Day-779
Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
DAILY MCQ
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
With reference to the distance or range of interaction of fundamental forces of nature, consider the following statements:
1. Electromagnetic force has infinite range.
2. Gravitational force has infinite range.
3. Strong nuclear force has the smallest range.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation
There are 4 Fundamental Forces of nature.
1. Gravity
Gravity is the attraction between two objects that have mass, whether this is seen in dropping a rock from a bridge, a planet orbiting a star or the moon causing ocean tides.
2. Electromagnetic force
The electromagnetic force, also called the Lorentz force, acts between charged particles, like negatively charged electrons and positively charged protons. Opposite charges attract one another, while like charges repel. Greater is the charge, greater is the force.
3. Weak force
The weak force, also called the weak nuclear interaction, is responsible for particle decay.
4. Strong Force
It binds the fundamental particles of matter together to form larger particles. It holds together the quarks that make up protons and neutrons, and part of the strong force also keeps the protons and neutrons of an atom’s nucleus together.
Statement 1 is correct: Electromagnetic force has infinite range. This is because the electromagnetic force is inversely proportional to the distance between two charge particles. So, theoretically, the distance can be infinite.
Statement 2 is correct: Like electromagnetic force, gravity also has infinite range. However, the force of gravity at much larger distance is extremely weak as compared to electromagnetic force.
Statement 3 is correct: Strong nuclear force is strongest of all the fundamental forces. But it has a very limited range. The strong force operates only when subatomic particles are extremely close to one another. They must be somewhere within 10^-15 meters from each other, or roughly within the diameter of a proton.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation
There are 4 Fundamental Forces of nature.
1. Gravity
Gravity is the attraction between two objects that have mass, whether this is seen in dropping a rock from a bridge, a planet orbiting a star or the moon causing ocean tides.
2. Electromagnetic force
The electromagnetic force, also called the Lorentz force, acts between charged particles, like negatively charged electrons and positively charged protons. Opposite charges attract one another, while like charges repel. Greater is the charge, greater is the force.
3. Weak force
The weak force, also called the weak nuclear interaction, is responsible for particle decay.
4. Strong Force
It binds the fundamental particles of matter together to form larger particles. It holds together the quarks that make up protons and neutrons, and part of the strong force also keeps the protons and neutrons of an atom’s nucleus together.
Statement 1 is correct: Electromagnetic force has infinite range. This is because the electromagnetic force is inversely proportional to the distance between two charge particles. So, theoretically, the distance can be infinite.
Statement 2 is correct: Like electromagnetic force, gravity also has infinite range. However, the force of gravity at much larger distance is extremely weak as compared to electromagnetic force.
Statement 3 is correct: Strong nuclear force is strongest of all the fundamental forces. But it has a very limited range. The strong force operates only when subatomic particles are extremely close to one another. They must be somewhere within 10^-15 meters from each other, or roughly within the diameter of a proton.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
With reference to the jet engine technology, consider the following statements:
1. Turbojet engines use rotating parts.
2. Ramjet engines are most effective at subsonic speeds.
3. Scramjet engines use shock waves to generate thrust.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
The three most common types of jet engines are turbojet, ramjet, and scramjet. Each engine has its unique features and capabilities, making them suitable for different applications.
Statement 1 is correct: Turbojet engines are the oldest and most widely used type of jet engine. They rely on a combination of rotating fans and compressors to compress air before it enters the combustion chamber.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ramjet engines are supersonic engines that do not have any compressor or turbine. Instead, the engine relies on the speed of the aircraft to compress air before it enters the combustion chamber. However, they require a significant amount of kinetic energy to start and are not suitable for low-speed flight.
Statement 3 is correct: Scramjets use shock wave to increase the pressure to a very high value. The burning fuel is passed through the nozzle to generate very high thrust. Scramjets have no moving parts, and ramjets have fewer moving parts than turbojets, which makes them more reliable and easier to maintain. They operate efficiently at hypersonic speeds. They are used in missiles.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The three most common types of jet engines are turbojet, ramjet, and scramjet. Each engine has its unique features and capabilities, making them suitable for different applications.
Statement 1 is correct: Turbojet engines are the oldest and most widely used type of jet engine. They rely on a combination of rotating fans and compressors to compress air before it enters the combustion chamber.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ramjet engines are supersonic engines that do not have any compressor or turbine. Instead, the engine relies on the speed of the aircraft to compress air before it enters the combustion chamber. However, they require a significant amount of kinetic energy to start and are not suitable for low-speed flight.
Statement 3 is correct: Scramjets use shock wave to increase the pressure to a very high value. The burning fuel is passed through the nozzle to generate very high thrust. Scramjets have no moving parts, and ramjets have fewer moving parts than turbojets, which makes them more reliable and easier to maintain. They operate efficiently at hypersonic speeds. They are used in missiles.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
With reference to the Human metapneumovirus (HMPV), consider the following statements:
1. It is a DNA virus with a low mutation rate.
2. It mostly affects children during the winter season.
3. It is closely associated with a similar family of viruses which affect birds.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
About Human metapneumovirus (HMPV)
-
- Human metapneumovirus is a respiratory virus which belongs to the family
- Human metapneumovirus (HMPV) can cause upper and lower respiratory disease in people of all ages, especially among young children with weakened immune systems.
- Symptoms commonly associated with HMPV include cough, fever, nasal congestion, and shortness of breath.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a single-stranded RNA virus. Thus, it has a higher mutation rate.
Statement 2 is correct: The virus peaks its circulation during winter season and lasts through spring. The peak age of hospitalization in HMPV occurs between 6–12 months of age. Although, young children under the age of five years are also at higher risk of hospitalisation.
Statement 3 is correct: Human metapneumovirus (HMPV) is closely related to the Avian metapneumovirus (AMPV) subgroup C which is a subtype of avian influenza.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
About Human metapneumovirus (HMPV)
-
- Human metapneumovirus is a respiratory virus which belongs to the family
- Human metapneumovirus (HMPV) can cause upper and lower respiratory disease in people of all ages, especially among young children with weakened immune systems.
- Symptoms commonly associated with HMPV include cough, fever, nasal congestion, and shortness of breath.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a single-stranded RNA virus. Thus, it has a higher mutation rate.
Statement 2 is correct: The virus peaks its circulation during winter season and lasts through spring. The peak age of hospitalization in HMPV occurs between 6–12 months of age. Although, young children under the age of five years are also at higher risk of hospitalisation.
Statement 3 is correct: Human metapneumovirus (HMPV) is closely related to the Avian metapneumovirus (AMPV) subgroup C which is a subtype of avian influenza.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
With reference to the XpoSat, consider the following statements:
1. It will study the polarization of cosmic X-rays.
2. The core task of the satellite is analysis of the brightest known sources of the universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions. It is an Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) planned space observatory with mission life of at least five years. The telescope is being developed by ISRO and the Raman Research Institute.
Statement 1 is correct: It will study polarisation of cosmic X-rays. While spectroscopic analysis provides adequate information, the exact nature of the emission from such sources still poses deeper challenges to astronomers. The polarimetry measurements add two more dimensions – the degree of polarization and the angle of polarization which enriches the understanding of cosmic events.
Statement 2 is correct: XPoSat will study the 50 brightest known sources in the universe, including pulsars, black hole X-ray binaries, active galactic nuclei, and non-thermal supernova remnants. The observatory will be placed in a circular low Earth orbit of 500–700 km.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions. It is an Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) planned space observatory with mission life of at least five years. The telescope is being developed by ISRO and the Raman Research Institute.
Statement 1 is correct: It will study polarisation of cosmic X-rays. While spectroscopic analysis provides adequate information, the exact nature of the emission from such sources still poses deeper challenges to astronomers. The polarimetry measurements add two more dimensions – the degree of polarization and the angle of polarization which enriches the understanding of cosmic events.
Statement 2 is correct: XPoSat will study the 50 brightest known sources in the universe, including pulsars, black hole X-ray binaries, active galactic nuclei, and non-thermal supernova remnants. The observatory will be placed in a circular low Earth orbit of 500–700 km.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
With reference to the Neuralink, consider the following statements:
1. It is a brain implant to connect the human brain with computer.
2. This will allow computers to control human thoughts and actions.
3. Till now, no human brain-computer interface has been created through a surgical implant.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
About Neuralink
Neuralink is an implantable brain–computer interface (BCIs), developed by Elon Musk and his team. It is a system that involves ultra-thin probes being inserted into the brain, a neurosurgical robot to perform the operations and a high-density electronic system capable of processing information from neurons. Neuralink received FDA approval for human clinical trials in May 2023.
Statement 1 is correct: It is a brain implant to create brain-computer interface. This will augment the signals received from various parts of the brain and create movement accordingly.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The aim is not to control the brain through computer. Neuralink will maintain the autonomy of human brain. In case of any brain injury, the signals from the receptors and effector cells do not get processed and relayed at a quick rate. Neuralink will try to amplify the weak signal and process it to be sent to motor movement effector muscles.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In August 2023, researchers at Northwell Health’s Feinstein Institutes in New York implanted microchips into the brain of Keith Thomas, a person with complete paralysis due to a car accident. Using a double neural bypass and motion sensors, Thomas could move his arm for the first time since 2020.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
About Neuralink
Neuralink is an implantable brain–computer interface (BCIs), developed by Elon Musk and his team. It is a system that involves ultra-thin probes being inserted into the brain, a neurosurgical robot to perform the operations and a high-density electronic system capable of processing information from neurons. Neuralink received FDA approval for human clinical trials in May 2023.
Statement 1 is correct: It is a brain implant to create brain-computer interface. This will augment the signals received from various parts of the brain and create movement accordingly.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The aim is not to control the brain through computer. Neuralink will maintain the autonomy of human brain. In case of any brain injury, the signals from the receptors and effector cells do not get processed and relayed at a quick rate. Neuralink will try to amplify the weak signal and process it to be sent to motor movement effector muscles.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In August 2023, researchers at Northwell Health’s Feinstein Institutes in New York implanted microchips into the brain of Keith Thomas, a person with complete paralysis due to a car accident. Using a double neural bypass and motion sensors, Thomas could move his arm for the first time since 2020.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
With reference to NVS 01 satellite, consider the following statements:
1. It is a second-generation navigation satellite launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
2. It augments the capabilities of Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).
3. For the first time ever an indigenously built atomic clock has been added as a payload to an Indian satellite.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: NVS-01 is the first in the series of second-generation navigation satellite and the ninth satellite in the Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC), with an alternate name of, IRNSS-1J. It was launched in May 2023 by the ISRO and has a mission life of more than 12 years.
Statement 2 is correct: NVS series of satellites will sustain and augment the IRNSS or NavIC with enhanced features. This series incorporates L1 band signals additionally to widen the services.
Statement 3 is correct: An indigenously developed Rubidium atomic clock has been flown with the satellite for the first time. This was needed because of the failure of the imported atomic clock in the previous generation satellite.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: NVS-01 is the first in the series of second-generation navigation satellite and the ninth satellite in the Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC), with an alternate name of, IRNSS-1J. It was launched in May 2023 by the ISRO and has a mission life of more than 12 years.
Statement 2 is correct: NVS series of satellites will sustain and augment the IRNSS or NavIC with enhanced features. This series incorporates L1 band signals additionally to widen the services.
Statement 3 is correct: An indigenously developed Rubidium atomic clock has been flown with the satellite for the first time. This was needed because of the failure of the imported atomic clock in the previous generation satellite.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Quasars are smaller than Pulsars.
2. Quasars spin faster than Pulsars.
3. Quasars last for a longer time than Pulsars.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quasar
A quasar is the nucleus of a galaxy that is very active. It is powered by a supermassive black hole and has a huge disc of gas, dust, and light falling into it. Quasars are extremely luminous. In fact, a subtype of quasars called blazars are the most luminous objects in the universe.
Pulsar
They are neutron stars, which means they are the remaining core of a massive star that went supernova and exploded. They are called pulsars because as they spin, it creates a jet or a beam of electromagnetic radiation (mostly gamma rays). This beam is the “signal” that we can detect on Earth to discover new pulsars.
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Since Quasars are powered by blackholes, they are way bigger than Pulsars. Moreover, there are many times more pulsars than quasars in the universe.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Pulsars spin at a very rapid rate as compared to Quasars due to the momentum carried over from their days as a star.
- Statement 3 is correct: Pulsars only last for 10 million years. Quasars can last for hundreds of millions of years. This is because pulsars are not technically stars and they no longer fuse elements, so they are not generating new heat or energy. Due to rapid expenditure of energy, pulsars have a short lifespan (in astronomical scales) of just 10 million years.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Quasar
A quasar is the nucleus of a galaxy that is very active. It is powered by a supermassive black hole and has a huge disc of gas, dust, and light falling into it. Quasars are extremely luminous. In fact, a subtype of quasars called blazars are the most luminous objects in the universe.
Pulsar
They are neutron stars, which means they are the remaining core of a massive star that went supernova and exploded. They are called pulsars because as they spin, it creates a jet or a beam of electromagnetic radiation (mostly gamma rays). This beam is the “signal” that we can detect on Earth to discover new pulsars.
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Since Quasars are powered by blackholes, they are way bigger than Pulsars. Moreover, there are many times more pulsars than quasars in the universe.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Pulsars spin at a very rapid rate as compared to Quasars due to the momentum carried over from their days as a star.
- Statement 3 is correct: Pulsars only last for 10 million years. Quasars can last for hundreds of millions of years. This is because pulsars are not technically stars and they no longer fuse elements, so they are not generating new heat or energy. Due to rapid expenditure of energy, pulsars have a short lifespan (in astronomical scales) of just 10 million years.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
With reference to gravitational lensing, consider the following statements:
1. It is an effect of distortion in space-time fabric.
2. It leads to bending of light around black holes only.
3. It helps in observing distant cosmic events.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Gravitational Lensing
Gravitational lensing occurs when light from a distant object passes near a massive object in space, causing it to bend or curve. When observed from Earth, this bending alters the appearance or position of the distant object.
-
- Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational lensing is an effect on light from a background source that arises because of the curvature of spacetime, the three dimensions of space and time united into a single entity, caused by mass.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Not only black holes, but even galaxies and other massive celestial objects are able to distort the light which affects gravitational lensing.
- Statement 3 is correct: The bending of light helps in observing distant objects which can be detected by space observatories. It is just like a convex lens which focuses on distant objects to the screen.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Gravitational Lensing
Gravitational lensing occurs when light from a distant object passes near a massive object in space, causing it to bend or curve. When observed from Earth, this bending alters the appearance or position of the distant object.
-
- Statement 1 is correct: Gravitational lensing is an effect on light from a background source that arises because of the curvature of spacetime, the three dimensions of space and time united into a single entity, caused by mass.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Not only black holes, but even galaxies and other massive celestial objects are able to distort the light which affects gravitational lensing.
- Statement 3 is correct: The bending of light helps in observing distant objects which can be detected by space observatories. It is just like a convex lens which focuses on distant objects to the screen.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
With reference to the various generations of cellular technology, consider the following statements:
1. 5G technology can employ a higher frequency as compared to 4G.
2. 5G has a higher latency than 4G technology.
3. 5G has more range than 4G cellular network.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is a limit to how much information radio waves can carry depending on frequency band. 5G adds more capacity, more space to use, which means that there’s more room for everyone and that their devices get higher data speeds. This space is known as bandwidth. 5G has more bandwidth than 4G. This means that more devices can be connected at a point of time without a speed drop.
-
- Statement 1 is correct: 5G network can operate at a higher frequency. 4G can operate up to a frequency of 6GHz whereas 5G can work up to 30GHz. A higher frequency enables faster data transfer. That is why 5G is up to 100 times faster than 4G.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Latency is the delay between the sending of information and the corresponding response. Thus, a lower latency helps in processing multiple information over the network. It helps in Internet of Thing (IoT) applications and development of various cyber physical systems without buffering or lag. For 4G, latency is on average 200 milliseconds. However, the 5G latency rate is significantly lower at just 1 millisecond.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: 4G wavelengths have a range of about 10 miles. 5G wavelengths have a range of about 1,000 feet, not even 2% of 4G’s range. So, to ensure a reliable 5G signal, there needs to be a lot of 5G cell towers and antennas everywhere.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
There is a limit to how much information radio waves can carry depending on frequency band. 5G adds more capacity, more space to use, which means that there’s more room for everyone and that their devices get higher data speeds. This space is known as bandwidth. 5G has more bandwidth than 4G. This means that more devices can be connected at a point of time without a speed drop.
-
- Statement 1 is correct: 5G network can operate at a higher frequency. 4G can operate up to a frequency of 6GHz whereas 5G can work up to 30GHz. A higher frequency enables faster data transfer. That is why 5G is up to 100 times faster than 4G.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Latency is the delay between the sending of information and the corresponding response. Thus, a lower latency helps in processing multiple information over the network. It helps in Internet of Thing (IoT) applications and development of various cyber physical systems without buffering or lag. For 4G, latency is on average 200 milliseconds. However, the 5G latency rate is significantly lower at just 1 millisecond.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: 4G wavelengths have a range of about 10 miles. 5G wavelengths have a range of about 1,000 feet, not even 2% of 4G’s range. So, to ensure a reliable 5G signal, there needs to be a lot of 5G cell towers and antennas everywhere.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Consider the following:
1. Development of personalized medicine
2. Understanding human diversity
3. Treatment of rare genetic disorder
In how many of the above examples, the Human Pangenome reference map can be useful?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Human Pangenome
It is a set of genomes from many individuals put together to show where the sequences are identical or different. The draft human pangenome consists of 47 genomes, and the plan is to expand this to 350 genomes by 2024. Genome is like a blueprint or instruction manual for life. It contains all the genes and the spaces between the genes that make up our chromosomes.
Genome reference map
A reference genome or reference map is like a standard map that scientists use when they sequence and study new genomes. It serves as a guide to compare and understand the differences between the newly sequenced genome and the reference genome.
-
- Example 1 is correct: The human pangenome reference map can help researchers understand the variation in individuals based on geography and ethnicity as well as going deeper down to individual differences. This will be helpful in creating personalized medicines in future.
- Example 2 is correct: It will also be useful in understanding human diversity and try to find out cultural similarities as well as differences having some genetic basis.
- Example 3 is correct: Any genetic variation in the DNA can be easily compared with the reference map. Thus, the map will assist in finding concrete solutions to the treatment of genetic disorders.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Human Pangenome
It is a set of genomes from many individuals put together to show where the sequences are identical or different. The draft human pangenome consists of 47 genomes, and the plan is to expand this to 350 genomes by 2024. Genome is like a blueprint or instruction manual for life. It contains all the genes and the spaces between the genes that make up our chromosomes.
Genome reference map
A reference genome or reference map is like a standard map that scientists use when they sequence and study new genomes. It serves as a guide to compare and understand the differences between the newly sequenced genome and the reference genome.
-
- Example 1 is correct: The human pangenome reference map can help researchers understand the variation in individuals based on geography and ethnicity as well as going deeper down to individual differences. This will be helpful in creating personalized medicines in future.
- Example 2 is correct: It will also be useful in understanding human diversity and try to find out cultural similarities as well as differences having some genetic basis.
- Example 3 is correct: Any genetic variation in the DNA can be easily compared with the reference map. Thus, the map will assist in finding concrete solutions to the treatment of genetic disorders.
