DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS (APRIL 06, 2022)

THE PARLIAMENTARY PROCEEDINGS: BUDGET SESSION 2022

1. THE DELHI MUNICIPAL CORPORATION (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2022

THE CONTEXT: The Parliament passed Delhi Municipal Corporation (Amendment) Bill 2022 which seeks to merge three municipal corporations of Delhi into a single entity. 

THE EXPLANATION:

  • The Bill seeks to amend the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957 passed by Parliament.  The Act was amended in 2011 by Delhi Legislative Assembly to trifurcate the erstwhile Municipal Corporation of Delhi into: (i) North Delhi Municipal Corporation, (ii) South Delhi Municipal Corporation, and (iii) East Delhi Municipal Corporation.  The Bill seeks to unify the three corporations.
  • Unification of Municipal Corporations in Delhi:  The Bill replaces the three municipal corporations under the Act with one Corporation named the Municipal Corporation of Delhi.
  • Powers of the Delhi government: The Act as amended in 2011 empowers the Delhi government to decide various matters under the Act. These include: (i) total number of seats of councillors and number of seats reserved for members of the Scheduled Castes, (ii) division of the area of corporations into zones and wards, (iii) delimitation of wards, (iv) matters such as salary and allowances, and leave of absence of the Commissioner, (v) sanctioning of consolidation of loans by a corporation, and (vi) sanctioning suits for compensation against the Commissioner for loss or waste or misapplication of Municipal Fund or property.  Similarly, the Act mandates that the Commissioner will exercise his powers regarding building regulations under the general superintendence and directions of the Delhi government.  The Bill instead empowers the central government to decide these matters.
  • Number of Councillors: The Act provides that the number of seats in the three corporations taken together should not be more than 272.  The 14th Schedule to the Act specifies 272 wards across the three Corporations.  The Bill states that the total number of seats in the new Corporation should not be more than 250.
  • Removal of Director of Local Bodies: The Act provides for a Director of Local Bodies to assist the Delhi government and discharge certain functions which include: (i) coordinating between Corporations, (ii) framing recruitment Rules for various posts, and (iii) coordinating the collecting and sharing of toll tax collected by the respective Corporations.  The Bill omits the provision for a Director of Local Bodies.
  • Special officer to be appointed by the central government: The Bill provides that the central government may appoint a Special Officer to exercise powers of the Corporation until the first meeting of the Corporation is held after the commencement of the Bill.
  • E-governance system for citizens: The Bill adds that obligatory functions of the new Corporation will include establishing an e-governance system for citizen services on anytime-anywhere basis for better, accountable, and transparent administration.
  • Conditions of service for sweepers: The Act provides that a sweeper employed for doing house scavenging of a building would be required to give a reasonable cause or a 14 day notice before discontinuing his service.   The Bill seeks to omit this provision.

2. THE CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS, THE COST AND WORKS ACCOUNTANTS AND THE COMPANY SECRETARIES (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2021

THE CONTEXT: The Chartered Accountants, the Cost and Works Accountants and the Company Secretaries (Amendment) Bill, 2021 was passed by both the houses of the Parliament.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • The Bill seeks to amend
    • The Chartered Accountants Act, 1949,
    • The Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959, and
    • The Company Secretaries Act, 1980.
  • The three Acts provide for the regulation of the professions of chartered accountants, cost accountants and company secretaries, respectively.  The Bill seeks to strengthen the disciplinary mechanism under these Acts, and provide for time bound disposal of cases against members of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, the Institute of Cost Accountants of India and the Institute of Company Secretaries of India.

Key features of the Bill include:

  • Registration of firms: The Bill adds that firms must register with the Institutes by making an application to the respective Councils of the Institutes.  The Councils must maintain a register of firms containing details such as pendency of any actionable complaint or imposition of penalty against the firms.
  • Disciplinary Directorate: Under the Acts, the respective Councils of the three Institutes must each constitute a Disciplinary Directorate, headed by Director (Discipline) who is an officer of the Institute.  The Bill adds that each Directorate must also include at least two Joint Directors.
  • Under the Acts, on receiving a complaint, the Director arrives at a prima facie opinion on the alleged misconduct.  Depending on the misconduct, the Director places the matter before the Board of Discipline or the Disciplinary Committee.  The Bill amends this to empower the Directorate to independently initiate investigations against members or firms.  The Director must decide whether a complaint is actionable within 30 days of receiving such complaint.  If the complaint is actionable, the Director must submit a preliminary examination report to the Board or the Committee (as the case may be), within 30 days.  Under the Acts, a complaint may be withdrawn if permitted by the Board or Committee.  The Bill provides that a complaint filed with the Directorate will not be withdrawn under any circumstances.
  • Board of Discipline: Under the three Acts, each Council constitutes a Board of Discipline.  Members of the Board include: (i) presiding officer (having experience in law and knowledge of disciplinary matters), (ii) two members and (iii) Director (Discipline) as secretary.  Under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, one of the two members is nominated by the central government while the other is a member of the Council.  As per the other two Acts, both the members are from the Councils or the Institutes.
  • The Bill empowers the three Councils to constitute multiple Boards.  The presiding officer and one of the two members must not be a member of the institutes and will be nominated by the central government from a panel of persons provided by the Councils.  An officer of the Institute, of the rank of Deputy Secretary, will function as the Secretary of the Board.  After receiving the preliminary examination report, the Board must conclude its inquiry within 90 days.
  • Disciplinary Committee: Under the three Acts, the Councils constitute Disciplinary Committees consisting of: (i) Presiding Officer (President or Vice-President of the Council), (ii) two members elected from the Council, and (ii) two members nominated by the central government.  The Bill amends the Acts to provide that the Presiding Officer must not be a member of the institutes and shall be nominated by the central government.  The Committee must conclude its inquiry in 180 days from the receipt of preliminary examination report.
  • Penalties:  Under the Acts, in cases of professional or other misconduct the Committees may: (i) reprimand or remove the member from the register of the Institute, or (ii) impose a fine of up to five lakh rupees.  The Bill increases the maximum amount of fine to ten lakh rupees.  The Bill also adds that if a partner or owner of a firm is repeatedly found guilty of misconduct during last five years, the Committee may take certain actions against the firm.  The actions include: (i) prohibiting the firm from undertaking activities related to the profession of chartered account, cost accountant, or company secretary, as the case may be, for up to two years, or (ii) impose a fine of up to Rs 50 lakh.

Key Issues and Analysis

  • The Bill proposes to change the composition of the two disciplinary entities to allow for more external representation.  However, these external members will be selected from a panel of persons prepared by the three Councils.  This may be against the objective of resolving conflict of interest between the disciplinary and administrative functions of the three professional Councils.
  • The mandate of the proposed Coordination Committee may overlap with certain functions of the three Institutes.  Further, being chaired by the Secretary of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, it may impinge on the independence of the three Institutes.
  • The Bill provides for disclosure of pending complaints or actionable information against members and firms.  Disclosing details of pending complaints before finding guilt may tarnish their professional reputation.
  • Though the President will have a non-executive role, he will be held responsible for implementation of decisions of the Councils.

 THE POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

3. MULLAPERIYAR SUPERVISORY PANEL CONTINUES FOR A YEAR WHILE AUTHORITY: CENTRE TO SUPREME COURT

THE CONTEXT: The Central Government suggested to the Supreme Court to let the Mullaperiyar dam supervisory committee continue for a year, by which time the National Dam Safety Authority under the new Dam Safety Act will become fully functional.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • “According to the Government statement, during the period of one year, when the National Dam Safety Authority becomes fully functional, the Supervisory Committee on Mullaperiyar Dam may continue its functioning as per the existing mandate in regulating the operations of the Mullaperiyar dam”.
  • The Centre suggested that the Chief Secretaries of Tamil Nadu and Kerala be made accountable in order to ensure that the decisions of the supervisory committee on the maintenance and safety of the dam are duly complied with by the two States.
  • “To address the technical concerns of both the States, the Chief Secretaries of the States may be requested to nominate technical experts as members to participate in the meetings conducted by the supervisory committee. This would ensure accountability of the decisions/ action taken,” the Centre further recommended.

VALUE ADDITION:

ABOUT MULLAIPERIYAR DAM

  • It is a masonry gravity dam on the Periyar River in the Indian state of Kerala.
  • It was constructed between 1887 and 1895 and also reached an agreement to divert water eastwards to the Madras Presidency area.
  • The dam created the Periyar Thekkady reservoir, from which water was diverted eastwards via a tunnel to augment the small flow of the Vaigai River.
  • It originates from the Sivagiri hills of Western Ghats and flows through the Periyar National Park.
  • The main tributaries of Periyar are Muthirapuzha, Mullayar, Cheruthoni, and Perinjankutti.
  • According to a 999-year lease agreement made during British rule, the operational rights were handed over to Tamil Nadu.

Mullaiperiyar dam: The current dispute

The Supreme Court order came after a court-appointed supervisory committee had suggested 139.50 ft as the permissible level. The court has directed both states to go by the committee’s recommendation. Tamil Nadu had wanted the level increased to 142 ft as fixed by the Supreme Court in 2014, while Kerala wanted it within 139 ft as per a rule curve fixed until the end of the month.

Kerala’s stance: 

  • The state governments of Kerala have pointed out the unfairness of the 1886 lease agreement and its validity itself. Its core issue is the safety of the Mullaperiyar Dam. Kerala wants to decommission the 100+-year-old dam and construct a new one in its place, as not doing so will endanger many lives in the process.
  • The Kerala Government stated that it did not object to giving water to Tamil Nadu but pointed out that raising its level would add more pressure than the dam could take. The dams, as pointed out by Kerala, were leaking and had many structural faults.
  • In addition, the Kerala government has accused Tamil Nadu of adopting an “obsolete” gate operation schedule dating back to 1939.

Tamil Nadu’s Stance:

  • For Tamil Nadu, the Mullaperiyar dam and the diverted Periyar waters act as a lifeline for Theni, Madurai, Sivaganga, Dindigul and Ramnad districts, providing water for irrigation and drinking, and also for the generation of power in Lower Periyar Power Station.
  • Tamil Nadu argues that building a new dam is for gaining unfair tax revenues from developing states.
  • Tamil Nadu is not able to access data that is in Kerala’s terrain. There is no road built, the power supply has not been restored, although Tamil Nadu has paid for it.

THE GOVERNMENT SCHEMES IN THE NEWS

4. BUDGET FOR PRADHAN MANTRI ANNADATA AAY SANRAKSHAN ABHIYAN(PM-AASHA)

THE CONTEXT: Under PSS, Government has provided Government Guarantee amounting to Rs. 40,500/- cr. for extending cash credit facilities to Central Nodal Agencies i.e. NAFED & FCI for procurement of pulses, oilseeds & copra at Minimum Support Price (MSP). Central Nodal Agencies withdraw the required funds against the Government Guarantee for making payment of MSP value to farmers and other incidental costs involved in the PSS operations.

THE EXPLANATION:

Components of PM-AASHA

The new Umbrella Scheme includes the mechanism of ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers and is comprised of,

Price Support Scheme (PSS):

  • In Price Support Scheme (PSS), physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with proactive role of State governments. It is also decided that in addition to NAFED, Food Cooperation of India (FCI) will take up PSS operations in states /districts.
  • The procurement expenditure and losses due to procurement will be borne by Central Government as per norms.

Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS):

  • Under Price Deficiency Payment Scheme this scheme (PDPS), it is proposed to cover all oilseeds for which MSP is notified. In this direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/modal price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling his produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process. All payments will be done directly into the registered bank account of the farmer.
  • This scheme does not involve any physical procurement of crops as farmers are paid the difference between the MSP price and Sale/modal price on disposal in the notified market. The support of central government for PDPS will be given as per norms.

The pilot of the Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS):

  • Under this scheme, participation of the private sector in procurement operations will be piloted.
  • States have the option to roll out the scheme on a pilot basis in selected districts/APMCs involving private stockists.

Need for PM-AASHA:

  • A major issue with the MSP is its poor coverage. Further, there are certain problems with the implementation of MSP such as the procurement centres being far away resulting into heavy transportation cost, non-opening of Procurement centres timely, lack of covered storage/godowns facility for the temporary storage of produces, delays in payments, etc. Thus to address the gaps in the MSP system and give better returns to farmers, PM-AASHA is an important step.
  • Increasing MSP is not adequate and it is more important that farmers should get full benefit of the announced MSP. Further, it is essential that if price of the agriculture produce market is less than MSP, then in that case State Government and Central Government should purchase either at MSP or work in a manner to provide MSP for the farmers through some other mechanism.
  • A holistic approach of solving any issue is important rather than in fragments. Thus, to address issue of farmer’s income and enhancing livelihood, a compressive policy has been the need of the hour

Significance of PM-AASHA:

  1. Income Security to farmers: The policy is an important step to achieve government’s commitment to double farmers’ income by 2022. If properly implemented, the scheme is expected to help revive the rural economy by assuring better income to farmers and thus address farmers’ distress
  2. Stabilizing commodity markets: It will help in stabilising commodity markets and will also benefit the farmers by providing options to the state governments to compensate farmers when the market prices fall below MSP.
  3. Better coverage of MSP: MSP procurement system has been very poor both in terms of geography and the crops covered. The new scheme would ensure better coverage of MSP and provision of crop-wise procurement is expected to benefit both farmers and states.
  4. Reduce the need for physical procurement: The PDPS scheme under PM-AASHA will reduce the need for the government to physically procure food crops as the difference between the support and market prices can instead simply be paid in cash to the farmer.
  5. Reduce storage and wastage: As the need for physical procurement will reduce, it will also reduce the consequent needs for transport and store them and then dispose of them under PDS. This would also reduce wastage of grains/crops.
  6. Reduce food subsidy bill: In recent years, the government has been seeing the accumulation of large food grain stocks in its godowns over and above the buffer requirement. This entails storage and wastage costs that add on to the food subsidy bill. Thus the new policy would help in bringing down India’s food subsidy bill.

THE DATASHEET

5. THE CORPORATE DONATIONS TO POLITICAL PARTIES

VALUE ADDITION:

WHAT IS AN ELECTORAL BOND?

An electoral bond is like a promissory note that can be bought by any Indian citizen or company incorporated in India from select branches of State Bank of India. The citizen or corporate can then donate the same to any eligible political party of his/her choice. The bonds are similar to bank notes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are free of interest. An individual or party will be allowed to purchase these bonds digitally or through cheque.

How to use electoral bonds?

Using electoral bonds is quite simple. The bonds will be issued in multiples of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 100,000 and Rs 1 crore (the range of a bond is between Rs 1,000 to Rs 1 crore). These will be available at some branches of SBI. A donor with a KYC-compliant account can purchase the bonds and can then donate them to the party or individual of their choice. Now, the receiver can encash the bonds through the party’s verified account. The electoral bond will be valid only for fifteen days.

The 29 specified SBI branches are in cities such as New Delhi, Gandhinagar, Chandigarh, Bengaluru, Bhopal, Mumbai, Jaipur, Lucknow, Chennai, Kolkata and Guwahati.

When are the bonds available for purchase?

The electoral bonds are available for purchase for 10 days in the beginning of every quarter. The first 10 days of January, April, July and October has been specified by the government for purchase of electoral bonds. An additional period of 30 days shall be specified by the government in the year of Lok Sabha elections.

THE PRELIMS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

QUESTION OF THE DAY

Q1. Consider the following statements about Antarctic Treaty:

  1. It was signed in 1959 and came into force in 1961.
  2. India is the foundation member of this treaty.
  3. The Treaty covers the area south of 60°S latitude.
  4. Its one of the objective is to create a nuclear tests free zone.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

     a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2, 3 and 4 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) All of them

ANSWER FOR 5TH APRIL 2022

Answer: b)

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: It is built by the kings of the Ganga dynasty.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It is an example of Kalinga Architecture.



DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS (APRIL 05, 2022)

THE POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. UNIFORM CIVIL CODE OF UTTARAKHAND

THE CONTEXT: Uttarakhand’s CM recently announced, that his government will implement the Uniform Civil Code in the state soon. The state cabinet unanimously approved that a committee of experts will be constituted at the earliest and it will be implemented in the state.

THE EXPLANATION:

The CM has claimed that it will boost equal rights for everyone in the state and enhance social harmony, boost gender justice and strengthen women empowerment.

What is UCC?

  • The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) calls for the formulation of one law for India, which would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption.
  • The code comes under Article 44 of the Constitution, which lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
  • It is intended to replace the system of fragmented personal laws, which currently govern interpersonal relationships and related matters within different religious communities.

What Do We Have Now?

  • Different religious communities in India are currently governed by a system of personal laws, which have been codified over the years through various pieces of legislation.
  • These laws largely focus on the following areas: Marriage and divorce Custody and Guardianship Adoption and Maintenance Succession and
    • For example, Hindu personal law is codified in four bills: the Hindu Marriage Act, Hindu Succession Act, Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, and Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act. The term ‘Hindu’ also includes Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists for the purpose of these laws
  • Muslim personal law is not codified per se, and is based on their religious texts, though certain aspects of these are expressly recognised in India in acts such as the Shariat Application Act and Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act.
  • Christian marriages and divorces are governed by the Indian Christian Marriages Act and the Indian Divorce Act, while Zoroastrians are subject to the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act.
  • Then, there are more ‘secular’ laws, which disregard religion altogether, such as the Special Marriage Act, under which Inter-religion marriages take place, and the Guardians and Wards Act, which establishes the rights and duties of guardians.
  • Furthermore, to protect distinct regional identities, the Constitution makes certain exceptions for the states of Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Andhra Pradesh and Goa with respect to family law.
  • Goa is, at present, the only state in India with a uniform civil code.
  • The Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, which continues to be implemented after India annexed the territory in 1961, applies to all Goans, irrespective of their religious or ethnic community.

2. 13 NEW DISTRICTS INAUGURATED IN ANDHRA PRADESH

THE CONTEXT: Andhra Pradesh officially created 13 new districts taking the total number to 26.

THE EXPLANATION:

How are new districts carved?

The power to create new districts or alter or abolish existing districts rests with the State governments. This can either be done through an executive order or by passing a law in the State Assembly. Many States prefer the executive route by simply issuing a notification in the official gazette.

How does it help?

States argue that smaller districts lead to better administration and governance. For example, in 2016, the Assam government issued a notification to upgrade the Majuli sub-division to Majuli district for “administrative expediency”.

Does the Central government have a role to play here?

  • The Centre has no role to play in the alteration of districts or the creation of new ones. States are free to decide.
  • The Home Ministry comes into the picture when a State wants to change the name of a district or a railway station. The State government’s request is sent to other departments and agencies such as the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Intelligence Bureau, Department of Posts, Geographical Survey of India Sciences and the Railway Ministry seeking clearance. A no-objection certificate may be issued after examining their replies.

THE INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

3. BUDAPEST MEMORANDUM ON SECURITY ASSURANCES

THE CONTEXT: Budapest Memorandum on Security Assurances refers to three identical political agreements signed at the Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE) conference in Budapest, Hungary in 1994.

THE EXPLANATION:

About the memorandum

The Budapest Memorandum on Security Assurance, signed on December 5, 1994, sealed Ukraine’s membership in the NPT and its status as a non-nuclear country in return for security assurances. The signatories were the presidents of Ukraine, the US , Russia, and the British Prime Minister.

  • The signatories of the memorandum agreed to provide security assurances to Belarus, Kazakhstan, and Ukraine in return for their accession to the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
  • It came after the Lisbon Protocol of 1992, which made Ukraine, Belarus, and Kazakhstan parties to the first Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START I). It was a treaty signed by the US and the Soviet Union in 1991 to reduce the number of nuclear weapons.
  • As a result of the agreements and the memorandum, between 1993 and 1996, Belarus, Kazakhstan and Ukraine gave up their nuclear weapons and became non-nuclear states.
  • At that time, Ukraine had the world’s third-largest nuclear arsenal.

Signatories

  • The memorandum was originally signed by three nuclear powers: Russia, the USA, and the UK.
  • Later, China, and France, who became NPT members in 1992, also became signatories. However, they gave weaker individual assurances in separate documents.

Provisions

Russia, the US, and the UK agreed to the following:

  • Respect Belarusian, Kazakh & Ukrainian independence & sovereignty in existing borders.
  • Refrain from the threat or the use of force against Belarus, Kazakhstan, and Ukraine.
  • Refrain from using economic pressure on Belarus, Kazakhstan, and Ukraine to influence their politics.
  • Refrain from the use of nuclear arms against Belarus, Kazakhstan, and Ukraine.
  • Seek immediate UN Security Council action to assist Belarus, Kazakhstan, and Ukraine if they “should become a victim of an act of aggression or an object of a threat of aggression in which nuclear weapons are used”.
About OSCE

  • It works to build and sustain stability, peace and democracy for more than one billion people, through political dialogue and projects on the ground.
    • It works to prevent conflict, manage crises, and promote post-conflict rehabilitation.
    • It has a comprehensive approach to security encompassing three dimensions: (a) politico-military (b) economic and environmental (c)human dimension.
  • Origin– The OSCE’s origins date back to the early 1970s, to the Helsinki Final Act (1975) and the creation of the Conference on Security and Co-operation in Europe (CSCE), which during the Cold War served as an important multilateral forum for dialogue and negotiations between East and West.
    • In 1994, the CSCE was renamed the Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe to reflect more accurately changes witnessed.
  • With 57 participating States(India is not among the 57 states) in North America, Europe and Asia, the Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe – is the world’s largest regional security organization.

THE ENVIRONMENT, ECOLOGY AND CLIMATE CHANGE

4. 99% OF THE WORLD’S POPULATION IS BREATHING POLLUTED AIR: WHO

THE CONTEXT: According to the data from the UN health agency showed that every corner of the globe is dealing with air pollution, although the problem is much worse in poorer countries. “Almost 100% of the global population is still breathing air that exceeds the standards recommended by the World Health Organization,”

THE EXPLANATION:

  • In its previous report four years ago, WHO had already found that over 90% of the global population was affected, but it has since tightened its limits.
  • “The evidence base for the harm caused by air pollution has been growing rapidly and points to significant harm caused by even low levels of many air pollutants”.
  • WHO’s study provides air quality data from more than 6,000 cities and other settlements across 117 countries — representing around 80 percent of urban settings.
  • In addition, WHO used satellite data and mathematical models to determine that air quality is falling short basically everywhere.
  • The poorest air quality was found in the eastern Mediterranean and Southeast Asia regions, and Africa.The findings were alarming, it said, and highlighted the need for rapidly curbing fossil fuel use.

WHO’S AIR QUALITY GUIDELINES:

Governments Measures taken:

  • Notification of National Ambient Air Quality Standards and sector-specific emission and effluent standards for industries;
  • Setting up of monitoring network for assessment of ambient air quality;
  • Introduction of cleaner gaseous fuels like CNG, LPG etc and ethanol blending;
  • Launching of National Air Quality Index (AQI);
  • Leapfrogging from BS-IV to BS-VI standards for vehicles by 1st April 2020;
  • Regulating the bursting of pollution-emitting crackers;
  • Notification of graded response action plan for Delhi identifying source-wise actions for various levels of air pollution, etc.
  • National Clean Air Programme.

THE SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

5. BIOLOGICAL E. TO RECEIVE MRNA VACCINE TECHNOLOGY FROM WHO

THE CONTEXT: Vaccine maker Biological E has been selected to receive mRNA technology from the World Health Organization technology transfer hub.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • After examining a number of proposals from India, the WHO’s Advisory Committee on Vaccine Product Development has selected Biological E as a recipient.
  • The WHO’s technology transfer hub has the potential to expand manufacturing capacity for other products as well, including treatments, and target other priorities such as malaria, HIV and cancer. The WHO and partners will work with the Indian government and Biological E to put in place training and support for the company to start producing mRNA vaccines.

BACKGROUND:

The COVID-19 pandemic awakened the world to the power of RNA therapies — two of the first vaccines that emerged in late 2020, Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna, used this technology. At Present, an Indian company is developing an mRNA vaccine from scratch, signalling possibilities of the use of the molecule in a variety of diseases beyond COVID-19.

What are mRNA vaccines and how do they work?

  • Most vaccines contain weakened or dead bacteria or viruses. However, scientists have developed a new type of vaccine that uses a molecule called messenger RNA (or mRNA for short) rather than part of an actual bacteria or virus. Messenger RNA is a type of RNA that is necessary for protein production.
  • In cells, mRNA uses the information in genes to create a blueprint for making proteins. Once cells finish making a protein, they quickly break down the mRNA. mRNA from vaccines does not enter the nucleus and does not alter DNA.

THE PRELIMS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

QUESTION OF THE DAY

Q1. Consider the following statements about the Jagannath Puri temple:

  1. It is built by kings of the Pala dynasty
  2. It is an example of Kalinga Architecture

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER FOR 4TH APRIL 2022

Answer: d)

Explanation:

UNEP hosts the secretariats of several multilateral environmental agreements and research bodies, including CBD, The Minamata Convention on Mercury, CMS and CITES.




DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS (APRIL 03 & 04, 2022)

THE POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. NEW CRIMINAL PROCEDURE (IDENTIFICATION) BILL, 2022

THE CONTEXT: According to the new provisions of the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill, it will allow police and prison authorities to collect, store and analyze physical and biological samples including the retina and iris scans of convicted, arrested, and detained persons.

THE EXPLANATION

What is the legislation about?

  • The Bill seeks to repeal the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920. The over 100-year-old Act’s scope was limited to capturing finger impressions, footprint impressions, and photographs of convicted prisoners and a certain category of arrested and non-convicted persons on the order of a Magistrate.
  • The Statement of Objects and Reasons of the 2022 Bill said that new ‘‘measurement’’ techniques being used in advanced countries are giving credible and reliable results and are recognized the world over. It said that the 1920 Act does not provide for taking these body measurements as many of the techniques and technologies had not been developed then.

What are the major changes proposed?

It proposes four major changes.

  • First, it would define ‘‘measurements’’ to include “signature, handwriting, iris and retina scan, physical, biological samples, and their analysis, etc.” It does not specify what analysis means, implying that it may also include storing DNA samples. The “etc.” mentioned in the text of the Bill could give unfettered powers to law enforcement agencies to interpret the law at their convenience, sometimes to the disadvantage of the accused.
  • Second, it empowers the National Crime Records Bureau of India (NCRB), under the Union Home Ministry, to collect, store and preserve the record of measurements for at least 75 years. The NCRB will be able to share the data with other law enforcement agencies as well. Police is a State subject and NCRB works under the Union government, and experts contend this provision may impinge on federalism.
  • Third, it empowers a Magistrate to direct any person to give vital details, which till now was reserved for convicts and those involved in heinous crimes.
  • Fourth, it empowers police or prison officers up to the rank of a Head Constable to take details of any person who resists or refuses to do so.

What are some other changes?

  • The Bill also seeks to apply to persons detained under any preventive detention law. The Bill also authorizes taking vital details of “other persons” for identification and investigation in criminal matters. It doesn’t define the “other persons”, implying its ambit extends beyond convicts, arrested persons, or detainees.
  • The Bill’s stated objective is it provides legal sanction for taking such details and will make the investigation of crime more efficient and expeditious, and help in increasing the conviction rate.

THE INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

2. INDIA-AUSTRALIA ECONOMIC COOPERATION AND TRADE AGREEMENT (ECTA)

THE CONTEXT: India and Australia signed an Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (IndAus ECTA) which is set to provide zero-duty access to 96 percent of India’s exports to Australia including shipments from key sectors such as engineering goods, gems, jewelry, textiles, apparel, and leather.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • ECTA encompasses cooperation across the entire gamut of bilateral economic and commercial relations between the two friendly countries and covers areas like Trade in Goods, Rules of Origin, Trade in Services, Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures, Dispute Settlement, Movement of Natural Persons, Telecom, Customs Procedures, Pharmaceutical products, and Cooperation in other Areas.
  • Goods: The ECTA between India and Australia covers almost all the tariff lines dealt in by India and Australia respectively. India will benefit from preferential market access provided by Australia on 100% of its tariff lines.
    • This includes all the labor-intensive sectors of export interest to India such as Gems and Jewellery, Textiles, leather, footwear, furniture, food, agricultural products, engineering products, medical devices, and Automobiles.
    • On the other hand, India will be offering preferential access to Australia on over 70% of its tariff lines, including lines of export interest to Australia which are primarily raw materials and intermediaries such as coal, mineral ores and wines, etc.
  • Services: As regards trade in services, Australia has offered wide-ranging commitments in around 135 sub-sectors and Most Favoured Nation (MFN) in 120 sub-sectors which cover key areas of India’s interest like IT, ITES, Business services, Health, Education, and Audiovisual.
    • Some of the keys offered by Australia in the services space include a Quota for chefs and yoga teachers; a Post-study work visa of 2-4 years for Indian students on a reciprocal basis; mutual recognition of Professional Services and Other licensed/regulated Occupations; and Work & Holiday visa arrangement for young professionals.
    • On the other hand, India has offered market access to Australia in around 103 sub-sectors and Most Favoured Nation in 31 sub-sectors from the 11 broad service sectors such as ‘business services’, ‘communication services’, ‘construction and related engineering services, and so on. Both sides have also agreed to a separate Annex on Pharmaceutical products under this agreement, which will enable fast-track approval for patented, generic, and biosimilar medicines.
  • India and Australia are partners in the trilateral Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) arrangement along with Japan which seeks to enhance the resilience of supply chains in the Indo-Pacific Region. Further, India and Australia are also members of the recently formed Quad, also comprising the US, and Japan, to further enhance cooperation and develop partnerships across several issues of common concerns.
  • The India-Australia ECTA will further cement the already deep, close, and strategic relations between the two countries and will significantly enhance bilateral trade in goods and services, create new employment opportunities, raise living standards, and improve the general welfare of the peoples of the two countries.

Background:

  • India-Australia bilateral trade for both merchandise and services is valued at US$ 27.5 billion in 2021. India’s merchandise exports to Australia consist primarily of a broad-based basket largely of finished products like gold jewelry, polished diamonds, etc. India’s merchandise imports consist largely of raw materials, minerals, and intermediate goods.

THE SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

3. NFC TECHNOLOGY FOR INSTANT PAYMENTS

THE CONTEXT: Google Pay has recently launched a new feature in India, ‘Tap to pay for UPI’, in collaboration with Pine Labs. The feature makes use of Near Field Communication (NFC) technology.

THE EXPLANATION:

What is NFC and how does it work?

  • NFC is a short-range wireless connectivity technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate with each other and transfer information quickly and easily with a single touch — whether to pay bills, exchange business cards, download coupons, or share a document.
  • NFC transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields, to enable communication between two devices. Both devices must contain NFC chips, as transactions take place within a very short distance. NFC-enabled devices must be either physically touching or within a few centimeters from each other for data transfer to occur.

 How will this technology work with the recently launched feature, ‘Tap to pay for UPI’?

  • Google Pay has been the first among UPI apps to bring the Tap to Pay feature working on POS terminals. It will allow users with UPI accounts configured on Google Pay to make payments just by tapping their NFC-enabled Android smartphones on any Pine Labs Android POS terminal.
  • Once users tap their phones on the POS terminal, it will automatically open the Google pay app with the payment amount pre-filled. Users can then verify the amount and merchant name and authenticate the payment, using their UPI PIN. They will be notified once the payment is successful.
  • The process is much faster compared to scanning a QR code or entering the UPI-linked mobile number which has been the conventional way till now.

What are the other applications of NFC technology?

How safe is this technology?

  • NFC technology is designed for an operation between devices within a few centimeters from each other. This makes it difficult for attackers to record the communication between the devices compared to other wireless technologies which have a working distance of several meters.
  • The user of the NFC-enabled device determines by the touch gesture which entity the NFC communication should take place with, making it more difficult for the attacker to get connected. The security level of NFC communication is by default higher compared to other wireless communication protocols.
  • The NFC Forum has also added Peer to Peer communication which is a mechanism to cipher all exchanged data to avoid external interpretation of recorded communication. Since the receiving device reads your data the instant you send it, NFCs also reduce the chance of human error.

THE GOVERNMENT SCHEMES AND INITIATIVES IN THE NEWS

4. IDEX INITIATIVE

THE CONTEXT: Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) framework was launched by the Government to foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace Sector by engaging Industries including MSMEs, startups, individuals innovators, R&D institutes, and academia and promoting self-reliance.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • The Government has approved a central sector scheme for iDEX with budgetary support of Rs. 498.78 crore for the next 5 years from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
  • Aim: to foster innovation and technology development in Defence and Aerospace Sector by engaging Industries including MSMEs, startups, individual innovators, R&D institutes, and academia and promote self-reliance.

About Innovations for Defence Excellence (IDX):

  • The Government has approved a central sector scheme for iDEX with budgetary support of Rs. 498.78 crore for the next 5 years from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
  • Objective of the scheme: to provide financial support to nearly 300 Startups/ MSMEs/individual innovators and about 20 Partner incubators through the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO).
  • For the current financial year 2021-2022, Rs. 45 crore have been released by the Government to iDEX-DIO.
  • The iDEX framework and establishment of the DIO by the Department of Defence Production (DDP) is aimed at promoting innovation and indigenization in the aerospace and defense sector at the start-up level.
  • iDEX will be funded and managed by a “Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO)‟ formed as a “not for profit‟ company as per Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013 for this purpose.
  • It aims at empowering a culture of technology co-creation and co-innovation in the sector and boosts innovation among the start-ups and encourages them to be a part of the ecosystem.

THE HEALTH AND COVID CORNER

5. WHO RECORDS THE NEW SARS-COV-2 VARIANT

THE CONTEXT: The World Health Organization (WHO) has flagged the emergence of a new variant of the SARS-CoV-2 virus, the XE recombinant, in the United Kingdom, and with a possibly higher rate of transmission.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • The WHO, in its recent epidemiological update, said the recombinant was detected in the United Kingdom on January 19, 2022, and over 600 sequences have been reported and confirmed since.
  • It also added, “the early-day estimates indicate a community growth rate advantage of about 10% as compared to BA.2, however, this finding requires further confirmation.”
  • The U.K. Health Security Agency (UKHSA), which tracks SARS-CoV-2 variants, analyzed three recombinants, known as XF, XE, and XD. Of these, XD and XF is recombinant of Delta and Omicron BA.1, while XE is a recombinant of Omicron BA.1 and BA.2.
  • According to WHO, While XE only accounts for a small fraction of the cases, its extremely high transmissibility could mean that it becomes the most dominant strain shortly.
  • A recombinant variant occurs when an individual becomes infected with two or more variants at the same time, leading to a mixing of genetic material in the human body. Several such recombinants have emerged in the past during the pandemic.
  • The UKHSA has stated that in the United Kingdom, only 38 cases of XF recombinant have been identified, though none since mid-February 2022.
  • The new variant is 10 percent more transmissible than the most contagious BA.2 subvariant.

THE DATASHEET

6. THE SPACE JUNK, A CAUSE OF CONCERN

THE PRELIMS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

QUESTION OF THE DAY

Q1. UNEP hosts a secretariat of which of the following?

  1. Convention on Migratory Species
  2. Minamata Convention
  3. Convention on Biodiversity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of them

ANSWER FOR 2ND APRIL 2022

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Olive Ridley Turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea) are migratory species visiting Indian coasts for nesting.
  • These turtles travel all the way from the South Pacific Ocean to breed on the coast of Gahirmatha.
  • Their mass nesting phenomenon is called arribadas.
  • IUCN Status: Vulnerable
  • They have the highest degree of protection as they are included in Schedule-I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • The turtle eggs normally take 45 days to hatch. After this, tiny hatchlings come out and make their way to the sea.
  • Threats: Heavy predation of eggs by dogs and wild animals, indiscriminate fishing with trawlers and gill nets, and beach soil erosion.




DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS (APRIL 02, 2022)

THE POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. INDIAN ANTARCTIC BILL, 2022

THE CONTEXT: The Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022, introduced in Lok Sabha is pursuant to India’s accession to Antarctic Treaty, 1959 as well as the Protocol on Environment Protection (Madrid Protocol) to the Antarctic Treaty.

THE EXPLANATION:

Indian Antarctic Bill will also be useful in building credibility and enhancing the status of the country globally.

Objective:

  1. The Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022 introduced in Lok Sabha aims at providing national measures to protect the Antarctic environment, and the dependent and associated ecosystems.
  2. The Indian Antarctic Bill also aims to give effect to the Antarctic treaty, 1959, the protocol on the Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty, 1998, and the Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources, 1982
  3. The latest bill also aims at promoting Antarctica as a natural reserve that is devoted to science and peace and to ensure that the Antarctic does not become the scene of international discord.

About India’s expedition to Antarctic

  1. The Indian Antarctic Programme is a multi-institutional, multi-disciplinary programme. It is under the control of the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research, Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India.
  2. The Indian Antarctic Programme was initiated in 1981 with the first Indian expedition to Antarctica.
  3. It further gained global acceptance with India’s signing of the Antarctic Treaty as well as the construction of the Dakshin Gangotri Antarctic research base in 1983 which was superseded by the Maitri base from 1989.
  4. In 2012, the newest Bharati base was commissioned which was constructed out of 134 shipping containers.
  5. Under India’s Antarctic Programme, biological, earth, atmospheric, medical sciences, and chemical are studied in India. The country has carried out 30 scientific expeditions to the Antarctic as of October 14, 2010.

Value addition:

The Antarctic Treaty

  • The Antarctic Treaty was signed in Washington on 1 December 1959 by the twelve nations (Argentina, Australia, Belgium, Chile, France, Japan, New Zealand, Norway, South Africa, United Kingdom, United States and USSR).
  • The Treaty now has 52 signatories. India became a member of this treaty in 1983.
  • Headquarters: Buenos Aires, Argentina.
  • The Treaty, applies to the area south of 60° South latitude.

Provisions:

  • Antarctica shall be used for peaceful purposes only(Art. I).
  • Freedom of scientific investigation in Antarctica and cooperation toward that end shall continue(Art. II).
  • Scientific observations and results from Antarctica shall be exchanged and made freely available(Art. III).
  • Article IV effectively seeks to neutralise territorial sovereignty in Antarctica.
  • The treaty also put a freeze on any disputes between claimants over their territories on the continent.

Antarctic Treaty System:

·         As disputes have arisen over the years, many have been addressed through the expansion of the treaty framework with these agreements. This framework is now referred to as the “Antarctic Treaty System”.

The Antarctic Treaty system is made up of four major international agreements:

·         The 1959 Antarctic Treaty.

·         The 1972 Convention for the Conservation of Antarctic Seals.

·         The 1980 Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources.

·         The 1991 Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty.

 THE INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

2. EXPLAINED: WHY INDIA’S PACT WITH SRI LANKA ON A MARITIME RESCUE CENTRE IS SIGNIFICANT

THE CONTEXT: The agreement appears to be part of India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for all in the Region) initiative in the Indian Ocean, which has also seen India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives give a new push to their 2011 Colombo Security Conclave that now includes Mauritius.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • India and Sri Lanka have signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the Indian public sector Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) to set up a state-of-the-art Maritime Rescue Co-ordination Centre (MRCC) in Colombo.
  • The agreement is significant as it enhances co-operation on maritime security between the two countries in a part of the Indian Ocean region where the India-China rivalry has taken centre stage over the last decade. Earlier this month, India also provided a naval floating dock to the Sri Lankan Navy, and two Dornier aircraft to the Sri Lankan Air Force.
  • According to senior officials, the engagement between the forces of the two countries will augment interoperability and seamless maritime actions like carrying out anti-smuggling operations in the Indian Ocean Region.

Enhancing Sri Lanka capacity

  • MRCCs are part of an international network under the UN’s International Maritime Organisation to monitor the sea lanes with the objective of swift response to emergencies, such as vessels in distress, rescue and evacuation of people, and prevention of and containing environmental disasters such as oil spills.
  • Each country is responsible for its own Search and Rescue Region. The work of MRCCs is co-ordinated by the Navy or Coast Guard in each country. In India, the Coast Guard is the co-ordinating agency. In Sri Lanka, it is the Navy.
  • The Bengaluru-based BEL has proposed enhancing Sri Lanka’s small MRCC by setting up advanced software systems that will increase Sri Lanka’s capacities for communication and co-ordination in its SRR (Search and Rescue Region) in the Indian Ocean, where it is the first responder. The MRCC will be established with a grant of $6 million from India.
  • The enhanced MRCC will work out of the Sri Lankan Navy headquarters at Colombo, with a sub-center at Hambantota, where a Chinese state-owned company runs a deep water port that it helped to the bill, and which was controversially leased to it by Sri Lanka in 2016.
  • Seven other sub-units along Sri Lanka’s coastline will make up the proposed new network. In situations in which regional assistance has to be mobilised, as happened with the two recent ship fires in Sri Lankan waters, this MRCC will be able to share information with its Indian counterparts.

SAGAR push

  • Sri Lanka’s SRR is a wide swathe of 1,778,062. 24 sq km of the Indian Ocean and nearly 200 ships pass through these waters every day.
  • The agreement appears to be part of India’s SAGAR (Security and Growth for all in the Region) initiative in the Indian Ocean, which has also seen India, Sri Lanka and Maldives give a new push to their 2011 Colombo Security Conclave that now includes Mauritius.
  • The recent meeting of the CSC National Security Advisers identified “five pillars” of co-operation: maritime safety and security; countering terrorism and radicalisation; combating trafficking and transnational organised crime; cyber security, protection of critical infrastructure and technology; and humanitarian assistance and disaster relief.

THE ENVIRONMENT, ECOLOGY, AND CLIMATE CHANGE

3. RECORD NESTING OF OLIVE RIDLEY TURTLES

THE CONTEXT: As a record number of 4.92 lakh Olive Ridley turtles have crawled to the Rushikulya coast in Odisha, scientists have tagged more than 6,000 turtles to gather more information about their breeding behaviour and migration.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • Odisha is the largest mass nesting site for Oliver Ridleys in the world. As temperatures start rising and getting warmer, the mass nesting season for Olive Ridley turtles on the Odisha coast starts. Lakhs of Olive Ridley sea turtles have flocked this year to Rushikulya river mouth for their annual mass nesting.
  • These species flock to the place every year from the third week of February to the first week of March for nesting. After a long journey, all the way from the Indian Ocean, the turtles take a rest for some days after burying the eggs.
  • According to the officials,This increased to 4.92 lakhs at Rushikulya and 5.20 lakhs at Gahirmatha.
  • Arribada is a Spanish word meaning “arrival by sea” and refers to the mass nesting behaviour exhibited by Kemp’s Ridley and Olive Ridley sea turtles.

Value Addition:

Olive Ridley Sea Turtles

Olive Ridley Turtles (Lepidochelys olivacea) are migratory species visiting Indian coasts for nesting.

  • These turtles travel all the way from the South Pacific Ocean to breed on the coast of Gahirmatha. Their mass nesting phenomenon is called arribadas.
  • IUCN Status: Vulnerable; CITES: APPENDIX 1
  • They have the highest degree of protection as they are included in Schedule-I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  • The turtle eggs normally take 45 days to hatch. After this, tiny hatchlings come out and make their way to the sea.
  • Threats: Heavy predation of eggs by dogs and wild animals, indiscriminate fishing with trawlers and gill nets, and beach soil erosion.
  • Every year, the Indian Coast Guard’s “Operation Olivia”, initiated in the early 1980s, helps protect Olive Ridley turtles as they congregate along the Odisha coast for breeding and nesting from November to December.
  • KURMA App: It is aimed at turtle conservation by providing users with a database to identify a species but also provides the location of the nearest rescue centre for turtles across the country.

Developed by: The application has been developed by the Indian Turtle Conservation Action Network(ITCAN) in collaboration with the Turtle Survival Alliance-India and Wildlife Conservation Society-India.

THE SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

4. ISRO TO STEP UP TRACKING OF SPACE DEBRIS

THE CONTEXT: ISRO is building up its orbital debris tracking capability by deploying new radars and optical telescopes under the Network for Space Objects Tracking and Analysis (NETRA) project.

THE EXPLANATION:

Tracking of space debris:

  • A space debris tracking radar with a range of 1,500 km and an optical telescope will be inducted as part of establishing an effective surveillance and tracking network under NETRA.
  • The government has given the go-ahead for the deployment of the radar, which will be capable of detecting and tracking objects 10 cm and above in size, he said.
  • It will be indigenously designed and built.
  • Radars and optical telescopes are vital ground-based facilities for keeping an eye on space objects, including orbital junk.
  • Space junk or debris consists of spent rocket stages, dead satellites, fragments of space objects and debris resulting from ASAT.
  • Hurtling at an average speed of 27,000 kmph in LEO, these objects pose a very real threat as collisions involving even centimetre-sized fragments can be lethal to satellites.
  • For protecting its space assets, ISRO was forced to perform 19 collision avoidance manoeuvres (CAM) in 2021, of which 14 were in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and five in the geostationary orbit. The number of CAMs jumped from just three in 2015 to 12 in 2020 and 19 in 2021.

About Network for Space Objects Tracking and Analysis (NETRA) project:

  • Project NETRA is an early warning system in space to detect debris and other hazards to Indian satellites.
  • ISRO SSA Control Centre, “NETRA”, is now set up within the ISTRAC campus at Peenya, Bangalore.
  • NETRA’s eventual goal is to capture the GEO, or geostationary orbit, the scene at 36,000 km where communication satellites operate.
  • Under NETRA, or Network for space object Tracking and Analysis, the ISRO plans to put up many observational facilities:
    • connected radars, telescopes
    • data processing units
    • a control centre
  • They can, among others, spot, track and catalogue objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of 3,400 km and equal to a space orbit of around 2,000 km.

THE PRELIMS PERSPECTIVE

5. PANCHESHWAR MULTIPURPOSE PROJECT

THE CONTEXT: During his upcoming visit, Nepal’s Prime Minister is expected to focus on his personal experience of handling India-Nepal relations over Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • In India and Nepal, the proposed catchment area for the water is expected to submerge a total of 11600 hectares of land (7600 hectares in India and 4000 hectares in Nepal).
  • This mega dam (Pancheshwar) will be built upon the Mahakali river (known in India as Sharada) which originates in Nepal and flows through Uttarakhand where various tributaries like Dhauli, Gori, Sarayu and Ramganga feed the Mahakali. Upon completion, this dam, the biggest in South Asia, is expected to generate 6480 MW of power, and will service both India and Nepal, besides controlling floods and decreasing the fear of drought.

IMPORTANCE:

  • Nepal shares a border with 5 Indian states- Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Sikkim and Bihar. Hence an important point of cultural and economic exchange.
  • Importance for India can be studied from two different angles: a) their strategic importance for India’s national security; and b) their place in India’s role perception in international politics.
  • Nepal is right in the middle of India’s ‘Himalayan frontiers’, and along with Bhutan, it acts as northern ‘borderland’ flanks and acts as buffer states against any possible aggression from China.
  • The two countries not only share an open border and unhindered movement of people, but they also have close bonds through marriages and familial ties, popularly known as Roti-Beti ka Rishta.
  • India is Nepal’s largest trade partner and the largest source of foreign investments, besides providing transit for almost the entire third-country trade of Nepal.
  • Indian firms engaged in manufacturing, services (banking, insurance, dry port), power sector and tourism industries etc.

THE PRELIMS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

QUESTION OF THE DAY

Q1. Consider the following statements about Olive Ridley Turtles:

  1. They are migratory species visiting Indian coasts for nesting.
  2. Their mass nesting phenomenon is called arribadas.
  3. Their IUCN conservation status is endangered.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER FOR 1ST APRIL 2022

Answer: B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Koodiyattam is a traditional performing art form in the state of Kerala, India.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It is a combination of ancient Sanskrit theatre with elements of Koothu, an ancient performing art from the Sangam era.
  • Statement 3 is correct: It is officially recognized by UNESCO as a Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity.

 




DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS (JANUARY 23 & 24, 2022)

THE ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. PLASTIC PARK PROJECT GETS FINAL APPROVAL

THE CONTEXT: Union ministry of chemicals and fertilisers, department of chemicals and petrochemicals, has given final approval for the setting up of a Plastic Park at Ganjimutt in Dakshin Kannada.

THE EXPLANATION:

According to the Ministry the park will be set up on 104 acres of Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Board (KIADB) land at an estimated cost of ₹62.77 crore. In that, 50% of the project cost, that is ₹31.38 crore, will be borne by the Union Government and the remaining 50% by the KIADB.

About the Plastic Park:

  • Plastic Park has state-of-the- art infrastructure with common facilities including plastic waste management system. Plastic Parks plays key role in growth of the plastic processing community material and machinery suppliers, plastic processing companies, plastic recycling companies.
  • The park is to generate hundreds of employments for the local youths. A poly propylene unit is to be set up in the park. This unit will provide raw materials to the polymer and plastic units inside the park. Polypropylene is a thermoplastic polymer. It is mainly used in plastic packaging. The park will include admin building, export building, warehouse facility, etc.
  • The plastic parks have so far been created in Tamont village in Madhya Pradesh, Billaua village in Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh, Pradeep village near Jagatsinghpur in Odisha, Gellapukhuri in Assam, Devipur in Jharkhand, Voyallur in Thiruvallur district of Tamil Nadu.

Significance of the Plastic Park Scheme?

  • The plastic parks aim to boost the value addition and competitiveness in the plastics processing industry. The scheme strives to achieve it though measures led by research and development.
  • The plastic industry is classified into two broad categories in India.
  • The first is polymer manufacturing that is called upstream category.
  • The second category is industries involved in the conversion of processable polymers into useful end products. These industries are called downstream.
  • India’s share in global plastic exports just 1%. The Indian plastic industry is big. However, it is highly fragmented. The plastic parks will help to consolidate the industry.

2. KERALA GETS ITS FIRST-EVER SCIENTIFIC BIRD ATLAS

THE CONTEXT: The Kerala Bird Atlas (KBA), the first-of-its-kind state-level bird atlas in India, has created solid baseline data about the distribution and abundance of various bird species across all major habitats giving an impetus for futuristic studies.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • KBA is said to be Asia’s largest bird atlas in terms of geographical extent.
  • KBA has been conducted as a citizen science-driven exercise with the participation of over 1,000 volunteers of the birdwatching community.
  • KBA has created strong benchmark information about the distribution and abundance of bird species across all major habitats, giving momentum to futuristic studies.

The KBA accounts for nearly three lakh records of 361 species, that includes,

  • 94 very rare species
  • 103 rare species
  • 110 common species
  • 44 very common species
  • 10 most abundant species

The KBA is considered to be a valuable resource for testing various ecological hypotheses and suggesting science-backed conservation measures.

Bird Atlas surveys shall be done twice a year.

  1. July mid – September mid [60 days, 9 weekends]
  2. January mid – March mid [60 days, 9 weekends]

 

3. PERU DECLARES ‘ENVIRONMENTAL EMERGENCY’

THE CONTEXT: The Peruvian government declared a 90-day “environmental emergency” in damaged coastal territories, after an oil spill that saw 6,000 barrels of crude oil pour into the sea.

THE EXPLANATION:

  • The oil spill came out of a tanker belonging to the Spanish energy firm Repsol. The incident occurred at the La Pampilla refinery, some 30 kilometers (around 19 miles) north of the Peruvian capital of Lima in the Ventanilla district of the port city of Callao.
  • According to the refinery, the spill was caused by freak waves, which resulted from the eruption of a volcano in Tonga. Currents spread the oil to distances more than 40 kilometers from the refinery, tarring some 21 beaches.

What damage has the spill caused?

The spill has caused the death of marine wildlife and raised concerns around the livelihood of local fishermen and the economic consequences from the loss of tourism.

International Efforts for curtailing Oil Pollution: 

  • International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL): Rolled out by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in 1973. It recognized the need for international coherent efforts for curbing oil spill.
  • International Convention on Oil Pollution Preparedness, Response and Cooperation 1990: Nearly 90 countries came up after the Exxon Valdez oil spill, 1989 to prepare an emergency plan under IMO. Creates a special fund out of the contribution of shipping companies
  • Double Hull Ruling, 1993 by IMO: As per these guidelines, By July 1993, all tankers must have double hulls for additional safety. All single-hulled ships must be phased out by 1995.

Note: TERI has developed Oil Zapper Bacteria which can degrade the oil quickly.

 

4. SPECIES OF FUNGI ASSOCIATED WITH BASAL STEM ROT FOUND

THE CONTEXT: Researchers from Kerala have identified two new species of fungi from the genus Ganoderma that are associated with coconut stem rot. They have also genotyped the two fungi species, named Ganoderma keralense and G. pseudoapplanatum and identified genetic biomarkers.

THE EXPLANATION:

Basal stem rot

  • The butt rot or basal stem rot of coconut is known by several names in different parts of India: Ganoderma wilt (Andhra Pradesh), Anaberoga (Karnataka) and Thanjavur wilt (Tamil Nadu).
  • The infection begins at the roots, but symptoms include discolouration and rotting of stem and leaves. In the later stages, flowering and nut set decreases and finally the coconut palm (Cocos nucifera) dies.
  • A reddish brown oozing is seen. This oozing has been reported only in India. Once infected, recovery of the plants is not likely. Not surprising then, that this causes a huge loss: By some estimates made in 2017, in India, around 12 million people are said to depend on coconut farming.
  • Another sign of infection is presence of shelf-like “basidiomata,” which are the fruiting or reproductive structures of the fungus, on the tree trunks. “Although microscopic, many fungi, produce macroscopic fruiting structures on the substrates where they grow [for example, Ganoderma]”.
  • Since the fungus is microscopic, it is only detected after the symptoms start manifesting or when the reproductive structures are borne, which can be too late.

THE MISCELLANEOUS

5. AMAR JAWAN JYOTI MERGED WITH NATIONAL WAR MEMORIAL FLAME

THE CONTEXT: The iconic Amar Jawan Jyoti (AJJ), which was inaugurated after the 1971 Liberation War of Bangladesh by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, even as Prime Minister announced the construction of a statue of Subhas Chandra Bose, restructuring the symbolism around the India Gate.

Symbol of colonial past’

  • India Gate was a “symbol of our colonial past” as it has only some of those who fought for the British in First World War 1 and the Anglo-Afghan War. It is designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens, was unveiled by Lord Irwin on February 12, 1931. It was built to honour the over 83,000 soldiers of British India who died from 1914 to 1921. It has 13,516 names inscribed all over the monument.
  • The AJJ was set up to pay homage for the soldiers who laid down their lives in the 1971 war. The memorial of the unknown soldier, an inverted bayonet with a helmet structure, along with the AJJ was inaugurated under the arch of India Gate by then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on January 26, 1972 to commemorate India’s victory in the 1971 war, in which 93,000 Pakistani prisoners of war surrendered and saw the birth of Bangladesh.

About the National War Memorial:

The National War Memorial was inaugurated by Prime Minister on February 25, 2019 and ever since it was set up, political and military leaders of the country lay wreaths in remembrance at the new site rather than at the Amar Jawan Jyoti. It was built to commemorate all the soldiers who have laid down their lives in the various battles, wars, operations and conflicts of Independent India.

THE PRELIMS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

QUESTION OF THE DAY 24TH JANUARY 2022

Q1. Hogenakkal Falls are located across which of the following river of India?

              a) River Krishna

b) River Godavari

c) River Sharavati

d) River Kaveri

ANSWER FOR 22ND JAN 2022

Answer: B

Explanation:

Highlights of Tiger Census 2018:

  • India is home to almost 70% of the world tiger population.
  • India has 2,967 tigers, a rise of 33% over the figure found in the previous census of 2014 (2,226).
  • Madhya Pradesh (526) has the highest tiger population. Karnataka (524) has the second- highest tiger population. Uttarakhand (442) has the third-highest tiger population.
  • Among the NE states, Assam (190) has the highest tiger population.
  • Tiger population fell in Chhattisgarh and Mizoram.
  • There is no change in the tiger population in Odisha.
  • In Buxa, Dampa and Palamau tiger reserves, tiger was not found.

Note: India has already fulfilled its resolve of doubling tiger numbers, made at the St. Petersburg Declaration in 2010, much before the target year of 2022.