RADIOCARBON DATING

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Radiocarbon dating brought the first verifiable way to keep time to many fields of science, significantly transforming them.

EXPLANATION:

Radiocarbon Dating:

  • Radiocarbon dating stands as a pivotal method in determining the age of organic materials.
  • It revolves around the decay of carbon-14, an isotope formed in the Earth’s atmosphere due to cosmic rays colliding with atmospheric gases.
  • The inception of radiocarbon dating stemmed from the work of scientists like Martin Kamen, Sam Ruben, Serge Korff, and Willard Libby.
  • Libby’s innovative idea of utilizing carbon-14 to date organic materials, published in 1946, was based on assumptions later validated through subsequent scientific studies.

Principles of Radiocarbon Dating:

  • Living organisms maintain a balance of carbon-14 in their bodies while alive by exchanging it with their surroundings.
  • Upon death, this balance ceases, and carbon-14 begins to decay at a predictable rate.
  • By measuring the remaining carbon-14, scientists can calculate the approximate time elapsed since the organism’s demise.

Instruments and Techniques:

  • Early tests by Libby and James Arnold in the late 1940s affirmed the accuracy of radiocarbon dating by successfully dating known-age objects like redwood trees and artifacts.
  • This validation solidified the technique’s reliability in estimating ages up to around 60,000 years due to carbon-14’s half-life.
  • Initially utilizing Geiger counters to detect radiation from decaying carbon-14, modern advancements have led to sophisticated methods like accelerator mass spectrometry (AMS).
  • AMS, significantly more sensitive, allows for precise dating using minute organic samples by isolating and analysing carbon-14 ions.

Modern Advancements and Refinements:

  • Scientists continue to refine radiocarbon dating techniques, addressing limitations and enhancing precision.
  • Recent studies in atmospheric science have improved the dating resolution, enabling researchers to narrow down dating accuracy to specific points within a year.

Impact on Science and Society:

  • Radiocarbon dating has revolutionized various fields, especially archaeology and geology, by providing a reliable method to date organic remains.
  • It has facilitated the understanding of human history, migration patterns, cultural evolution, and environmental changes, impacting scholarly research and historical narratives.

Ongoing Developments and Challenges:

  • Despite its revolutionary impact, ongoing research aims to address potential anomalies and refine the technique further.
  • Studies have highlighted deviations in the radiocarbon cycle during specific historical periods, suggesting potential inaccuracies in dating certain objects.

Significance in Contemporary Context:

  • Radiocarbon dating holds political and cultural significance in regions like India.
  • It has been instrumental in dating objects of historical and religious importance, contributing to public discourse and archaeological investigations.

Conclusion:

  • Radiocarbon dating stands as a cornerstone in scientific methods, offering a reliable tool to unravel the mysteries of our past.
  • Its evolution continues to shape our understanding of history, civilizations, and the natural world, while ongoing research endeavours strive to enhance its precision and applicability.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/radiocarbon-dating-history-science-revolution-politics-explained/article67692713.ece




Day-565 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | HISTORY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the copper image of a dancing girl found from Mohenjo-Daro?
    1. Her long hairs are tied in a bun.
    2. Bangles cover her right arm.
    3. She has large eyes and a sharp nose.
    4. She is wearing a necklace made from shells.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The copper/bronze image of Mohenjodaro dancing girl was found in the remains of a small house by the Indian archaeologist D. R. Sahni in 1926-1927. It is one of the finest artefacts from the Indus Valley Civilization (2500 BCE). At present, this naturalistic free-standing sculpture of a woman is on display at the IVC gallery of the National Museum, New Delhi. She has very long legs and arms compared to her torso; her head is tilted slightly backward and her left leg is bent at the knee. The key features of this four inches statuette are as follows:
    • The image, full of expression and bodily vigour, is wearing a cowry shell necklace.
    • Her long curly hairs are plaited, coiled and neatly tied into a bun. She has large eyes & a flat nose.
    • Her left arm is covered with 24-25 bangles, and in the right arm bent at the elbow she is wearing 4 bangles, two at the wrist, and two above the elbow.
    • Her right hand rests on her hip, and the left hand appears to be clasped in a traditional Indian dance gesture resting on her left thigh.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The copper/bronze image of Mohenjodaro dancing girl was found in the remains of a small house by the Indian archaeologist D. R. Sahni in 1926-1927. It is one of the finest artefacts from the Indus Valley Civilization (2500 BCE). At present, this naturalistic free-standing sculpture of a woman is on display at the IVC gallery of the National Museum, New Delhi. She has very long legs and arms compared to her torso; her head is tilted slightly backward and her left leg is bent at the knee. The key features of this four inches statuette are as follows:
    • The image, full of expression and bodily vigour, is wearing a cowry shell necklace.
    • Her long curly hairs are plaited, coiled and neatly tied into a bun. She has large eyes & a flat nose.
    • Her left arm is covered with 24-25 bangles, and in the right arm bent at the elbow she is wearing 4 bangles, two at the wrist, and two above the elbow.
    • Her right hand rests on her hip, and the left hand appears to be clasped in a traditional Indian dance gesture resting on her left thigh.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Some of the most experimental hybrid styles of vesara architecture are found the region of Karnataka.
    Statement II: The hybridization and incorporation of several styles was the hallmark of Chalukyas, Hoysalas and Vijayanagar.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Vesara, a hybrid form of Indian temple architecture, has a South Indian plan and shapes that features North Indian details. This fusion style originated in Karnataka and evolved under the patronage of the Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, Hoysalas, and Vijayanagar rulers. There is a lot of variation in the designs and styles of vesara temples as no set guidelines are followed in their plan and superstructure. The important features of Vesara style of temple architecture are as follows:
    • Generally, the temples have Nagara style Shikar and Dravida style Mandapas.
    • Shikar, the temple’s top, and Mandapa, the temple’s main shrine are connected by the Antarala.
    • Elaborate carvings are found on the pillars, doorframes, and ceilings of the Deccan temples.
    • The Vesara style is a wonderful example of using the knowledge of art, architecture, mathematics, religion, philosophy, and engineering.
    Some examples of the Vesara style are Virupaksha temple at Hampi, and the Chennakesava temple at Belur. The Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebidu and Somanathpura are not only the leading examples of the Vesara style. They are now also included in list of UNESCO world heritage sites.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Vesara, a hybrid form of Indian temple architecture, has a South Indian plan and shapes that features North Indian details. This fusion style originated in Karnataka and evolved under the patronage of the Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, Hoysalas, and Vijayanagar rulers. There is a lot of variation in the designs and styles of vesara temples as no set guidelines are followed in their plan and superstructure. The important features of Vesara style of temple architecture are as follows:
    • Generally, the temples have Nagara style Shikar and Dravida style Mandapas.
    • Shikar, the temple’s top, and Mandapa, the temple’s main shrine are connected by the Antarala.
    • Elaborate carvings are found on the pillars, doorframes, and ceilings of the Deccan temples.
    • The Vesara style is a wonderful example of using the knowledge of art, architecture, mathematics, religion, philosophy, and engineering.
    Some examples of the Vesara style are Virupaksha temple at Hampi, and the Chennakesava temple at Belur. The Hoysala temples at Belur, Halebidu and Somanathpura are not only the leading examples of the Vesara style. They are now also included in list of UNESCO world heritage sites.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following pairs:
    Authors – Texts
    1. Sarangadev – Sangeetratnakara
    2. Lochana – Raagtarangini
    3. Ahobala – Sangeeta Parijata
    4. Srinivasa – Ragatattvabodha
    How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation: All the four pairs are correctly matched. The given texts are famous works of music written by the mentioned authors.
    1. Sangeetratnakara is a 13th century text of music authored by Sarangadev in Sanskrit. It is considered a definitive source by both the traditions of Indian classic music i.e. Hindustani and Carnatic music.
    2. Raagtarangini written by Lochana Kavi in Maithili set several songs to contemporary ragas and raginis.
    3. Ahobala Pandit’s Sangeeta Parijata is a 17th century work that introduces the elements of South Indian music in the North. And, it is regarded by some as the earliest text of the Hindustani music.
    4. Ragatattvabodha is a rare book on music written in the 17th century.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation: All the four pairs are correctly matched. The given texts are famous works of music written by the mentioned authors.
    1. Sangeetratnakara is a 13th century text of music authored by Sarangadev in Sanskrit. It is considered a definitive source by both the traditions of Indian classic music i.e. Hindustani and Carnatic music.
    2. Raagtarangini written by Lochana Kavi in Maithili set several songs to contemporary ragas and raginis.
    3. Ahobala Pandit’s Sangeeta Parijata is a 17th century work that introduces the elements of South Indian music in the North. And, it is regarded by some as the earliest text of the Hindustani music.
    4. Ragatattvabodha is a rare book on music written in the 17th century.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Regarding observations made by the Moroccan traveller Ibn Battuta, How many of the following are correct about medieval India?
    1. The land was very fertile.
    2. The cities in the Indian subcontinent were sparsely populated.
    3. The sultan of Delhi was unpredictable.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Ibn Battuta recorded his observations about the lands he visited in his travelogue Rehla. He was appointed as the Qazi of Delhi by Mohammed bin Tughluq (1325-51) whom he found quite eccentric in his behavior. He also served as the Sultan’s envoy to the Chinese emperor in 1342.
    He described the Indian cities and towns as highly populous and wealthy. He was quite impressed with the life and colours of Delhi and Daulatabad. According to him, the Indian cities were full of opportunities for the ambitious, resourceful and skilful people. And the markets were the hubs of socio-cultural activities and economic transactions.
    He also observed that the Indian soils were very fertile allowing farmers to grow two crops i.e. Rabi and Kharif, annually. He identified rice, sugarcane, wheat, oilseeds, sesame, cotton and barley as the important crops.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Ibn Battuta recorded his observations about the lands he visited in his travelogue Rehla. He was appointed as the Qazi of Delhi by Mohammed bin Tughluq (1325-51) whom he found quite eccentric in his behavior. He also served as the Sultan’s envoy to the Chinese emperor in 1342.
    He described the Indian cities and towns as highly populous and wealthy. He was quite impressed with the life and colours of Delhi and Daulatabad. According to him, the Indian cities were full of opportunities for the ambitious, resourceful and skilful people. And the markets were the hubs of socio-cultural activities and economic transactions.
    He also observed that the Indian soils were very fertile allowing farmers to grow two crops i.e. Rabi and Kharif, annually. He identified rice, sugarcane, wheat, oilseeds, sesame, cotton and barley as the important crops.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Who was the founder of the Lokayata school of Indian philosophy?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Lokayata literally means the philosophy of the people or the masses. It is one of the earliest schools which have been mentioned in the Vedas and Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. It is the ancient philosophy of Indian materialism supposed to be founded by Brihaspati. Charvaka is the most powerful proponent of this philosophy who recognizes only four out of the five elements.
    Charvakas or Lokayatas does not recognise ether as it is not known through perception. For them, the whole universe is made of four elements, and knowledge is the product of these four elements which leaves no trace after death. There is no other world, hence death is the end of humans and pleasure is the ultimate object of life. It rejects ritualism and recognises no existence other than this material world. Since God, soul and heaven cannot be perceived, they are not recognised by this philosophy.
    Badarayana well-known as Vyasa Muni composed the Brahma Sutras, the source of the orthodox Hindu philosophy called the uttar-mimamsa or Vedanta.
    Charaka was an ancient physician and scholar. He is recognized as the father of Ayurveda. He described various diseases and their treatments in his book Charak-samhita.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Lokayata literally means the philosophy of the people or the masses. It is one of the earliest schools which have been mentioned in the Vedas and Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. It is the ancient philosophy of Indian materialism supposed to be founded by Brihaspati. Charvaka is the most powerful proponent of this philosophy who recognizes only four out of the five elements.
    Charvakas or Lokayatas does not recognise ether as it is not known through perception. For them, the whole universe is made of four elements, and knowledge is the product of these four elements which leaves no trace after death. There is no other world, hence death is the end of humans and pleasure is the ultimate object of life. It rejects ritualism and recognises no existence other than this material world. Since God, soul and heaven cannot be perceived, they are not recognised by this philosophy.
    Badarayana well-known as Vyasa Muni composed the Brahma Sutras, the source of the orthodox Hindu philosophy called the uttar-mimamsa or Vedanta.
    Charaka was an ancient physician and scholar. He is recognized as the father of Ayurveda. He described various diseases and their treatments in his book Charak-samhita.

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SIGN OF THE FUTURE: ON ISRO’S PSLV C58 MISSION

THE CONTEXT: The ISRO has launched two missions in the five months since its success with Chandrayaan-3. The Aditya L-1 space probe to study the sun and the XPoSat to study polarised X-rays emitted in astrophysical phenomena. XPoSat has been launched in a two-part mission, onboard a Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) on its C58 flight.

WHAT IS X-RAY POLARIMETER SATELLITE (XPOSAT)?

  • It aims to analyse the polarisation of X-rays emanating from bright celestial sources in the medium frequency band.
  • XPoSat comprises two payloads, including Indian X-ray Polarimeter (POLIX) and X-ray Spectroscopy and Timing (XSPECT). They have been built by Raman Research Institute and UR Rao Satellite Centre respectively, both located in Bengaluru. The spacecraft is designated for observation from low earth orbit.
  • Together, they are expected to shed light on intense X-ray sources such as pulsars and black holes.
  • The observations will be done when the magnetars or neutron stars are in transit through the Earth’s shadow during the eclipse period.

SCIENTIFIC PAYLOADS ONBOARD XPOSAT:

  • POLIX: It is the world’s first instrument designed to operate in the medium X-ray of 8 to 30 kilo electron Volt (keV) energy band. It comprises a collimator, which is the key component to filter light originating from bright sources in the field of view. Moreover, there is a scatterer consisting of four X-ray proportional counter detectors that prevent the trapped light from escaping. It will observe a few tens of astronomical sources.
  • XSPECT: It is designed to conduct fast timing and high spectroscopic resolution in a soft X-ray energy band (0.8-15 keV). It will observe a variety of sources like X-ray pulsars, black hole binaries, low-magnetic field neutron stars, active galactic nuclei and magnetars.

ISRO’s MISSION SIGNIFICANCE:

  • Significance of PSLV: This is only the third time ISRO has operated the PSLV fourth stage in this way. The PSLV C58 mission represents a union of the aspirations of professional scientists, aspiring students of science, and India’s private spaceflight sector.
  • Increasing demands: This mission is an illustration of the increasing demands of ISRO itself as it shows increasing technological capabilities based on scientific missions. The PSLV C58 mission is a symbol of the demands being made of
  • Research oriented: It is being observed that the ratio of scientific to technological missions that ISRO has launched is skewed in favour of the latter, at the expense of research in the sense of discovery. Those science-oriented missions have all been exceptional.
  • Cost effective mission: ISRO has been successful in cost effective missions. Through a strategic blend of innovation and planning, ISRO consistently executes missions that meet its objectives while maintaining affordability.
  • Collaborations: There is enduring partnership of ISRO with educational institutions, research organizations, and private industry to leverage diverse expertise and resources leading to innovation.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Unique needs and priorities: The science-technology skew is a reminder that ISRO is among one of the world’s spacefaring organisations with its unique needs and priorities. This is exemplified by the second part of the C58 mission.
  • Striking a balance: India faces competition with established space powers like the US, Russia, and China, who have made significant strides in space exploration. There is a need of striking a balance between collaborating with international space agencies to compete on global stage.
  • Enhancing capabilities of state: There is a need for enhancing capabilities of the state to establish frameworks and procedures that can overcome financial constraints and enable the harnessing of important resources.
  • Promote Indigenous Technologies: There is a need to encourage the development of indigenous technologies that ensures self-reliance and reduces dependence on external sources for space technologies.

THE CONCLUSION:

India’s space missions are full of promises and upcoming missions hold the potential to reshape our understanding of space. There is a need for constant enhancing of our technological capabilities to solidify India’s position as a prominent player in the realm of space exploration.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 What is India’s plan to have its own space station and how will it benefit our space programme? (2019)

Q.2 Discuss India’s achievements in the field of Space Science and Technology. How the application of this technology has helped India in its socio-economic development? (2016)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS:

Q.1 India has achieved remarkable successes in space missions in recent years. In this regard, discuss the challenges and opportunities for Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/sign-of-the-future-the-hindu-editorial-on-isros-pslv-c58-mission/article67695030.ece#:~:text=The%20XSPECT%20payload%2C%20by%20ISRO’s,as%20pulsars%20and%20black%20holes.




THE PM-KISAN MODEL: NOT THE WAY FORWARD

THE CONTEXT: The government has set a target of six months to ensure the full saturation of government’s welfare schemes. In this regard, the ruling government is undertaking a “saturation drive” to take the total number of farmer-beneficiaries under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) to about 8.75 crore, from the current 8.12 crore or so.

PRADHAN MANTRI KISAN SAMMAN NIDHI

  • It is a Central Sector Scheme to provide income support to all landholding farmers families in the country to supplement their financial needs for procuring various inputs related to agriculture and allied activities.
  • Under the Scheme, the entire financial liability towards transfer of benefit to targeted beneficiaries will be borne by Government of India.
  • It receives allocation of more than 50% of the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare’s budget to the PMKISAN scheme in 2022-23 and 2023-24.
  • Under the PM-KISAN scheme, all landholding farmers’ families shall be provided the financial benefit of Rs.6000 per annum per family payable in three equal installments of Rs.2000 each, every four months.
  • The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is responsible for the effective implementation of the scheme.

Not eligible to get the benefits of the PM-Kisan scheme:

(a) All institutional Landholders

(b) Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories:-

  • Former and present holders of constitutional posts
  • Former and present ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of Lok sabha/ Rajya sabha/ state Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative councils, former and present mayors of Municipal corporation, former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats.
  • All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government ministries /Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies (Excluding Multi Tasking staff / Class
    lV/Group D employees).
  • All superannuated/retired pensioners Rs.10,000/-or more (Excluding multi Tasking employees) All Persons who paid lncome Tax in last assessment year
  • Professionals like Doctors, Engineers’ Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practices.

SIGNIFICANCE OF THE SCHEME:

  • Income Support to farmers:Farmers receive much-needed financial support from the scheme of Rs. 6,000 annual direct income support. It helps them pay for their urgent needs and lessens their reliance on unofficial lending sources.
  • Poverty Alleviation:The program helps to reduce poverty by giving farmers a steady income, especially in rural areas where agriculture is the only source of income.
  • Rural Development:By directly supplying capital to the rural economy, boosting small enterprises, and generating jobs, the PM-Kisan initiative is essential to advancing rural development.
  • Boosting Agricultural Productivity:With improved access to financial resources, farmers can invest in high-quality seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation facilities, leading to increased agricultural productivity and overall crop yield.
  • Equal treatment: The scheme ensures that every eligible landowning farmer in the country gets covered under this flagship scheme. The scheme is a Direct Income Support (DIS) programme. Every farmer is paid equally irrespective of the crops they grow in whatever quantities and sells to whomsoever at any price. The payment does not depend on the inputs used, whether chemical fertilisers and insecticides or organic manure and biological control of pests and diseases.

ISSUES

  • Insufficient reach: PM-KISAN is not reaching all farmer households as intended. There are various issues leading to exclusion of beneficiaries. This scheme is not pro-poor since recipients of PM-KISAN seemed to be farmers who are richer than the general rural population.
  • Operational challenges: There are concerns at operational level with issues in land record reconciliation, digitization of land records, costs incurred in consolidation of land records. There are various challenges in identifying beneficiaries due to inadequate digitalization of land records.
  • Inadequate transfers: The scheme does not provide a clear design of transfers and a framework for effective grievance redress. Also, market volatility tends to lower the effect of the cash transferred to families which has been insufficient to purchase products as the market price increased substantially.
  • Issues in beneficiaries: PM KISAN tends to distribute cash transfer equally to both large and middle farmer which is not appropriate as needs are different. Also, PM-KISAN covers small and marginal farmers, landless agricultural labourers and tenant farmers are left in the lurch.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Identification and Inclusion:It is still difficult to make sure that all farmers who are eligible for the program are found and enrolled. It is imperative to endeavor towards optimizing the beneficiary identification procedure and resolving any concerns pertaining to coverage gaps.
  • Strengthening Last-Mile Delivery:To optimize the benefits of the PM-Kisan, funding must be disbursed to farmers in a timely and effective manner. There is a need to improve the delivery methods by coordinating with stakeholders and using technology to speed up the transfer of payments.
  • Refinement of the scheme: There is a need for refinement of the scheme within this overall framework of the scheme. For instance, Direct Income Support can be given on a per-acre, rather than per-farmer, basis. For example, The Telangana government’s Rythu Bandhu scheme provides farmers up to Rs 12,000 per acre per year. Those farming larger holdings or growing more crops also incur higher expenditures. Such farmers, who are probably more dependent on income from agriculture than marginal holders, deserve extra support.
  • Address the price fluctuation: Due to the volatile market and price fluctuations in different regions, it is important to index the cash transfers to local inflation.

THE CONCLUSION:

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) scheme is a transformative initiative aimed at providing direct income support to small and marginal farmers across the nation. There is a need of regular monitoring and evaluation of the scheme’s implementation to assess its effectiveness and identify areas for improvement.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 The right to fair compensation and transparency land acquisition, rehabilitation and resettlement act, 2013 has come into effect from 1 January 2014. What implication would it have on industrialization and agriculture in India? (2014)

Q.2 Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is necessary for bringing the unbanked to the institutional finance fold. Do you agree with this for financial inclusion of the poor section of the Indian society? Give arguments to justify your opinion. (2016)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) aims to ensure direct financial support to farmers to improve agricultural activities and overall livelihood. Examine.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-the-pm-kisan-model-not-the-way-forward-9088031/




IS RIGHT-WING POPULISM SEEING A RESURGENCE ACROSS THE WORLD?

THE CONTEXT: There is general conception that there is rise in right wing populism. Recently, Geert Wilders, an anti-Islam, far-right populist, won the general elections in the Netherlands. In Argentina, the far-right politician, Javier Milei, won the presidential elections. In the U.S., early polls suggest that Donald Trump has a chance of returning to power again. In India, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) is widely expected to win a third term.

WHAT IS RIGHT WING POPULISM?

  • Populism is generally thought of as a political phenomenon in which a voice of the people begins to argue that they are being kept out of power by some elite forces in society.
  • The distinction between left-wing and right-wing populism lies at the roots of the de-legitimisation of the system.
  • Left-wing populists argue that the masses, the working class are not being allowed to influence public policy because the political elites, dominated by capitalist interests are exerting undue influence on the system.
  • The right-wing populists argue whether the liberal, democratic project of inclusion is legitimate. They target racial, religious minorities in society and suggest that these groups are not loyal citizens and so their voices are illegitimate.
  • There is a mix of economic appeals with identity appeals to form the version of right-wing populism.

TRENDS OF RISING RIGHT WING POPULISM:

  • Systematic destruction of public institutions in three ways:

1. By interpreting rules differently

2. By changing rules incrementally, such as by bringing in a Bill in India regulating the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner

3. By completely displacing rules, such as in the abrogation of Article 370 (in Jammu and Kashmir).

  • Trend of ethno-nationalist identity-based grievances: There is a trend of fuelling the ethno-nationalist identity-based grievances that there are people, both outside and within the country, to blame for many of the ills that are going on.
  • Trends of appeals: There are different kinds of appeals being made to win the elections.

In Argentina, with long standing economic crisis allows Mr. Milei to make the powerful appeal about 40 years of austerity measures and blaming the elites and the international economic system for this. In Hungary, for Viktor Orban, it was about migrants, but within the context of the European Union. In the Netherlands, India, or France, these actors have been around in the party system as fringe elements for a long time. They become powerful by fuelling support for grievances and the collapse of the centrist parties.

ISSUES:

  • Broader crisis of governance: There is a broader crisis of governance. Generally the work of government is of spending tax revenues on building better roads and highways, clean water and health facilities. However, globalisation, corruption and bureaucratic ineffectiveness mean that many developing countries lack the fiscal space to do all this. When governments lack fiscal resources to effectively conduct public policy, they resort to other ways of winning elections, such as making identity appeals. This shows a lack of trust in the act of governance and in democracy.
  • Undermines democratic institutions: This phase of populism has a majoritarian, ethno-nationalist flavour. There can be a Muslim ‘other’ to the Hindus, or a Tamil ‘other’ to the Sinhalese, or a Muslim ‘other’ to Christians, or a non-White ‘other’ to the White people. The manner in which this ‘othering’ is happening undermines democratic institutions.
  • Personification of election: There is growing personification of election where election is not based on political party but on a single person. For example, Javier Milei in Argentina was able to make himself the focus of that election. Over the last eight years, Mr. Trump has been taking the Republican Party and making it all about himself. Therefore, it becomes more about the test of loyalty to the person rather than party values.

THE CONCLUSION:

It can be concluded that there are numerous conditions that provide the ground for rise of right wing populism in the world. Certain events such as the financial crisis and the migrant crisis propelled these sentiments further. However, these issues need to be addressed wisely without any political bias for the inclusive growth and governance.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 ‘Indian diaspora has a decisive role to play in the politics and economy of America and European Countries’. Comment with examples. (2020)

Q.2 ‘The long sustained image of India as a leader of the oppressed and marginalised nations has disappeared on account of its newfound role in the emerging global order.’ Elaborate. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 Critically examine the socio-economic implications of resurgence of right-wing populism which is a recent phenomenon seen in the global scenarios.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/is-right-wing-populism-seeing-a-resurgence-across-the-world/article67684886.ece




Day-564 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Wild pigs and nilgai enjoy the same level of protection in India.
    Statement II: Both of these species are listed under the Schedule III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect: Wild pigs and nilgai, among others, enjoy the same level of protection in the country. Wild pigs and nilgai are placed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act after the recent amendments made to the list in 2023.
    ● The hunting of these animals by any individual is prohibited as per the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act.
    ● If the Chief Wildlife Warden or the authorised officer is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule II has become dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land) or is disabled or diseased beyond recovery, only then the hunting of such animals is permitted by written order of the authority.
    ● The provisions of the amended act also mention that the Central Government through a notification can declare any wild animal specified in Schedule II to be vermin for any area. The period for which it is declared as vermin should also be specified in the notification.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect: Wild pigs and nilgai, among others, enjoy the same level of protection in the country. Wild pigs and nilgai are placed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act after the recent amendments made to the list in 2023.
    ● The hunting of these animals by any individual is prohibited as per the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act.
    ● If the Chief Wildlife Warden or the authorised officer is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule II has become dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land) or is disabled or diseased beyond recovery, only then the hunting of such animals is permitted by written order of the authority.
    ● The provisions of the amended act also mention that the Central Government through a notification can declare any wild animal specified in Schedule II to be vermin for any area. The period for which it is declared as vermin should also be specified in the notification.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. The term ‘ Ampelognathus coheni ‘ mentioned in the media was in reference to:

    Correct

    Answer. A
    Explanation: An extraordinary discovery has been made in the Dallas-Fort Worth area of Texas in the USA, as palaeontologists have identified a new dinosaur species that lived approximately 96 million years ago. The species, named Ampelognathus coheni, is particularly significant because herbivorous dinosaur fossils are seldom found in North Texas.
    It is the first small-bodied ornithopod dinosaur discovered from the Lewisville Formation.
    Dinosaurs roamed Earth roughly 175 million years ago, and most were wiped out by an extinction event roughly 65 million years ago.
    Additional information: Similar discovery from India
    Indian palaeontologists have unearthed one of the world’s oldest fossils of a long-neck, plant-eating dinosaur from Thar desert in Rajasthan.
    The dinosaur has been named Tharosaurus indicus after the desert and is the oldest known member of a family of the ancient creatures called Diplodocoidea. A more famous member of the same family is Diplodocus, made popular by blockbuster movies like Jurassic Park.
    Tharosaurus is half of a size of a diplodocus. Its neck-to-tail length is about 10-13 mt while that of a diplodocus was around 26 mt.

    Incorrect

    Answer. A
    Explanation: An extraordinary discovery has been made in the Dallas-Fort Worth area of Texas in the USA, as palaeontologists have identified a new dinosaur species that lived approximately 96 million years ago. The species, named Ampelognathus coheni, is particularly significant because herbivorous dinosaur fossils are seldom found in North Texas.
    It is the first small-bodied ornithopod dinosaur discovered from the Lewisville Formation.
    Dinosaurs roamed Earth roughly 175 million years ago, and most were wiped out by an extinction event roughly 65 million years ago.
    Additional information: Similar discovery from India
    Indian palaeontologists have unearthed one of the world’s oldest fossils of a long-neck, plant-eating dinosaur from Thar desert in Rajasthan.
    The dinosaur has been named Tharosaurus indicus after the desert and is the oldest known member of a family of the ancient creatures called Diplodocoidea. A more famous member of the same family is Diplodocus, made popular by blockbuster movies like Jurassic Park.
    Tharosaurus is half of a size of a diplodocus. Its neck-to-tail length is about 10-13 mt while that of a diplodocus was around 26 mt.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following:
    1. Killer whales
    2. Chimpanzees
    3. Humans
    4. Dolphins
    5. Orangutan
    Menopause as a characteristic feature, has been witnessed in how many of the above-mentioned species?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation: Options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
    While humans, short-finned pilot whales, killer whales are among the only long-lived mammals that undergo menopause, dolphins continue to reproduce throughout their life. Dolphins don’t experience menopause.
    ● After decades of observations in a rainforest in Uganda, the scientists discovered that some chimpanzees go through menopause, too. Without much disease, Ngogo chimpanzees may live long enough to experience menopause.
    ● A female orangutan named ‘Gina’ at Durrell wildlife park (Jerzey Island) is believed to have gone through the menopause, the first time this is known to have been medically recorded. Orangutans and humans share 97.6% of their DNA. This research has established that orangutans experience menopause too.

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation: Options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
    While humans, short-finned pilot whales, killer whales are among the only long-lived mammals that undergo menopause, dolphins continue to reproduce throughout their life. Dolphins don’t experience menopause.
    ● After decades of observations in a rainforest in Uganda, the scientists discovered that some chimpanzees go through menopause, too. Without much disease, Ngogo chimpanzees may live long enough to experience menopause.
    ● A female orangutan named ‘Gina’ at Durrell wildlife park (Jerzey Island) is believed to have gone through the menopause, the first time this is known to have been medically recorded. Orangutans and humans share 97.6% of their DNA. This research has established that orangutans experience menopause too.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    1. The term ‘Critical Tiger Habitat’ is mentioned in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    2. The term ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ is defined in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
    3. A national park or a wildlife sanctuary constituting the core area of a tiger reserve is included in ‘Critical Tiger Habitat’.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statements 1 and 3 are correct: “Section 38V” of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (as amended in 2006) explains the core or critical tiger habitat as well as the buffer or peripheral area of a tiger reserve.
    A tiger reserve includes two parts:
    A. Core area or critical tiger habitat (National Park or Sanctuary status).
    B. Buffer or peripheral area
    The phrase ‘core or critical tiger habitat’ is mentioned only in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as a sequel to the amendment made to the said Act in 2006. It is NOT defined in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
    Critical tiger habitats are considered as inviolate areas in tiger reserves. ‘Core or critical tiger habitat’ is different from ‘critical wildlife habitat’. Since tigers are territorial big cats, hence considering their social land tenure dynamics, the ‘core / critical tiger habitat’ has been viewed separately from the ‘critical wildlife habitat’, which is applicable to other wild animal species.
    Statement 2 is correct: The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH) is notified within national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
    FRA defines CWHs as ‘areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation’. In order to notify a CWH, the Act requires state governments to establish that the presence of right-holders is causing irreversible damage to wildlife and their habitats, and that co-existence between rights holders and wildlife was not a reasonable option.
    While the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal authority for the Forest Rights Act, the law identifies the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC) as the agency to notify the guidelines regarding the notification and declaration of critical wildlife habitats.
    MoEF&CC finally issued CWH guidelines in January 2018. Key features of guidelines:
    ● The Chief Wildlife Warden of a state will notify an Expert Committee for the purpose of identification of critical wildlife habitats (CWH) in a national park or sanctuary.
    ● The Expert Committee will identify areas within national parks and sanctuaries, based on scientific and objective criteria relevant to the protected area, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of wildlife conservation.
    ● The Expert Committee shall issue a public notice on the intention to notify CWH. The public notice shall include details of areas required to be kept inviolate, criteria adopted for CWH identification, implication of the notification on existing rights, and all options of resettlement and rehabilitation schemes, if applicable.
    ● The Expert Committee shall carry out open consultations with all stakeholders, and the proceedings of the consultations, especially the objections, will be documented appropriately.
    ● The committee will submit the CWH proposal to the Chief Wildlife Warden. The decision on the proposal will be taken by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife. A Ministry of Tribal Affairs representative would be invited during the deliberation of the proposal by the standing committee. Following the committee’s recommendation, the notification of CWH will be published in the official gazette.

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statements 1 and 3 are correct: “Section 38V” of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (as amended in 2006) explains the core or critical tiger habitat as well as the buffer or peripheral area of a tiger reserve.
    A tiger reserve includes two parts:
    A. Core area or critical tiger habitat (National Park or Sanctuary status).
    B. Buffer or peripheral area
    The phrase ‘core or critical tiger habitat’ is mentioned only in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as a sequel to the amendment made to the said Act in 2006. It is NOT defined in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
    Critical tiger habitats are considered as inviolate areas in tiger reserves. ‘Core or critical tiger habitat’ is different from ‘critical wildlife habitat’. Since tigers are territorial big cats, hence considering their social land tenure dynamics, the ‘core / critical tiger habitat’ has been viewed separately from the ‘critical wildlife habitat’, which is applicable to other wild animal species.
    Statement 2 is correct: The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH) is notified within national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
    FRA defines CWHs as ‘areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation’. In order to notify a CWH, the Act requires state governments to establish that the presence of right-holders is causing irreversible damage to wildlife and their habitats, and that co-existence between rights holders and wildlife was not a reasonable option.
    While the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal authority for the Forest Rights Act, the law identifies the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC) as the agency to notify the guidelines regarding the notification and declaration of critical wildlife habitats.
    MoEF&CC finally issued CWH guidelines in January 2018. Key features of guidelines:
    ● The Chief Wildlife Warden of a state will notify an Expert Committee for the purpose of identification of critical wildlife habitats (CWH) in a national park or sanctuary.
    ● The Expert Committee will identify areas within national parks and sanctuaries, based on scientific and objective criteria relevant to the protected area, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of wildlife conservation.
    ● The Expert Committee shall issue a public notice on the intention to notify CWH. The public notice shall include details of areas required to be kept inviolate, criteria adopted for CWH identification, implication of the notification on existing rights, and all options of resettlement and rehabilitation schemes, if applicable.
    ● The Expert Committee shall carry out open consultations with all stakeholders, and the proceedings of the consultations, especially the objections, will be documented appropriately.
    ● The committee will submit the CWH proposal to the Chief Wildlife Warden. The decision on the proposal will be taken by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife. A Ministry of Tribal Affairs representative would be invited during the deliberation of the proposal by the standing committee. Following the committee’s recommendation, the notification of CWH will be published in the official gazette.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to environment, the term ‘eDNA’, recently seen in the news, can be best understood as:

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation: The ability to identify certain animals living in an environment through environmental DNA, or ‘eDNA.’ has revolutionized conservation and wildlife monitoring.
    Environmental DNA or eDNA refers to eDNA is DNA shed by all organisms into their surroundings through natural processes during their lifetime or after death.
    A new method has been developed by the researchers at the Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES) which is cheaper, faster, and highly scalable to large freshwater and marine ecosystems which can help in monitoring and conserving the rich biodiversity of our country.
    LaCONES is a CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) laboratory headquartered in Hyderabad.
    The new non-invasive method can assess the total biodiversity of any ecosystem by sequencing the DNA fragments found in the environmental samples such as water, soil or air. This method can detect all kinds of organisms, including viruses, bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes such as fungi, plants, insects, birds, fish and other animals from just a few litres of water sample without any direct capture or counting of species.
    The scientists tested their method in the highly biodiverse wetland ecosystem of Chilika Lagoon in Odisha, the country’s largest brackish water lagoon. By comparing over 10 billion sequences of eDNA fragments from multiple seasonal samples with a large database of reference sequences from all the known species, the researchers were able to detect organisms across the tree of life.

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation: The ability to identify certain animals living in an environment through environmental DNA, or ‘eDNA.’ has revolutionized conservation and wildlife monitoring.
    Environmental DNA or eDNA refers to eDNA is DNA shed by all organisms into their surroundings through natural processes during their lifetime or after death.
    A new method has been developed by the researchers at the Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES) which is cheaper, faster, and highly scalable to large freshwater and marine ecosystems which can help in monitoring and conserving the rich biodiversity of our country.
    LaCONES is a CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) laboratory headquartered in Hyderabad.
    The new non-invasive method can assess the total biodiversity of any ecosystem by sequencing the DNA fragments found in the environmental samples such as water, soil or air. This method can detect all kinds of organisms, including viruses, bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes such as fungi, plants, insects, birds, fish and other animals from just a few litres of water sample without any direct capture or counting of species.
    The scientists tested their method in the highly biodiverse wetland ecosystem of Chilika Lagoon in Odisha, the country’s largest brackish water lagoon. By comparing over 10 billion sequences of eDNA fragments from multiple seasonal samples with a large database of reference sequences from all the known species, the researchers were able to detect organisms across the tree of life.

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SLIM’S REVOLUTION IN LUNAR LANDINGS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, Japan’s Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) spacecraft entered into orbit around the moon after a months-long journey, and ahead of its planned moon-landing attempt on January 19.

EXPLANATION:

  • Japan’s Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) spacecraft represents a significant advancement in lunar exploration.
  • It entered the moon’s orbit, marking Japan’s endeavour to soft-land a robotic craft on the lunar surface.
  • SLIM’s success or failure is poised to impact not only Japan’s lunar exploration initiatives but also India’s Chandrayaan missions, notably Chandrayaan-4.

Factors Contributing to SLIM’s Lower Weight and Impact on Mission Objectives

  • SLIM’s remarkable attribute lies in its significantly lower weight compared to other lunar exploration missions.
  • Weighing a mere 590 kg at launch, approximately one-seventh of the Chandrayaan-3 mission’s weight, SLIM’s lighter design stems from carrying much less fuel.
  • This weight reduction allows SLIM to follow a more fuel-efficient trajectory, taking four months to reach the moon compared to Chandrayaan-3’s quicker journey.
  • The spacecraft’s fuel-thrifty route, based on weak-stability boundary theory, involved swinging around Earth multiple times to build kinetic energy before shooting toward the moon’s orbit.
  • Upon nearing the moon, instead of slowing down to be captured by lunar gravity, SLIM allowed itself to be deflected by the combined forces of Earth and the moon, resulting in an elongated trajectory.

SLIM’s Lunar Objectives and Precision Landing

  • SLIM’s distinctive feature, termed the “moon sniper,” is its planned landing attempt on January 19, aiming to land within a remarkably tight limit of 100 meters from its chosen site near the Shioli Crater.
  • This precision far exceeds previous moon-landing missions’ accuracy. SLIM’s maneuverability, owing to its lower mass of 120 kg (excluding fuel), and small size will be tested during this endeavour.
  • Additionally, two small rovers, LEV-1 and LEV-2, will be deployed to study the lunar surface, collect data on temperature, radiation, and explore the moon’s mantle.

Impact on Chandrayaan-4 and India-Japan Lunar Exploration

  • SLIM’s success or failure holds implications for India’s Chandrayaan missions.
  • Chandrayaan-4, part of the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) lunar exploration program, is slated as an Indian-Japan joint enterprise, although India’s final approval is pending.
  • Scheduled for a potential launch in 2026, Chandrayaan-4 aims to explore the moon’s South Pole region, focusing on areas perpetually shadowed that likely contain water-ice deposits.
  • The technologies tested by JAXA through SLIM, particularly the feature-matching algorithm and navigation systems, will be critical for Chandrayaan-4’s success.
  • This joint mission will involve Japan providing the launch vehicle and lunar rover, while India contributes the lander module.
  • The mission’s landing site, potentially closer to the moon’s South Pole, poses challenges due to rocky terrain and steep slopes, demanding precision in landing.
  • SLIM’s pioneering precision landing attempt influences the design and approach of Chandrayaan-4, shaping the future of India-Japan lunar exploration.

Conclusion

  • SLIM’s innovative approach to lunar landings and its precision-oriented mission signify a significant leap in space exploration.
  • Its success not only expands Japan’s achievements in lunar missions but also impacts the trajectory and technological advancements in India-Japan collaborative lunar exploration, notably influencing the forthcoming Chandrayaan-4 mission’s strategies and objectives.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/2023-12-28/th_chennai/articleGUJC6U06L-5321286.ece




AARDVARKS AND CLIMATE CHANGE: IMPACT ON SUB-SAHARAN ECOSYSTEMS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Recent studies, particularly from Oregon State University, highlighted the detrimental effects of climate change on aardvarks.

EXPLANATION:

  • The warming climate has led to aridification in their landscapes, significantly impacting their survival chances.
  • Aridification involves the drying and heating of the aardvarks’ habitats, causing disruptions in their distribution and movement patterns across the landscape.

Aardvarks

  • Aardvarks, the nocturnal burrowing mammals found across much of sub-Saharan Africa, play a crucial role in the region’s ecosystem.
  • Their habitat primarily includes savannah and semi-arid areas, where they contribute significantly by controlling termite populations that can otherwise damage human structures.
  • Additionally, their burrows serve as essential habitats for various other species.

Research Insights: Understanding Aardvark Population Dynamics

  • The study published in the journal Diversity and Distributions conducted by researchers at Oregon State University delved into a detailed examination of aardvark populations across various regions in sub-Saharan Africa.
  • The research aimed to understand how the changing landscape due to aridification affected the genetic structure and population dynamics of aardvarks.

Methodology and Findings

  • The researchers surveyed multiple areas in South Africa, Eswatini (formerly Swaziland), and Kenya to evaluate the impact of landscape on gene flow and genetic structure across different spatial extents.
  • They collected and analyzed a substantial number of aardvark faecal samples, totalling 253, and scrutinized 104 samples for genetic information.
  • At the local scale, the study revealed that aardvark populations in different regions within South Africa exhibited some level of separation.
  • They found individual aardvarks in various locations, with closely related ones being separated by significant distances, up to 7.3 km apart.
  • Genetic similarities were observed in aardvarks within 55 km, indicating their proximity as a determinant of genetic likeness.

Effects of Arid Areas on Aardvark Genetic Differentiation

  • The research identified that arid areas across South Africa and Eswatini posed challenges to gene flow among aardvark populations.
  • These areas acted as barriers, limiting genetic exchange among aardvarks.
  • The study correlated this phenomenon with lower rainfall, resulting in reduced vegetation and subsequently fewer termites and ants—the primary diet of aardvarks.

Conclusion and Recommendations

  • The study concluded that climate, particularly arid conditions, significantly influences the genetic structure of aardvarks.
  • Arid areas restrict gene flow among populations and drive genetic adaptation associated with temperature changes.
  • Consequently, the researchers recommend monitoring aardvark presence as an indicator of ecosystem changes attributed to aridification in sub-Saharan Africa.

Significance and Conservation Implications

  • Understanding how climate change impacts species like aardvarks is crucial for informed conservation and ecosystem management.
  • Aardvarks, despite being nocturnal, hard to trap, and existing in low densities across vast landscapes, play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.
  • Addressing the challenges they face due to climate change-induced aridification is imperative to ensure their continued presence and the overall health of sub-Saharan ecosystems.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/aardvarks-are-crucial-for-sub-saharan-africa-s-ecosystem-but-climate-change-is-impacting-their-chances-of-survival-93584




UNJUST AND UNWISE: ON COUNTER-INSURGENCY OPERATIONS IN J&K

THE CONTEXT: In a conflict-prone border province such as Jammu and Kashmir (J&K), security forces have to tackle not only terrorism but also engage in counter-insurgency operations in a precise and just manner.  The death of soldiers by militants and civilians who were detained by the Army in the area is a severe indictment of the counter-insurgency tactics there.

CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS RELATED TO RIGHTS OF ARMED FORCES:

Article 33 is an exception to the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution. It empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the application of the fundamental rights in relation to Armed Forces, Paramilitary Forces, Police, Persons employed in intelligence or counterintelligence services, and communication systems set up for the said organizations.

Acts such as the Army Act 1950, Navy Act 1957, Air Forces Act 1950 have been enacted as per Article 33. These acts restrict rights such as

  • Freedom of speech and expression
  • Freedom of assembly
  • Freedom to form associations and unions

ISSUES:

  • Human rights violation: The exercise of the extraordinary powers by armed forces has lead to allegations of fake encounters and other human rights violations in the disturbed areas.
  • Law and order situations: “Fake encounter” deaths and alleged torture by security agencies in the Valley have resulted in spurts of increased militancy besides public outrage that developed into major law and order situations.
  • Trust issues with the ruling government: Such actions by security forces targeting civilians in response to militant attacks are clearly problematic. It increases the unpopularity of a regime that has not been democratically elected in the Union Territory where provincial elections have not been held for more than half a decade.
  • Feeling of Alienation:Indiscrimination in the use of violence targeting civilians without just cause only results in the questioning of that legitimacy in the eyes of the people. The use of force further increases the feeling of alienation of the people in the region and solidification of militant actions.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Proactive approach of government: The government needs to adopt a more proactive approach toward safeguarding the rights of soldiers upholding both constitutional and moral principles.
  • Development of Disturbed areas: The lack of development in the region is also a major reason for the insurgency over there. Therefore, the Government should take urgent steps to create new opportunities for growth and development.
  • Effective justice delivery: The government agencies must now deliver justice quickly and in a firm manner. There is a need of greater transparency in communicating the status of existing cases to include its display on the army and government’s web sites. Every death caused by the armed forces in a disturbed area, be it of a common person or a criminal, should be independently enquired into and followed by adequate action.

THE CONCLUSION:

Peace and Rights can be established by only synchronised efforts of central and state government along with security forces. There is an urgent need for a clear-cut policy discussing the rights and duties of the security forces and at the same time society needs to be made aware of the sensitivity that an armed force personnel also deserves.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss The future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. (2016)

Q.2 The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-islaami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Fake encounter deaths and alleged torture by security agencies in the Jammu and Kashmir have resulted in spurts of increased militancy besides public outrage that developed into major law and order situations. Examine

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/unjust-and-unwise-the-hindu-editorial-on-counter-insurgency-operations-in-jammu-kashmir/article67680557.ece




Day-563 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. The term ‘Title 42’, often seen in the news, is related to which of the following?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Context: The United States lifted Title 42 that has blocked migrants caught at the U.S.-Mexico border from seeking asylum since 2020 in May 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● The COVID restrictions, known as Title 42, were first implemented under Republican then-President Donald Trump in March 2020 at the beginning of the pandemic.
    ● At the time, the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) said the order was needed to stem the spread of the coronavirus in crowded detention settings.
    ● Title 42 allowed border agents to rapidly expel many migrants to Mexico, but some public health experts, Democrats and advocates criticized its health justification, saying it was part of Trump’s goal of curbing legal and illegal immigration.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Context: The United States lifted Title 42 that has blocked migrants caught at the U.S.-Mexico border from seeking asylum since 2020 in May 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● The COVID restrictions, known as Title 42, were first implemented under Republican then-President Donald Trump in March 2020 at the beginning of the pandemic.
    ● At the time, the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) said the order was needed to stem the spread of the coronavirus in crowded detention settings.
    ● Title 42 allowed border agents to rapidly expel many migrants to Mexico, but some public health experts, Democrats and advocates criticized its health justification, saying it was part of Trump’s goal of curbing legal and illegal immigration.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements regarding the Arab League:
    1. It is a regional organization of Arab states which are geographically located only in the Middle East, aiming to strengthen ties among member states.
    2. It was formed in Cairo, Egypt, following the adoption of the Alexandria Protocol in 1944.
    3. It currently consists of 22 members including Palestine which is one of its founding members.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: The Arab League in May 2023 voted to reinstate Syria’s membership after its suspension more than 10 years ago, underlining the thawing relations between Damascus and other Arab countries. Syria’s participation has been suspended since November 2011 as a consequence of government repression during the Syrian Civil War.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa to strengthen ties among member states.
    Statement 2 is correct: It was formed in Cairo, Egypt, following the adoption of the Alexandria Protocol in 1944.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It currently consists of 22 members, but Palestine is not one of its founding members. Members: Algeria, Bahrain, Comoros, Djibouti, Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Mauritania, Morocco, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Sudan, Syria, Tunisia, the United Arab Emirates, and Yemen.
    Founding members: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria.

    Additional information:
    ● It aims to strengthen and coordinate the political, cultural, economic, and social programs of its members and to mediate disputes among them or between them and third parties.
    ● The signing on 13th April 1950, of an agreement on joint defense and economic cooperation also committed the signatories to coordination of military defense measures.
    ● According to the Council on Foreign Relations, an American think tank, “The League makes decisions on a majority basis, but there is no mechanism to compel members to comply with resolutions. “It has been criticised for its internal conflicts and collective inaction on important international issues.”

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: The Arab League in May 2023 voted to reinstate Syria’s membership after its suspension more than 10 years ago, underlining the thawing relations between Damascus and other Arab countries. Syria’s participation has been suspended since November 2011 as a consequence of government repression during the Syrian Civil War.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa to strengthen ties among member states.
    Statement 2 is correct: It was formed in Cairo, Egypt, following the adoption of the Alexandria Protocol in 1944.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It currently consists of 22 members, but Palestine is not one of its founding members. Members: Algeria, Bahrain, Comoros, Djibouti, Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Mauritania, Morocco, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Sudan, Syria, Tunisia, the United Arab Emirates, and Yemen.
    Founding members: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria.

    Additional information:
    ● It aims to strengthen and coordinate the political, cultural, economic, and social programs of its members and to mediate disputes among them or between them and third parties.
    ● The signing on 13th April 1950, of an agreement on joint defense and economic cooperation also committed the signatories to coordination of military defense measures.
    ● According to the Council on Foreign Relations, an American think tank, “The League makes decisions on a majority basis, but there is no mechanism to compel members to comply with resolutions. “It has been criticised for its internal conflicts and collective inaction on important international issues.”

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. The 108-foot-tall ‘Statue of Oneness’ of Adi Shankaracharya was unveiled at Omkareshwar town, Madhya Pradesh recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Adi Shankaracharya?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Context: Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister has unveiled a colossal 108-foot statue of the 8th-century Hindu philosopher and saint, Adi Shankaracharya in September 2023 at Omkareshwar town, in Khandwa district, Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation:
    ● According to Sri Shankaracharya, knowledge is the only way to achieve salvation and to attain liberating enlightenment.
    ● He mentions that Sri Krishna in Srimad Bhagavadgita compares knowledge to a bright lamp that destroys the darkness of ignorance.
    Additional information:
    Shankaracharya (c. 788 – 820 CE)
    ● One of the mystic Bhakti poet-saint leaders who gave a new orientation to Hinduism.
    ● He was born in Kaladi in Kerala. He propounded the Advaita (Monism) philosophy and the idea of Nirgunabrahman (god without attributes).
    ● In Advaita, the reality of the world is denied, and Brahman is considered the only reality. It is only Brahman at its base that gives it its reality.
    ● His famous quotes include, ‘Brahma Satyam Jagat Mithya Jivo Brahmatra Naparaha’ meaning, “The Absolute Spirit is the reality, the world of appearance is Maya” and ‘Ekameva Adviteeyam Brahma’ meaning, “The absolute is one alone, not two”.
    ● Upadesasahasri, Vivekachudamani, Bhaja Govindum Stotra are some of the works authored by Shankaracharya. He also wrote commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita, the Brahma Sutra and the Upanishads.
    ● He set up mathas at Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri and Badrinath.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Context: Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister has unveiled a colossal 108-foot statue of the 8th-century Hindu philosopher and saint, Adi Shankaracharya in September 2023 at Omkareshwar town, in Khandwa district, Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation:
    ● According to Sri Shankaracharya, knowledge is the only way to achieve salvation and to attain liberating enlightenment.
    ● He mentions that Sri Krishna in Srimad Bhagavadgita compares knowledge to a bright lamp that destroys the darkness of ignorance.
    Additional information:
    Shankaracharya (c. 788 – 820 CE)
    ● One of the mystic Bhakti poet-saint leaders who gave a new orientation to Hinduism.
    ● He was born in Kaladi in Kerala. He propounded the Advaita (Monism) philosophy and the idea of Nirgunabrahman (god without attributes).
    ● In Advaita, the reality of the world is denied, and Brahman is considered the only reality. It is only Brahman at its base that gives it its reality.
    ● His famous quotes include, ‘Brahma Satyam Jagat Mithya Jivo Brahmatra Naparaha’ meaning, “The Absolute Spirit is the reality, the world of appearance is Maya” and ‘Ekameva Adviteeyam Brahma’ meaning, “The absolute is one alone, not two”.
    ● Upadesasahasri, Vivekachudamani, Bhaja Govindum Stotra are some of the works authored by Shankaracharya. He also wrote commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita, the Brahma Sutra and the Upanishads.
    ● He set up mathas at Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri and Badrinath.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Which of the following is correct regarding the objective of Tele MANAS?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS), helpline has reached a significant milestone. The toll-free service has received over 2,00,000 calls from various parts of the nation since the launch in 2022, portraying a consistently progressive trend.
    Explanation:
    ● The Tele (Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States) MANAS, the digital arm of the ‘District Mental Health Programme’) launched by the Government of India in October 2022 to strengthen mental health service delivery in the country.
    ● Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
    ● It aims to establish a digital mental health network that will withstand the challenges amplified by the pandemic.
    Objectives of Tele MANAS: –
    ● To enable people to seek support for their mental health issues while maintaining the anonymity of the callers, thereby reducing the stigma generally surrounding mental health issues.
    ● To exponentially scale up the reach of mental health services to anybody who reaches out, across India, any time, by setting up a 24×7 tele-mental health facility in each of the States and UTs of the country.
    ● To implement a full-fledged mental health-service network that, in addition to counselling, provides integrated medical and psychosocial interventions including video consultations with mental health specialists, e-prescriptions, follow-up services and linkages to in-person services.
    ● To extend services to vulnerable groups of the population and difficult-to-reach populations.
    Salient Features of Tele MANAS: –
    ● Tele MANAS will be organized as a two-tier system. (Tele-MANAS)
    ● Tier 1: comprise the State Tele MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists.
    ● Tier 2: comprise specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation.
    ● Toll-free helpline numbers: 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 with multi-language provision allows callers to select the language of their choice for availing the services. (Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health)
    Eligibility:
    ● Any individual with mental health issues can reach out to Tele MANAS services for help.
    ● Family members of persons with mental health issues can reach out for help.
    ● Grass-root health care providers/community health providers., Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), and community volunteers from the community can reach out to Tele MANAS on behalf of an individual or individuals in that community with mental health issues.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS), helpline has reached a significant milestone. The toll-free service has received over 2,00,000 calls from various parts of the nation since the launch in 2022, portraying a consistently progressive trend.
    Explanation:
    ● The Tele (Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States) MANAS, the digital arm of the ‘District Mental Health Programme’) launched by the Government of India in October 2022 to strengthen mental health service delivery in the country.
    ● Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
    ● It aims to establish a digital mental health network that will withstand the challenges amplified by the pandemic.
    Objectives of Tele MANAS: –
    ● To enable people to seek support for their mental health issues while maintaining the anonymity of the callers, thereby reducing the stigma generally surrounding mental health issues.
    ● To exponentially scale up the reach of mental health services to anybody who reaches out, across India, any time, by setting up a 24×7 tele-mental health facility in each of the States and UTs of the country.
    ● To implement a full-fledged mental health-service network that, in addition to counselling, provides integrated medical and psychosocial interventions including video consultations with mental health specialists, e-prescriptions, follow-up services and linkages to in-person services.
    ● To extend services to vulnerable groups of the population and difficult-to-reach populations.
    Salient Features of Tele MANAS: –
    ● Tele MANAS will be organized as a two-tier system. (Tele-MANAS)
    ● Tier 1: comprise the State Tele MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists.
    ● Tier 2: comprise specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation.
    ● Toll-free helpline numbers: 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 with multi-language provision allows callers to select the language of their choice for availing the services. (Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health)
    Eligibility:
    ● Any individual with mental health issues can reach out to Tele MANAS services for help.
    ● Family members of persons with mental health issues can reach out for help.
    ● Grass-root health care providers/community health providers., Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), and community volunteers from the community can reach out to Tele MANAS on behalf of an individual or individuals in that community with mental health issues.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. It is a robotic spacecraft that has been on a seven-year mission to collect and return samples from an asteroid called Bennu which is millions of kilometers from Earth. The mission in the paragraph refers to-

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Context: After a seven-year-round trip, NASA’s OSIRIS-REx brought asteroid samples to Earth in September, 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● NASA’s OSIRIS-REx is a robotic spacecraft that has been on a seven-year mission to collect and return samples from an asteroid called Bennu which is billions of kilometers from Earth.
    ● It took more than two years to reach Bennu after OSIRIS-REx launched in 2016. It then spent almost as much time mapping the asteroid, finding a site to scrape and collecting about 250 grams (8.8 ounces) of the rock. Then it began its journey back toward Earth.
    Additional information:
    ● It is the United States’ first asteroid sample return mission, aiming to collect and carry a pristine, unaltered sample from an asteroid back to earth for scientific study.
    ● The OSIRIS-REx (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security, Regolith Explorer) spacecraft was launched in 2016 for the journey to Bennu.
    ● The mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage and will conclude when at least 60 grams of samples are delivered back to the Earth (in 2023).
    ● As per NASA , the mission promises to bring the largest amount of extraterrestrial material back to the Earth since the Apollo era.
    ● Apollo was the NASA program that resulted in American astronauts’ making a total of 11 space flights and walking on the moon (1968-72).
    ● The spacecraft contains five instruments meant to explore Bennu, including cameras, a spectrometer and a laser altimeter.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Context: After a seven-year-round trip, NASA’s OSIRIS-REx brought asteroid samples to Earth in September, 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● NASA’s OSIRIS-REx is a robotic spacecraft that has been on a seven-year mission to collect and return samples from an asteroid called Bennu which is billions of kilometers from Earth.
    ● It took more than two years to reach Bennu after OSIRIS-REx launched in 2016. It then spent almost as much time mapping the asteroid, finding a site to scrape and collecting about 250 grams (8.8 ounces) of the rock. Then it began its journey back toward Earth.
    Additional information:
    ● It is the United States’ first asteroid sample return mission, aiming to collect and carry a pristine, unaltered sample from an asteroid back to earth for scientific study.
    ● The OSIRIS-REx (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security, Regolith Explorer) spacecraft was launched in 2016 for the journey to Bennu.
    ● The mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage and will conclude when at least 60 grams of samples are delivered back to the Earth (in 2023).
    ● As per NASA , the mission promises to bring the largest amount of extraterrestrial material back to the Earth since the Apollo era.
    ● Apollo was the NASA program that resulted in American astronauts’ making a total of 11 space flights and walking on the moon (1968-72).
    ● The spacecraft contains five instruments meant to explore Bennu, including cameras, a spectrometer and a laser altimeter.

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Day-562 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | POLITY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements about the Electoral Bonds:
    1. Electoral bonds are bearer instruments.
    2. Electoral bonds can be used to fund independent candidates.
    3. They can only be purchased from designated branches of the State Bank of India.
    How many of the above given statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are bearer instruments, meaning that they do not carry the name of the donor and their identity remains anonymous.Electoral bonds are designed to protect the anonymity of donors, allowing them to contribute to political parties without fear of reprisal or undue influence. This anonymity aims to encourage transparency and prevent corruption in political funding.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Electoral bonds are strictly intended for funding registered political parties and cannot be used to directly finance individual and independent candidates. This restriction aims to prevent the use of electoral bonds for personal gain or undue influence over candidates.
    Statement 3 is correct: The government has designated specific branches of the SBI as authorized sellers of electoral bonds. This centralized approach helps to monitor and regulate the issuance of electoral bonds and maintain a record of transactions.
    Additional Information:
    ● The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill and it was implemented in 2018.
    ● State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore which are payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free.
    ● Can be purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India.
    ● They are valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue.
    ● SBI is the authorized issuer.
    ● Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are bearer instruments, meaning that they do not carry the name of the donor and their identity remains anonymous.Electoral bonds are designed to protect the anonymity of donors, allowing them to contribute to political parties without fear of reprisal or undue influence. This anonymity aims to encourage transparency and prevent corruption in political funding.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Electoral bonds are strictly intended for funding registered political parties and cannot be used to directly finance individual and independent candidates. This restriction aims to prevent the use of electoral bonds for personal gain or undue influence over candidates.
    Statement 3 is correct: The government has designated specific branches of the SBI as authorized sellers of electoral bonds. This centralized approach helps to monitor and regulate the issuance of electoral bonds and maintain a record of transactions.
    Additional Information:
    ● The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill and it was implemented in 2018.
    ● State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore which are payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free.
    ● Can be purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India.
    ● They are valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue.
    ● SBI is the authorized issuer.
    ● Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Which of the following are the purposes of including the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Constitution of India?
    1. Socio-economic development
    2. Establishing political democracy
    3. Creation of a welfare state
    4. Serve as a moral compass for governance
    Select the correct answer from the code given below:

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: To guide the government’s approach to socio-economic development and welfare: The DPSP outlines a vision for a just and equitable society, providing direction for the government’s policies and programs aimed at promoting social and economic well-being. These principles advocate for measures such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) do have some implications for political democracy, their primary focus is on establishing social and economic democracy.
    Political democracy refers to a system of government in which power is held by the people, either directly through voting or indirectly through elected representatives. It is characterized by features such as free and fair elections, freedom of speech and assembly, and the rule of law.
    Social and economic democracy, on the other hand, is concerned with creating a society in which all citizens have equal opportunities and a fair share of the nation’s resources. It encompasses concepts such as social justice, equitable distribution of wealth, and ensuring the basic needs of all citizens.
    The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, primarily focuses on promoting social and economic democracy. They outline principles such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities. These principles aim to create a society where all citizens have equal access to opportunities and resources, regardless of their social background or economic status.
    Statement 3 is correct: To promote a welfare state: The DPSP embodies the concept of a welfare state, emphasizing the government’s responsibility to ensure the well-being of its citizens. These principles encourage the government to take an active role in providing social services, such as healthcare, education, and social security, to uplift the lives of its citizens.
    Statement 4 is correct: To serve as a moral compass for governance: The DPSP serves as guiding principles for the government’s actions, providing a moral framework for policymaking and decision-making. These principles encourage the government to consider not only immediate economic and political considerations but also the long-term social and moral implications of its actions.
    Basics of Directive Principles of State Policy:
    ● Part IV of the Indian Constitution: The DPSP are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, along with the Fundamental Rights. These principles are considered to be “fundamental in the governance of the country” and “it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
    ● Non-justiciable nature: While the DPSP are considered important guiding principles, they are not justiciable. This means that individuals cannot directly approach courts to seek enforcement of these principles. However, the DPSP can be used by courts as a source of inspiration and interpretation when adjudicating cases related to Fundamental Rights.
    ● Role in policymaking: The DPSP serve as a moral compass for the government’s policies and programs. While not directly enforceable, these principles provide a framework for the government to strive towards achieving a just, equitable, and welfare-oriented society.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: To guide the government’s approach to socio-economic development and welfare: The DPSP outlines a vision for a just and equitable society, providing direction for the government’s policies and programs aimed at promoting social and economic well-being. These principles advocate for measures such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) do have some implications for political democracy, their primary focus is on establishing social and economic democracy.
    Political democracy refers to a system of government in which power is held by the people, either directly through voting or indirectly through elected representatives. It is characterized by features such as free and fair elections, freedom of speech and assembly, and the rule of law.
    Social and economic democracy, on the other hand, is concerned with creating a society in which all citizens have equal opportunities and a fair share of the nation’s resources. It encompasses concepts such as social justice, equitable distribution of wealth, and ensuring the basic needs of all citizens.
    The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, primarily focuses on promoting social and economic democracy. They outline principles such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities. These principles aim to create a society where all citizens have equal access to opportunities and resources, regardless of their social background or economic status.
    Statement 3 is correct: To promote a welfare state: The DPSP embodies the concept of a welfare state, emphasizing the government’s responsibility to ensure the well-being of its citizens. These principles encourage the government to take an active role in providing social services, such as healthcare, education, and social security, to uplift the lives of its citizens.
    Statement 4 is correct: To serve as a moral compass for governance: The DPSP serves as guiding principles for the government’s actions, providing a moral framework for policymaking and decision-making. These principles encourage the government to consider not only immediate economic and political considerations but also the long-term social and moral implications of its actions.
    Basics of Directive Principles of State Policy:
    ● Part IV of the Indian Constitution: The DPSP are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, along with the Fundamental Rights. These principles are considered to be “fundamental in the governance of the country” and “it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
    ● Non-justiciable nature: While the DPSP are considered important guiding principles, they are not justiciable. This means that individuals cannot directly approach courts to seek enforcement of these principles. However, the DPSP can be used by courts as a source of inspiration and interpretation when adjudicating cases related to Fundamental Rights.
    ● Role in policymaking: The DPSP serve as a moral compass for the government’s policies and programs. While not directly enforceable, these principles provide a framework for the government to strive towards achieving a just, equitable, and welfare-oriented society.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Tenth schedule to the Constitution of India was added by:

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Option B is correct.
    The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 which introduced the concept of anti-defection. The aim of the Tenth Schedule is to prevent members of legislatures from switching parties for personal gain or political expediency, thereby promoting stability and coherence in the legislative process.
    Prior to the Fifty-second Amendment, there was no constitutional provision against defection. This led to frequent instances of members of legislatures switching parties, often in exchange for personal benefits or ministerial positions. This instability and lack of loyalty to party principles undermined the integrity of the legislative process and raised concerns about the functioning of democracy.
    45th Amendment Act, 1980:extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    54th Amendment Act, 1986:enhanced the salaries of Judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court of India.
    59th Amendment Act, 1988:It empowered the President of India to impose President’s rule in Punjab for a period of up to three years, instead of the usual one year.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Option B is correct.
    The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 which introduced the concept of anti-defection. The aim of the Tenth Schedule is to prevent members of legislatures from switching parties for personal gain or political expediency, thereby promoting stability and coherence in the legislative process.
    Prior to the Fifty-second Amendment, there was no constitutional provision against defection. This led to frequent instances of members of legislatures switching parties, often in exchange for personal benefits or ministerial positions. This instability and lack of loyalty to party principles undermined the integrity of the legislative process and raised concerns about the functioning of democracy.
    45th Amendment Act, 1980:extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    54th Amendment Act, 1986:enhanced the salaries of Judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court of India.
    59th Amendment Act, 1988:It empowered the President of India to impose President’s rule in Punjab for a period of up to three years, instead of the usual one year.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Article 300 of the Indian Constitution embodies the concept of constitutional tort.
    Statement-II: Article 300 permits the Union and the State Governments to be sued as juristic persons.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A “constitutional tort” refers to the violation of an individual’s constitutional rights by a state actor or government official. It’s a situation where a person’s rights, as granted by a nation’s constitution or other foundational legal document, are infringed upon by those acting on behalf of the government.
    In such situations, the aggrieved individual may have the right to sue the state actor or the government itself for damages.
    The concept of constitutional tort aims to provide a remedy for violations of constitutional rights and to hold state actors accountable for their actions.
    Statement-I is correct: In the context of India, the term “constitutional tort” isn’t as commonly used as in some other jurisdictions, but the underlying idea is present within the Indian Constitution and legal system.
    Constitutional tort in India refers to the breach of an individual’s fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution by a state actor or a public official. When the government or its agents act in a way that infringes upon an individual’s rights, the affected person can seek redressal through the judiciary.
    The Indian Constitution, under Article 32 and Article 226, empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. In doing so, the courts often provide remedies and compensations, holding public officials accountable for their actions. Article 300 of the Constitution of India also embodies the concept of Constitutional tort.
    Article 300 of the Indian Constitution ensures that the government is subject to the rule of law and can be involved in legal proceedings to resolve disputes or address claims related to its rights and liabilities. It reinforces the principle that no one, including the government, is above the law.
    Statement-II is correct: Under Article 300(1) of the Constitution of India the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. This is a fundamental principle of Indian law that ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A “constitutional tort” refers to the violation of an individual’s constitutional rights by a state actor or government official. It’s a situation where a person’s rights, as granted by a nation’s constitution or other foundational legal document, are infringed upon by those acting on behalf of the government.
    In such situations, the aggrieved individual may have the right to sue the state actor or the government itself for damages.
    The concept of constitutional tort aims to provide a remedy for violations of constitutional rights and to hold state actors accountable for their actions.
    Statement-I is correct: In the context of India, the term “constitutional tort” isn’t as commonly used as in some other jurisdictions, but the underlying idea is present within the Indian Constitution and legal system.
    Constitutional tort in India refers to the breach of an individual’s fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution by a state actor or a public official. When the government or its agents act in a way that infringes upon an individual’s rights, the affected person can seek redressal through the judiciary.
    The Indian Constitution, under Article 32 and Article 226, empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. In doing so, the courts often provide remedies and compensations, holding public officials accountable for their actions. Article 300 of the Constitution of India also embodies the concept of Constitutional tort.
    Article 300 of the Indian Constitution ensures that the government is subject to the rule of law and can be involved in legal proceedings to resolve disputes or address claims related to its rights and liabilities. It reinforces the principle that no one, including the government, is above the law.
    Statement-II is correct: Under Article 300(1) of the Constitution of India the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. This is a fundamental principle of Indian law that ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following:
    1. India Innovation Index (III)
    2. School Education Quality Index (SEQI)
    3. State Health Index (SHI)
    How many of the above given indices are released by the NITI Aayog?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation: All the above mentioned Indices are released by the NITI Aayog.
    NITI Aayog, the Government of India’s think tank, releases a variety of indexes to assess and track the progress of various sectors and aspects of development in India.
    India Innovation Index (III): The India Innovation Index, released annually, measures the innovation ecosystem across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses various aspects of innovation, including finance, human capital, research and development, and infrastructure.
    The India Innovation Index (III) is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses seven pillars of innovation:
    1. Human Capital: This pillar assesses the skills and capabilities of the workforce, including education, research and development, and creative talent.
    2. Infrastructure: This pillar evaluates the availability and quality of physical and digital infrastructure, including transportation, communication, and IT infrastructure.
    3. Finance: This pillar assesses the access to capital for innovation activities, including venture capital, angel investments, and government funding.
    4. Market Access: This pillar evaluates the ease of doing business, market size, and regulatory environment for innovative products and services.
    5. Knowledge Creation: This pillar assesses the output of innovation activities, including research and development, publications, and patents.
    6. Business Environment: This pillar evaluates the overall business environment for innovation, including factors such as intellectual property protection, regulatory environment, and government support for innovation.
    7. Performance: This pillar assesses the commercialization of innovation, including venture capital deals, startups, and global rankings.
    Key Findings of the India Innovation Index (III) 2022:
    ● Karnataka topped the index for the third consecutive year.
    ● Karnataka was followed by Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Gujarat.
    ● Uttarakhand, Bihar, and Jharkhand were among the bottom-ranked states.
    ● The gap between the top-performing and bottom-performing states has narrowed in recent years.

    School Education Quality Index (SEQI): The School Education Quality Index, released every two years, measures the quality of school education across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses parameters such as learning outcomes, infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and school management.The SEQI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 70 indicators across five key dimensions:
    1. Outcomes: This dimension assesses the learning outcomes of students, including their performance in national and international assessments.
    2. Infrastructure and Facilities: This dimension evaluates the availability and quality of physical infrastructure, such as classrooms, libraries, and laboratories, as well as teacher-student ratios.
    3. Teacher Availability and Quality: This dimension assesses the number, qualifications, and professional development of teachers.
    4. Processes and Governance: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of school management, school governance, and teacher management practices.
    5. Equity and Access: This dimension assesses the accessibility of education for all students, including those from marginalized communities and disadvantaged backgrounds.

    State Health Index (SHI): The State Health Index, released every three years, evaluates the performance of public health systems across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses factors such as health outcomes, infrastructure, access to services, and financial resources to provide a holistic evaluation of the healthcare delivery system and identify areas for improvement.
    The SHI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 24 indicators across three key dimensions:
    1. Health Outcomes: This dimension assesses the overall health status of the population, including indicators such as infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate, and life expectancy.
    2. Governance and Information: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of the healthcare system’s governance, including factors such as health budget allocation, utilization of health services, and availability of health information.
    3. Key Inputs and Processes: This dimension assesses the availability and quality of key health inputs, such as healthcare infrastructure, human resources, and access to essential medicines.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation: All the above mentioned Indices are released by the NITI Aayog.
    NITI Aayog, the Government of India’s think tank, releases a variety of indexes to assess and track the progress of various sectors and aspects of development in India.
    India Innovation Index (III): The India Innovation Index, released annually, measures the innovation ecosystem across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses various aspects of innovation, including finance, human capital, research and development, and infrastructure.
    The India Innovation Index (III) is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses seven pillars of innovation:
    1. Human Capital: This pillar assesses the skills and capabilities of the workforce, including education, research and development, and creative talent.
    2. Infrastructure: This pillar evaluates the availability and quality of physical and digital infrastructure, including transportation, communication, and IT infrastructure.
    3. Finance: This pillar assesses the access to capital for innovation activities, including venture capital, angel investments, and government funding.
    4. Market Access: This pillar evaluates the ease of doing business, market size, and regulatory environment for innovative products and services.
    5. Knowledge Creation: This pillar assesses the output of innovation activities, including research and development, publications, and patents.
    6. Business Environment: This pillar evaluates the overall business environment for innovation, including factors such as intellectual property protection, regulatory environment, and government support for innovation.
    7. Performance: This pillar assesses the commercialization of innovation, including venture capital deals, startups, and global rankings.
    Key Findings of the India Innovation Index (III) 2022:
    ● Karnataka topped the index for the third consecutive year.
    ● Karnataka was followed by Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Gujarat.
    ● Uttarakhand, Bihar, and Jharkhand were among the bottom-ranked states.
    ● The gap between the top-performing and bottom-performing states has narrowed in recent years.

    School Education Quality Index (SEQI): The School Education Quality Index, released every two years, measures the quality of school education across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses parameters such as learning outcomes, infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and school management.The SEQI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 70 indicators across five key dimensions:
    1. Outcomes: This dimension assesses the learning outcomes of students, including their performance in national and international assessments.
    2. Infrastructure and Facilities: This dimension evaluates the availability and quality of physical infrastructure, such as classrooms, libraries, and laboratories, as well as teacher-student ratios.
    3. Teacher Availability and Quality: This dimension assesses the number, qualifications, and professional development of teachers.
    4. Processes and Governance: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of school management, school governance, and teacher management practices.
    5. Equity and Access: This dimension assesses the accessibility of education for all students, including those from marginalized communities and disadvantaged backgrounds.

    State Health Index (SHI): The State Health Index, released every three years, evaluates the performance of public health systems across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses factors such as health outcomes, infrastructure, access to services, and financial resources to provide a holistic evaluation of the healthcare delivery system and identify areas for improvement.
    The SHI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 24 indicators across three key dimensions:
    1. Health Outcomes: This dimension assesses the overall health status of the population, including indicators such as infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate, and life expectancy.
    2. Governance and Information: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of the healthcare system’s governance, including factors such as health budget allocation, utilization of health services, and availability of health information.
    3. Key Inputs and Processes: This dimension assesses the availability and quality of key health inputs, such as healthcare infrastructure, human resources, and access to essential medicines.

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GLOBAL TRADE DISRUPTION: IMPACT OF RED SEA ATTACKS AND PANAMA CANAL DROUGHT

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Recent attacks on ships passing through the Red Sea trade route, conducted by Yemen-based Houthi rebels, have raised significant concerns regarding the disruption of global trade.

EXPLANATION:

  • The attack on the Chemical tanker MV Chem Pluto near Gujarat, India, has heightened tensions among Indian oil importers and exporters dealing in commodities like basmati rice and tea.
  • The Houthi rebels’ attacks, driven by their opposition to Israel’s military actions in Gaza, have prompted swift countermeasures from the US-led maritime security coalition.
  • However, these attacks represent just one facet of the challenges impacting global shipping routes.

Critical Choke Points and Trade Implications

  • Two pivotal choke points, the Suez Canal and the Panama Canal, are under threat, potentially disrupting over one-third of global trade.
  • These choke points serve as essential channels for global maritime transport, with over 80% of global goods trade relying on sea routes.
  • Any blockage in these critical passages forces shipping lines to adopt longer alternative routes, elevating freight rates and causing significant logistical disruptions.
  • The disturbance in the Red Sea route, coupled with the potential blockage or slowdown in the Panama Canal due to drought conditions, poses severe repercussions for global trade.
  • The diversion of shipments through alternative routes, such as the Cape of Good Hope, adds to transit times and increases freight costs significantly.

Impact on Indian Trade and Agriculture

  • India, heavily reliant on sea routes for trade, faces adverse consequences due to these disruptions.
  • For instance, Indian agricultural product prices are anticipated to surge by 10-20% as shipments reroute through longer paths.
  • This price hike is particularly concerning amidst higher interest rates in Western countries, potentially impacting demand for Indian exports and affecting sectors like textiles and gems, majorly exporting to the European Union.

Challenges in the Panama Canal and Trade Route Deterioration

  • The Panama Canal has experienced a more than 50% reduction in shipping due to drought conditions, compelling vessels traveling from Asia to the US to opt for the lengthier Suez Canal
  • Concerns arise about prolonged canal bottlenecks due to Panama’s exceptionally dry rainy season.
  • Additionally, LNG vessels are resorting to costly auctions to expedite their transit, revealing the severity of the situation.

Resilience of Indian Oil Imports and Impact on Prices

  • Surprisingly, India’s oil imports from Russia have not suffered disruptions despite global shipping majors like Maersk avoiding the Red Sea route.
  • Russian tankers, perceived as allied with Iran, continue their passage through the Red Sea despite the ongoing attacks by Houthi rebels.
  • However, the spike in global benchmark crude prices to around $80 per barrel post-attacks on the Red Sea highlights market volatility and concerns regarding oil flow stability.

Freight Rate Surge and Economic Consequences

  • War risk surcharges imposed by global shipping firms due to Red Sea security concerns have led to an escalation in freight rates.
  • Indian exporters fear a substantial surge of 25-30% in freight rates for shipments bound to Europe and Africa, impacting crucial export sectors like textiles and gems, already grappling with reduced demand from the European Union.

Potential Resumption of Operations and Future Scenario

  • While shipping giant Maersk plans to resume operations in the Red Sea following increased security measures, uncertainties persist.
  • The company remains cautious, prepared to divert ship traffic based on evolving safety conditions, highlighting the volatile and precarious nature of current global trade routes.

Conclusion

  • The combined challenges faced by global shipping routes due to Red Sea attacks and Panama Canal droughts pose severe threats to the stability of global trade.
  • India, a significant player in international trade, faces potential disruptions impacting its exports and economic sectors.
  • The evolving situation underscores the need for strategic planning and robust measures to navigate the complexities of global trade in an increasingly uncertain environment.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/red-sea-attacks-shipping-global-trade-panama-canal-9083539/lite/




LAW OF NUMBERS: ON THE WINTER SESSION AND A LOW IN INDIA’S PARLIAMENTARY DEMOCRACY

THE CONTEXT: The winter session of Parliament marked a new low in India’s parliamentary democracy as the ruling government refused to engage with the Opposition. It evaded executive accountability and passed a number of Bills with far-reaching consequences while a majority of the Opposition members remained suspended.

RULES OF SUSPENSION OF MPs

SUSPENSION RULES IN THE LOK SABHA:

  • Rule 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business: The speaker may direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House and to remain absent during the rest of the day’s sitting if his/her conduct is grossly disordered.
  • Rule 374 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business: The Speaker may name a member if it thinks necessary, who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House persistently and wilfully obstruct the business.
  • Once the member is named, the government introduces a motion for their suspension. If the motion passes, the member gets suspended.
  • The member stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less.

SUSPENSION RULES IN THE RAJYA SABHA:

  • Rule 255 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business: Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered to direct any Member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disordered to withdraw immediately from the House.
  • The Chairman identifies any member causing undue disruptions. Following this, a motion is presented to the House for their suspension. If the House approves the motion, the member is suspended.

ISSUES:

  • Suspension of members: A total of 146 Members of Parliament (MP) from the Opposition bloc were suspended as they clamoured for a statement. This suspension is termed by the Opposition MP as “predetermined and premeditated” by the government. This suspension seems to be unconstitutional and illegal in nature as wilful and persistent obstruction of the business alone qualifies for the naming and suspension of a member. Moreover, suspension cannot be for an indefinite period.
  • Legislation without discussion: It was in the absence of a majority of the Opposition members that the government passed new laws. It includes rewriting the criminal code of the country, regulation of telecommunication and the appointment of the Election Commission of India The common feature of these laws is an unprecedented increase in the power of the executive, and it is not a coincidence that they were passed without a meaningful parliamentary debate.
  • Challenge to Democratic principles:Illegal and unconstitutional suspensions not only stifle opposition voices but also affects democratic discussions. This leads to disruptions in parliamentary proceedings and hinders the legislative work.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Adhere to Parliamentary Rules:Parliament should strictly follow Rules 374 of the Lok Sabha and Rules 256 of the Rajya Sabha while suspending members. It should not be done to satisfy the whims and fancies of the ruling government to supress the dissent of the opposition members.
  • Constructive role of opposition: Opposition should invest much time and effort in asking for a debate on the substantive legislative matters. They should play a constructive role in the Parliament and should be allowed to put forward their views and express themselves in a dignified manner.
  • Ensure dialogue: Such suspensions highlight the need for better methods to handle disagreements in Parliament. Political leaders should prioritize dialogue over suspensions to address disagreements in Parliament.

THE CONCLUSION:

The recent suspensions should be revisited to ensure they align with constitutional norms. The government should not use its majority to rush through legislation and should find ways to end the turmoil and bring harmony to our legislatures.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 Explain the structure of the Parliamentary Committee system. How far have the financial committees helped in the institutionalisation of the Indian Parliament? (2023)

Q.2 Discuss the role of Presiding Officers of state legislatures in maintaining order and impartiality in conducting legislative work and in facilitating best democratic practices. (2023)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 ‘’A parliament without opposition means an executive without accountability”. Discuss the statement in light of mass suspension of parliamentarians and passing of important Bills without effective discussion.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/law-of-numbers-on-the-winter-session-and-a-low-in-indias-parliamentary-democracy/article67677048.ece




GLOBAL GOAL ON ADAPTATION AND THE ROAD FROM DUBAI

THE CONTEXT: The 28th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the UNFCCC, in Dubai, was notable in terms of stopping the lackadaisical approach of the international community to the adaptation concern. Guided by the Paris Agreement on Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA) and the efforts put in at COP26 and COP27 culminated in the adoption of the framework for GGA at COP28.

WHAT IS GLOBAL GOAL ON ADAPTATION?

  • The Global Goal on Adaptation is a collective commitment under Article 7.1 of the Paris Agreement aimed at “enhancing adaptive capacity, strengthening resilience and reducing vulnerability to climate change.”
  • It was proposed by the African Group of Negotiators (AGN) in 2013 and established in 2015.
  • GGA is meant to serve as a unifying framework that can drive political action and finance for adaptation on the same scale as mitigation.
  • This means setting specific, measurable targets and guidelines for global adaptation action as well as enhancing adaptation finance and support for developing countries.

Key targets:

  • Parties to the Paris Agreement have to “conduct up-to-date assessments of climate hazards, and use the outcomes of these assessments to inform their formulation of national adaptation plans and planning strategies, by 2030.
  • All the Parties have to establish multi-hazard early warning systems, climate information services for risk reduction and systematic observation to support improved climate-related data, information and services by 2027.
  • National conditions, including administrative capacity and economic development, were identified alongside adequate support as key influencing factors for the implementation of a global goal.

CHALLENGES:

  • Inefficiency of Nationally Determined Goals: The best mitigation efforts enshrined in the nationally determined contributions (NDCs) of the Parties to the Paris Agreement are not in sight of restricting global average temperature below 1.5° C as compared to pre-industrial levels. They would rather nudge the world towards the 2.8° C point by the end of the century.
  • Alignment of global and national goals: There is a concern remaining here of alignment of global and national goals. A comprehensive review of experiences from the Millennium Development Goals found that globally agreed goals do not trickle down easily from the global to the national level.
  • Measuring GGA: Unlike mitigation of greenhouse gases, climate adaptation does not have a universal metric, and its ambition or implementation level cannot be simply aggregated based on countries’ national pledges. The GGA framework aims to launch a two-year work programme on indicators for measuring progress achieved towards the targets mentioned in paragraphs 9-10 of the GGA draft decisions. But there is no clarity on the parameters and the body who will develop it.
  • Issue of finance: The COP28 draft decision notes with concern that the adaptation finance gap is widening, which leads to widening gap between the estimated costs of meeting a given adaptation target and the amount of finance available. The COP26’s urge to developed countries to double overall adaptation finance from 2019 levels by 2025 was repeated in the Draft Decision. Estimation made on the basis of updated NDCs or national adaptation plans indicate a figure of $71 billion per year from now to 2030. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development countries have already admitted that their combined mitigation and adaptation finance flows fell short of the annual $100 billion to $83.3 billion in 2020.
  • Prioritising mitigation over adaptation: In a global context of scarce public funds and competing priorities, there is also a strong bias in climate financing in favour of mitigation as compared to adaptation. Buchner, in a study of Climate policy initiative, said that the split between mitigation and adaptation finance is 95:5.

Some of the reasons for that:

1. Climate change regime has been largely mitigation centric

2. Rich countries do not gain much as the benefits of adaptation are local

3. Mitigation projects generate benefits globally and the availability of low-cost mitigation options in developing countries.

  • The GGA is an encouraging development as it contains a number of developments that are very useful for the cause of adaptation. But it still falls short in terms of treating adaptation on a par with mitigation. It lays stress on holding the increase in the global average temperature well below 2° C and 1.5° C essential for ensuring the continued availability of the largest number of adaptation options. It also adds greater levels of mitigation that will reduce the need for additional adaptation efforts.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Urgent implementation: Implementing GGA needs more urgency in terms of treating adaptation on a par with mitigation in the face of extreme climate events with devastating consequences. As these climate change events are happening at only 1.1° Celsius as compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • Developing a standardised metrics: There is a need to develop a standardised metric supported by international donors and the national budget managers to help them in all sorts of adaptation projects. For example, the most sought-after dimension of climate change problem mitigation is working with universal metric of CO2 equivalents, which can be applied across specific contexts to measure impacts in an easily comparable format.

THE CONCLUSION:

With increasing effect of climate change, there is a need to anticipate the problems and look for measures to reduce the adverse effects of climate related projects. In this regard, policies on adaptation need to be considered with utmost safeguards and on par with mitigation to achieve the effects of the climate goals.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 Explain the purpose of Green Grid Initiative launched at the World Leaders Summit of COP26 UN Climate Change Conference in Glasglow in November 2021. When was the idea first floated in the International Solar Alliance (ISA)? (2021)

Q.2 Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference? (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 What is Global Goal on Adaptation  and what are its key targets?  Discuss the challenges and strategies required to achieve these goals?

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/global-goal-on-adaptation-and-the-road-from-dubai/article67674201.ece




EMERGENCE OF OMICRON SUBVARIANT JN.1

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The emergence of the omicron subvariant JN.1 has raised concerns due to its unique mutation in the spike protein, specifically the L455S, referred to as a “FLip” mutation.

EXPLANATION:

  • Researchers at the University of Tokyo have indicated that this mutation might facilitate evading immunity and contribute to a surge in COVID-19 cases.

Evolution from BA.2.86 Lineage to JN.1

  • 1, an offshoot of the BA.2.86 lineage, swiftly gained dominance globally, characterized by its spike protein mutation and surpassing other omicron sublineages like EG.5.1 and HK.3.
  • It’s noteworthy that JN.1’s rise doesn’t inherently denote increased danger but rather reflects the virus’s natural propensity to mutate.

Understanding “FLip” Mutations and Impact on Transmissibility

  • The “FLip” mutations – L455S, L455F, and F456L – significantly alter the spike protein’s structure, enhancing the virus’s binding affinity to ACE2 receptors.
  • This elevated binding potentially leads to increased transmissibility, as observed in the JN.1 lineage, outcompeting other variants.

Virological Insights and Transmissibility

  • Research from Peking University in The Lancet Infectious Diseases revealed that JN.1, with the L455S mutation, rapidly dominated over its predecessor 2.86.
    • It strains with the “FLip” mutations, showcasing a higher effective reproductive number (Re), indicating increased transmissibility.

Implications on Immunity and Vaccination

  • Studies from Biomedical Pioneering Innovation Center (BIOPIC) suggest that JN.1 exhibits a heightened ability to evade immunity.
  • It is evident from individuals experiencing breakthrough infections post-vaccination or reinfections after prior omicron lineage infections.
  • This raises concerns about potential vaccine evasion and the need for further vigilance.

Global Scenario and Public Health Concerns

  • Globally, an increase in COVID-19 cases and a decrease in deaths have been reported.
  • However, the accuracy of reported cases is affected by reduced testing and integrated reporting methods.
  • This situation underscores the importance of continued vigilance and improved surveillance.

Regional Impact and Response

  • Specifically, India observed a notable rise in cases within the Southeast Asia region, emphasizing the necessity for targeted responses, especially for vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with comorbidities, and immunocompromised individuals.

CDC’s Assessment and Cautionary Measures

  • The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) in the United States flagged the escalating prevalence of JN.1 globally.
  • While acknowledging its potential for increased transmissibility or immune evasion, the CDC cautioned that it’s premature to gauge the extent of its impact on infections or hospitalizations.

Future Trends and Emerging Concerns

  • Despite JN.1’s surge, EG.5 remains the most reported Variant of Interest (VOI) globally.
  • However, it has exhibited declining trends in recent weeks, signalling a dynamic landscape of emerging variants and the necessity for ongoing monitoring and analysis.

Conclusion

  • The emergence and dominance of omicron subvariant JN.1, characterized by the “FLip” mutation, pose potential challenges related to transmissibility, immune evasion, and vaccine efficacy.
  • Vigilant surveillance, robust research, and targeted interventions are crucial to mitigate the impact and better understand the evolving landscape of SARS-CoV-2 variants.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/-flip-mutations-of-sars-cov-2-may-be-evading-immunity-and-leading-to-surge-in-covid-cases-suggest-researchers-93553




RISING FEMALE PARTICIPATION IN INDIA’S EMPLOYMENT SCHEMES

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Recent official data highlighted a substantial increase in female participation in the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) during the ongoing financial year 2023-24.

EXPLANATION:

  • The proportion of women’s person-days in the total MGNREGS work touched an impressive 59.25% until December 24, marking the highest recorded participation in the past ten fiscal years.
  • This upward trend in female participation within NREGS showcases a significant surge from 54.78% in 2019-20 and 53.19% during the COVID-19 outbreak in 2020-21.

NREGS Data Analysis

  • The NREGS portal data reveals a detailed breakdown, indicating that out of a total of 238.62 crore person-days during 2023-24 until December 24, women accounted for 141.37 crore person-days, reflecting the increased participation rate.
  • Furthermore, the data suggests a consistent rise in female involvement, reinforcing a steady upward trajectory in rural women’s engagement in this job guarantee scheme.

Regional Disparities and State-Level Participation Rates

  • Notably, while southern states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Goa exhibited commendable rates of women’s participation, surpassing 70%, northern states such as Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh have struggled to maintain rates above 40% or even below over the years.
  • For the fiscal year 2023-24, states/UTs like Jammu and Kashmir, Lakshadweep, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra reported the lowest women participation rates.
  • However, there have been marginal improvements in participation rates in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Lakshadweep during the current financial year.

Trends in NREGS Participation

  • The data reflects an increase in the number of families availing NREGS benefits in recent years.
  • In 2023-24, approximately 5.38 crore families accessed NREGS by December 24, marking a slight decline compared to 6.18 crore in 2022-23 and 7.25 crore in 2021-22.
  • Despite fluctuations in family participation, the focus remains on the rising trend of female involvement in NREGS activities.

National Trends in Female Labour Force Participation

  • The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation underscores an overall increase in female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in the country, particularly in rural areas.
  • The rural female LFPR surged to 30.5% in 2022-23 from 18.2% in 2017-18, indicating a remarkable growth trajectory.
  • Simultaneously, the female unemployment rate witnessed a decline from 3.8% in 2017-18 to 1.8% in 2022-23, affirming positive strides in women’s employment opportunities.

Conclusion

  • The burgeoning participation of women in employment schemes like NREGS reflects a growing trend of empowerment and engagement in the rural workforce.
  • Despite regional disparities, the concerted efforts to elevate female participation are evident, aligning with broader national trends in increasing female Labour Force Participation Rates and declining unemployment rates among women.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/women-participation-in-nregs-continues-to-rise-59-this-fiscal-9082675/




INDIA-ASEAN FTA MODERNIZATION: ADDRESSING TRADE IMBALANCE AND REVAMPING STRATEGIES

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: India and the ASEAN bloc are gearing up to reevaluate and modernize their Free Trade Agreement (FTA) dating back almost 15 years.

EXPLANATION:

  • Top of Form
  • The primary intention behind this initiative is to rebalance the FTA, which currently appears skewed against India’s interests.
  • However, this modernization exercise will focus on revitalizing elements like product-specific rules and trade remedies, omitting newer areas such as labour, environment, Small and Medium-sized Enterprises (SMEs), and gender-related aspects.

Negotiation Schedule and Objectives

  • Negotiations to review the ASEAN India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITGA) will commence on February 18-19 in New Delhi, with a projected timeline aiming to conclude by 2025.
  • The discussions are slated to follow a quarterly schedule to streamline the revision process.
  • India has long pushed for a reassessment of the AITGA, particularly due to the imbalance in trade.
  • The current trade deficit of $43.57 billion with the ASEAN, significantly expanded from $7.5 billion annually when the agreement was initiated, prompts India to seek a more balanced trade scenario.

Challenges and Industry Inputs

  • Various industry sectors in India have raised concerns regarding both tariff and non-tariff barriers encountered in trade with ASEAN nations.
  • Sectors like chemicals, alloys, plastics, rubber, minerals, leather, textiles, gems, and jewellery need enhanced market access, according to industry analyses.

Key Components of FTA Revamp

  • Modernizing the AITGA encompasses significant alterations in the Rules of Origin (ROO), intending to favour India by potentially expanding market access for specific products and preventing the circumvention of goods by China through ASEAN nations.
  • This revamp is anticipated to introduce Product Specific Rules (PSRs) within the ROO chapter to facilitate relaxed rules for certain items to bolster exports and curb potential loopholes exploited by China.
  • Additionally, the revised AITGA will include a chapter on trade remedies, aiming to shield domestic industries against unfair trade practices or sudden surges in imported goods.

Exclusion of New Areas in FTA

  • The updated FTA will not include additional domains like environment, labour, MSMEs, or gender-related aspects.
  • The primary focus remains on optimizing the existing pact without complicating it with newer issues.

ASEAN’s Role and Impact on India’s Trade

  • The ten-member ASEAN bloc, including countries like Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia, constituted 11.3% of India’s global trade in the 2022-23 period.

Conclusion

  • The modernization of the India-ASEAN FTA aims to rectify trade imbalances and reinvigorate the agreement to benefit both parties.
  • By addressing concerns regarding market access, rules of origin, and trade remedies, the updated agreement seeks to foster a more equitable trade relationship between India and the ASEAN bloc.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-asean-set-to-review-trade-pact-for-modernisation-in-february/article67673605.ece




PM-JANMAN INITIATIVE: EMPOWERING PARTICULARLY VULNERABLE TRIBAL GROUPS (PVTGS)

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The Indian government, through the PM-JANMAN package, aims to address the needs of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) residing in 15,000 habitations across 100 districts.

EXPLANATION:

  • This initiative targets the saturation of essential documentation—Aadhaar, caste certificates, and Jan Dhan accounts—necessary to grant access to benefits under the program.

Scope and Objectives of the Campaign

  • The campaign, commencing on December 25, endeavours to cover 100 districts spanning 18 states and the UT of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • The first phase will focus on PVTG habitations, estimated at over 22,000 across various states, housing around 28 lakh individuals.
  • The comprehensive objective is to encompass all eligible beneficiaries within the PM-JANMAN package.

Components of the PM-JANMAN Package

  • This package consolidates 11 critical interventions already implemented by nine Ministries, including initiatives for housing, household electrification, road connectivity, telecommunications, and more.
  • The government aims to channelize these interventions towards achieving saturation in PVTG villages and habitations.

Funding and Government Commitment

  • Prime Minister announced the package, which received approval for a ₹24,000 crore expenditure over three years.
  • However, during a government plenary session on December 15, the necessity of ensuring basic documentation for PVTG beneficiaries was highlighted as a prerequisite for implementing any aspect of the PM-JANMAN package.

Implementation Strategy and Action Plan

  • An intensive Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) campaign starting on December 25, 2023, will drive the initiative.
  • A detailed action plan involves coordination between various stakeholders, including UIDAI, CSC, Ministry of Agriculture, PMJAY, District Magistrates, and other departments.
  • The goal is to achieve document saturation within one week in these PVTG habitations.

Awareness Creation and Local Engagement

  • Efforts to produce informative material in local languages, such as pamphlets, videos, wall paintings, jingles, and cultural programs, form an integral part of the campaign.
  • District-level officers, each assigned to a district, will supervise these activities, while state-level officers will coordinate with relevant state departments for seamless implementation.

Role of Tribal Research Institutes and Social Media Campaign

  • Tribal Research Institutes in various states have been assigned duties to assist in planning and executing campaign activities at different administrative levels.
  • Additionally, a social media campaign with specific hashtags aims to engage a broader audience and generate online discussions regarding the initiative’s objectives and progress.

Conclusion

  • The PM-JANMAN initiative underscores the government’s commitment to uplift Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups by addressing their essential documentation needs.
  • This comprehensive approach seeks to ensure the inclusion of all eligible beneficiaries, providing them access to vital services and benefits outlined in the package.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/pm-janman-government-targets-aadhaar-jan-dhan-caste-certificate-saturation-in-15000-pvtg-villages-in-1-week/article67674235.ece




EXPLORATION OF MARS: AN INTRIGUING QUEST FOR EVIDENCE OF LIFE

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: NASA’s Perseverance rover, actively conducting essential investigations on Mars’ surface, made a significant discovery.

EXPLANATION:

  • Captured by its Mastcam-Z camera, an image revealed an intriguing assortment of rocks and pebbles within Mars’ Jezero Crater, specifically identified as ‘Castell Henllys.’
  • Analysis suggests that these formations were transported by robust floodwaters billions of years ago, indicating a dynamic aqueous history on the Martian surface.

Ancient Mysteries of Mars: Water and Potential for Life

  • Mars, the enigmatic red planet, has captivated human imagination for centuries, often portrayed in various narratives as a celestial body of mystery and possibility.
  • Over decades of scientific exploration and study, compelling evidence has emerged, indicating that Mars once hosted rivers, lakes, and potentially oceans of liquid water.
  • This revelation fuels the tantalizing prospect of the red planet having supported life in its distant past.
  • While conclusive evidence of life on Mars remains elusive, the consensus among scientists is strong regarding Mars’ watery history.
  • This understanding stems from observations, including recent findings from NASA’s Perseverance rover.

Astrobiology Goals: Seeking Life Beyond Earth

  • The Perseverance mission encompasses pivotal objectives in astrobiology, aiming to ascertain definitive evidence of extraterrestrial life.
  • While this life may not mirror the alien depictions often seen in popular culture, the discovery of microorganisms or their fossils on Mars would mark a groundbreaking scientific achievement.

Significance of Water in the Search for Life Beyond Earth

  • Why the persistent quest for water on other planets?
  • Earth’s own evolutionary history holds the key.
  • After an initial lifeless phase, Earth witnessed the emergence of life within aquatic environments, starting with microorganisms and gradually evolving into complex aquatic organisms.
  • This progression further led to the development of terrestrial life forms.
  • Scientists emphasize that the presence of water significantly enhances the probability of a planet fostering life.
  • Beyond Mars, another celestial candidate of immense interest is Europa, Jupiter’s moon.
  • Europa, a frozen world, holds the tantalizing possibility of a vast liquid ocean beneath its icy exterior, potentially harbouring life.

Conclusion: Continual Exploration and the Pursuit of Extraterrestrial Life

  • The exploration of Mars, with its historical evidence of water and ongoing discoveries by missions like Perseverance, stands as a testament to humanity’s relentless pursuit of understanding our place in the cosmos.
  • Unravelling the mysteries of distant planets not only deepens scientific knowledge but also fuels the enduring fascination with the potential for life beyond Earth, beckoning us to explore further into the depths of our celestial neighbourhood.

SOURCE: https://www.wionews.com/science/nasa-perseverance-rover-finds-evidence-of-flowing-water-on-mars-673378




Day-561 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GEOGRAPHY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following pairs:
    Shifting cultivation – Practised in the region
    1. Milpa – Indonesia
    2. Ladang – Central America
    3. Jhuming – North Eastern India
    4. Taungya – Sri Lanka
    How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Primitive subsistence agriculture or shifting cultivation is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa, south and Central America and South East Asia.

    The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil. Shifting cultivation is thus, also called slash and burn agriculture.
    The cultivated patches are very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes.
    After sometime (3 to 5 years) the soil looses its fertility and the farmer shifts to another parts and clears other patch of the forest for cultivation.
    The farmer may return to the earlier patch after sometime.
    One of the major problems of shifting cultivation is that the cycle of jhum becomes less and less due to loss of fertility in different parcels.
    It is prevalent in tropical region in different names:
    Jhuming in North eastern states of India
    Milpa in central America and Mexico
    Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia
    Taungya in Myanmar
    Chena in Sri Lanka
    Caigin in the Philippines

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Primitive subsistence agriculture or shifting cultivation is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa, south and Central America and South East Asia.

    The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil. Shifting cultivation is thus, also called slash and burn agriculture.
    The cultivated patches are very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes.
    After sometime (3 to 5 years) the soil looses its fertility and the farmer shifts to another parts and clears other patch of the forest for cultivation.
    The farmer may return to the earlier patch after sometime.
    One of the major problems of shifting cultivation is that the cycle of jhum becomes less and less due to loss of fertility in different parcels.
    It is prevalent in tropical region in different names:
    Jhuming in North eastern states of India
    Milpa in central America and Mexico
    Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia
    Taungya in Myanmar
    Chena in Sri Lanka
    Caigin in the Philippines

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. In the context of mining activities in India, consider the following pairs:
    Iron ore mines – States
    1. Gurumahisani – West Bengal
    2. Noamundi – Jharkhand
    3. Badampahar – Odisha
    4. Dalli-Rajhara – Rajasthan
    How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation: India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. The two main types of ore found in our country are haematite and magnetite. The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal fields in the northeastern plateau region of the country which adds to their advantage.
    About 95 per cent of total reserves of iron ore are located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly and Pair 3 is matched correctly: In Odisha, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar.
    The important mines are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu (Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh).
    Pair 2 is matched correctly: Jharkhand has some of the oldest iron ore mines and most of the iron and steel plants are located around them. Most of the important mines such as Noamundi and Gua are located in Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts.
    Pair 4 is matched incorrectly: Dalli-Rajhara mines are in Chhattisgarh.

    Additional Information
    Apart from these sources, iron ore is extracted from following sources also:
    In Chattisgarh major iron ore mining areas are Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila. Dalli, and Rajhara in Durg are the important mines of iron ore in the country.
    In Karnataka, iron ore deposits occur in Sandur -Hospet area of Ballari district, Baba Budan hills and Kudremukh in Chikkamagaluru district and parts of Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru districts.
    The districts of Chandrapur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Karimnagar and Warangal district of Telangana, Kurnool, Cuddapah and Anantapur districts of Andhra Pradesh, Salem and Nilgiris districts of Tamil Nadu are other iron mining regions.
    Goa has also emerged as an important producer of iron ore.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation: India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. The two main types of ore found in our country are haematite and magnetite. The iron ore mines occur in close proximity to the coal fields in the northeastern plateau region of the country which adds to their advantage.
    About 95 per cent of total reserves of iron ore are located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly and Pair 3 is matched correctly: In Odisha, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar.
    The important mines are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu (Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh).
    Pair 2 is matched correctly: Jharkhand has some of the oldest iron ore mines and most of the iron and steel plants are located around them. Most of the important mines such as Noamundi and Gua are located in Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts.
    Pair 4 is matched incorrectly: Dalli-Rajhara mines are in Chhattisgarh.

    Additional Information
    Apart from these sources, iron ore is extracted from following sources also:
    In Chattisgarh major iron ore mining areas are Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila. Dalli, and Rajhara in Durg are the important mines of iron ore in the country.
    In Karnataka, iron ore deposits occur in Sandur -Hospet area of Ballari district, Baba Budan hills and Kudremukh in Chikkamagaluru district and parts of Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru districts.
    The districts of Chandrapur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Karimnagar and Warangal district of Telangana, Kurnool, Cuddapah and Anantapur districts of Andhra Pradesh, Salem and Nilgiris districts of Tamil Nadu are other iron mining regions.
    Goa has also emerged as an important producer of iron ore.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Lachin Corridor, seen in the news recently, is related to which one of the following?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Lachin corridor is a mountain road in Azerbaijan that links Armenia and Nagorno-Karabakh.
    Being the only road between these two territories, it is considered a humanitarian corridor or “lifeline” to the Armenian population of Nagorno-Karabakh.
    The corridor is in the Lachin District of Azerbaijan, but is ostensibly under the control of a Russian peacekeeping force as provided for in the 2020 Nagorno-Karabakh armistice agreement.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Lachin corridor is a mountain road in Azerbaijan that links Armenia and Nagorno-Karabakh.
    Being the only road between these two territories, it is considered a humanitarian corridor or “lifeline” to the Armenian population of Nagorno-Karabakh.
    The corridor is in the Lachin District of Azerbaijan, but is ostensibly under the control of a Russian peacekeeping force as provided for in the 2020 Nagorno-Karabakh armistice agreement.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following peninsular rivers:
    1. Subarnarekha
    2. Sharavati
    3. Brahmani
    4. Pennar
    How many of the rivers given above flow from east to west?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Only Sharavati River flows towards the west. All other are east flowing rivers given here.
    The Western Ghats, which run close to the western coast, serve as a water divide between the major Peninsular Rivers, which discharge their water into the Bay of Bengal, and the small rivulets joining the Arabian Sea.
    Most of the major Peninsular Rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to east.

    The rivers flowing towards the Arabian Sea have short courses.
    The Sharavati is one such river, which originates in the Shimoga district of Karnataka and drains a catchment area of 2,209 sq. km. The total length of the river is around 128 km, and it joins the Arabian Sea at Honnavar in Uttara Kannada district. On its way, the Sharavati forms the Jog Falls, where the river falls from a height of 253 metres.
    There are a number of small rivers that join the Bay of Bengal. The Subarnrekha, the Baitarni, the Brahmani, the Vamsadhara, the Pennar, the Palar, and the Vaigai are important east flowing rivers.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Only Sharavati River flows towards the west. All other are east flowing rivers given here.
    The Western Ghats, which run close to the western coast, serve as a water divide between the major Peninsular Rivers, which discharge their water into the Bay of Bengal, and the small rivulets joining the Arabian Sea.
    Most of the major Peninsular Rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to east.

    The rivers flowing towards the Arabian Sea have short courses.
    The Sharavati is one such river, which originates in the Shimoga district of Karnataka and drains a catchment area of 2,209 sq. km. The total length of the river is around 128 km, and it joins the Arabian Sea at Honnavar in Uttara Kannada district. On its way, the Sharavati forms the Jog Falls, where the river falls from a height of 253 metres.
    There are a number of small rivers that join the Bay of Bengal. The Subarnrekha, the Baitarni, the Brahmani, the Vamsadhara, the Pennar, the Palar, and the Vaigai are important east flowing rivers.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following regions:
    1. Mumbai-Pune region
    2. Vishakhapatnam-Guntur region
    3. Chhotanagpur region
    4. Ambala-Amritsar region
    How many of the above regions are the major industrial regions in India?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Industries are not evenly distributed in the country. They tend to concentrate on certain locations because of the favorable locational factors.

    Major industrial regions of the country are given below (8):
    Mumbai-Pune Region
    Hugli Region
    Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region
    Gujarat Region
    Chotanagpur Region
    Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Region
    Gurugram-Delhi-Meerut Region, and
    Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region
    Minor Industrial Regions (13):
    Ambala-Amritsar
    Saharanpur-Muzzaffarnagar-Bijnor
    Indore-Dewas-Ujjain
    Jaipur-Ajmer
    Kolhapur-South Kannada
    Northern Malabar
    Middle Malabar
    Adilabad-Nizamabad
    Allahabad-Varanasi-Mirzapur
    Bhojpur-Munger
    Bilaspur-Korba
    Durg-Raipur
    Brahmaputra Valley

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Industries are not evenly distributed in the country. They tend to concentrate on certain locations because of the favorable locational factors.

    Major industrial regions of the country are given below (8):
    Mumbai-Pune Region
    Hugli Region
    Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region
    Gujarat Region
    Chotanagpur Region
    Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Region
    Gurugram-Delhi-Meerut Region, and
    Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region
    Minor Industrial Regions (13):
    Ambala-Amritsar
    Saharanpur-Muzzaffarnagar-Bijnor
    Indore-Dewas-Ujjain
    Jaipur-Ajmer
    Kolhapur-South Kannada
    Northern Malabar
    Middle Malabar
    Adilabad-Nizamabad
    Allahabad-Varanasi-Mirzapur
    Bhojpur-Munger
    Bilaspur-Korba
    Durg-Raipur
    Brahmaputra Valley

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INDIA’S JOBS CRISIS, THE MACROECONOMIC REASONS

THE CONTEXT: There are many indications everywhere that India continues to be going through a job crisis. Both official data sources as well as many on-the-ground reports point to this fact.

Two types of employment that prevail in an economy such as India.

1. Wage employment: It is a result of labour demanded by employers in their pursuit of profits.

2. Self-employment: Here labour supply and labour demand are identical, i.e., the worker employs herself.

A further useful distinction can also be made between wage labour and jobs.

1. Wage labour: It includes all forms of labour done for an employer including daily wage work at one extreme and highly paid corporate jobs at the other.

2. Jobs generally refer to relatively better paid regular wage or salaried employment. In other words, all jobs are wage labour, but all wage labour cannot be called jobs.

The labour demand in the formal non-agricultural sector is determined by two distinct factors:

1. Demand for output: Firms in the formal sector hire workers to produce output for profit, labour demand depends on the amount of output that firms are able to sell. Under any given level of technological development, labour demand in the formal sector rises when demand for output rises.

2. State of technology: Labour demand depends on the state of technology that dictates the number of workers that firms need to hire to produce one unit of output. Introduction of labour-saving technologies enables firms to produce the same amount of output by hiring a lower number of workers.

Employment growth rate is determined by the relative strength of two factors:

1. Output growth rate: Policies that promote higher economic growth would also achieve higher employment growth.

2. Labour productivity growth rate i.e growth rate of output per worker: If labour productivity growth rate rises, employment growth rate falls for a given output growth rate. If labour productivity growth rate does not change, higher output growth rate increases employment growth rate.

Macroeconomic policy framework

  • Keynesian theory: It highlight the role of aggregate demand as the binding constraint on employment. Fiscal policy was perceived to increase labour demand by stimulating output. The developing countries that inherited a dual economy structure during their independence, confronted additional constraints on output.
  • Mahalanobis strategy: It identified the availability of capital goods as the binding constraint on output and employment, putting forward the policy for heavy industrialisation.
  • The structuralist theories based on the experiences of developing countries highlighted the possibility of agrarian constraint and the balance of payment constraints.
  • Both these constraints led to key policy debates in India, particularly during the decade of the 1970s and early 1990s.
  • Nonetheless, what remained common to all these different frameworks was the presumption that increasing the output growth rate in the non-agricultural sector would be a sufficient condition for increasing the employment growth rate in the formal sector.

Reasons for this crisis:

  • Low labour demand: There is inadequate labour demand particularly for regular wage work.
  • Disguised employment: The Indian economy has historically been characterised by the presence of both open unemployment and disguised employment. It means high level of informal employment consisting of the self-employed as well as casual wage workers. It also indicates a lack of adequate employment opportunities in the formal sector. This lack of opportunities is reflected by a more or less stagnant employment growth rate of salaried workers in the non-agricultural sector in the last four decades.
  • Jobless growth: In India, the employment growth rate of the formal and non-agricultural sector remained unresponsive despite a significant rise in the GDP growth rate and the value added growth rate during the 2000s as compared to the decade of the 1980s and 1990s. The lack of responsiveness of employment growth rate to changes in output growth rate reflects a phenomenon of jobless growth.

Two types of jobless growth regimes based on the connection between output growth and labour productivity growth.

1. Responsiveness of labour productivity growth rate to output growth rate is weak: The possibility of jobless growth in this case emerges exclusively on account of automation and the introduction of labour-saving technology. But employment growth rate in such regimes would necessarily increase if output growth rate happens to increase. Here, the solution to the jobs crisis is just more rapid economic growth.

2. Responsiveness of labour productivity growth rate to output growth rate is high: This is the case in Inda. Here, the positive effect of output growth rate on employment fails to counteract the adverse effect of labour-saving technologies. Employment growth rate in such regimes cannot be increased simply by increasing GDP growth rate.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Both demand and supply side reforms: Such employment policies will need both demand side and supply side components. At the same time, direct public job creation will be needed.
  • Bridging the skill gaps: There is a need for adequate skilled labour and increasing the quality of the workforce through better public provisioning of education and health care.
  • Reorienting macroeconomic framework: Financing expenditures while maintaining debt-stability requires the reorienting of the current macroeconomic framework in a significant way. It can include increasing the direct tax to GDP ratio by reducing exemptions and improving compliance.

THE CONCLUSION:

With the given scenarios, the employment challenge can no longer be met only through more rapid GDP growth. There is a need for separate policy focus on employment.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q) Faster economic growth requires increased share of the manufacturing sector in GDP, particularly of MSMEs. Comment on the present policies of the Government in this regard. (2023)

Q) Is inclusive growth possible under market economy? State the significance of financial inclusion in achieving economic growth in India. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

India is witnessing jobless growth in current times. In this respect, analyse India’s recent economic performance and its impact on job creation.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/indias-jobs-crisis-the-macroeconomic-reasons/article67671927.ece




Day-560 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMICS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS), consider the following statements:
    1. The purpose of OMSS is to moderate the prices of foodgrains in the open market.
    2. It is administered by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
    3. Weekly e-auctions are conducted by the Food Corporation of India (FCI).
    4. State Governments are also allowed to participate in the auction.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The purpose of OMSS is to dispose of surplus stocks of wheat and rice held by FCI. This moderates the prices in the open market
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It is administered by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
    Statement 3 is correct: FCI conducts weekly auctions for the OMSS for wheat on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX).
    Statement 4 is incorrect: States were previously allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs.
    However, the Centre has recently discontinued the OMSS for state governments. It has given three reasons for the discontinuation of OMSS for State governments:
    ● It claims that the OMSS can be more successful in curbing the inflationary trend in food grains if the grain is released through the market rather than through States/the PDS.
    ● The government argued that it needs to maintain adequate food grain stock in the central pool as it expects lower procurement this year. This is because the output of some crops has been hit due to adverse weather events like untimely rains and high temperatures.
    ● The central government has cited its obligation towards consumers who are not covered by the NFSA but are affected by fluctuations in retail prices of food grains. It argued that while the state governments will allocate food grains to the NFSA beneficiaries, as well as for beneficiaries of state-specific schemes, the interest of general consumers has been ignored.
    Additional information:
    Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS):-
    It was launched to enhance the supply of food grains (ensuring food security) during the lean season and thereby moderate the open market prices (controlling inflation), especially in the deficit regions.
    Salient Features of OMSS:-
    ● Under the OMSS, the FCI from time to time sells surplus food grains from the central pool,
    especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains, etc., at predetermined prices.
    ● The FCI does this through e-auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities.
    ● FCI conducts weekly auctions for the OMSS for wheat on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX).
    ● NCDEX: a commodity exchange platform in India that provides a platform for trading in various agricultural and other commodities.
    ● States are also allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The purpose of OMSS is to dispose of surplus stocks of wheat and rice held by FCI. This moderates the prices in the open market
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It is administered by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
    Statement 3 is correct: FCI conducts weekly auctions for the OMSS for wheat on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX).
    Statement 4 is incorrect: States were previously allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs.
    However, the Centre has recently discontinued the OMSS for state governments. It has given three reasons for the discontinuation of OMSS for State governments:
    ● It claims that the OMSS can be more successful in curbing the inflationary trend in food grains if the grain is released through the market rather than through States/the PDS.
    ● The government argued that it needs to maintain adequate food grain stock in the central pool as it expects lower procurement this year. This is because the output of some crops has been hit due to adverse weather events like untimely rains and high temperatures.
    ● The central government has cited its obligation towards consumers who are not covered by the NFSA but are affected by fluctuations in retail prices of food grains. It argued that while the state governments will allocate food grains to the NFSA beneficiaries, as well as for beneficiaries of state-specific schemes, the interest of general consumers has been ignored.
    Additional information:
    Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS):-
    It was launched to enhance the supply of food grains (ensuring food security) during the lean season and thereby moderate the open market prices (controlling inflation), especially in the deficit regions.
    Salient Features of OMSS:-
    ● Under the OMSS, the FCI from time to time sells surplus food grains from the central pool,
    especially wheat and rice in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains, etc., at predetermined prices.
    ● The FCI does this through e-auctions where open market bidders can buy specified quantities.
    ● FCI conducts weekly auctions for the OMSS for wheat on the platform of the National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX).
    ● NCDEX: a commodity exchange platform in India that provides a platform for trading in various agricultural and other commodities.
    ● States are also allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    1. High levels of Current Account Deficit can lead to inflation in the economy.
    2. High surpluses in the Capital Account can depreciate the domestic currency.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: A large and persistent Current Account Deficit (CAD) can make a country vulnerable to economic instability due to uncomfortable values of imports This can result in a sharp drop in the value of the country’s currency, making imports more expensive and leading to inflation. For example, Pakistan and Sri Lanka are experiencing high inflation in the domestic economy due to high levels of Current Account Deficit.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: High surpluses in the Capital Account means more foreign exchange reserves are coming into the country in the form of foreign investments and borrowings by the government. This increases the demand for local currency which leads to its appreciation.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: A large and persistent Current Account Deficit (CAD) can make a country vulnerable to economic instability due to uncomfortable values of imports This can result in a sharp drop in the value of the country’s currency, making imports more expensive and leading to inflation. For example, Pakistan and Sri Lanka are experiencing high inflation in the domestic economy due to high levels of Current Account Deficit.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: High surpluses in the Capital Account means more foreign exchange reserves are coming into the country in the form of foreign investments and borrowings by the government. This increases the demand for local currency which leads to its appreciation.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Headline inflation is more volatile than core inflation.
    Statement II: Core inflation excludes inflation in food and fuel.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Headline Inflation is the measure of total inflation within an economy. It includes price rise in food, fuel and all other commodities. But Core inflation does not consider the inflation in food and fuel which are more volatile components. Thus, Headline inflation is more volatile than core inflation.
    Statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1: Since inflation in food and fuel is excluded in the core inflation. This makes it more stable as compared to headline inflation. Food and fuel prices are governed by international as well as domestic production capacities which can fluctuate more frequently.
    Additional information:
    ● Headline inflation is not adjusted to remove highly volatile figures, including those that can shift regardless of economic conditions.
    ● Headline inflation is often closely related to shifts in the cost of living, which provides useful information to consumers within the marketplace.
    ● The headline figure is not adjusted for seasonality or for the often-volatile elements of food and energy prices, which are removed in the core Consumer Price Index (CPI).
    Core Inflation
    ● Core inflation is the change in the costs of goods and services but does not include those from the food and energy sectors.
    ● This measure of inflation excludes these items because their prices are much more volatile.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Headline Inflation is the measure of total inflation within an economy. It includes price rise in food, fuel and all other commodities. But Core inflation does not consider the inflation in food and fuel which are more volatile components. Thus, Headline inflation is more volatile than core inflation.
    Statement 2 is correct and is the correct explanation of statement 1: Since inflation in food and fuel is excluded in the core inflation. This makes it more stable as compared to headline inflation. Food and fuel prices are governed by international as well as domestic production capacities which can fluctuate more frequently.
    Additional information:
    ● Headline inflation is not adjusted to remove highly volatile figures, including those that can shift regardless of economic conditions.
    ● Headline inflation is often closely related to shifts in the cost of living, which provides useful information to consumers within the marketplace.
    ● The headline figure is not adjusted for seasonality or for the often-volatile elements of food and energy prices, which are removed in the core Consumer Price Index (CPI).
    Core Inflation
    ● Core inflation is the change in the costs of goods and services but does not include those from the food and energy sectors.
    ● This measure of inflation excludes these items because their prices are much more volatile.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following:
    1. Individual farmers who are owners/cultivators
    2. Tenant farmers
    3. Self-Help Groups of sharecroppers
    4. Farmers involved in animal husbandry
    5. Fish farmers
    How many of the above are eligible for credit support from the banking system under the Kisan Credit Card scheme?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Eligible beneficiaries under the scheme for credit support from the banking system:
    ● Individual farmers who are owners/cultivators
    ● Sharecroppers, tenant farmers
    ● Self-Help Groups of sharecroppers, farmers, tenant farmers etc
    ● Farmers involved in the production of crops or activities such as animal husbandry.
    ● Fish farmers, fishers, SHGs, JLGs, and women groups
    ● Fishermen who own a registered boat or any other type of fishing vessel and possess the necessary license or permissions for fishing in estuaries or the sea.
    ● Poultry farmers and even those who raise sheep, rabbits, goats pigs etc.
    ● Dairy: Farmers, dairy farmers, SHGs, JLGs, and tenant farmers who own, lease, or rent sheds.
    Additional information:
    ● The scheme was introduced in 1998 for providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system, under a single window with flexible and simplified procedures to the farmers for their cultivation and other needs like purchase of agriculture inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides etc. and draw cash for their production needs.
    ● The scheme was further extended for the investment credit requirement of farmers viz. allied and non-farm activities in the year 2004.
    ● In the Budget-2018-19, government announced the extension of the facility of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) to fisheries and animal husbandry farmers to help them to meet their working capital needs.
    Implementing Agencies: Commercial Banks; Regional Rural Banks (RRBs); Small Finance Banks; Cooperatives
    Objectives:
    ● To meet the short-term credit requirements for cultivation of crops.
    ● Post-harvest expenses.
    ● Produce marketing loan.
    ● Consumption requirements of farmer households.
    ● Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture.
    ● Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Eligible beneficiaries under the scheme for credit support from the banking system:
    ● Individual farmers who are owners/cultivators
    ● Sharecroppers, tenant farmers
    ● Self-Help Groups of sharecroppers, farmers, tenant farmers etc
    ● Farmers involved in the production of crops or activities such as animal husbandry.
    ● Fish farmers, fishers, SHGs, JLGs, and women groups
    ● Fishermen who own a registered boat or any other type of fishing vessel and possess the necessary license or permissions for fishing in estuaries or the sea.
    ● Poultry farmers and even those who raise sheep, rabbits, goats pigs etc.
    ● Dairy: Farmers, dairy farmers, SHGs, JLGs, and tenant farmers who own, lease, or rent sheds.
    Additional information:
    ● The scheme was introduced in 1998 for providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system, under a single window with flexible and simplified procedures to the farmers for their cultivation and other needs like purchase of agriculture inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides etc. and draw cash for their production needs.
    ● The scheme was further extended for the investment credit requirement of farmers viz. allied and non-farm activities in the year 2004.
    ● In the Budget-2018-19, government announced the extension of the facility of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) to fisheries and animal husbandry farmers to help them to meet their working capital needs.
    Implementing Agencies: Commercial Banks; Regional Rural Banks (RRBs); Small Finance Banks; Cooperatives
    Objectives:
    ● To meet the short-term credit requirements for cultivation of crops.
    ● Post-harvest expenses.
    ● Produce marketing loan.
    ● Consumption requirements of farmer households.
    ● Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture.
    ● Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements regarding the expansionary monetary policy:
    1. It can result in a decrease in bond prices.
    2. It can lead to the depreciation of local currency.
    3. It can boost employment in the economy.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Expansionary monetary policy results in a reduction in the bank deposit interest rates. When the rate of interest provided by banks keeps falling, bonds which provide a fixed interest rate for a longer duration will become more attractive. This may drive up the demand for bonds and thus may result in an increase in bond prices.
    Statement 2 is correct: Expansionary monetary policy can result in depreciation of currency. This is because of more supply of local currency as compared to foreign currency.
    Statement 3 is correct: Since there is more liquidity in the market, this lowers the borrowing cost. Thus, it boosts consumer spending. As demand for goods and services rises, more goods and services are produced which boosts employment.
    Additional information:
    Expansionary monetary policy is implemented by lowering key interest rates thus increasing market liquidity (money supply). High market liquidity usually encourages more economic activity.
    ● Increase in Foreign bond prices: Even though the demands for bonds as such may increase, the lower interest rates may make domestic bonds less attractive. So, the demand for domestic bonds may fall and the demand for foreign bonds may rise.
    ● Increase in exports and BoP: A lower exchange rate may cause exports to increase, imports to decrease and the balance of trade to increase.
    ● Higher Capital Investment: Lower interest rates lead to higher levels of capital investment.
    When the RBI adopts the Expansionary Monetary Policy, the central bank.
    ● Decrease Policy Rates (Interest Rates) like Repo, Reverse Repo, MSF, Bank Rate etc.
    ● Decrease Reserve Ratios like Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
    ● Buys government securities from the market as part of Open Market Operations (OMO) – providing liquidity in the market.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Expansionary monetary policy results in a reduction in the bank deposit interest rates. When the rate of interest provided by banks keeps falling, bonds which provide a fixed interest rate for a longer duration will become more attractive. This may drive up the demand for bonds and thus may result in an increase in bond prices.
    Statement 2 is correct: Expansionary monetary policy can result in depreciation of currency. This is because of more supply of local currency as compared to foreign currency.
    Statement 3 is correct: Since there is more liquidity in the market, this lowers the borrowing cost. Thus, it boosts consumer spending. As demand for goods and services rises, more goods and services are produced which boosts employment.
    Additional information:
    Expansionary monetary policy is implemented by lowering key interest rates thus increasing market liquidity (money supply). High market liquidity usually encourages more economic activity.
    ● Increase in Foreign bond prices: Even though the demands for bonds as such may increase, the lower interest rates may make domestic bonds less attractive. So, the demand for domestic bonds may fall and the demand for foreign bonds may rise.
    ● Increase in exports and BoP: A lower exchange rate may cause exports to increase, imports to decrease and the balance of trade to increase.
    ● Higher Capital Investment: Lower interest rates lead to higher levels of capital investment.
    When the RBI adopts the Expansionary Monetary Policy, the central bank.
    ● Decrease Policy Rates (Interest Rates) like Repo, Reverse Repo, MSF, Bank Rate etc.
    ● Decrease Reserve Ratios like Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
    ● Buys government securities from the market as part of Open Market Operations (OMO) – providing liquidity in the market.

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ISRAEL IS FIGHTING IN THE DARK IN GAZA

THE CONTEXT: Israel continues deadly bombardment of Gaza with latest attacks reported in the Nuseirat refugee camp and Khan Younis. Israel continues to state that it will continue the war in Gaza “with or without international support”.

BACKGROUND:

  • Theodor Herzl, one of the founders of modern political Zionism, wrote in Der Judenstaat (The Jewish State), a pamphlet published in 1896. It was stated in the pamphlet that the Jewish state would form a part of a wall of defence for Europe in Asia, an outpost of civilisation against barbarism,”.
  • It was argued that security for Jews could be guaranteed only by the creation of a separate national state for them and requested the Ottoman Sultan to give Palestine to the Jews.
  • It was promised to undertake the regulations of the whole of Turkey’s finances in return.
  • The movement Herzl began culminated in the creation of the state of Israel in historical Palestine in 1948.
  • More than 75 years later, the civilisational outpost that Herzl had imagined is now continuing its illegal occupation of Palestinian territories and is fighting a calamitous war on the Gaza Strip.

ISRAEL NARRATIVE OF WAR:

  • Israel objectives:

1. To free the hostages as Hamas had taken some 240 hostages during its raid.

2. To “dismantle” Hamas.

3. To rebuild Israel’s deterrence so that another attack would not happen.

  • Large number of killings: In a short span of time, Israel, has killed 20,000 Palestinians, a vast majority of them women and children, wounded over 50,000 and displaced almost 90% of the enclave’s population. It has managed to turn Gaza into what the United Nations called a “graveyard for children and a living hell for everyone else”.
  • Unequal power: In terms of military capabilities, Hamas does not stand even for a distant comparison with Israel. Israel is a nuclear power and a developed economy, which is politically and militarily backed by the United States, equipped with some of the world’s most advanced offensive and defensive weapons. Israel also controls all of Gaza’s border except the Rafah crossing in the south into Egypt. Hamas, on the other side, has roughly 50,000 fighters with assault rifles and short- to medium-range rockets.
  • Unsuccessful in hostage operation: Israel has managed to free only one hostage through its military operation and the other over 100 hostages who were released were part of a brief ceasefire deal that Israel had struck with Hamas.
  • Not good in unconventional wars: While Israel has an excellent track record against its conventional rivals in the region, its record against non-state actors has always been mixed. Israel has not fought a conventional war in 50 years.

1. Invasion of Lebanon: In 1982, Israel invaded Lebanon to push the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) out of the country. It was expected the war would bring “40 years of peace”. But the war itself lasted 18 years, even after Israel pushed the PLO out of Lebanon. In 2006, it invaded Lebanon again, this time to crush After a month of intense ground battle, Israel had to accept a ceasefire, leaving Hezbollah politically stronger. Ever since, Hezbollah has rebuilt its military strength many times.

2. Attack on Gaza: After it withdrew from Gaza in 2005 following the second intifada, Israel carried out at least four major bombing campaigns in the enclave aimed at weakening Hamas. Still, it could not prevent the October 7 attack, the deadliest cross-border attack since 1948.

3. Current war: Israel’s main narrative is that Hamas is like the Islamic State (IS) and it aims to destroy it like the physical structure of IS was destroyed. But this sweeping narrative overlooks some fundamental complexities in West Asia. The IS was an outgrowth of al-Qaeda which exploited the chaos in the region to capture territories and spread terror.  It imposed itself on the peoples of Syria and Iraq and lacked any social or political cause. But in the case of Israel-Palestine, the fundamental contradiction is Israel’s continuing occupation of the Palestinian territories. Hamas might be a terrorist outfit for Israel but for a vast majority of other regional actors, it is fighting Israel’s violent occupation.  Hamas has a social and political cause which is the liberation of Palestine and is deeply entrenched in Palestinian society.

IMPACT OF THE WAR

  • Attacking Israel economy: A long war would expose Israel’s weaknesses, Israel has mobilised some 3,00,000 reservists, which is adding stress to its economy. Hamas, which uses Gaza’s extensive tunnel networks to hide and fight, continues to fire rockets into Israel, terrorising communities and disrupting local economies.
  • Isolating Israel: The high civilian casualties and the sheer brutality of Israel’s offensive in Gaza have isolated the Israel globally. The U.S. still stands with Israel, but recent remarks by U.S. President that Israel’s “indiscriminate bombing” would isolate it globally suggest toward this.
  • Arab-Israel normalisation on halt: The Arab-Israel normalisation is on halt and can be said as dead, at least for now.
  • Unstable West Asia: Houthis, the pro-Iran Shia rebels who control much of Yemen, are widening the war by targeting tankers in the Red Sea. It is threatening one of the busiest global shipping lanes and drawing the U.S. deeper into the conflict.

THE CONCLUSION:

Israel’s objective to eradicate Hamas, free hostages and bolster its own deterrence, seems not achievable even after weeks of intense bombing campaigns of this century. It is in a way increasing the complexities of the power relations of west Asia region.

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q) “India’s relations with Israel have, of late, acquired a depth and diversity, which cannot be rolled ”. Discuss. (2018)

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q) Israel’s narrative of Hamas equating it with the Islamic State overlooks some fundamental complexities in West Asia. Comment.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/israel-is-fighting-in-the-dark-in-gaza/article67666853.ece#:~:text=Hamas%2C%20which%20uses%20Gaza’s%20extensive,isolated%20the%20Jewish%20state%20globally.