, instead of their eyes.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/over-50-decline-in-sharks-rays-since-1970-study -
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Dhimsa, a folk dance of Andhra Pradesh:
1.Dhimsa is performed by tribal communities such as the Bagata, Kondadora, and Valmiki tribes.
2.The dance incorporates movements representing everyday tribal life, such as harvesting and hunting.
3.It is traditionally performed during the Sankranti festival and requires participants to wear elaborate headgear and masks.
4.The choreography of Dhimsa involves alternating circular and linear formations with synchronized footwork.
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: Tribal women performed the Dhimsa folk dance in Vishakhapatnam in the opening ceremony of the All India Public Bus Transport Athletic Meet on November 6th.
Statement 1 is Correct: Dhimsa is a tribal dance form performed by communities such as the Bagata, Kondadora, and Valmiki tribes in Andhra Pradesh, particularly in the Araku Valley and Visakhapatnam regions. These tribes use Dhimsa as a means of expressing joy and unity during community gatherings and celebrations.
Statement 2 is Correct: The dance movements in Dhimsa are inspired by the daily lives of tribal people, reflecting activities like farming, hunting, and gathering. This connection to everyday life highlights their symbiotic relationship with nature, making the dance not only an art form but also a cultural narrative. Statement 3 is Incorrect: While Dhimsa is performed during significant festivals such as Sankranti, participants do not typically wear elaborate headgear or masks. Instead, they wear traditional tribal attire, which is simple yet colorful, often consisting of sarees for women, with natural ornaments and flowers as accessories. The absence of elaborate costumes emphasizes the dance’s authentic tribal roots. Statement 4 is Correct: The choreography of Dhimsa is unique, involving alternating circular and linear formations. Women hold hands or place arms on each other’s shoulders as they move gracefully to the rhythm of tribal instruments like the dhol and flute. The synchronization of steps and harmonious patterns symbolizes unity and community bonding.
Source:
Source: 1.TH image page ( date- 7th December 2024)
2.https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/dhimsa-dancers-seek-recognition- as-artists-1843171Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: Tribal women performed the Dhimsa folk dance in Vishakhapatnam in the opening ceremony of the All India Public Bus Transport Athletic Meet on November 6th.
Statement 1 is Correct: Dhimsa is a tribal dance form performed by communities such as the Bagata, Kondadora, and Valmiki tribes in Andhra Pradesh, particularly in the Araku Valley and Visakhapatnam regions. These tribes use Dhimsa as a means of expressing joy and unity during community gatherings and celebrations.
Statement 2 is Correct: The dance movements in Dhimsa are inspired by the daily lives of tribal people, reflecting activities like farming, hunting, and gathering. This connection to everyday life highlights their symbiotic relationship with nature, making the dance not only an art form but also a cultural narrative. Statement 3 is Incorrect: While Dhimsa is performed during significant festivals such as Sankranti, participants do not typically wear elaborate headgear or masks. Instead, they wear traditional tribal attire, which is simple yet colorful, often consisting of sarees for women, with natural ornaments and flowers as accessories. The absence of elaborate costumes emphasizes the dance’s authentic tribal roots. Statement 4 is Correct: The choreography of Dhimsa is unique, involving alternating circular and linear formations. Women hold hands or place arms on each other’s shoulders as they move gracefully to the rhythm of tribal instruments like the dhol and flute. The synchronization of steps and harmonious patterns symbolizes unity and community bonding.
Source:
Source: 1.TH image page ( date- 7th December 2024)
2.https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/andhra-pradesh/dhimsa-dancers-seek-recognition- as-artists-1843171 -
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Q7. Consider the following statements about ‘nafithromycin’:
1.It is India’s first indigenous macrolide antibiotic.
2.The drug is developed by the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
3.It has been proved ten times more effective than other drugs used to treat drug-resistant tuberculosis.
How many of the above statements are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: Nafithromycin: Country’s First Indigenous Antibiotic launched.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
About Nafithromycin:
Antimicrobial resistance has long been a growing global concern, with pharmaceutical companies striving to develop new medicines to combat it worldwide. Despite years of challenges and relentless effort, a breakthrough has finally emerged. After three decades of research and hard work, India has led the way with the creation of Nafithromycin, the country’s first indigenous macrolide antibiotic.
Ø So, statement 1 is correct.
(Note: Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections)
Statement 2 is correct:
Nafithromycin was officially launched on November 20, 2024.
Developed by Wockhardt with support from the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
Ø So, statement 2 is correct.
Nafithromycin, marketed as “Miqnaf,” targets Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP) caused by drug-resistant bacteria, which disproportionately affects vulnerable populations such as children, the elderly, and those with compromised immune systems.
Ø So, statement 3 is incorrect.
This groundbreaking antibiotic is ten times more effective than current treatments like azithromycin and offers a three-day treatment regimen, significantly shortening the recovery time while improving patient outcomes.
Nafithromycin is designed to treat both typical and atypical drug-resistant bacteria, making it a crucial tool in addressing the
global health crisis of AMR (Anti-microbial Resistance).
It boasts superior safety, minimal side effects, and no significant drug interactions.
The drug, which has undergone extensive clinical trials across the U.S., Europe, and India, has been developed with an investment of ₹500 crores and is now awaiting final approval from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO). Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081506Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: Nafithromycin: Country’s First Indigenous Antibiotic launched.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct
About Nafithromycin:
Antimicrobial resistance has long been a growing global concern, with pharmaceutical companies striving to develop new medicines to combat it worldwide. Despite years of challenges and relentless effort, a breakthrough has finally emerged. After three decades of research and hard work, India has led the way with the creation of Nafithromycin, the country’s first indigenous macrolide antibiotic.
Ø So, statement 1 is correct.
(Note: Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections)
Statement 2 is correct:
Nafithromycin was officially launched on November 20, 2024.
Developed by Wockhardt with support from the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC).
Ø So, statement 2 is correct.
Nafithromycin, marketed as “Miqnaf,” targets Community-Acquired Bacterial Pneumonia (CABP) caused by drug-resistant bacteria, which disproportionately affects vulnerable populations such as children, the elderly, and those with compromised immune systems.
Ø So, statement 3 is incorrect.
This groundbreaking antibiotic is ten times more effective than current treatments like azithromycin and offers a three-day treatment regimen, significantly shortening the recovery time while improving patient outcomes.
Nafithromycin is designed to treat both typical and atypical drug-resistant bacteria, making it a crucial tool in addressing the
global health crisis of AMR (Anti-microbial Resistance).
It boasts superior safety, minimal side effects, and no significant drug interactions.
The drug, which has undergone extensive clinical trials across the U.S., Europe, and India, has been developed with an investment of ₹500 crores and is now awaiting final approval from the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO). Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081506 -
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Q8. Consider the following statements about the Turner Prize:
1.It is awarded annually for excellence in classical painting and sculpture.
2.It was initially restricted to artists under the age of 50.
Which of the given above statements is/are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
Indian-origin artist Jasleen Kaur has won this year’s (2024) Turner Prize, which has helped many past
attract mainstream recognition and led to several controversies.winners
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Turner Prize is not limited to classical painting and sculpture. It is awarded for contemporary art in any medium, including painting, installation, sculpture, photography, video, and more. The prize is focused on innovative and experimental contemporary art, rather than classical forms. Statement 2 is correct: The Turner Prize was originally restricted to artists under the age of 50 when it was first established in 1984. However, this age limit was removed in 2017, allowing artists of all ages to be eligible.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/turner-prize-art-significance-faq-9710924/Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
Indian-origin artist Jasleen Kaur has won this year’s (2024) Turner Prize, which has helped many past
attract mainstream recognition and led to several controversies.winners
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Turner Prize is not limited to classical painting and sculpture. It is awarded for contemporary art in any medium, including painting, installation, sculpture, photography, video, and more. The prize is focused on innovative and experimental contemporary art, rather than classical forms. Statement 2 is correct: The Turner Prize was originally restricted to artists under the age of 50 when it was first established in 1984. However, this age limit was removed in 2017, allowing artists of all ages to be eligible.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/turner-prize-art-significance-faq-9710924/ -
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Q9. Which of the following statements is one significant advantage of “Nano Bubbles Technology” in agriculture?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
Union Minister of State for Forest, Environment and Climate Change, on 3rd Dec 2024, launched ‘Nano Bubble Technology’ to clean and purify the water of National Zoological Park, Delhi, to promote the health of aquatic animals.
Nano Bubble Technology involves the introduction of extremely small gas bubbles into water. These
bubbles have unique physical properties that can improve the solubility of nutrients in water, making them more accessible for plants to absorb. It is particularly beneficial because it enhances plants’ nutrient uptake. The plants can absorb essential nutrients more effectively, reducing the overall need for external fertilisers, which can have environmental impacts.
Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2080223Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
Union Minister of State for Forest, Environment and Climate Change, on 3rd Dec 2024, launched ‘Nano Bubble Technology’ to clean and purify the water of National Zoological Park, Delhi, to promote the health of aquatic animals.
Nano Bubble Technology involves the introduction of extremely small gas bubbles into water. These
bubbles have unique physical properties that can improve the solubility of nutrients in water, making them more accessible for plants to absorb. It is particularly beneficial because it enhances plants’ nutrient uptake. The plants can absorb essential nutrients more effectively, reducing the overall need for external fertilisers, which can have environmental impacts.
Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2080223 -
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the Punatsangchhu-II Hydropower Project:
1.It is a joint collaboration between India and Bhutan for hydropower development.
2.The project is located on the Wangchu River in Bhutan.
3.The project is a part of India’s Act East Policy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?Correct
Ans: B
Explanation:
Context:
India and Bhutan recently discussed hydropower projects, including the 1020 MW Punatsangchhu-II hydropower project, and expressed
satisfaction as it was “nearing completion”.
Statement 1 is correct: The Punatsangchhu-II Hydropower Project is a result of a collaboration between India and Bhutan, where India is providing financial support through a combination of grants and loans. The project aims to generate hydroelectric power for both Bhutan and India, with the electricity generated being shared between the two countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Punatsangchhu-II project is located on the Punatsangchhu River, not the Wangchu River. It is situated in the Wangdue Phodrang district of Bhutan, which is on the right bank of the Punatsangchhu River.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Punatsangchhu-II project is part of the broader India-Bhutan cooperation, particularly in hydropower development, but it is not directly related to India’s Act East Policy, which focuses on strengthening India’s ties with Southeast Asia. The hydropower projects like Punatsangchhu-II are more linked to India’s energy security and regional cooperation with Bhutan.
About Punatsangchhu-II Hydropower Project:
It is a 1 GW run-of-the-river hydroelectric power-generating facility under construction in the Wangdue Phodrang district of Bhutan. It is located on the right bank of the Punatsangchhu River in the Wangdue Phodrang district in Western Bhutan.
The project is being developed by the Punatsangchhu II Hydroelectric Project Authority, under an Inter-Government Agreement (IGA) between the Royal Government of Bhutan and the Government of India.
It is funded by the Government of India (GoI): 30% grant and 70% loan at 10% annual interest, repayable in 30 equated semi-annual installments commencing one year after the mean date of operation.
The project Authorityshall be dissolved within two years after the commissioning, and the project shall be handed over to the Royal
Government of Bhutan.
The project involvesthe construction of a 91m-high and 223.8m-long concrete gravity dam, along with an 877.46m-long and 12m-
diametre diversion tunnel with a discharge capacity of 1118 cubic metres per second.
The project also involves a 168.75m-long and 22m-high upper cofferdam and a 102.02m-long and 13.5m-tall downstream cofferdam. Upon commissioning, the Punatsangchhu II power plant is expected to generate approximately 4,357 million units of electricity annually. Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bhutan-and-india-discuss-gelephu-project-and-hydro-power-plans/article68952182.eceIncorrect
Ans: B
Explanation:
Context:
India and Bhutan recently discussed hydropower projects, including the 1020 MW Punatsangchhu-II hydropower project, and expressed
satisfaction as it was “nearing completion”.
Statement 1 is correct: The Punatsangchhu-II Hydropower Project is a result of a collaboration between India and Bhutan, where India is providing financial support through a combination of grants and loans. The project aims to generate hydroelectric power for both Bhutan and India, with the electricity generated being shared between the two countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Punatsangchhu-II project is located on the Punatsangchhu River, not the Wangchu River. It is situated in the Wangdue Phodrang district of Bhutan, which is on the right bank of the Punatsangchhu River.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Punatsangchhu-II project is part of the broader India-Bhutan cooperation, particularly in hydropower development, but it is not directly related to India’s Act East Policy, which focuses on strengthening India’s ties with Southeast Asia. The hydropower projects like Punatsangchhu-II are more linked to India’s energy security and regional cooperation with Bhutan.
About Punatsangchhu-II Hydropower Project:
It is a 1 GW run-of-the-river hydroelectric power-generating facility under construction in the Wangdue Phodrang district of Bhutan. It is located on the right bank of the Punatsangchhu River in the Wangdue Phodrang district in Western Bhutan.
The project is being developed by the Punatsangchhu II Hydroelectric Project Authority, under an Inter-Government Agreement (IGA) between the Royal Government of Bhutan and the Government of India.
It is funded by the Government of India (GoI): 30% grant and 70% loan at 10% annual interest, repayable in 30 equated semi-annual installments commencing one year after the mean date of operation.
The project Authorityshall be dissolved within two years after the commissioning, and the project shall be handed over to the Royal
Government of Bhutan.
The project involvesthe construction of a 91m-high and 223.8m-long concrete gravity dam, along with an 877.46m-long and 12m-
diametre diversion tunnel with a discharge capacity of 1118 cubic metres per second.
The project also involves a 168.75m-long and 22m-high upper cofferdam and a 102.02m-long and 13.5m-tall downstream cofferdam. Upon commissioning, the Punatsangchhu II power plant is expected to generate approximately 4,357 million units of electricity annually. Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bhutan-and-india-discuss-gelephu-project-and-hydro-power-plans/article68952182.ece
