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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
With reference to the proposed Karnataka Hate Speech & Hate Crimes legislation, consider the following:
1. It defines hate speech on grounds including religion, caste, gender, sexual orientation and disability.
2. All offences under the Bill are non-cognisable and bailable.
3. The Bill provides for blocking or removal of online hate content.
How many of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Bill defines “hate speech” broadly to include expressions intended to cause injury, disharmony, or enmity based on grounds such as religion, caste, gender, sexual orientation, disability, race, place of birth, and language. This expands protected categories beyond existing central laws like the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS).
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the provisions of the Bill, all offences are cognisable and non-bailable. This means the police can arrest an individual without a warrant, and bail is not a matter of right but at the discretion of the court.
Statement 3 is correct: The Bill provides for a state-level takedown mechanism. It empowers a designated officer to direct service providers, intermediaries, or digital platforms to block or remove online content deemed to be “hate crime material”.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Bill defines “hate speech” broadly to include expressions intended to cause injury, disharmony, or enmity based on grounds such as religion, caste, gender, sexual orientation, disability, race, place of birth, and language. This expands protected categories beyond existing central laws like the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS).
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the provisions of the Bill, all offences are cognisable and non-bailable. This means the police can arrest an individual without a warrant, and bail is not a matter of right but at the discretion of the court.
Statement 3 is correct: The Bill provides for a state-level takedown mechanism. It empowers a designated officer to direct service providers, intermediaries, or digital platforms to block or remove online content deemed to be “hate crime material”.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
With reference to the International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a specialised agency of the United Nations.
2. India is a founding member of the organisation.
3. The Chairship of International IDEA rotates among member countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA) is an independent intergovernmental organisation, not a specialised agency of the United Nations. While it is not part of the UN system, it has held observer status in the UN General Assembly since 2003.
Statement 2 is correct: India is one of the founding members of International IDEA. It was among the original 14 member states when the organisation was established in Stockholm, Sweden, in 1995.
Statement 3 is correct: The Chairship of the Council of Member States is rotational. Each year, the Council elects a Chair and two Vice Chairs from among its member states for a one-year term. For example, India assumed the Chairship for the year 2026, succeeding previous chairs like Switzerland (2025) and Luxembourg (2024).
Key Facts about International IDEA:
Headquarters:Stockholm, Sweden.
Membership:It currently comprises 35 member countries, with the United States and Japan participating as observers.
India’s Role:India’s Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), Gyanesh Kumar, assumed the Chairship on behalf of India on December 3, 2025. This marks the first time India has held this leadership role.
Mandate:It is the only intergovernmental organisation with a global mandate solely focused on supporting sustainable democracy and electoral processes worldwide.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (International IDEA) is an independent intergovernmental organisation, not a specialised agency of the United Nations. While it is not part of the UN system, it has held observer status in the UN General Assembly since 2003.
Statement 2 is correct: India is one of the founding members of International IDEA. It was among the original 14 member states when the organisation was established in Stockholm, Sweden, in 1995.
Statement 3 is correct: The Chairship of the Council of Member States is rotational. Each year, the Council elects a Chair and two Vice Chairs from among its member states for a one-year term. For example, India assumed the Chairship for the year 2026, succeeding previous chairs like Switzerland (2025) and Luxembourg (2024).
Key Facts about International IDEA:
Headquarters:Stockholm, Sweden.
Membership:It currently comprises 35 member countries, with the United States and Japan participating as observers.
India’s Role:India’s Chief Election Commissioner (CEC), Gyanesh Kumar, assumed the Chairship on behalf of India on December 3, 2025. This marks the first time India has held this leadership role.
Mandate:It is the only intergovernmental organisation with a global mandate solely focused on supporting sustainable democracy and electoral processes worldwide.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
With reference to the Santhali language, consider:
1. Santhali is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
2. Ol Chiki is the script used for writing Santhali.
3. Santhali was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
How many of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Santhali is one of the 22 languages currently listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. It is primarily spoken by the Santhal people in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar.
Statement 2 is correct: The Ol Chiki (also known as Ol Cemet’) script is the official and most widely used script for the Santhali language. It was created by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 specifically to represent the unique phonetic features of the language.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Santhali was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 (which came into force in 2004), along with three other languages: Bodo, Dogri, and Maithili. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is known as the “Mini-Constitution” and dealt with various aspects of the Preamble and Fundamental Duties, but it did not add languages to the Eighth Schedule.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Santhali is one of the 22 languages currently listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution. It is primarily spoken by the Santhal people in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar.
Statement 2 is correct: The Ol Chiki (also known as Ol Cemet’) script is the official and most widely used script for the Santhali language. It was created by Pandit Raghunath Murmu in 1925 specifically to represent the unique phonetic features of the language.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Santhali was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 (which came into force in 2004), along with three other languages: Bodo, Dogri, and Maithili. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is known as the “Mini-Constitution” and dealt with various aspects of the Preamble and Fundamental Duties, but it did not add languages to the Eighth Schedule.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
The constitutional validity of hate speech legislation is most directly tested against which of the following?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation: The constitutional validity of hate speech legislation is most directly tested against Article 19(1)(a), which guarantees the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression. In Indian constitutional law, any law that restricts speech is examined to see if it improperly infringes upon this right. The court then determines if the law falls within the “reasonable restrictions” permitted under Article 19(2). Specifically:
Public Order and Incitement:Hate speech laws are typically justified under the grounds of maintaining “public order” and preventing the “incitement to an offence”.
The Proportionality Test:In landmark cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court ruled that restrictions must not be “vague” or “overbroad,” as such laws would fail the test of being a “reasonable restriction” on Article 19(1)(a).
Exhaustive Grounds:A 5-judge Constitution Bench in 2023 reaffirmed that the grounds listed in Article 19(2) are exhaustive, meaning the state cannot restrict speech on any ground not mentioned in that clause.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation: The constitutional validity of hate speech legislation is most directly tested against Article 19(1)(a), which guarantees the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression. In Indian constitutional law, any law that restricts speech is examined to see if it improperly infringes upon this right. The court then determines if the law falls within the “reasonable restrictions” permitted under Article 19(2). Specifically:
Public Order and Incitement:Hate speech laws are typically justified under the grounds of maintaining “public order” and preventing the “incitement to an offence”.
The Proportionality Test:In landmark cases like Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, the Supreme Court ruled that restrictions must not be “vague” or “overbroad,” as such laws would fail the test of being a “reasonable restriction” on Article 19(1)(a).
Exhaustive Grounds:A 5-judge Constitution Bench in 2023 reaffirmed that the grounds listed in Article 19(2) are exhaustive, meaning the state cannot restrict speech on any ground not mentioned in that clause.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Consider the following:
Statement-I: Free legal services under the Legal Services Authorities (LSA) Act are available to a person belonging to Scheduled Tribe and Scheduled Caste.
Statement-II: Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that the State shall provide free legal aid.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities (LSA) Act was enacted to give free and competent legal services to the poor and paved the way for the constitution of the National Legal Service Authority (NALSA) and other legal service institutions at the State, district and taluka levels.
Free legal services under the LSA Act are available to a person belonging to Schedule Tribe and Schedule Caste, a woman, child, victim of human trafficking, a differently abled person, an industrial workman, and a person in custody in a protective home and the poor.
Statement-II is correct: Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. Legal aid strives to ensure that the constitutional pledge is fulfilled in its letter and spirit and that equal justice is made available to the poor, downtrodden and weaker sections of society.
In two important judgments A.M.Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra (1978) and Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secretary, State of Bihar (1979) the Supreme Court held that legal aid and speedy trial are to be treated as a part of the fundamental rights under Article 21 of the Constitution. It is enforceable by the Courts and the State is under a duty to provide legal aid and legal assistance to a poor and needy person at its own expense.
Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: In 1987, the Legal Services Authorities (LSA) Act was enacted to give free and competent legal services to the poor and paved the way for the constitution of the National Legal Service Authority (NALSA) and other legal service institutions at the State, district and taluka levels.
Free legal services under the LSA Act are available to a person belonging to Schedule Tribe and Schedule Caste, a woman, child, victim of human trafficking, a differently abled person, an industrial workman, and a person in custody in a protective home and the poor.
Statement-II is correct: Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
Articles 14 and 22(1) also make it obligatory for the State to ensure equality before law and a legal system which promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity to all. Legal aid strives to ensure that the constitutional pledge is fulfilled in its letter and spirit and that equal justice is made available to the poor, downtrodden and weaker sections of society.
In two important judgments A.M.Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra (1978) and Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Secretary, State of Bihar (1979) the Supreme Court held that legal aid and speedy trial are to be treated as a part of the fundamental rights under Article 21 of the Constitution. It is enforceable by the Courts and the State is under a duty to provide legal aid and legal assistance to a poor and needy person at its own expense.
Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has no power to amend or reject it.
Statement-II: The Lok Sabha’s direct representation of the people grants it exclusive financial control within India’s parliamentary framework.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct:Article 110 of the Indian Constitution defines a “Money Bill,” encompassing matters like taxation, public expenditure, and the Consolidated Fund. Crucially, Article 109(1) mandates that a Money Bill can only originate in the Lok Sabha. Once passed, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha, which cannot amend or reject it. Article 109(2) allows the Rajya Sabha to suggest amendments within 14 days, but the Lok Sabha may accept or reject these suggestions. If the Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed passed. This ensures the Lok Sabha’s supremacy in financial matters, preventing deadlocks and upholding the principle of fiscal accountability to the people’s representatives.
Statement-II is correct: This statement explains the rationale behind the Lok Sabha’s privileged position regarding Money Bills. India’s parliamentary system operates on the principle of popular sovereignty, where the elected representatives reflect the people’s will. The Lok Sabha, directly elected by the citizens, is considered the true representative of the populace. Consequently, financial matters, which directly impact the people, are entrusted primarily to this house. This ensures that taxation and expenditure decisions are made by those directly accountable to the electorate. The direct election of the Lok Sabha members under Article 81, coupled with the provisions of Article 110 and 109, establish this principle.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct:Article 110 of the Indian Constitution defines a “Money Bill,” encompassing matters like taxation, public expenditure, and the Consolidated Fund. Crucially, Article 109(1) mandates that a Money Bill can only originate in the Lok Sabha. Once passed, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha, which cannot amend or reject it. Article 109(2) allows the Rajya Sabha to suggest amendments within 14 days, but the Lok Sabha may accept or reject these suggestions. If the Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed passed. This ensures the Lok Sabha’s supremacy in financial matters, preventing deadlocks and upholding the principle of fiscal accountability to the people’s representatives.
Statement-II is correct: This statement explains the rationale behind the Lok Sabha’s privileged position regarding Money Bills. India’s parliamentary system operates on the principle of popular sovereignty, where the elected representatives reflect the people’s will. The Lok Sabha, directly elected by the citizens, is considered the true representative of the populace. Consequently, financial matters, which directly impact the people, are entrusted primarily to this house. This ensures that taxation and expenditure decisions are made by those directly accountable to the electorate. The direct election of the Lok Sabha members under Article 81, coupled with the provisions of Article 110 and 109, establish this principle.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Consider the following:
Statement-I: A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature to be appointed as a Chief Minister.
Statement-II: Constitution provides for a person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature to be appointed as a minister
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: As per Article 164(4) of the Indian Constitution, a person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can be appointed as a Chief Minister, but with a crucial caveat: they must be elected to the state legislature within six months of their appointment. This temporary provision allows for flexibility in choosing the leader best suited to head the government, even if they don’t currently hold a seat.
Statement-II is correct: Under Article 164 of the Constitution of India, a person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he/she must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature; otherwise, he/she ceases to be a minister.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: As per Article 164(4) of the Indian Constitution, a person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can be appointed as a Chief Minister, but with a crucial caveat: they must be elected to the state legislature within six months of their appointment. This temporary provision allows for flexibility in choosing the leader best suited to head the government, even if they don’t currently hold a seat.
Statement-II is correct: Under Article 164 of the Constitution of India, a person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he/she must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature; otherwise, he/she ceases to be a minister.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
Consider the following statements about the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution:
1. Disqualified members are barred from holding Ministerial positions in the government.
2. Speaker holds final authority on disqualification petition of the members of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 75 and Article 164 of the Constitution provide that a disqualified member cannot be appointed as a minister during the period of disqualification or till the time he is reelected whichever is earlier. The Tenth Schedule does not deal with this aspect.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides the disqualification petitions of the members of the Lok Sabha only and for the members of the Parliament. For Rajya Sabha, the deciding authority is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 75 and Article 164 of the Constitution provide that a disqualified member cannot be appointed as a minister during the period of disqualification or till the time he is reelected whichever is earlier. The Tenth Schedule does not deal with this aspect.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides the disqualification petitions of the members of the Lok Sabha only and for the members of the Parliament. For Rajya Sabha, the deciding authority is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
Which among the following was the subject matter for the Indrajit Gupta Committee?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998): The committee strongly advocated for partial state funding of elections as a means to curb corruption and level the playing field for smaller parties. It recommended funding only national and state parties with a symbol, and initially suggested funding in kind (e.g., airtime, print space) before transitioning to cash grants.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections (1998): The committee strongly advocated for partial state funding of elections as a means to curb corruption and level the playing field for smaller parties. It recommended funding only national and state parties with a symbol, and initially suggested funding in kind (e.g., airtime, print space) before transitioning to cash grants.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Consider the following statements in context of the Constitutional Amendment Bills:
1. It can be introduced in either house of the Parliament
2. The President cannot withhold his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill
3. Bills for amending the Constitution can be introduced in the State Legislature
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A Bill for the amendment to the Constitution dealing with changing the representation of the states in the Parliament can be introduced in either house of the Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: The President cannot withhold his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill and she cannot return the Bill for reconsideration.
Statement 3 is incorrect: All the Bills for amending the Constitution should be introduced in either house of the Parliament and they cannot be introduced in the state legislature.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A Bill for the amendment to the Constitution dealing with changing the representation of the states in the Parliament can be introduced in either house of the Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: The President cannot withhold his assent to the Constitutional Amendment Bill and she cannot return the Bill for reconsideration.
Statement 3 is incorrect: All the Bills for amending the Constitution should be introduced in either house of the Parliament and they cannot be introduced in the state legislature.
