ARTICLE 99 OF THE UN CHARTER

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: Amid Israel’s ongoing military attacks on the Gaza Strip, particularly in its southern region, United Nations Secretary-General Antonio Guterres has invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter in a bid to establish a ceasefire.

EXPLANATION:

Understanding Article 99 of the UN Charter:

  • Purpose and Scope:
    • Article 99 of the UN Charter allows the Secretary-General to bring attention to any issue that, in their opinion, poses a threat to international peace and security.
    • This article grants discretionary power to the Secretary-General to alert the Security Council about matters of concern.
  • Invocation of Article 99 in the Current Situation:
    • Secretary-General invoked Article 99 regarding the conflict between Israel and Gaza, emphasizing the severe humanitarian crisis in Gaza.
    • Secretary-General highlighted the collapsing humanitarian system, extensive civilian casualties, destruction, and trauma in both Israel and the Occupied Palestine Territory.
  • Impact of Invocation and Proposed Action:
    • Secretary-General urged the Security Council to avert a humanitarian catastrophe by declaring a ceasefire.
    • The United Arab Emirates presented a draft resolution to the UNSC based on Secretary-General letter, calling for an immediate humanitarian ceasefire in the conflict zone.
    • The proposed resolution is expected to be brought to a vote in the Security Council.
    • However, the unanimous support of all permanent members is unlikely due to differing positions on the conflict.

Historical Context of Article 99 Invocation:

  • Article 99 has been rarely invoked in the history of the United Nations.
  • Past instances include situations such as the Congo crisis in 1960 and a complaint by Tunisia against France’s military actions in 1961.
  • The invocation of Article 99 is considered a significant and dramatic move, reflecting the Secretary-General’s concern for global peace and security.

Potential Implications and Challenges:

  • Humanitarian Impact:
    • The invocation of Article 99 aims to draw attention to the dire humanitarian situation, emphasizing the need for urgent action to prevent further civilian suffering and restore essential services.
  • Diplomatic Challenges:
    • The proposed resolution faces challenges in achieving unanimous support from the Security Council’s permanent members, given differing positions on the conflict.
  • Possible Resolutions:
    • For the draft resolution to pass, it requires at least nine affirmative votes in the Security Council without veto from any of the permanent members.

Conclusion:

  • Secretary-General’s invocation of Article 99 highlights the severity of the humanitarian crisis resulting from the conflict between Israel and Gaza.
  • It calls upon the international community, particularly the UN Security Council, to take immediate action to address the situation and prevent further deterioration in the region.
  • However, achieving a unanimous resolution remains uncertain due to the divergent positions among the Security Council’s permanent members.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/article-99-un-invoke-israel-gaza-explained-9058381/




COLOMBO SECURITY CONCLAVE MEETING

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The sixth meeting of the Colombo Security Conclave, founded by India, Maldives and Sri Lanka in 2011, was held at the Indian Ocean nation of Mauritius recently.

EXPLANATION:

Background of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)

  • The Colombo Security Conclave, established in 2011 by India, Maldives, and Sri Lanka, serves as a regional platform focusing on maritime security in the Indian Ocean.
  • Its primary objectives encompass various aspects of security, including counterterrorism, maritime safety, counter-radicalisation efforts, combatting organized crime, cybersecurity, critical infrastructure protection, and humanitarian assistance.

Key Insights from the Sixth Meeting

  • Meeting Location and Attendees:
    • The sixth CSC meeting was conducted in Mauritius, with the participation of National Security Advisors from India, Mauritius, and Sri Lanka.
    • Representatives from Seychelles and Bangladesh were also present.
  • Absence of Maldives:
    • Despite being a founding member, Maldives was notably absent from the meeting, raising questions about its participation or level of engagement.
    • It remains unclear whether the absence signifies non-participation or if the country was represented at a lower level.
  • NSA’S Emphasis:
    • India’s National Security Advisor highlighted the CSC’s significance in ensuring regional security and stability.
    • He stressed the necessity for continuous collaboration across various sectors, highlighting the importance of sustained engagement.
  • Roadmap of Activities:
    • The meeting concluded with an agreement on a Roadmap of Activities for 2024, outlining strategic plans and initiatives to bolster regional security within the CSC framework.

Evolution and Expansion of the Conclave

  • Recent Developments:
    • The CSC witnessed a revival in 2020 after a six-year hiatus.
    • During this resurgence, the participating countries expressed intentions to expand the grouping’s membership, welcoming Mauritius into the fold in March 2022.
    • Additionally, Bangladesh and Seychelles have participated as observers in these meetings.
  • Objective Expansion:
    • The expansion efforts aim to broaden the CSC’s reach and influence within the region, potentially fostering stronger collaborations and synergies in addressing shared security challenges.

Maldives’ Current Engagement and Regional Dynamics

  • Maldives’ Shift in Government:
    • Following recent presidential elections in Maldives, the country experienced a change in government, potentially impacting its engagement and participation in regional forums like the CSC.
  • Alternative Engagements:
    • While Maldives was absent from the CSC meeting, the Vice-President was reported to be attending the ‘China-Indian Ocean Region Forum on Development Cooperation’ in Kunming, signifying alternative engagements and interests in regional collaborations.

Conclusion and Future Prospects

  • The CSC serves as a crucial platform for addressing multifaceted security challenges in the Indian Ocean region.
  • While recent meetings have seen progress and strategic planning, the absence of a founding member like Maldives raises questions about continued commitment and engagement within the Conclave.
  • The expansion efforts, including the involvement of Mauritius, Bangladesh, and Seychelles, highlight a concerted effort to broaden the Conclave’s influence.
  • However, sustaining meaningful collaborations among member countries remains pivotal for ensuring regional security and stability in the Indian Ocean.

SOURCE: https://m.thewire.in/article/diplomacy/nsa-ajit-doval-underlines-importance-of-colombo-security-conclave-co-founder-maldives-skips-meeting/amp




REPORT ON CHILD POVERTY BY UNICEF

TAG: GS 2: SOCIAL ISSUES

THE CONTEXT: As per a new report, Sixty-nine million children or more than one in five, live in poverty in the world’s 40 richest countries part of the Organization of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) and the European Union (EU).

EXPLANATION:

  • Despite a notable overall reduction in poverty by almost 8 percent across these nations between 2012-14 and 2019-21, unveiled in a report by UNICEF recently, the prevalence of child poverty remains alarmingly high.

Relative Poverty Calculation

  • UNICEF’s research arm, Innocenti, employed a relative poverty metric, defining households whose income is 60 percent of the average household income in their respective countries.
  • This criterion signifies families possessing some financial means but insufficient to afford beyond basic necessities.
  • Developed nations often utilize this indicator as the primary poverty threshold.

Country-Specific Findings

  • Top Performers in Poverty Mitigation:
    • Poland, Slovenia, Latvia, and the Republic of Korea demonstrated commendable efforts in addressing child poverty.
  • Mixed Progress and High Rates:
    • Greece, Malta, and New Zealand, while making strides in poverty reduction, still grapple with relatively high child poverty rates.
  • Stagnating Low Poverty Rates:
    • Denmark, Iceland, the Kingdom of the Netherlands, and Norway showcased consistently low child poverty rates but evidenced an increasing trend over time.
  • High Rates and Poor Trends:
    • France, Luxembourg, Turkey, and the United Kingdom exhibited both high child poverty rates and unfavourable poverty reduction trends.

Inequality Factors Contributing to Child Poverty

  • The report identified several factors contributing to the persistence and exacerbation of child poverty.
    • Migrant and Ethnic Disparities:
      • Children of migrant parents faced 2.4 times higher relative income poverty rates compared to children whose parents were citizens of the country.
      • This gap widened from approximately 19 percentage points in 2012 to about 22 percentage points in 2021.
    • Racial and Ethnic Minority Disadvantages:
      • Similar disparities in poverty were evident among children from racial or ethnic minority groups, signaling deeply rooted inequalities.
    • Geographical Disparities:
      • Rural-urban distinctions persisted in many European countries, with substantially higher poverty rates in rural areas despite progress elsewhere.
    • Household Structure Impact:
      • The number of adults in a household significantly influenced children’s economic welfare.
      • Children in one-adult households were over three times more likely to live in poverty than those living with two or more adults, with Belgium, Canada, Czechia, Finland, Iceland, Ireland, New Zealand, Norway, and Slovenia particularly affected.

Long-term Impacts and Urgent Calls for Action

  • The detrimental effects of persistent poverty on children were highlighted, revealing that those consistently exposed to poverty faced significantly higher risks of emotional and behavioural difficulties.
  • In response, the report emphasized the urgent need for governments and stakeholders to prioritize and augment expenditure on child and family benefits to combat child poverty effectively.

Recommended Actions

  • The report suggested four critical areas necessitating immediate attention to alleviate child poverty:
    • Expansion of Child-Sensitive Social Protection
    • Improvement and Access to Essential Services
    • Ensuring Decent Work and Family-Friendly Policies
    • Mitigating Inequalities in Poverty Risks
  • The report underscores the complexity of child poverty within the wealthiest nations, urging concerted efforts to address multifaceted inequalities and systemic issues for the betterment of children’s lives and future prospects.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/economy/over-69-million-children-live-in-poverty-in-40-of-the-world-s-richest-countries-unicef-93245




JAMMU AND KASHMIR RESERVATION (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2023

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The Lok Sabha recently approved the bill – the Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Bill, 2023.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Bill, 2023, was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 26, 2023.
  • It amends the Jammu and Kashmir Reservation Act, 2004.
    • The Act provides for reservation in jobs and admission in professional institutions to members of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other socially and educationally backward classes.

KEY FEATURES OF THE BILL INCLUDE:

  • Socially and educationally backward classes:
    • Under the Act, socially and educationally backward classes include:
      • people residing in villages declared as socially and educationally backward by the Union Territory (UT) of Jammu and Kashmir,
      • people residing in areas adjoining the Actual Line of Control and International Border, and
      • weak and under-privileged classes (social castes), as notified.
    • The government may make inclusions or exclusions from category of weak and under-privileged classes, on the recommendations of a Commission.
    • The Bill substitutes weak and under-privileged classes with other backward classes as declared by the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
    • The definition of weak and under-privileged classes is deleted from the Act.

Conclusion

  • The passage of these bills marks a significant legislative step in reorganizing and reshaping representation and reservation in the J&K Assembly.
  • The government’s assertion about positive changes and the opposition’s concerns over the timing of elections and restoration of statehood underscore the ongoing debate and challenges in the region following the revocation of Article 370.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/never-said-diluting-article-370-will-end-terrorism-in-jk-amit-shah/article67611177.ece




JAMMU AND KASHMIR REORGANISATION (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2023

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The Lok Sabha recently approved the bill – the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2023.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 26, 2023.
  • The Bill amends the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
  • The Act provides for the reorganisation of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the union territories of Jammu and Kashmir (with legislature) and Ladakh (without legislature).

KEY FEATURES OF THE BILL INCLUDE:

Number of seats in the Legislative Assembly:

  • The Second Schedule of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 provides for the number of seats in legislative assemblies.
  • The 2019 Act amended the Second Schedule of the 1950 Act to specify the total number of seats in the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly to be 83.
  • It reserved six seats for Scheduled Castes.
  • No seats were reserved for Scheduled Tribes.
  • The Bill increases the total number of seats to 90.
  • It also reserves seven seats for Scheduled Castes and nine seats for Scheduled Tribes.

Nomination of Kashmiri migrants:

  • The Bill adds that the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to two members from the Kashmiri migrant community to the Legislative Assembly.
  • One of the nominated members must be a woman.
  • Migrants are defined as persons who migrated from the Kashmir Valley or any other part of the state of Jammu and Kashmir after November 1, 1989, and are registered with the Relief Commissioner.
  • Migrants also include individuals who have not been registered due to:
    • being in government service in any moving office,
    • having left for work, or
    • possessing immovable property at the place from where they migrated but are unable to reside there due to disturbed conditions.

Nomination of displaced persons:

  • The Bill adds that the Lieutenant Governor may nominate to the Legislative Assembly one member representing displaced persons from Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Displaced persons refer to individuals who left or were displaced from their place of residence in Pakistani-occupied Jammu and Kashmir and continue to reside outside such place.
  • Such displacement should have taken place in 1947-48, 1965, or 1971 due to civil disturbances or fear of such disturbances.
  • These include successors-in-interest of such persons.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/never-said-diluting-article-370-will-end-terrorism-in-jk-amit-shah/article67611177.ece




DISCOVERY OF A NEW BODY OF WATER IN THE ATLANTIC OCEAN

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Recently, a team of researchers has uncovered a substantial and previously unidentified mass of water in the Atlantic Ocean, marking a significant discovery in oceanography.

EXPLANATION:

  • This finding challenges previous assumptions about the homogeneity of oceanic bodies and sheds light on the complexity of global water masses.

Background: Oceanic Bodies and Circulation

  • Oceanic bodies possess distinct physical properties, including temperature, salinity, and chemical composition.
  • Examples include the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) and the well-known Gulf Stream, each influencing regional climates and marine ecosystems.
  • In contrast, the Pacific and Indian Oceans were previously identified as having vast areas of distinct equatorial waters, formed by the convergence of northern and southern waters.

A Puzzling Absence in the Atlantic

  • Surprisingly, while these equatorial waters were observed in the Pacific and Indian Oceans in 1942, a similar phenomenon was absent in the Atlantic.
  • Given the commonalities in equatorial circulation and mixing across the three oceans, this absence puzzled scientists.

Discovery and Analysis

  • The researchers scrutinized data from the Argo program, leveraging a network of autonomous instruments navigating ocean depths.
  • By analyzing these datasets, the team identified a distinct body of water, termed the “Atlantic Equatorial Water.”
  • This mass likely originated from the amalgamation of the South Atlantic Central Water and the North Atlantic Central Water.
  • The newfound body of water spans from the Brazilian coast to the Gulf of Guinea, marking a significant extension within the Atlantic basin.

Implications and Future Research

  • The identification of this new body of water offers a crucial piece in completing the puzzle of global oceanic water masses.
  • Understanding its formation and dynamics holds promise for advancing knowledge about oceanic mixing processes, influencing climate models and marine life studies.
  • Further research endeavors in this region aim to deepen insights into the complex interplay of currents, temperatures, and chemical compositions shaping the Atlantic Ocean’s characteristics.

Conclusion

  • The revelation of the Atlantic Equatorial Water introduces a compelling avenue for exploration within oceanography, challenging previous assumptions about the uniformity of oceanic bodies.
  • This discovery underscores the intricate and dynamic nature of Earth’s oceans, prompting continued research to unravel the mysteries of ocean circulation and its global implications.

SOURCE: https://www.iflscience.com/gigantic-missing-body-of-water-discovered-stretching-across-the-atlantic-ocean-71696




GARBA INCLUDED IN UNESCO’S INTANGIBLE CULTURAL HERITAGE LIST

TAG: GS 1: ART AND CULTURE

THE CONTEXT: Recently, Gujarat’s traditional dance form ‘Garba’ was included in the list of Intangible Cultural Heritage by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

EXPLANATION:

  • This inclusion marks the 15th cultural element from India to earn this distinction, following Kolkata’s Durga Puja added two years earlier.

UNESCO’s Recognition

  • The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) announced the inscription of ‘Garba of Gujarat’ during its 18th session in Kasane, Botswana.
  • It was included under the provisions of the 2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of Intangible Cultural Heritage.

Description of Garba

  • Garba is an integral part of Gujarat’s cultural tapestry, characterized as a ritualistic and devotional dance form performed across the state and India.
  • It holds prominence during the nine-day festival of Navaratri, dedicated to worshipping feminine energy or Shakti.
  • This dance is an expressive representation of the divine feminine, showcasing cultural, performative, and visual aspects embedded within its celebration.

Cultural Significance

  • UNESCO highlighted Garba’s multi-dimensional celebration of feminine energy.
  • It transcends spaces, being performed in homes, temple courtyards, public areas in villages, urban squares, streets, and expansive open grounds.
  • The dance serves as an inclusive community event, fostering participation and cultural communion.
  • The dance’s essence lies in its worship of the primordial goddess, making Garba a unique manifestation of honouring the divine feminine.
  • This recognition would preserve the tradition and inspire younger generations to continue nurturing the associated knowledge, skills, and oral traditions.

National Celebration and Recognition

  • The Government of Gujarat organized numerous curated Garba events across the state to celebrate this monumental achievement.
  • Additionally, a troupe of eight dancers from the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) showcased Garba at the UNESCO meeting venue.

Other UNESCO Inscriptions

  • Besides Garba, UNESCO added various cultural elements to its Intangible Cultural Heritage list, including Rickshaws and Rickshaw painting in Dhaka, Songkran in Thailand, Hiragasy from Madagascar, Junkanoo from the Bahamas, and celebrations of Prophet Mohammed’s birthday in Sudan.

INTANGIBLE CULTURAL HERITAGE LIST OF UNESCO:

  • The Intangible Cultural Heritage List is a UNESCO initiative aimed at safeguarding and promoting the world’s diverse traditions and expressions.
  • It was established by the 2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage.
  • The list recognizes cultural practices and expressions that help demonstrate the diversity of this heritage and raise awareness about its importance.
  • List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in Need of Urgent Safeguarding:
    • The List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in Need of Urgent Safeguarding is composed of intangible heritage elements that concerned communities and States Parties consider require urgent measures to keep them alive.
    • Inscriptions on this List help to mobilize international cooperation and assistance for stakeholders to undertake appropriate safeguarding measures.
  • Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity:
    • The Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity is made up of those intangible heritage elements that help demonstrate the diversity of this heritage and raise awareness about its importance.

Conclusion

  • Garba’s inclusion in UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage list stands as a testament to its cultural richness and significance, spotlighting India’s diverse cultural heritage.
  • This recognition not only honours Gujarat’s tradition but also underscores the importance of safeguarding and promoting such invaluable cultural expressions worldwide.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/garba-of-gujarat-makes-it-to-unesco-intangible-cultural-heritage-list/article67611502.ece/amp/




RADIO GALAXIES

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: While acknowledging that the formation of new stars in galaxies can also produce radio waves, the research team focused on galaxies with minimal or no star formation. Of the 587 nearby galaxies scrutinized, all 40 of the largest galaxies examined were found to emit radio waves.

EXPLANATION:

  • Radio galaxies are a distinct class of galaxies characterized by their substantial emissions of radio waves that extend far beyond their visible structures.
  • These phenomena are rooted in active galactic nuclei (AGNs) housing supermassive black holes and generate colossal lobes of gas emitting radio waves.

Characteristics of Radio Galaxies

  • Radio galaxies emit intense radio waves originating from expansive lobes of gas, extending millions of light-years beyond the visible galaxy structure.
  • These lobes, typically occurring in pairs, are a consequence of AGNs—regions of extraordinary brightness where supermassive black holes actively consume surrounding matter, emitting glowing radiation.
  • Around 15% to 20% of galaxies hosting AGNs exhibit “radio loud” characteristics, as distinguished by their prominence in radio emissions.
  • The differentiation between “radio loud” and “radio quiet” AGNs remains an ongoing area of investigation due to similarities in emissions across various wavelengths.

Factors Influencing Radio Loudness

  • Research hints at potential connections between radio loudness and the type of host galaxy.
  • Notably, radio galaxies predominantly manifest in the form of massive elliptical galaxies, possibly formed through mergers of smaller galaxies.
  • Additionally, the rotational dynamics of central black holes may contribute to the formation of powerful jets, influencing radio emissions.

Examples of Radio Galaxies

  • Prominent instances of radio galaxies include:
    • Cygnus A, exhibiting bright lobes of gas surrounding a galactic nucleus;
    • Messier 87, characterized by twin jets emanating from a luminous core; and
    • Centaurus A, an elliptical galaxy intersected by a dust lane.

Types of Radio Galaxies

  • Distinctive optical emissions define two types of radio galaxies:
    • broad-line radio galaxies
    • narrow-line radio galaxies
  • Broad-line radio galaxies display broad-line emissions from ionized oxygen, hydrogen, and silicon in their optical spectra.
  • Whereas narrow-line radio galaxies lack such emissions but showcase narrow emission lines from hydrogen and oxygen.

Differences from Normal Galaxies

  • Unlike typical galaxies, radio galaxies possess AGNs fueling the emission of intense radio waves.
  • The presence of supermassive black holes driving these AGNs distinguishes them.
  • These AGNs can produce enormous dual lobes extending thousands of light-years from the galactic center, sometimes exceeding the width of the Milky Way.

Formation and Structure of Radio Galaxies

  • The prevalent model suggests that massive dual radio lobes derive energy from supermassive black hole jets.
  • As these jets feed into the lobes, pressure builds within them, causing expansion.
  • These lobes, primarily symmetrical elliptical structures aligned with the galaxy’s center, comprise immense clouds of plasma, constituting some of the most substantial structures observed in astronomy.

Radiation and Energy Emissions

  • Radio lobes emit synchrotron radiation generated by accelerated electrons in powerful magnetic fields.
  • These emissions span a broad spectrum, ranging from radio waves to infrared, optical, ultraviolet, and even X-ray radiation.
  • The energy released by these lobes can be tremendously high, exceeding the total energy emitted by the Milky Way galaxy.

Conclusion

  • The study of radio galaxies unveils the dynamic interplay between supermassive black holes, AGNs, and the colossal emissions of radio waves.
  • Understanding their formation, structure, and energy emissions remains an intriguing area of astronomical research, offering insights into the most extreme phenomena within galaxies and the universe at large.

SOURCE: https://www.space.com/what-are-radio-galaxies




BAD PRECEDENT: ON THE EXPULSION OF TRINAMOOL CONGRESS MEMBER OF PARLIAMENT MAHUA MOITRA

THE CONTEXT: The expulsion of Trinamool Congress MP from the Lok Sabha by a hurried voice vote, based on a report of the Ethics Committee of the House seems dangerous for parliamentary democracy.

MORE ON THE NEWS:

  • By a 6:4 majority, including the vote of suspended Congress MP, the ethics committee recommended the expulsion of MP on the charges of ‘unethical conduct,’ ‘breach of privilege’ and ‘contempt of the House.’
  • The committee cited in its report a precedent of the expulsion of 11 MPs in 2005 for a cash-for-query sting operation by a news platform. However, there was video evidence that established a strong case then, unlike the charges against the recent case.

ISSUES:

  • Not enough scrutiny: There was not enough scrutiny conducted for the expulsion of MP in this case. The committee itself conceded in its report that it had no proof of cash exchanges, but it was emphatic in calling for her expulsion, and even labelled the sharing of her login credentials a criminal act. The report of the Ethics Committee was tabled and voted in a hurry rejecting the appeal of Opposition MPs for a more detailed discussion.
  • Lack of transparency: One of the issues raised by the Ethics Committee is regarding endangering national security as some parliamentary documents are not in public domain. This means by giving the login credentials to a non-MP Ms. Moitra has violated the privileges of the parliamentarians and also undermined national security. However, this argument is against the principles of parliamentary form of government which is transparency in government functioning. Ideally, what parliamentarian have access to should also be available to the common people.
  • Overlap with Privileges Committee: The work of the Ethics Committee and the Privileges Committee often overlap. An allegation of corruption against an MP can be sent to either body, but usually more serious accusations go to the Privileges Committee. The mandate of the Privileges Committee is to safeguard the “freedom, authority, and dignity of Parliament”.

However, often there is no such differences and often lead to contradictory situations.

  • Enforcing Brute Majority: The precedent that the majority in Parliament can expel an Opposition member on a dubious charge is dangerous for parliamentary democracy. The recent expulsion of MP is a case of justice hurried and buried.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Need of more scrutiny: The Parliamentary committee should take more time to study the case to reach at efficient and just conclusion. The extended time should be seen as an opportunity for deeper scrutiny to tackle all the issues raised in the case.
  • Balancing Authority and Rights: The recent case underscores the need to strike a delicate balance between parliamentary authority and the rights of its members.
  • Judicial Oversight: The potential for judicial review emphasizes the importance of legal oversight in maintaining democratic principles and fairness in legislative processes. It can be enforced for effective working of parliamentary system.

THE CONCLUSION:

Parliamentary privileges are conferred on the members for the smooth functioning of the parliament.  Mandating scrutiny of parliamentarians are not a hurdle to the legislative process, but it should be aimed at improving quality of governance rather than curbing on rights of parliamentarians.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 “Parliament’s power to amend the constitution is limited power and it cannot be enlarged into absolute power”. In light of this statement, explain whether parliament under article 368 of the constitution can destroy the basic structure of the constitution by expanding its amending power? (2019)

Q.2 The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law, which was legislated but with a different intention? (2013)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Discuss the role of ethics committee in ensuring accountability in parliamentary system. Suggest ways to improve its effectiveness.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/bad-precedent-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-expulsion-of-trinamool-congress-member-of-parliament-mahua-moitra/article67624791.ece




TENSIONS BETWEEN INDIA AND SRI LANKA RELATION

THE CONTEXT: Recent announcement by Sri Lanka’s President about a proposal to establish land connectivity with India has come after a long while. Much of the plans outlined in the statement have been discussed for years but could not implemented.

RECENT ISSUES BETWEEN INDIA AND SRI LANKA

mention in a joint statement issued in July, 2023 after both the prime ministers met in New Delhi.

  • Issue with Energy sector: Another area of concern in the relation of India and Sri Lanka is related to energy sector. For example, the idea of connecting the electricity networks of the two countries was floated even in 1970. Over 13 years have lapsed since the two countries signed a memorandum of understanding on the bilateral grid, but not even one unit of electricity has been transmitted.  In the case of Bangladesh, India has been exporting at least 7,000 million units (MU) annually for the last couple of years. However, certain projects are underway and both countries should be focused to ensure that the deadline is met.
  • Economic relations: Energy is not the only area where progress has been slow. The India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement was signed in December 1998, yet the two countries have not yet been able to go beyond it despite holding talks for years.
  • Untapped potential of tourism: In the area of tourism, which is a major source of revenue for Sri Lanka, India remained the largest single country of tourist arrivals, with its share being 17% of the overall number of arrivals. But the potential is much higher which is not being explored due to underperformance of Sri Lanka.
  • Fisheries Dispute: One of the longstanding issues between India and Sri Lanka is related to fishing rights in the coastal waters of Indian ocean.Indian fishermen have often been arrested by Sri Lankan authorities for allegedly engaging in illegal fishing in Sri Lankan waters. This has led to tensions between both the countries.
  • China’s Influence:India has repeatedly expressed concerns about China’s increasing economic and strategic influence on Sri Lanka. It has been viewed as a challenge to India’s own interests in the region.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Infrastructure development: The relationship between India and Sri Lanka in the areas of infrastructure development, energy links and trade has vast potential. It should be much deeper than what it is now by encouraging investment from India’s private sector and joint ventures with Sri Lankan companies.
  • Enhancing Economic Cooperation:Both countries should work towards reducing trade imbalances and promoting greater economic cooperation. It can be done by identifying sectors with complementary interests and fostering investments can lead to mutually beneficial outcomes.
  • Balancing China’s interests:While maintaining friendly ties with other countries is essential, both India and Sri Lanka should ensure that their bilateral relations remain strong and are not unduly influenced by china.
  • People-to-People Relations:There is a need to strengthen people to people relations by encouraging cultural exchanges, tourism, and educational ties. Strong connectivity is one of the avenues which can strengthen ties between the two countries and increase people-to-people linkages.
  • Energy security:As the global energy crisis continues to rise, it is imperative that India and Sri Lanka cooperate in making use of clean and green energy to make South Asia Energy self-sufficient.
  • Building upon the initiatives take in recent years: The momentum has been generated by certain developments in the last one year as:

1. Resumption of air services between Chennai and Jaffna

2. Launch of passenger ferry services between Nagapattinam and Kankesanthurai

3. Joint venture agreement among India’s National Dairy Development Board, the Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation

4. Cargills of Sri Lanka for self-sufficiency in the dairy sector

It should be sustained and improved upon to view Sri Lanka as a high standard of living and stable economy.

THE CONCLUSION:

There has been rising concern due to long pending infrastructure and security projects between India and Sri Lanka. There is a need to enhance connectivity and energy security between both the countries based on cooperation, coordination and consolidation. It can be done by laying specific procedures for specific issues to further strengthen India’s relationship with Sri Lanka.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 In respect of India-Sri Lanka relations, discuss how domestic factors influence foreign policy. (2013)

Q.2 ‘India is an age-old friend of Sri Lanka.’ Discuss India’s role in the recent crisis in Sri Lanka in the light of the preceding statement. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Economic ties between India and Sri Lanka while growing in recent years are still far below their potential. Elucidate the policy constraints which are inhibiting this growth.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/bridge-this-deficit-between-india-and-sri-lanka/article67619246.ece




AN ICY WARNING: ON THREATS FROM CONTRACTING GLACIERS

THE CONTEXT: The World Meteorological Organization’s recent report, The Global Climate 2011-2020, gives a broad view of the planet’s response to greenhouse gas emissions. In the section on the state of glacier health, it points out that, on average, the world’s glaciers thinned by approximately a metre a year from 2011 to 2020.

THE GLOBAL CLIMATE 2011-2020

About:

  • A Decade of Acceleration report documents how extreme events across the decade had devastating impacts, particularly on food security, displacement and migration, hindering national development and progress toward the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
  • It also showed how improvements in forecasts, early warnings and coordinated disaster management and response are making a difference.

Report:

  • The report was released at the UN Climate Change Conference, COP28.
  • In the section on the state of glacier health, it points out that, on average, the world’s glaciers thinned by approximately a metre a year from 2011 to 2020.
  • When compared across decades, there is significant regional variability, but the overall pattern remains that glaciers in all regions of the world are becoming smaller.
  • In fact, some of the reference glaciers, which are used to make long-term assessments of glacier health, have already melted away as the nourishing winter snow is completely melting away during summer.
  • In Africa, glaciers on the Rwenzori Mountains and Mount Kenya are projected to disappear by 2030, and those on Kilimanjaro by 2040.
  • The report points to the rapid growth of pro-glacial lakes and the likelihood of glacier lake outburst flood (GLOF), posing additional threats to ecosystems and livelihoods.

ABOUT GLACIER LAKE OUTBURST FLOOD (GLOF)

  • Glaciers are made of layers of compressed snow that move or “flow” due to gravity and the softness of ice relative to rock.
  • Proglacial lakes, formed after glaciers retreat, are often bound by sediment and boulder formations. Additional water or pressure, or structural weakness, can cause both natural and manmade dams to burst.

Reasons behind the GLOF:

  • Seismic activity and a buildup of water pressure can cause glaciers to burst, but one particular concern is climate change.
  • High temperatures coupled with less snowfall can accelerate melting, which causes water to rise to potentially dangerous levels.
  • Most mountain glaciers around the world were much larger in the past and have been melting and shrinking dramatically due to climate change and global warming.

Examples of GLOF in India:

  • Uttarakhand Kedarnath Flash Flood: An outburst flood triggered by the Chorabari Tal glacial lake in Uttarakhand devastated Kedarnath in 2013.
  • Uttarakhand Chamoli District GLOF: In Chamoli District, Uttarakhand, a glacial lake outburst flood originating from the Nanda Devi Glacier caused significant damage in 2021.
  • GLOF in North Sikkim: Recently, Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) from South Lhonak Lake in North Sikkim breached, causing massive devastation.

DESTRUCTION AND IMPACT

Increasing sea level: Melting glaciers contribute to rising sea levels, potentially causing coastal flooding and erosion.

Biodiversity loss: Glacial melting will also cause the extinction of numerous species, as glaciers are the natural habitat of a number of animals, both terrestrial and aquatic.

Economic impact: Across all continents, the rapid melting of glaciers is generating adverse effects, including flooding and other glacier-related disasters. Mitigating these effects will necessitate substantial financial resources and coordinated intervention.

Scarcity of fresh water: At the current rate of global greenhouse gas emissions, which is expected to see temperatures increase by 2.5°-3°C by the end of the century, the volume of glaciers is forecast to decline anywhere from 55% to 75%. This means sharp reductions in freshwater supply in the immediate vicinity of 2050.

Increasing global warming: Glaciers play a significant role in reflecting and absorbing the heat on earth. This means that as glaciers keep on melting, temperatures all over the world will at the same rate keep on increasing.

Increased risk of natural disasters: The retreat of glaciers can significantly increase the risk of natural disasters such as landslides, rockfalls, and Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF).

THE WAY FORWARD

Early warning system: An early warning system is needed for the likelihood of GLOF events.

Weather monitoring: Understanding precipitation patterns and snowmelt can help predict the risk of lake outburst.

Land-use planning: Avoiding development in flood-prone areas mitigates the potential for damage and loss of life.

Technological innovation: Investing in research and development of new technologies that address climate change challenges, such as carbon capture and storage, is essential for finding long-term solutions.

Greenhouse Gas emissions reduction: Implementing and strengthening policies that limit greenhouse gas emissions is paramount. This includes measures like carbon pricing, regulations on fossil fuel usage, and incentives for renewable energy adoption.

Transition to renewable energy: A rapid and decisive shift towards renewable energy sources, such as solar, wind, and geothermal, is essential to break free from dependence on fossil fuels.

Water resource management: Implementing efficient water management practices, including rainwater harvesting, groundwater recharge, and improved irrigation systems, can help communities adapt to water scarcity caused by glacial melt.

Reforestation: Planting new trees is one of the most effective ways to reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) and limit global warming.

International agreements: International agreements like the Paris Agreement and the Montreal Protocol provide a framework for coordinated action to reduce carbon emissions and combat global warming. By working together, nations can share best practices, leverage resources, and achieve collective goals that benefit everyone.

CONCLUSION:

Threats from contracting glaciers should be in the same category of risk as cyclones and earthquakes. Correspondingly, there is a need to make comprehensive risk assessments, map regions of vulnerability and commission infrastructure development with the highest standards of care.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q) Dam failures are always catastrophic, especially on the downstream side, resulting in a colossal loss of life and property. Analyze the various causes of dam failures. Give two examples of large dam failures. (2023)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q) Examine the main reasons behind the rapid melting of glaciers around the world. Also suggest some effective measures to combat glacier melting.

SOURCE: An icy warning: The Hindu Editorial on threats from contracting glaciers – The Hindu




Day-550 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GENERAL SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGICAL DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the extraction of oxygen, consider the following statements:
    1. Oxygen for medical purposes is commonly produced through distillation of air.
    2. Oxygen for use in space stations is produced through electrolysis of water.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    We know that 65% of the human body is oxygen. Oxygen is vital for respiration, the process that transfers energy from glucose to cells. In fact, every cell in our body requires oxygen. When we breathe air in, oxygen molecules enter the lungs and pass through the lung walls into our blood.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: There are various methods through which Liquid Medical Oxygen (LMO) can be produced. The most common production method is the separation of oxygen in Air Separation Units (ASUs). This is also known as Fractional Distillation method.
    Fractional Distillation method
    The various gases constituting atmospheric air are separated into different components after cooling them into a liquid state. Liquid oxygen is then extracted from it.
    Other Method – Pressure Swing Adsorption Technique
    This method leverages the property that under high pressure, gases tend to be attracted to solid surfaces. This process is known as adsorption. The higher the pressure, the more the adsorption of gas.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Since there is no air in space, water is broken down using electricity in a process known as electrolysis of water. This generates 100% pure oxygen.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    We know that 65% of the human body is oxygen. Oxygen is vital for respiration, the process that transfers energy from glucose to cells. In fact, every cell in our body requires oxygen. When we breathe air in, oxygen molecules enter the lungs and pass through the lung walls into our blood.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: There are various methods through which Liquid Medical Oxygen (LMO) can be produced. The most common production method is the separation of oxygen in Air Separation Units (ASUs). This is also known as Fractional Distillation method.
    Fractional Distillation method
    The various gases constituting atmospheric air are separated into different components after cooling them into a liquid state. Liquid oxygen is then extracted from it.
    Other Method – Pressure Swing Adsorption Technique
    This method leverages the property that under high pressure, gases tend to be attracted to solid surfaces. This process is known as adsorption. The higher the pressure, the more the adsorption of gas.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Since there is no air in space, water is broken down using electricity in a process known as electrolysis of water. This generates 100% pure oxygen.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following:
    Statement I: A slow motion video camera has a higher frame rate.
    Statement II: Higher frame rate leads to smoother video quality.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Frame rate is the number of individual video frames that your camera captures, per second. In video production, a video’s frame rate is expressed as frames per second (fps).
    Standard Frame Rates:
    24fps: Cinematic Standard
    30fps: Video Standard
    60fps: Slow-Motion Standard

    ● Statement 1 is correct: A slow motion camera has a frame rate of at least 60 fps. Ultra Slow-Motion Cameras, used in sports and movie production, have a very high frame rate of 1000 fps or even more.
    ● Statement 1 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1: Higher frame rate means more individual frames can be captured. This is used to smoothen the video as more subtle movements are better captured. This also reduces stuttering of videos and thus videos appear smoother at a higher frame rate. That is why a slow-motion camera has a higher frame rate.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Frame rate is the number of individual video frames that your camera captures, per second. In video production, a video’s frame rate is expressed as frames per second (fps).
    Standard Frame Rates:
    24fps: Cinematic Standard
    30fps: Video Standard
    60fps: Slow-Motion Standard

    ● Statement 1 is correct: A slow motion camera has a frame rate of at least 60 fps. Ultra Slow-Motion Cameras, used in sports and movie production, have a very high frame rate of 1000 fps or even more.
    ● Statement 1 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1: Higher frame rate means more individual frames can be captured. This is used to smoothen the video as more subtle movements are better captured. This also reduces stuttering of videos and thus videos appear smoother at a higher frame rate. That is why a slow-motion camera has a higher frame rate.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to the Demon Particles, consider the following statements:
    1. They do not interact with the light and are transparent.
    2. They are chargeless as well as massless in nature.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    Recently researchers have discovered a unique particle, known as a “demon particle”, within a metal called Strontium Ruthenate. This discovery has the potential to develop superconductors capable of operating at room temperature. They are composite particles made up of a combination of electrons. Demon particles were first predicted by theoretical physicist David Pines in 1956.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Demon Particles are transparent, so they are tough to be excited by photonic energy and do not interact with light.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Demon particles are chargeless as well as massless particles. Due to these properties, they are not detected under the effects of electric or magnetic fields. Due to absence of interaction with light, electric or magnetic fields, they are termed Demon Particles.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    Recently researchers have discovered a unique particle, known as a “demon particle”, within a metal called Strontium Ruthenate. This discovery has the potential to develop superconductors capable of operating at room temperature. They are composite particles made up of a combination of electrons. Demon particles were first predicted by theoretical physicist David Pines in 1956.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Demon Particles are transparent, so they are tough to be excited by photonic energy and do not interact with light.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Demon particles are chargeless as well as massless particles. Due to these properties, they are not detected under the effects of electric or magnetic fields. Due to absence of interaction with light, electric or magnetic fields, they are termed Demon Particles.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Wind Tunnel is related to which of the following activities?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Wind tunnels are machines where an object is held stationary inside a tube, and air is blown around it to study the interaction between the object and the moving air. They are used to test the aerodynamic effects of aircraft, rockets, cars, and buildings. Most of the time, powerful fans move air through the tube. The object to be tested is fastened in the tunnel so that it will not move. The air moving around the still object shows what would happen if the object were moving through the air. How the air moves can be studied in different ways. Smoke or dye can be placed in the air and can be seen as it moves. Threads can be attached to the object to show how the air is moving. Special instruments are often used to measure the force of the air on the object.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Wind tunnels are machines where an object is held stationary inside a tube, and air is blown around it to study the interaction between the object and the moving air. They are used to test the aerodynamic effects of aircraft, rockets, cars, and buildings. Most of the time, powerful fans move air through the tube. The object to be tested is fastened in the tunnel so that it will not move. The air moving around the still object shows what would happen if the object were moving through the air. How the air moves can be studied in different ways. Smoke or dye can be placed in the air and can be seen as it moves. Threads can be attached to the object to show how the air is moving. Special instruments are often used to measure the force of the air on the object.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Which of the following statements correctly explains the purpose behind launching the ‘Red Line’ campaign by the Government of India?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    ● Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) launched Red Line awareness campaign in 2016 on Antimicrobials Resistance, urging people not to use medicines marked with a red vertical line, including antibiotics, without a doctor’s prescription.

    ● Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has released treatment guidelines for antimicrobial use in common syndromes which contain guidelines for use of antibiotics for viral bronchitis and low-grade fever.
    ● Antibiotics are included in Schedule H and H1 of the Drugs Rules, 1945. These drugs have specific caution labeling requirements and are sold only under the prescription of a Registered Medical Practitioner.
    About Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)
    AMR occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread, severe illness and death.
    Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals, and plants. Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as “superbugs”.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    ● Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) launched Red Line awareness campaign in 2016 on Antimicrobials Resistance, urging people not to use medicines marked with a red vertical line, including antibiotics, without a doctor’s prescription.

    ● Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has released treatment guidelines for antimicrobial use in common syndromes which contain guidelines for use of antibiotics for viral bronchitis and low-grade fever.
    ● Antibiotics are included in Schedule H and H1 of the Drugs Rules, 1945. These drugs have specific caution labeling requirements and are sold only under the prescription of a Registered Medical Practitioner.
    About Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)
    AMR occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread, severe illness and death.
    Antimicrobials – including antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals and antiparasitics – are medicines used to prevent and treat infections in humans, animals, and plants. Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes referred to as “superbugs”.

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NO FAIT ACCOMPLI: ON THE CHANGES PROPOSED IN THE LOK SABHA IN JAMMU AND KASHMIR

THE CONTEXT: Two important pieces of legislations regarding Jammu and Kashmir were passed by the lower house of Parliament recently. These are Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2023, which aims to amend the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, and the Jammu & Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Bill, 2023, which aims at amending the Jammu and Kashmir Reservation Act, 2004. The two legislations are being viewed by opposition as an attempt by the Union government to tweak the political landscape to its advantage for electoral gains.

MORE ON THE NEWS:

  • It has been more than five and a half years since an elected government collapsed and Governor’s rule was imposed in Jammu & Kashmir amidst the suspension of the elected Assembly.
  • Subsequently, Article 370 that provided for special status for the erstwhile State was removed, the State bifurcated with the region encompassing Jammu and the Kashmir Valley made into a new Union Territory and Ladakh hived off into another.

Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2023

  • It amends the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.  The Act provides for the reorganisation of the state of Jammu and Kashmir into the union territories of Jammu and Kashmir (with legislature) and Ladakh (without legislature).
  • Number of seats in the Legislative Assembly:  The first increases the total number of Assembly seats from 107 to 114, with reservation of nine seats for Scheduled Tribes. Earlier there were 37 seats in Jammu which have now become 43, earlier there were 46 seats in Kashmir which have now become 47. Apart from that, 24 seats have been kept reserved for Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
  • Nomination of Kashmiri migrants:The Bill adds that the Lieutenant Governor may nominate up to five members, of which two will be women, one a Kashmiri migrant and one from PoK.

Migrants are defined as persons who migrated from the Kashmir Valley or any other part of the state of Jammu and Kashmir after November 1, 1989, and are registered with the Relief Commissioner.  Migrants also include individuals who have not been registered due to:

  • being in government service in any moving office
  • having left for work
  • possessing immovable property at the place from where they migrated but are unable to reside there due to disturbed conditions.

Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Amendment) Bill, 2023:

  • It amends the Jammu and Kashmir Reservation Act, 2004.  The Act provides for reservation in jobs and admission in professional institutions to members of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other socially and educationally backward classes.
  • Under the Act, socially and educationally backward classes include:
  • people residing in villages declared as socially and educationally backward by the Union Territory (UT) of Jammu and Kashmir
  • people residing in areas adjoining the Actual Line of Control and International Border
  • weak and under-privileged classes (social castes), as notified
  • The government may make inclusions or exclusions from category of weak and under-privileged classes, on the recommendations of a Commission.
  • The Bill substitutes weak and under-privileged classes with other backward classes as declared by the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.   The definition of weak and under-privileged classes is deleted from the Act.

ARTICLE 370 AND ITS REVOCATION

  • Article 370 was a provision in the Indian Constitution that granted special autonomy and privileges to the state of Jammu and Kashmir. It allowed the state to have its own constitution, flag, and autonomy over most matters except foreign affairs, defence, and communications.
  • This article was abrogated in 2019, revoking the special status of Jammu and Kashmir and integrating it fully into the Indian Union.
  • On 5th August 2019, President of India in the exercise of the powers conferred by Clause (1) of Article 370 of the Constitution had issued the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019. It repealed the special status previously accorded to Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Jammu and Kashmir now abide by all legislative amendments made by the parliament, including the Right to Information Act and the Right to Education Act.

CONCERNS

  • Pending SC verdict: The constitutionality of the changes under revocation of Article 370 is still under question and the Supreme Court has reserved its verdict on it. In this scenario, Union government has brought the Bills in a haste without waiting for the SC verdict on the matter.
  • Seats in legislative assembly: There is an increase in number of nominated seats, and it is being believed that these members will mainly be Kashmiri Pandits from the Valley. In this regard, concerns have been raised of tilting the balance away from a Muslim-majority Valley.
  • Violation of fundamental rights: It has been argued that in a federal democracy, the right to autonomous self-government is a fundamental right under Part III of the Constitution. It cannot be taken away without the due procedure established by the law.
  • Delay in Restoration of Statehood:Another major concern is the delay in restoring statehood to Jammu and Kashmir. It has been four years since revocation of its special status since it was reorganized into Union Territories.  The government has not committed to a specific timeline for this restoration.

THE WAY FORWARD

  • Elections in J&K: Elections is J&K should not be delayed further. There should be immediate restoration of the democratic process by holding popular elections. Elections should be held at the earliest and Election Commission of India and the State’s Election Commission will have to take a call soon to conduct elections. Also, local citizens need to be empowered through political platforms.
  • Restoration of Statehood: It is time for the restoration of popular government as well as Statehood in J&K. It is imperative for the government to act with urgency in facilitating the reinstatement of J&K’s statehood. The absence of statehood limits the region’s capacity to have a say in its own governance, hindering its ability to address its unique concerns and aspirations.
  • Strengthening Security and Peace: There is a need for strict measure to ensure security by countering insurgency to bring stability for development. It can also be done by strengthening local law enforcement and developing connectivity for trade and tourism. This would help not just to fill a glaring void in public life in the region but also set the stage for addressing the long-pending issues that have led to the persistence of militancy.
  • Restoring Normalcy and Trust: There is a need for restoring normalcy and trust by fostering dialogue between local leaders and parliamentarians. At the same time, there should be focus on economic growth via infrastructure, tourism and special economic zones among others.

THE CONCLUSION:

There is a need for multi-faceted approach for a successful transition from UT to statehood for ensuring economic growth and inclusive governance in the region. At the same time, cultural preservation, and effective diplomacy needs to be ensured for upholding the integrity and security of the region.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss The future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. (2016)

Q.2 The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-islaami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 In a significant legislative move, the Lok Sabha passed two new bills amending key laws in Jammu and Kashmir which has raised concerns. Discuss the challenges arising from this situation and suggest potential initiatives that can be pursued to ensure lasting peace and stability in the region?

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/no-fait-accompli-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-changes-proposed-in-the-lok-sabha-in-jammu-and-kashmir/article67615639.ece#:~:text=No%20fait%20accompli%3A%20The%20Hindu,Jammu%20and%20Kashmir%20%2D%20The%20Hindu




CHENNAI FLOODS: A WAKE-UP CALL FOR URBAN PLANNERS

THE CONTEXT: Cyclone Michaung has disrupted life in Chennai. Cyclone made its landfall in Andhra Pradesh on December 5. Heavy rainfall caused floods, submerging houses and halting communication services, at least 20 people have lost their lives.

MORE ON THE NEWS

  • On December 1, the Joint Typhoon Warning Centre (JTWC), a joint U.S. Air Force and Navy command, upgraded the likelihood of cyclone formation to high.
  • By December 2, the depression had intensified into a deep depression, as expected, while it was around 500 km southeast of Chennai and moving at around 17 km/hr.
  • On December 5, Cyclone Michaung (pronounced mig-jaum) made landfall over Nellore in Andhra Pradesh as a super-cyclonic storm.
  • A day earlier, the weather system had produced 150-200 mm of rain in north Tamil Nadu.

ABOUT CYCLONE MICHAUNG

  • Severe Cyclonic Storm Michaung was a strong tropical cyclone that formed over the Bay of Bengal off the south-eastern coast of India.
  • It originated as a low-pressure area in the Gulf of Thailand and crossed into the Bay of Bengal which became a deep depression on December 2.
  • It developed into a cyclonic storm thereafter and was named Michaung.

HOW ARE CYCLONES NAMED?

  • In 2000, a panel of the World Meteorological Organisation together with members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission prepared the list of names of tropical cyclones in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, to be given from the September 2004 season.
  • The name of each cyclone is picked from this list and cycles through each country’s suggestion.
    • For example, after Michaung (by Myanmar), the next five cyclones will be called ‘Remal’ (Oman), ‘Asna’ (Pakistan), ‘Dana’ (Qatar), ‘Fengal’ (Saudi Arabia), and ‘Shakhti’ (Sri Lanka).

WHY DID CYCLONE MICHAUNG INTENSIFY?

  • On December 4, the cyclonic storm intensified into a super-cyclonic storm. Such intensification events are a source of uncertainty in cyclone models because they alter the storm’s future course.
  • Tropical cyclones are ‘engines’ that use a warm sea surface as ‘fuel’. This is why they form close to the equator (but seldom at the equator itself because the spinning force, called the Coriolis force, is lowest there).
  • As air moves over such a warm sea, it also becomes warmer and laden with moisture, and begins to ascend. In the process, it becomes cooler, which condenses the vapour and forms clouds.
  • Condensation releases heat, which makes the air lighter and causes it to ascend further. As it does, the surrounding air moves in underneath, creating the surface winds associated with cyclones.
  • The intensification is also greater if the cyclone spends more time over the water before landfall, as Cyclone Michaung did off the coast of north Tamil Nadu.

GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES

Stormwater drainage system: The Tamil Nadu government is constructing a stormwater drainage system across Chennai and the city administration has claimed that the areas with the new drains escaped flooding. The Rs 4,500 crore project has been on since 2017 and by all accounts, nearly two-thirds of Chennai remains to be connected with the new network.

Flood Management Programme (FMP): Central Govt. has been providing financial assistance through a scheme called Flood Management Programme (FMP) since XIth Plan. The scheme since its inception has undergone several changes as per demands of states/UTs and also on account of various directions and policies of Govt.

Central Water Commission (CWC): The Government of India set up the Central Water Commission for achieving the goal of furthering and promoting measures of flood control, conservation and utilization of water resources throughout the country in the areas of beneficial uses, irrigation and hydropower generation, flood management and river conservation.

National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA): For prevention and mitigation effects of disasters including flood disasters and for undertaking a holistic, coordinated and prompt response to any disaster situation, the Government of India has set up a National Disaster Management Authority.

CONSEQUENCES OF THE INTENSIFICATION

Flooding: Heavy rainfall caused floods that submerged houses and halted communication services. At least 20 people have lost their lives.

Power outages: Several localities continue to be under water more than 48 hours after the rains abated, leading to power outages.

Shortages of essentials: There are shortages, including drinking water, milk and diesel.

Electrocutions: People are being electrocuted by loose cable wires.

Ineffective drainage system: The city’s drainage system is inadequate and needs to be improved.

Wetland encroachment: Construction projects on wetlands should be rethought.

Drinking water shortage: The city has a pressing drinking water shortage problem.

THE WAY FORWARD

Drainage revamp system: The suffering caused by the latest floods should push the state government to expedite the drainage revamp system.

Construction projects on wetlands:  After the 2015 floods, experts reasoned that planners should re-think construction projects on wetlands.

Create flood-resilient infrastructure: Design and build infrastructure, such as roads and buildings, to withstand flooding. This includes raising electrical panels, using flood-resistant materials, and installing backflow prevention devices.

Upgrade and expand drainage systems: This includes increasing the capacity of existing drainage channels, constructing new ones, and improving the efficiency of pumping stations.

CONCLUSION:

In the past five years, meteorological agencies have stepped up to the challenge of issuing timely cyclone alerts. City planners need to act now. A holistic approach combining drainage improvements, wetland preservation, and sustainable urban planning is key to bolstering flood resilience.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1) Discuss the meaning of colour-coded weather warnings for cyclone prone areas given by Indian Meteorological Department. (2022)

Q.2) The frequency of urban floods due to high intensity rainfall is increasing over the years. Discussing the reasons for urban floods, highlight the mechanisms for preparedness to reduce the risk during such events. (2017)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) In recent years, Tamil Nadu has been experiencing short-duration spells of intense rainfall, like in several parts of the country. What are the reasons for frequent floods in India? Suggest steps that need to be taken for proper flood management.

SOURCE: Express View on Chennai floods: A wake-up call for urban planners | The Indian Express




SC APPROVES EXTENSION OF DELHI CHIEF SECRETARY: WHY GOVERNMENTS KEEP THEIR BUREAUCRATS

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court’s pronouncement that the extension to the Chief Secretary of Delhi does not violate any rule turned a nail-biting thriller into a damp squib. The Centre granted extension to the  Chief Secretary of Delhi, and the apex court said it found nothing wrong with that.

ABOUT THE CHIEF SECRETARY OF THE STATE

Appointment: Chief Secretaries are chosen by the Chief Minister of State.

  • All Chief Secretaries of Delhi have invariably been appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs, which is the cadre-controlling authority of IAS and IPS officers of the AGMUT cadre (to which now the J&K cadre has been added).

Position: The Chief Secretary is the senior-most cadre post in the state administration, ranking 23rd on the Indian order of precedence. The Chief Secretary acts as the principal advisor to the chief minister on all matters of state administration and is the seniormost functionary of the civil services in a state.

Tenure: The office of Chief Secretary has been excluded from the operation of the tenure system. There is no fixed tenure for this post.

Functions: The Chief Secretary of Delhi performs two kinds of functions. He reports directly to the Lieutenant Governor on entries 1, 2 and 18 of List II of the Constitution of India, which pertain to police, law and order and land.

ALL INDIA SERVICES

  • Their recruitment, training, discipline, age of retirement and retirement benefits emanate from the All India Services Act.
  • The Act does not acknowledge extensions as normal but the rules provide for exceptions.
  • Rule 16 of the All India Services (Death Cum Retirement) Benefits Rules, 1958 required the State government to make a recommendation for the six-month extension with the prior approval of the Union government.

ISSUES

  • The Chief Secretary of NCT of Delhi is answerable only to the central government for matters relating to these three entries, which form the core of any government. Hence, if the central government so chooses (as it has) to extend the services of the Chief Secretary, it has not only the authority but its own justification to continue with the officer, regardless of the Delhi government.
  • Since the incumbent Chief Secretary of Delhi has been accused of corruption involving a company where his son works, the government should have come up with another name.

THE WAY FORWARD

  • The government should implement the provisions of FR 56(j) and compulsorily retire those whose record doesn’t measure up – not sporadically — but by using transparent benchmarks to cut out the deadwood, before it becomes a burden.

CONCLUSION:

Extending tenures should not be a routine practice but a well-justified decision based on pre-determined criteria. This ensures the selection process is objective and merit-based, minimizing potential bias or political influence. Ultimately, the focus should remain on upholding high standards of governance and ensuring efficient administration for the benefit of the people.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION:

Q) Initially Civil Services in India were designed to achieve the goals of neutrality and effectiveness, which seems to be lacking in the present context. Do you agree with the view that drastic reforms are required in Civil Services. Comment. (2017)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q) “Is it appropriate for state governments to grant extensions to Chief Secretaries”, even if the government feels comfortable with known people’’. Discuss

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/sc-approves-extension-of-delhi-chief-secretary-naresh-kumar-9050067/




MULTIDIMENSIONAL POVERTY INDEX REDUCTION UNDER THE NDA IS FLAWED

THE CONTEXT: The NITI Aayog released the ‘National Multidimensional Poverty Index: A Progress Review 2023’. However, the Union government’s claim that there is a significant decline in poverty in recent years based on Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is being questioned.

MULTIDIMENSIONAL POVERTY INDEX (MPI)

  • NITI Aayog is the nodal agency for the National MPI which ranks States and UTs based on their performance. It has been responsible for constructing an indigenised index for monitoring the performance of States and Union Territories (UTs) in addressing multidimensional poverty.
  • It captures overlapping deprivations in health, education and living standards to ascertain multidimensional poverty.
  • Each of the specific parameters under 3 broad categories is assigned a value to calculate what is called a ‘deprivation score’. The deprivation score is the sum of the weighted status of all the indicators for an individual  if it is more than 0.33, only then an individual is considered multidimensionally poor.

FINDING OF MPI, 2023:

  • India has achieved a remarkable reduction in its MPI value and Headcount Ratio between 2015-16 and 2019-21. Uttar Pradesh (UP), Bihar, Madhya Pradesh (MP), Odisha and Rajasthan recorded steepest decline in number of MPI
  • Improvement in nutrition, years of schooling, sanitation, and cooking fuel played a significant role in reducing the MPI
  • The MPI estimates highlight a near-halving of India’s national MPI value and decline in the proportion of population in multidimensional poverty from 24.85% to 14.96% between 2015-16 and 2019-21.
  • This reduction of 9.89 % in multidimensional poverty indicates that, at the level of projected population in 2021, about 135.5 million persons have escaped poverty between 2015-16 and 2019-21.
  • Besides, the intensity of poverty, which measures the average deprivation among the people living in multidimensional poverty, reduced from 47.14% to 44.39%.

ISSUES IN MPI:

  • Similar issues as UNDP’ HDI: United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) constructed an overall measure of human development with uniform weights of the three components. Following this methodology, NITI Aayog and the UNDP released recently a National Multidimensional Poverty Index/MPI: A Progress Review 2023. Hence, these reports suffer from the same flaws as the UNDP human development index aggregation with uniform weighting.
  • Reliability on authenticity of data: The government had failed to provide access to authentic and unimpeachable data on many indicators. Rise in income alone cannot measure other dimensions of poverty such as access to healthcare, sanitation and transport. While the MPI should be seen in addition to data on income-level, the government was silent on income data. MPI relies upon National Family Health Survey (NFHS) 4 and NFHS 5, which are not detailed enough for its estimation. The government had not released a consumption expenditure survey conducted by the National Survey Organisation (NSO) in 2017-18. The NSO has announced consumption expenditure surveys for 2022-23 and 2023-24.
  • Did not take into account pandemic situation: As a consequence of this pandemic, there was a huge economic shock from which the Indian economy has been struggling to recover. To illustrate, GDP growth has declined from 8% in 2015-16 to 3.78 % in 2019-20 and slumped -6.60 in 2020-21, as also per capita income. Country’s economy had not even gone back to the pre-pandemic level, this raises question of how such a large number of people had escaped poverty.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Quality of data: There is a need to enhance the quality and availability of data on multidimensional poverty at more frequent intervals. It can be done by integrating the MPI into planning, budgeting, implementation and evaluation processes at all levels of government.
  • Rigorous Analysis: There is a need of in-depth analysis of the parameters of multidimensional poverty at the national, State/UT, and district levels. It will help in development of the National MPI to act as public policy tool which monitors multidimensional poverty, informs evidence-based and focused interventions.
  • Collaboration and coordination: There is a need to strengthen the coordination and convergence among different ministries, departments, agencies and stakeholders involved in addressing multidimensional poverty.
  • Increase in investment: Government should focus on investments in critical areas as education, nutrition among others to eradicate poverty. It can be done through targeted policies, schemes, and developmental programmes rolled out at both the national and sub-national levels.
  • Awareness: There is a need to increase the awareness and participation of civil society, media, academia and other actors in advocating for and monitoring multidimensional poverty reduction.

THE CONCLUSION:

Recently released MPI index have several lacunae which need reinterpretation to eradicate poverty with proper policy interventions. Consistent policy implementation across a diverse set of programmes and initiatives that have strong interlinkages will lead to a further reduction in deprivations across multiple indicators.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q.1 Though there have been several different estimates of poverty in India, all indicate a reduction in poverty levels over time. Do you agree? Critically examine with reference to urban and rural poverty indicators. (2015)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 Poverty impacts the social, economic and environmental aspects of the nation differently. Suggest the possible ways to eradicate poverty and achieve sustainable development goals in India.

Q.2 Recent assessment of poverty by Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) has been termed as flawed as the government estimates fail to paint an accurate picture of the realities. Critically analyse this statement.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/multidimensional-poverty-index-reduction-under-the-nda-is-flawed/article67611818.ece#:~:text=Astonishingly%2C%20the%20MPI%202023%20estimates,%2D16%20and%202019%2D21.




THE AMBEDKAR TOUCH IN RETHINKING SOCIAL JUSTICE POLICIES

THE CONTEXT: There arise differences between Ambedkar’s expectations and the current situations of the marginalized communities of India under the rise of neoliberalism. Thus, there is a call for a redefined social justice framework aligned with Ambedkar’s principles, emphasizing inclusive integration into the economic order for marginalized groups.

ABOUT MODERN DEMOCRACY:

  • Modern democracy is synonymous with both the values of social harmony and reforms that ensure dignity and self-respect to its participants, especially the historically deprived and socially marginalised people.
  • Further, democratic institutions are mandated to engage with the worst-off social groups and ensure their substantive participation as a significant governing class in political affairs.
  • The socially oppressed groups in India, especially Dalits, adored and celebrated such modern virtues because of their liberative potential and egalitarian goals.
  • Though the mechanism of social justice is not radical and transformative, it provides moral sensibilities to institutions and makes it responsible towards the diverse population.

ISSUES:

  • Neo-liberal Impact: Neo-liberal market is alien to the concept of social justice and celebrates the exclusive control of few corporate bodies and businessmen over capitalist development. Neo-liberal economic development has disrupted traditional support for Dalits and Adivasis from state institutions and their concerns has been neglected.
  • Tokenistic presence: Various sectors witness the dominance of social elites, perpetuating the control of the conventional ruling class. In this scenario, socially marginalized groups experience tokenistic representation in power and privileges.
  • Little impact of government policies: Though various political regimes vouch to implement social justice policies, this has little impact in ensuring the significant participation of the marginalized social groups in the domain of power.
  • Exploitative impact: In the neo liberal market, there is distancing of the market from social responsibilities. It leads to neglect towards the aspirations and the demands of Dalits and Adivasis which make market enterprise more exploitative and closer to a crony capitalist mode. This version of the market economy needs reforms.
  • Contrast views with Ambedkar: Ambedkar looked upon the modern state as the key transformative force for the emancipation of Dalits and Adivasis. However, in the neo-liberal realm, the state has been converted as the passive associate of big business that readily deviates from its social responsibilities and welfarist values.

AMBEDKAR VISION:

  • Babasaheb Ambedkar emerged as a torchbearer of liberal enlightened ideas and expected that post-colonial India would be distinct from the exploitative Brahmanical past. He invited Dalits and other marginalised communities to be equal shareholders in the nation’s economic and political development.
  • R. Ambedkar’s principles of social justice would disapprove the current realm of neo-liberal economy for its neglect of the concerns of Dalits and Adivasis. It would direct the market to be more responsible towards the marginalized groups.
  • It would also direct the state to reduce the pitfalls and slippages now in social justice policies and make them more relevant in the present day.
  • Ambedkar becomes crucial in such a discourse because his approach allows us to diagnose illnesses in the social and economic order. He offers ethical corrective measures to make institutions more democratic, representative and closer to the claims and the desires of marginalised social groups.

THE WAY FORWARD

  • Implementing Policies: There is a need for adoption of affirmative policies to empower Dalit and Adivasi groups as industrialists, market leaders, and influencers. For which there is a need for expansion of social justice policies to the private economy for democratizing working classes and reducing poverty.
  • Inclusivity of marginalized groups: There is a need for integration of Dalits and Adivasis as influential contributors to the market economy. This can make marginalised groups an integral part of the new economic order by reducing their perpetual subjugation as a passive exploited class. Dalits and Adivasis should not be identified only as the poor and migrant working class that is dependent upon the benevolence of corporate social responsibility for their livelihood. Instead, these groups should be advanced as the essential components of urbanisation, industrial production and technological innovations.
  • Inculcating Ambedkar’s vision: Adopting Ambedkar’s version of social justice would help to redefine capitalism as a pluralist and cooperative mode of economic order. It can guarantees the participation of Dalits and Adivasis in the market economy and in the associated institutions of power and privileges.
  • Marginalised groups as influential arbitrators: Marginalised groups concerns to protect their habitats, ecological order and cultural autonomy must be addressed, while endorsing the fact about the market economy’s inevitability. Therefore, it is necessary that the current phase of economic development and the expansion of the market economy should also be directed toward making marginalized as influential arbitrators in the neo-liberal discourse.

THE CONCLUSION:

Neo liberal economic model has significant impact on the marginalized groups that is in contrast to vision of Ambedkar’s vision of social justice. The leaders of the market economy should be educated to adopt welfarist measures for the marginalized groups to make them integral to economic development.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 There is a growing divergence in the relationship between poverty and hunger in India. The shrinking of social expenditure by the government is forcing the poor to spend more on non-food essential items squeezing their food-budget – Elucidate. (2019)

Q.2 Multiplicity of various commissions for the vulnerable sections of the society leads to problems of overlapping jurisdiction and duplication of functions. Is it better to merge all commissions into an umbrella Human Rights Commission? Argue your case. (2018)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 With the ascent of neo-liberal economic development, the conventional support that Dalits and Adivasis have received from state institutions has derailed. In this context, assess the impact of the neo-liberal economic model on social justice policies.

Q.2 Evaluate Ambedkar’s vision for making the neo liberal economic model more democratic and representative to address the concern of neglect of marginalized groups.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-ambedkar-touch-in-rethinking-social-justice-policies/article67608373.ece




Day-549 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Habitat rights are given to PVTGs under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
    Statement II: All the PVTGs in India have been given Habitat rights to safeguard and promote their traditional livelihood.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Context: In October, 2023, the Chhattisgarh Government has granted habitat rights to its Baiga PVTG (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group) after the Kamar PVTG received habitat rights in the state.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Habitat rights are given to PVTGs under section 3(1) (e) [rights including community tenures of habitat and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities] of The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 also known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Out of 75 PVTG in India, only three have habitat rights. The Bharia PVTG in Madhya Pradesh was the first, followed by the Kamar tribe and now the Baiga tribe in Chhattisgarh.
    Additional information:
    ● Habitat rights recognition provides the community concerned rights over their customary territory of habitation.
    ● It includes socio-cultural practices, economic and livelihood means, intellectual knowledge of biodiversity and ecology, traditional knowledge of use of natural resources, as well as protection and conservation of their natural and cultural heritage.
    ● According to Section 2(h) of FRA, “Habitat includes the area comprising the customary habitat and such other habitats in reserved forests and protected forests of primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities and other forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes.”
    ● Habitat rights safeguard and promote traditional livelihood and ecological knowledge passed down through generations.
    ● They also help converge different government schemes and initiatives from various departments to empower PVTG communities to develop their habitats.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Context: In October, 2023, the Chhattisgarh Government has granted habitat rights to its Baiga PVTG (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group) after the Kamar PVTG received habitat rights in the state.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Habitat rights are given to PVTGs under section 3(1) (e) [rights including community tenures of habitat and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities] of The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 also known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Out of 75 PVTG in India, only three have habitat rights. The Bharia PVTG in Madhya Pradesh was the first, followed by the Kamar tribe and now the Baiga tribe in Chhattisgarh.
    Additional information:
    ● Habitat rights recognition provides the community concerned rights over their customary territory of habitation.
    ● It includes socio-cultural practices, economic and livelihood means, intellectual knowledge of biodiversity and ecology, traditional knowledge of use of natural resources, as well as protection and conservation of their natural and cultural heritage.
    ● According to Section 2(h) of FRA, “Habitat includes the area comprising the customary habitat and such other habitats in reserved forests and protected forests of primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities and other forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes.”
    ● Habitat rights safeguard and promote traditional livelihood and ecological knowledge passed down through generations.
    ● They also help converge different government schemes and initiatives from various departments to empower PVTG communities to develop their habitats.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Reverse Book Building’:
    1. It involves removing of the securities of a listed company from a stock exchange through a fixed price mechanism.
    2. It is a process used for efficient price discovery.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India is exploring the possibility of permitting the delisting of companies through a fixed price mechanism instead of the existing reverse book-building procedure.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: In this method, shareholders of the company place offers to sell their securities back to the promoters or large shareholders who hold significant influence over the company’s policies. There is no fixed price mechanism in this process.
    Statement 2 is correct: Reverse book building is a process used for efficient price discovery. During the period for which the reverse book-building is open, offers are collected from shareholders at various prices, which are above or equal to the floor price. The buyback price is determined after the offer closing price.
    Additional information:
    ● Delisting means removing the securities of a listed company from a stock exchange. Once delisted, the securities of that company can no longer be traded on the stock exchange.
    ● Delisting can be either voluntary or compulsory.
    1. In voluntary delisting, a company decides on its own to remove its securities from a stock exchange.
    2. In compulsory delisting, they are removed as a penal measure for the company not making submissions or complying with requirements set out in the listing agreement within the prescribed timeframes.
    How does Reverse Book-Building Work?
    ● Price Collection Phase: During the reverse book-building process, the company announces the intention to delist, specifying the floor price—the minimum price at which the company will buy back shares from the public shareholders. The company sets a specific period during which shareholders can submit their offers to sell their shares at various prices above or equal to the floor price.
    ● Gathering Offers: Shareholders, including retail and institutional investors, participate in the process by submitting their offers. They indicate the number of shares they are willing to sell and the respective price at which they want to sell them.
    ● Price Determination: At the end of the offer submission period, the company analyzes all the offers received and determines the final buyback price based on the demand and supply of shares at different price points. The objective is to arrive at a price that encourages a sufficient number of shareholders to participate and ensures a fair exit opportunity.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India is exploring the possibility of permitting the delisting of companies through a fixed price mechanism instead of the existing reverse book-building procedure.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: In this method, shareholders of the company place offers to sell their securities back to the promoters or large shareholders who hold significant influence over the company’s policies. There is no fixed price mechanism in this process.
    Statement 2 is correct: Reverse book building is a process used for efficient price discovery. During the period for which the reverse book-building is open, offers are collected from shareholders at various prices, which are above or equal to the floor price. The buyback price is determined after the offer closing price.
    Additional information:
    ● Delisting means removing the securities of a listed company from a stock exchange. Once delisted, the securities of that company can no longer be traded on the stock exchange.
    ● Delisting can be either voluntary or compulsory.
    1. In voluntary delisting, a company decides on its own to remove its securities from a stock exchange.
    2. In compulsory delisting, they are removed as a penal measure for the company not making submissions or complying with requirements set out in the listing agreement within the prescribed timeframes.
    How does Reverse Book-Building Work?
    ● Price Collection Phase: During the reverse book-building process, the company announces the intention to delist, specifying the floor price—the minimum price at which the company will buy back shares from the public shareholders. The company sets a specific period during which shareholders can submit their offers to sell their shares at various prices above or equal to the floor price.
    ● Gathering Offers: Shareholders, including retail and institutional investors, participate in the process by submitting their offers. They indicate the number of shares they are willing to sell and the respective price at which they want to sell them.
    ● Price Determination: At the end of the offer submission period, the company analyzes all the offers received and determines the final buyback price based on the demand and supply of shares at different price points. The objective is to arrive at a price that encourages a sufficient number of shareholders to participate and ensures a fair exit opportunity.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to the ‘GIFT NIFTY’, consider the following statements:
    1. It is the first cross-border initiative connecting capital markets of India and the USA.
    2. Any trading member Indian or foreign setting up its office through subsidiary model can start trading in the GIFT Nifty products by taking membership of NSE IX.
    3. The GIFT NIFTY contracts are denominated in US dollars, which reduces the currency risk and conversion costs for international investors.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Context: The launch of GIFT NIFTY, formerly known as SGX NIFTY, marked a new milestone in the collaboration between India and Singapore. It began trading at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in July, 2023 attracting more than 30,000 trades in one session.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the first cross-border initiative in connecting India and Singapore’s capital markets. It is a new product that allows investors to trade futures and options contracts on the NIFTY 50 Index, which is the benchmark index of the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE), on the Singapore Exchange (SGX).
    Statement 2 is correct: Any trading member Indian or foreign setting up its office through subsidiary/branch model can start trading in the GIFT Nifty products by taking member ship of NSE IX. They can be either registered or non-registered.
    Statement 3 is correct: GIFT NIFTY contracts are denominated in US dollars, which reduces the currency risk and conversion costs for international investors.
    Additional information:
    ● The GIFT NIFTY stands for Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT) NIFTY, as the contracts are cleared and settled at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in GIFT City, Gujarat, India.
    ● The IFSC is a special economic zone that offers various incentives and benefits to participants, such as lower taxes, relaxed regulations, and access to global markets.
    ● It is supported by the regulatory authorities of both countries, namely the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS).
    ● The GIFT NIFTY contracts are available for trading from 9:00 am to 11:55 pm Singapore time (6:30 am to 9:25 pm India time), which covers both the Indian and Singapore market hours, as well as some of the European and US market hours.
    ● The GIFT NIFTY contracts also have lower transaction fees and margin requirements than the existing NIFTY 50 contracts traded on the NSE.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Context: The launch of GIFT NIFTY, formerly known as SGX NIFTY, marked a new milestone in the collaboration between India and Singapore. It began trading at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in July, 2023 attracting more than 30,000 trades in one session.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the first cross-border initiative in connecting India and Singapore’s capital markets. It is a new product that allows investors to trade futures and options contracts on the NIFTY 50 Index, which is the benchmark index of the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE), on the Singapore Exchange (SGX).
    Statement 2 is correct: Any trading member Indian or foreign setting up its office through subsidiary/branch model can start trading in the GIFT Nifty products by taking member ship of NSE IX. They can be either registered or non-registered.
    Statement 3 is correct: GIFT NIFTY contracts are denominated in US dollars, which reduces the currency risk and conversion costs for international investors.
    Additional information:
    ● The GIFT NIFTY stands for Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT) NIFTY, as the contracts are cleared and settled at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in GIFT City, Gujarat, India.
    ● The IFSC is a special economic zone that offers various incentives and benefits to participants, such as lower taxes, relaxed regulations, and access to global markets.
    ● It is supported by the regulatory authorities of both countries, namely the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS).
    ● The GIFT NIFTY contracts are available for trading from 9:00 am to 11:55 pm Singapore time (6:30 am to 9:25 pm India time), which covers both the Indian and Singapore market hours, as well as some of the European and US market hours.
    ● The GIFT NIFTY contracts also have lower transaction fees and margin requirements than the existing NIFTY 50 contracts traded on the NSE.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the term ‘’dotted land’’?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: In May, 2023, the Andhra Pradesh government has started removing “dotted lands” in the state from the prohibited list, restoring full rights of selling or pledging these lands to the farmers who own them. Over 2 lakh acres of these British-era dotted lands have been identified for permanent denotification.
    Explanation:
    ● Dotted lands are disputed lands for which there are no clear ownership documents. Typically, one or more individuals as well as the government’s Revenue Department lay claim over the land.
    ● These lands came to be known as “dotted lands’’ during, land ownership surveys and resettlement of land records the British era.
    ● In British era local revenue officials who were tasked with identifying government-owned and privately-owned lands put dots in the ownership column if more than one person claimed ownership.
    How did these ownership disputes arise?
    ● This could happen if landowners did not leave clear wills passing on land to their heirs or children, and if a dispute arose because more than one heir lay claim over the land.
    ● Also, land could be deemed by the government to belong to the state but was under occupation by private parties.
    ● Some of the land records in question are more than 100 years old, and had been locked up in the prohibited list in and registers.
    ● During subsequent surveys, government officials left the ownership column blank indicating their disputed status as per Section 22A of the Registration Act.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: In May, 2023, the Andhra Pradesh government has started removing “dotted lands” in the state from the prohibited list, restoring full rights of selling or pledging these lands to the farmers who own them. Over 2 lakh acres of these British-era dotted lands have been identified for permanent denotification.
    Explanation:
    ● Dotted lands are disputed lands for which there are no clear ownership documents. Typically, one or more individuals as well as the government’s Revenue Department lay claim over the land.
    ● These lands came to be known as “dotted lands’’ during, land ownership surveys and resettlement of land records the British era.
    ● In British era local revenue officials who were tasked with identifying government-owned and privately-owned lands put dots in the ownership column if more than one person claimed ownership.
    How did these ownership disputes arise?
    ● This could happen if landowners did not leave clear wills passing on land to their heirs or children, and if a dispute arose because more than one heir lay claim over the land.
    ● Also, land could be deemed by the government to belong to the state but was under occupation by private parties.
    ● Some of the land records in question are more than 100 years old, and had been locked up in the prohibited list in and registers.
    ● During subsequent surveys, government officials left the ownership column blank indicating their disputed status as per Section 22A of the Registration Act.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements regarding Gandhi Peace Prize:
    1. It is only given to individuals who have worked selflessly for peace, non-violence and amelioration of human sufferings.
    2. The awardees do not get any cash reward, but a certificate signed by the President apart from a medallion which they can wear at public or government function.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: In June 2023, the Gandhi prize was awarded to Gita Press for its ‘outstanding contribution towards social, economic and political transformation through non-violent and other Gandhian methods’.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: This award is given to individuals, associations, institutions or organizations who have worked selflessly for peace, non-violence and amelioration of human sufferings.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The award carries an amount of Rs. 1 crore, a citation, a plaque and an exquisite traditional handicraft/handloom item. The award is conferred by the President of India at a function in Rashtrapati Bhavan.
    Additional information:
    ● Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual award instituted by Government of India in 1995, on the occasion of 125th Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi as a tribute to the ideals espoused by Mahatma Gandhi.
    ● The award is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender.
    ● The Award may be divided between two persons / institutions who are considered by the Jury to be equally deserving of recognition in a given year.
    ● Work by a person since deceased cannot be the subject of an Award. If, however, his death occurred subsequent to a proposal having been submitted to the Jury(headed by the Prime Minister) in the manner stipulated in the Code of Procedure of the Prize, then a Posthumous Award may be made.
    ● Established in 1923, Gita Press is one of the world’s largest publishers, having published 41.7 crore books in 14 languages, including 16.21 crore Shrimad Bhagvad Gita.
    ● The institution has never relied on advertisement in its publications, for revenue generation. Gita Press, along with its affiliated organizations, strives for the betterment of life and the wellbeing of all.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: In June 2023, the Gandhi prize was awarded to Gita Press for its ‘outstanding contribution towards social, economic and political transformation through non-violent and other Gandhian methods’.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: This award is given to individuals, associations, institutions or organizations who have worked selflessly for peace, non-violence and amelioration of human sufferings.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The award carries an amount of Rs. 1 crore, a citation, a plaque and an exquisite traditional handicraft/handloom item. The award is conferred by the President of India at a function in Rashtrapati Bhavan.
    Additional information:
    ● Gandhi Peace Prize is an annual award instituted by Government of India in 1995, on the occasion of 125th Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi as a tribute to the ideals espoused by Mahatma Gandhi.
    ● The award is open to all persons regardless of nationality, race, language, caste, creed or gender.
    ● The Award may be divided between two persons / institutions who are considered by the Jury to be equally deserving of recognition in a given year.
    ● Work by a person since deceased cannot be the subject of an Award. If, however, his death occurred subsequent to a proposal having been submitted to the Jury(headed by the Prime Minister) in the manner stipulated in the Code of Procedure of the Prize, then a Posthumous Award may be made.
    ● Established in 1923, Gita Press is one of the world’s largest publishers, having published 41.7 crore books in 14 languages, including 16.21 crore Shrimad Bhagvad Gita.
    ● The institution has never relied on advertisement in its publications, for revenue generation. Gita Press, along with its affiliated organizations, strives for the betterment of life and the wellbeing of all.

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Day-548 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following:
    1. Access to a larger and more liquid market
    2. Savings on the costs and time involved in the Initial Public Offering (IPO) process
    3. Avoidance of the dilution of ownership and control
    4. Exposure to the currency fluctuations and market volatility of the foreign exchange
    How many of the above are the possible benefits of direct listing of shares on a foreign stock exchange?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    ● Direct listing is a process by which a company can list its shares on a foreign stock exchange without issuing new shares or raising capital from investors.
    ● Direct listing is different from the traditional Initial Public Offering (IPO), where a company sells a portion of its shares to the public and raises funds from investors.
    ● Direct listing is also different from the Depository Receipt (DR) route, where a company issues its shares to a custodian bank, which then issues DRs to foreign investors.
    Not a possible benefit of direct foreign listing:
    ● Exposure to the currency fluctuations and market volatility of the foreign exchange is one of the effects of direct foreign list. However, it can affect their share price and returns. So, it is a challenge not a benefit.
    Benefits of Direct Foreign Listing:
    ● Access to a larger and more liquid market, which can increase the demand and valuation of their shares.
    ● Savings on the costs and time involved in the IPO or DR process, such as underwriting fees, listing fees, legal fees, etc.
    ● Avoidance of the dilution of ownership and control that comes with issuing new shares or DRs.
    ● Ability to reach out to a wider and more sophisticated investor base, which can enhance their reputation and credibility.
    ● Startups and unicorns may benefit from this avenue of raising funds and increasing their global profile.
    ● Exposure to the best practices and regulations of the foreign jurisdiction can improve their governance and transparency.
    Additional information:
    How do Indian Companies Currently List on Foreign Exchanges?
    ● Currently, Indian companies list on foreign bourses using depository receipts, including American Depository Receipts (ADRs) and Global Depository Receipts (GDRs).
    ● To list on foreign stock exchanges, Indian companies entrust their shares to an Indian custodian, who then issues depository receipts (DRs) to foreign investors.
    ● Between 2008 and 2018, 109 companies raised over Rs 51,000 crore through ADRs/GDRs.
    ● However, after 2018, no Indian companies pursued overseas listings through this route.
    ● ADR refers to a negotiable certificate issued by a U.S. depositary bank representing a specified number of shares, usually one share of a foreign company’s stock.
    ● GDRs is a certificate issued by a depository bank that represents shares in a foreign company and deposits them in an account. GDRs are mostly traded on the European markets.
    Challenges Involved in Direct Foreign Listing:
    ● Compliance with the laws and rules of the foreign jurisdiction, which may be different from or more stringent than those in India.
    ● Challenges in direct foreign listings include valuation issues, as global investors may not offer the same valuations as in India, potentially impacting the company’s market perception and pricing.
    ● Potential conflicts or disputes with the existing shareholders, regulators, or tax authorities in India or abroad.
    ● Clarity is needed on which classes of public companies can use this route, the classes of securities that can be listed, the foreign jurisdictions and permitted stock exchanges for listing, and the exemptions offered to such companies in terms of procedural compliances.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    ● Direct listing is a process by which a company can list its shares on a foreign stock exchange without issuing new shares or raising capital from investors.
    ● Direct listing is different from the traditional Initial Public Offering (IPO), where a company sells a portion of its shares to the public and raises funds from investors.
    ● Direct listing is also different from the Depository Receipt (DR) route, where a company issues its shares to a custodian bank, which then issues DRs to foreign investors.
    Not a possible benefit of direct foreign listing:
    ● Exposure to the currency fluctuations and market volatility of the foreign exchange is one of the effects of direct foreign list. However, it can affect their share price and returns. So, it is a challenge not a benefit.
    Benefits of Direct Foreign Listing:
    ● Access to a larger and more liquid market, which can increase the demand and valuation of their shares.
    ● Savings on the costs and time involved in the IPO or DR process, such as underwriting fees, listing fees, legal fees, etc.
    ● Avoidance of the dilution of ownership and control that comes with issuing new shares or DRs.
    ● Ability to reach out to a wider and more sophisticated investor base, which can enhance their reputation and credibility.
    ● Startups and unicorns may benefit from this avenue of raising funds and increasing their global profile.
    ● Exposure to the best practices and regulations of the foreign jurisdiction can improve their governance and transparency.
    Additional information:
    How do Indian Companies Currently List on Foreign Exchanges?
    ● Currently, Indian companies list on foreign bourses using depository receipts, including American Depository Receipts (ADRs) and Global Depository Receipts (GDRs).
    ● To list on foreign stock exchanges, Indian companies entrust their shares to an Indian custodian, who then issues depository receipts (DRs) to foreign investors.
    ● Between 2008 and 2018, 109 companies raised over Rs 51,000 crore through ADRs/GDRs.
    ● However, after 2018, no Indian companies pursued overseas listings through this route.
    ● ADR refers to a negotiable certificate issued by a U.S. depositary bank representing a specified number of shares, usually one share of a foreign company’s stock.
    ● GDRs is a certificate issued by a depository bank that represents shares in a foreign company and deposits them in an account. GDRs are mostly traded on the European markets.
    Challenges Involved in Direct Foreign Listing:
    ● Compliance with the laws and rules of the foreign jurisdiction, which may be different from or more stringent than those in India.
    ● Challenges in direct foreign listings include valuation issues, as global investors may not offer the same valuations as in India, potentially impacting the company’s market perception and pricing.
    ● Potential conflicts or disputes with the existing shareholders, regulators, or tax authorities in India or abroad.
    ● Clarity is needed on which classes of public companies can use this route, the classes of securities that can be listed, the foreign jurisdictions and permitted stock exchanges for listing, and the exemptions offered to such companies in terms of procedural compliances.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements about the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):
    1. It measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products.
    2. The Central Statistical Organization (CSO) computes and publishes the IIP index on a quarterly basis.
    3. The current base year for the IIP series in India is 2011-12.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The IIP measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Statistical Organization (CSO) computes and publishes the IIP index on a monthly basis.
    Statement 3 is correct: The current base year for the IIP series in India is 2011-12.
    Additional information:
    ● IIP is an important composite indicator in India that measures the changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products. IIP measures the growth of manufacturing, mining, and electricity sectors.
    ● The aim of IIP is to capture the direction and the trend of industrial production in the country, not the absolute value of industrial production.
    ● This index gives the growth rates of different industry groups of the economy over a specified time period.
    ● The eight core industries of India represent about 40% of the weight of items that are included in the IIP. The Eight Core Sectors/Industries are: Electricity; Steel; Refinery products; Crude oil; Coal; Cement; Natural gas; Fertilizers.
    ● The industry groups that it measures are classified under the following:
    1. Broad sectors like manufacturing, mining, and electricity.
    2. Use-based sectors like capital goods, basic goods, intermediate goods, infrastructure goods, consumer durables, and consumer non-durables.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The IIP measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Statistical Organization (CSO) computes and publishes the IIP index on a monthly basis.
    Statement 3 is correct: The current base year for the IIP series in India is 2011-12.
    Additional information:
    ● IIP is an important composite indicator in India that measures the changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products. IIP measures the growth of manufacturing, mining, and electricity sectors.
    ● The aim of IIP is to capture the direction and the trend of industrial production in the country, not the absolute value of industrial production.
    ● This index gives the growth rates of different industry groups of the economy over a specified time period.
    ● The eight core industries of India represent about 40% of the weight of items that are included in the IIP. The Eight Core Sectors/Industries are: Electricity; Steel; Refinery products; Crude oil; Coal; Cement; Natural gas; Fertilizers.
    ● The industry groups that it measures are classified under the following:
    1. Broad sectors like manufacturing, mining, and electricity.
    2. Use-based sectors like capital goods, basic goods, intermediate goods, infrastructure goods, consumer durables, and consumer non-durables.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to the Angel tax in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Angel tax is an income tax, applicable only on unlisted companies.
    2. Angel tax can be imposed only on investments made by a resident investor.
    3. All government recognised startups are exempt from Angel tax.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Angel Tax is a term basically used to refer to the income tax payable on the capital raised by unlisted companies via the issue of shares through off-market transactions.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Before budget 2023-24, angel tax was imposed only on investments made by a resident investor. i.e., it was not applicable in case the investments are made by any non-resident or venture capital funds. With Budget 2023-24, the government has decided to include foreign investors in the ambit. That means when a start-up raises funding from a foreign investor, that too will now be counted as income and be taxable. However, these foreign investors will not need to pay any angel tax while investing in a government-recognised startup in India similar to the provision for domestic investors.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: All government recognised startups are not exempt from the Angel Tax. It is only those start-ups which meet certain criteria are exempted from this tax. Moreover, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has clarified that government recognised startups will not be scrutinized for the changes brought about by the Budget 2023-24.
    Additional information:
    ● Angel tax is levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares by unlisted companies from an Indian investor/ foreign investor from certain countries if the share price of issued shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the company.
    ● Rule related to Angel Tax is described in Section 56(2)(viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
    ● This clause was inserted into the act in 2012 to prevent laundering of black money, round-tripping via investments with a large premium into unlisted companies.
    ● Allaying the concerns of the startup community, the govt had also exempted investments made by the domestic investors in companies approved by an inter-ministerial panel from Angel Tax.
    ● Government recognised startups, upon meeting certain criteria are exempted from this tax.
    ● Currently, angel tax is levied at the rate of 30.6 per cent.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Angel Tax is a term basically used to refer to the income tax payable on the capital raised by unlisted companies via the issue of shares through off-market transactions.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Before budget 2023-24, angel tax was imposed only on investments made by a resident investor. i.e., it was not applicable in case the investments are made by any non-resident or venture capital funds. With Budget 2023-24, the government has decided to include foreign investors in the ambit. That means when a start-up raises funding from a foreign investor, that too will now be counted as income and be taxable. However, these foreign investors will not need to pay any angel tax while investing in a government-recognised startup in India similar to the provision for domestic investors.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: All government recognised startups are not exempt from the Angel Tax. It is only those start-ups which meet certain criteria are exempted from this tax. Moreover, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has clarified that government recognised startups will not be scrutinized for the changes brought about by the Budget 2023-24.
    Additional information:
    ● Angel tax is levied on the capital raised via the issue of shares by unlisted companies from an Indian investor/ foreign investor from certain countries if the share price of issued shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the company.
    ● Rule related to Angel Tax is described in Section 56(2)(viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
    ● This clause was inserted into the act in 2012 to prevent laundering of black money, round-tripping via investments with a large premium into unlisted companies.
    ● Allaying the concerns of the startup community, the govt had also exempted investments made by the domestic investors in companies approved by an inter-ministerial panel from Angel Tax.
    ● Government recognised startups, upon meeting certain criteria are exempted from this tax.
    ● Currently, angel tax is levied at the rate of 30.6 per cent.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Which one of the following statements about the Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme is incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10.
    Statement 2 is correct: Only one account can be opened in the name of a girl child.
    Statement 3 is correct: Maximum period up to which deposits can be made 15 years from the date of opening of the account.
    Statement 4 is correct: Interest that accrues against this account which gets compounded annually is also exempt from tax under Section 10 of the Income Tax Act.
    Additional information:
    ● Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) Scheme was Introduced in 2016, the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana Account (SSA) is a central government scheme aimed to cater to a girl child.
    ● The Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana is a government savings scheme created with the intention to benefit girl child under the initiative called “Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao”.
    ● This scheme carries a higher interest rate along with several tax benefits.
    ● The principal amount deposited, interest earned during the entire tenure and maturity benefits are tax-exempt. The principal amount is deductible under section 80C up to Rs 1.5 lakh.
    ● The proceeds received upon maturity/withdrawal are also exempt from income tax.
    ● The account matures after 21 years of opening the account or in the event of the marriage of the girl child after she gains the age of 18 years.
    ● A premature withdrawal of up to 50% of the investment is allowed after the child gains the age of 18 years even if she is not getting married.
    ● Three girl children, in case of twin girls as second birth or the first birth itself results in three girl children.
    ● Minimum of Rs 250 of initial deposit with multiple of Rs 150 thereafter with annual ceiling of Rs.150000 in a financial year.
    ● The account shall mature on completion of 21 years from the date of opening of account or on the marriage of Account holder whichever is earlier.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10.
    Statement 2 is correct: Only one account can be opened in the name of a girl child.
    Statement 3 is correct: Maximum period up to which deposits can be made 15 years from the date of opening of the account.
    Statement 4 is correct: Interest that accrues against this account which gets compounded annually is also exempt from tax under Section 10 of the Income Tax Act.
    Additional information:
    ● Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) Scheme was Introduced in 2016, the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana Account (SSA) is a central government scheme aimed to cater to a girl child.
    ● The Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana is a government savings scheme created with the intention to benefit girl child under the initiative called “Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao”.
    ● This scheme carries a higher interest rate along with several tax benefits.
    ● The principal amount deposited, interest earned during the entire tenure and maturity benefits are tax-exempt. The principal amount is deductible under section 80C up to Rs 1.5 lakh.
    ● The proceeds received upon maturity/withdrawal are also exempt from income tax.
    ● The account matures after 21 years of opening the account or in the event of the marriage of the girl child after she gains the age of 18 years.
    ● A premature withdrawal of up to 50% of the investment is allowed after the child gains the age of 18 years even if she is not getting married.
    ● Three girl children, in case of twin girls as second birth or the first birth itself results in three girl children.
    ● Minimum of Rs 250 of initial deposit with multiple of Rs 150 thereafter with annual ceiling of Rs.150000 in a financial year.
    ● The account shall mature on completion of 21 years from the date of opening of account or on the marriage of Account holder whichever is earlier.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    1. When the RBI buys government securities, it can increase borrowing costs in the market.
    2. When the RBI sells government securities, it can depreciate the rupees.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Open Market Operations (OMOs) have a significant impact on interest rates. When the RBI buys government securities, it injects liquidity in the market. Banks have excess funds to lend to borrowers. This reduces the cost of borrowing in the market.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: OMOs can also influence the exchange rate of the Indian rupee. When the RBI sells government securities, it receives rupees from buyers, reducing the supply of rupees in the market and putting upward pressure on the exchange rate, making the rupee stronger.
    Additional information:
    ● Open market operations (OMOs) are one of the tools that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses to regulate the money supply and liquidity conditions in the economy.
    ● OMOs are the sale and purchase of government securities (G-Secs) and treasury bills (T-Bills) by the RBI in the open market. When RBI wants to inject liquidity into the system, it buys G-Secs and T-Bills from the market, thereby increasing the money supply.
    ● Conversely, when RBI wants to absorb excess liquidity from the system, it sells G-Secs and T-Bills to the market, thereby reducing the money supply.
    ● OMO plays a crucial role in ensuring consistent liquidity availability throughout the year, thus maintaining desired interest rate levels.
    ● Regular OMO activities are conducted to strike a balance between controlling inflation and ensuring that banks maintain sufficient funds for lending.
    ● Factors contributing to this tightening include reduced government expenditure, heightened currency demand during the festive season, and fluctuations in foreign institutional investments and tax payments.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Open Market Operations (OMOs) have a significant impact on interest rates. When the RBI buys government securities, it injects liquidity in the market. Banks have excess funds to lend to borrowers. This reduces the cost of borrowing in the market.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: OMOs can also influence the exchange rate of the Indian rupee. When the RBI sells government securities, it receives rupees from buyers, reducing the supply of rupees in the market and putting upward pressure on the exchange rate, making the rupee stronger.
    Additional information:
    ● Open market operations (OMOs) are one of the tools that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses to regulate the money supply and liquidity conditions in the economy.
    ● OMOs are the sale and purchase of government securities (G-Secs) and treasury bills (T-Bills) by the RBI in the open market. When RBI wants to inject liquidity into the system, it buys G-Secs and T-Bills from the market, thereby increasing the money supply.
    ● Conversely, when RBI wants to absorb excess liquidity from the system, it sells G-Secs and T-Bills to the market, thereby reducing the money supply.
    ● OMO plays a crucial role in ensuring consistent liquidity availability throughout the year, thus maintaining desired interest rate levels.
    ● Regular OMO activities are conducted to strike a balance between controlling inflation and ensuring that banks maintain sufficient funds for lending.
    ● Factors contributing to this tightening include reduced government expenditure, heightened currency demand during the festive season, and fluctuations in foreign institutional investments and tax payments.

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AN ANALYSIS ON THE NCRB DATA: THE CRIME STORY

THE CONTEXT: The latest edition of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) report reveals disturbing trends. The recorded crimes against women, children, senior citizens, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes show a steep increase, 468 people took their lives every day in 2022 and cybercrimes went up by nearly 25 per cent.

ABOUT NATIONAL CRIME RECORDS BUREAU(NCRB)

KEY HIGHLIGHTS FROM THE NATIONAL CRIME RECORDS BUREAU(NCRB) REOPRT

Decline in registration cases: In 2022, a total of 58,24,946 cognizable crimes comprising 35,61,379 Indian Penal Code (IPC) crimes and 22,63,567 Special and Local Laws (SLL) crimes were registered.

  • This was a decline of 4.5% in the registration of cases over the second pandemic year, 2021.

Crime rate: The crime rate has declined from 445.9 in 2021 to 422.2 in 2022.

Crime against women: 4,45,256 cases of crime against women were registered in 2022. This was an increase of 4% over the 2021 numbers.

  • The largest share of crimes against women under IPC sections was registered under ‘Cruelty by Husband or His Relatives’ (31.4%), followed by ‘Kidnapping & Abduction of Women’ (19.2%), and ‘Assault on Women with Intent to Outrage her Modesty’ (18.7%).

Cybercrimes: Reporting of cybercrime increased significantly by 24.4 percentage points compared to 2021.

  • Around 64.8% of registered cases were of fraud, followed by extortion (5.5%), and sexual exploitation (5.2%).

Suicides: An increase of 4.2% was observed in suicides reported during 2022 (1,70,924 suicides) as compared to 2021.

  • Family Problems (other than marriage-related problems)’ (31.7%), Marriage Related Problems (4.8%) and Illness (18.4%) have together accounted for 54.9% of total suicides in the country during the year 2022.

State-wise data in the report: The states/ UTs reporting the highest charge sheeting rate under IPC crimes are Kerala (96.0%), Puducherry (91.3%), and West Bengal (90.6%).

  • This is the percentage of cases in which the police reached the stage of framing charges against the accused, out of the total true cases.

ISSUES

Data Inefficiencies at the local level: NCRB report is only a compilation of data submitted at the local level, inefficiencies or gaps in data at that level have an impact on the accuracy of the report.

Pressure faced by marginalised social groups: There is also a growing body of scholarship which shows that people from marginalised social groups are often pressured into not reporting crimes against them.

Limitation due to Principal Offence Rule: The NCRB follows what is known as the ‘Principal Offence Rule’.

  • This means that among the many offences registered in a single FIR, the crime that attracts the most severe punishment is considered as the counting unit.
  • Thus, ‘Murder with Rape’ would be counted as ‘Murder’, not rape — which would result in an undercounting of the crime of rape.

Socio-economic causative factors are not captured: The socio-economic causative factors or reasons of crimes are not being captured by the Bureau.

Women find difficult to register FIRs: NFHS reports or recent studies that show that women find it difficult to register FIRs.

  • Women find it very difficult to report abusers in their close circles (husbands, fathers, partners, family members, friends).

Unfilled vacancies in the relevant posts:  shortage of police officers or unfilled vacancies in the relevant posts at the local level may hinder the collection of data.

THE WAY FORWARD

Demands action: Policymakers and law enforcement agencies should not overlook that almost every NCRB compilation has framed the vulnerabilities of women and marginalised sections.

Sharpen its methodologies: The NCRB must sharpen its methodologies and make its reports more nuanced.

Modernizing police forces: The police force today needs to tackle traditional crimes and cybercrimes. This calls for better and modernized communication, tracking and monitoring equipment.

Strengthening support services for victims: We can suggest strengthening support services for victims, providing safe shelter homes, and making legal aid more accessible.

Leverage Technologies: We can also leverage technology to create safer environments, such as panic buttons in public spaces and enhanced surveillance systems.

Formulating the annual police strategy: States should use NCRB’s data in formulating their annual police strategy, it should have a multi-dimensional and multi-purposed use in crime control, only then will this institution become result oriented.

CONCLUSION:

The growing incidents of cybercrime, as highlighted in the NCRB report, demands that law enforcement agencies remain proactive. Across the world, data is becoming an important tool for ensuring public safety.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION:

Q) Explain why suicide among young women is increasing in Indian society. (2023)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q) While legal frameworks exist to address sexual violence against women, the disturbing reality is that these crimes continue to escalate. In this context, what innovative approaches can be implemented to tackle this menace effectively? Explain.

SOURCE: Express View on latest NCRB data: The crime story (indianexpress.com)




CLIMATE AND DISASTER TRENDS IN 2011- 2020 DECADE

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Despite being recorded as the warmest decade in history, the period from 2011 to 2020 witnessed the lowest number of deaths attributed to extreme weather events, as reported by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).

EXPLANATION:

  • This anomaly is attributed to advancements in early warning systems, which have significantly improved due to enhanced forecasting capabilities and better disaster management practices globally.

Enhanced Early Warning Systems and Disaster Preparedness

  • Notably, countries like India have seen substantial improvements in forecasting cyclone formations, allowing for timely warnings and evacuation procedures.
  • These advancements in prediction have contributed to increased preparedness, particularly for populations vulnerable to such natural disasters.

Unprecedented Lack of Catastrophic Short-term Events

  • A striking aspect highlighted in the report “The Global Climate 2011-2020: A Decade of Acceleration” is that, for the first time since 1950, there was not a single short-term event causing 10,000 or more deaths during the 2011-2020 decade.
  • This significant change underscores the efficacy of improved early warning systems and disaster management practices.

Positive Environmental Trends: Ozone Hole Recovery and Glacial Changes

  • The decade also witnessed noteworthy environmental shifts, including the visible recovery of the depleted ozone hole.
  • However, glacial measurements exhibited concerning trends, with glaciers globally thinning by an average of approximately 1 meter per year during the period.
  • The report highlights that Greenland and Antarctica collectively lost 38% more ice compared to the 2001-2010 decade.
  • Additionally, the report references the 2021 Uttarakhand rock-avalanche, triggered by a breach in the Nanda Devi glacier in the Himalayas, underlining the continued vulnerability of certain regions to climate-induced events.

Impact of Human-Caused Climate Change

  • Human-induced climate change remains a key factor amplifying the risks associated with extreme heat events.
  • Heatwaves accounted for the highest number of human casualties during the decade, while tropical cyclones resulted in the most significant economic damages.

Climate Finance and Future Goals

  • The report highlights a notable increase in both public and private climate finance during the 2011-2020 period.
  • However, it emphasizes the necessity of a substantial increase, nearly sevenfold, by the end of the current decade to meet climate objectives.
  • This includes crucial goals such as limiting global temperature rise to less than 1.5 degrees Celsius by the end of the century.

Conclusion: Climate Progress and Urgent Calls for Action

  • The analysis of the 2011-2020 decade demonstrates encouraging strides in early warning systems and disaster management, leading to reduced casualties despite escalating climate challenges.
  • However, the report underscores the critical need for intensified efforts in climate finance and mitigation strategies to address the escalating risks posed by human-induced climate change.
  • Meeting these challenges is essential to achieving global climate objectives and averting further environmental crises in the future.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/2023-12-06/th_chennai/articleGELC3VAG2-5091755.ece




DISCOVERY OF AN EXTRAGALACTIC ACCRETION DISC

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Scientists have made a groundbreaking observation—an accretion disc of gas spinning around a star, marking the first time such a phenomenon has been detected outside our own Milky Way galaxy.

EXPLANATION:

  • Despite being common during the formation of stars and their planetary systems, this discovery in the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC), a dwarf galaxy located about 179,000 light-years away, challenges previous assumptions about the universality of star formation processes.

Significance of the Observation

  • The detection of an accretion disc in the LMC signifies the potential universality of our understanding of star formation processes.
  • This remarkable finding broadens our knowledge of these mechanisms beyond the confines of our own galaxy, suggesting that similar cosmic phenomena exist throughout the Universe.
  • Astronomers involved in the discovery expressed astonishment at identifying the first extragalactic accretion disc.
  • A researcher explained the phenomenon’s detection based on shifts in the emitted light’s frequency, drawing parallels to the change in sound frequency of an ambulance siren passing by.
  • This mechanism helped astronomers discern the rotation of gas around the distant star in the LMC.

Understanding Star Formation

  • Stars typically form in molecular gas and dust-rich regions of space. Dense clumps of gas gravitationally attract each other, leading to collapse and initiating the star formation process.
  • As the protostar forms, it gathers material from its surroundings in an orderly manner, akin to water flowing down a drain.
  • During this phase, a disc of gas becomes visible, revolving around the nascent star.
  • Upon completion of the star’s formation, residual material continues to orbit the star.
  • However, this material begins to contribute to the formation of planetary systems, including planets, asteroids, comets, and other celestial bodies.

Conclusion: Expanding Knowledge of Cosmic Phenomena

  • The discovery of an accretion disc around a star in the LMC not only showcases the advancement in observational astronomy but also offers valuable insights into the consistency of star formation processes across galaxies.
  • This significant finding extends our understanding of cosmic mechanisms and underscores the potential uniformity of fundamental astrophysical phenomena throughout the vast expanse of the Universe.

SOURCE: https://www.wionews.com/science/disc-of-gas-whirling-around-star-found-for-the-first-time-in-another-galaxy-666217




SMECTITE – ROLE IN CLIMATE CONTROL

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: A recent research by geologists from the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), published in Nature Geoscience, highlights the significance of smectite, a clay mineral found in oceanic crust, in the process of capturing and storing carbon.

EXPLANATION:

  • This discovery holds the potential to significantly impact the planet’s climate by contributing to Earth’s cooling mechanisms.

Smectite’s Carbon-Sequestering Abilities

  • The accordion-like structure of smectite, discovered in the intricate layers of the seafloor, facilitates the trapping of organic carbon.
  • This natural process occurs during tectonic activities, where smectite forms as a result of the collision between oceanic and continental plates.
  • The mineral, once formed, descends back to the ocean bed, capturing remnants of deceased organisms within its microscopic folds, effectively preventing the release of carbon back into the atmosphere as carbon dioxide.

Historical Context and Geological Findings

  • MIT researchers linked smectite production to major tectonic events over the past 500 million years.
  • They suggest that the formation of significant quantities of these clays potentially contributed to the cooling of the Earth and even induced ice ages.
  • This groundbreaking study establishes a direct correlation between plate tectonics and the onset of ice ages, attributing this relationship to the creation of carbon-sequestering smectite.

Scientific Methodology and Confirmation of Hypotheses

  • The research team investigated geological records to analyze weathering patterns of magmatic minerals and the resulting types of clays.
  • Using simulations of the Earth’s carbon cycle, they assessed the impact of various minerals.
  • Smectite emerged as not only a product of tropical tectonics but also an exceptionally efficient captor of organic carbon.
  • Despite challenges in directly measuring ancient smectite, the presence of trace elements such as nickel and chromium in sedimentary deposits provided crucial evidence supporting the theory.
  • These elements, associated with rocks producing smectite, acted as identifiable “fingerprints.”

Quantifying Smectite’s Impact on Climate

  • Although smectite’s contribution to carbon preservation seems small—less than one-tenth of a percent—it holds significant implications over geological timescales.
  • The researchers estimate that this minor percentage played a pivotal role in triggering the planet’s major ice ages.

Implications and Future Applications

  • Beyond understanding Earth’s climatic history, this discovery introduces possibilities for climate change mitigation strategies.
  • Smectite could potentially be utilized to stabilize carbon-rich permafrost regions threatened by global warming, offering a natural solution to address human-induced climate challenges.

Conclusion: Harnessing Natural Processes for Climate Mitigation

  • The MIT team’s findings emphasize the importance of comprehensively understanding the global carbon cycle.
  • Furthermore, the discovery of smectite’s impact on climate paves the way for exploring and leveraging natural processes to mitigate human-induced climate change, presenting a promising avenue in the fight against the escalating climate crisis.

SOURCE: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/mysterious-mineral-found-in-ocean-could-keep-earth-cool-even-induce-ice-age-2472168-2023-12-05