Day-789
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of both the Lalit Kala Akademi and Sangeet Natak Akademi are appointed by the President of India.
2. The Lalit Kala Akademi and the Sangeet Natak Akademi are institutions registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Chairman of Lalit Kala Akademi:
-
- The selection of the Chairman shall be through a transparent selection process, for which a Search Committee shall be constituted.
- The Search Committee shall consist of three members, one member shall be nominated by the General Council of the Akademi, the other two members shall be nominated by the President of India and one out of three members may be a woman.
- The Search Committee shall draw a panel of three names in alphabetical order and submit it to the President of India who shall appoint one of the three names in the panel as the Chairman of the Akademi.
Chairman of Sangeet Natak Akademi:
-
- Sangeet Natak Akademi, the apex body in the field of performing arts in the country, was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance and drama.
- The management of the Akademi vests in its General Council.
- The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- Both the Lalit Kala Akademi and Sangeet Natak Akademi are institutions registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Chairman of Lalit Kala Akademi:
-
- The selection of the Chairman shall be through a transparent selection process, for which a Search Committee shall be constituted.
- The Search Committee shall consist of three members, one member shall be nominated by the General Council of the Akademi, the other two members shall be nominated by the President of India and one out of three members may be a woman.
- The Search Committee shall draw a panel of three names in alphabetical order and submit it to the President of India who shall appoint one of the three names in the panel as the Chairman of the Akademi.
Chairman of Sangeet Natak Akademi:
-
- Sangeet Natak Akademi, the apex body in the field of performing arts in the country, was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India’s diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance and drama.
- The management of the Akademi vests in its General Council.
- The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- Both the Lalit Kala Akademi and Sangeet Natak Akademi are institutions registered under the Societies Registration Act 1860.
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Post Office Bill, 2023:
1. The government will not have exclusive privilege over conveying letters.
2. The Bill states that the Post Office will have the exclusive privilege of issuing postage stamps.
3. The government may intercept an article transmitted through India Post on specified grounds, including security of the state and public order.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The Post Office Act 1898 provides that wherever the central government establishes posts, it will have the exclusive privilege of conveying letters by post, as well as incidental services such as receiving, collecting etc.
- But the Post Office Bill, 2023 does not contain such privileges. That means, the government will not have exclusive privilege over conveying letters.
- Services to be provided by India Post will be prescribed under Rules.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The Post Office Act, 1898 provides that wherever the central government establishes posts, it will have the exclusive privilege of conveying letters by post, as well as incidental services such as receiving, collecting etc.
- The Post Office Bill, 2023 states that the Post Office will have the exclusive privilege of issuing postage stamps.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The Post Office Bill, 2023 states that the government may intercept an article transmitted through India Post on specified grounds, including security of the state and public order.
- But the Bill does not specify procedural safeguards for interception of articles transmitted through India Post.
- Lack of safeguards may violate freedom of speech and expression, and the right to privacy of individuals.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The Post Office Act 1898 provides that wherever the central government establishes posts, it will have the exclusive privilege of conveying letters by post, as well as incidental services such as receiving, collecting etc.
- But the Post Office Bill, 2023 does not contain such privileges. That means, the government will not have exclusive privilege over conveying letters.
- Services to be provided by India Post will be prescribed under Rules.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The Post Office Act, 1898 provides that wherever the central government establishes posts, it will have the exclusive privilege of conveying letters by post, as well as incidental services such as receiving, collecting etc.
- The Post Office Bill, 2023 states that the Post Office will have the exclusive privilege of issuing postage stamps.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The Post Office Bill, 2023 states that the government may intercept an article transmitted through India Post on specified grounds, including security of the state and public order.
- But the Bill does not specify procedural safeguards for interception of articles transmitted through India Post.
- Lack of safeguards may violate freedom of speech and expression, and the right to privacy of individuals.
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
With reference to the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory agency established under the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988.
2. It is the apex coordinating agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) was established by the Govt. of India in exercise of powers conferred by sub section 3 of section 4 of the Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985.
- Purpose: Effectively preventing and combating abuse of narcotics drugs and psychotropic substances and its illicit trade.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- It is the apex coordinating agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The responsibility of drug abuse control, which is a central function, is carried out through a number of Ministries, Departments and Organisations.
- These include the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue which has the nodal co-ordination role as administrator of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 and the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) was established by the Govt. of India in exercise of powers conferred by sub section 3 of section 4 of the Narcotics Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985.
- Purpose: Effectively preventing and combating abuse of narcotics drugs and psychotropic substances and its illicit trade.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- It is the apex coordinating agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The responsibility of drug abuse control, which is a central function, is carried out through a number of Ministries, Departments and Organisations.
- These include the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue which has the nodal co-ordination role as administrator of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 and the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988.
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill 2023 was introduced in the Parliament to include the pharmacists of which of the following States/U.T. as registered pharmacists under the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- The Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced to amend the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
- The Act regulates the practice and profession of pharmacy.
Key features of the Bill include:
-
- Registration: Registration under the Pharmacy Act, 1948 is mandatory to practice pharmacy in India.
- The Bill specifies that anyone who is registered as a pharmacist under the Jammu and Kashmir Pharmacy Act, 2011 or possesses qualifications prescribed under the 2011 Act will be deemed to be registered as a pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
- This will be contingent upon the person submitting an application for registration within a year of the amendment coming into force, and paying a prescribed fee.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
-
- The Pharmacy (Amendment) Bill, 2023 was introduced to amend the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
- The Act regulates the practice and profession of pharmacy.
Key features of the Bill include:
-
- Registration: Registration under the Pharmacy Act, 1948 is mandatory to practice pharmacy in India.
- The Bill specifies that anyone who is registered as a pharmacist under the Jammu and Kashmir Pharmacy Act, 2011 or possesses qualifications prescribed under the 2011 Act will be deemed to be registered as a pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
- This will be contingent upon the person submitting an application for registration within a year of the amendment coming into force, and paying a prescribed fee.
-
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Reports Released by 1. Global Innovation Index (GII) Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe 2. Global Hunger Index (GHI) World Justice Project 3. World Energy Outlook (WEO) International Energy Agency (IEA) 4. Rule of law Index World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
Global Innovation Index (GII)-
-
- It is published annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), in partnership with the Portulans Institute. It reveals the most innovative economies in the world.
- Theme 2023: Innovation in the face of uncertainty
- Findings: Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023 followed by Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom and Singapore.
- India secured the 40th position in the latest GII 2023, showcasing a remarkable climb from the 81th spot in 2015.
Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
Global Hunger Index (GHI) – It is an annual report, jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe.
-
- The GHI is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels.
- GHI scores are based on 3 dimensions and 4 indicators
1) Undernourishment – Insufficient caloric intake.
2) Child wasting – Low body weight to height.
3) Child stunting – Too short for his/her age.
4) Child mortality – Children who die before their 5th birthday
Global Hunger Index (GHI)-2023
Theme: ‘Beyond 2030: Youth, Food Systems and a Future of Food Sovereignty’.
About India-
-
- GHI- 2023 gave India a rank of 111 out of 125 countries.
- This indicates a hunger severity level of ‘serious‘ for the country.
- This also marks a fall from the previous year’s rank of 107 (2022).
Pair 3 is matched correctly:
-
- World Energy Outlook is the flagship publication of the International Energy Agency and has appeared every year since 1998.
- Aim: To provide in-depth analysis and strategic insights into every aspect of the global energy system.
World Energy Outlook- 2023
Key Highlights from the report:
Globally:
-
- Fossil fuel share in the global energy supply is projected to reduce from around 80% to 73% by 2030.
- Investment in clean energy has risen by 40% since 2020.
- In 2020, one in 25 cars sold was electric. In 2023, this is now one in 5.
India:
-
- India is expected to have the highest growth in energy demand over the next three decades.
- But India’s industrial sector will emit 30% less CO2 by 2030 and passenger cars will emit 25% less CO2 per kilometer driven.
- This is due to the government policies in addressing climate commitments through increased efficiency and new technologies.
Pair 4 is matched incorrectly:
-
- The Rule of Law Index (ROLI) is released by the World Justice Project (WJP), a US-based civil society group.
- It rates countries based on accountability of executives and respect for fundamental rights of people.
- The index is prepared by examining these four principles through eight factors: constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, civil justice, and criminal justice.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
Global Innovation Index (GII)-
-
- It is published annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), in partnership with the Portulans Institute. It reveals the most innovative economies in the world.
- Theme 2023: Innovation in the face of uncertainty
- Findings: Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023 followed by Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom and Singapore.
- India secured the 40th position in the latest GII 2023, showcasing a remarkable climb from the 81th spot in 2015.
Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
Global Hunger Index (GHI) – It is an annual report, jointly published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe.
-
- The GHI is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels.
- GHI scores are based on 3 dimensions and 4 indicators
1) Undernourishment – Insufficient caloric intake.
2) Child wasting – Low body weight to height.
3) Child stunting – Too short for his/her age.
4) Child mortality – Children who die before their 5th birthday
Global Hunger Index (GHI)-2023
Theme: ‘Beyond 2030: Youth, Food Systems and a Future of Food Sovereignty’.
About India-
-
- GHI- 2023 gave India a rank of 111 out of 125 countries.
- This indicates a hunger severity level of ‘serious‘ for the country.
- This also marks a fall from the previous year’s rank of 107 (2022).
Pair 3 is matched correctly:
-
- World Energy Outlook is the flagship publication of the International Energy Agency and has appeared every year since 1998.
- Aim: To provide in-depth analysis and strategic insights into every aspect of the global energy system.
World Energy Outlook- 2023
Key Highlights from the report:
Globally:
-
- Fossil fuel share in the global energy supply is projected to reduce from around 80% to 73% by 2030.
- Investment in clean energy has risen by 40% since 2020.
- In 2020, one in 25 cars sold was electric. In 2023, this is now one in 5.
India:
-
- India is expected to have the highest growth in energy demand over the next three decades.
- But India’s industrial sector will emit 30% less CO2 by 2030 and passenger cars will emit 25% less CO2 per kilometer driven.
- This is due to the government policies in addressing climate commitments through increased efficiency and new technologies.
Pair 4 is matched incorrectly:
-
- The Rule of Law Index (ROLI) is released by the World Justice Project (WJP), a US-based civil society group.
- It rates countries based on accountability of executives and respect for fundamental rights of people.
- The index is prepared by examining these four principles through eight factors: constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, civil justice, and criminal justice.
-
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Consider the following:
1. Tiger
2. Leopard
3. Snow Leopard
4. Cheetah
5. Jaguar
6. Puma
How many of the above-mentioned big cats are covered under the recently launched International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation: International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) covers seven big cats namely Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma harbouring our planet.
More about International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)-
-
- On April 9, 2023– To commemorate 50 years of Project Tiger, the Prime Minister launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for conservation of seven big cats namely Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma harbouring our planet.
- The alliance aims to reach out to 97 range countries covering the natural habitats of Tiger, Lion, Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar, and Cheetah. IBCA would further strengthen global cooperation and efforts to conserve the wild denizens, especially the big cats.
- Alliance will strengthen global efforts and partnerships on big cat conservation, while evolving a platform for convergence of knowledge and best practices, supporting existing species specific inter-governmental platforms
- India has a long-standing experience on the tiger agenda and conservation of other big cats like lion, snow leopard, leopard, now the translocation of the Cheetah to bring an extinct big cat back to its natural habitat.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation: International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) covers seven big cats namely Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma harbouring our planet.
More about International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)-
-
- On April 9, 2023– To commemorate 50 years of Project Tiger, the Prime Minister launched the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) for conservation of seven big cats namely Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma harbouring our planet.
- The alliance aims to reach out to 97 range countries covering the natural habitats of Tiger, Lion, Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar, and Cheetah. IBCA would further strengthen global cooperation and efforts to conserve the wild denizens, especially the big cats.
- Alliance will strengthen global efforts and partnerships on big cat conservation, while evolving a platform for convergence of knowledge and best practices, supporting existing species specific inter-governmental platforms
- India has a long-standing experience on the tiger agenda and conservation of other big cats like lion, snow leopard, leopard, now the translocation of the Cheetah to bring an extinct big cat back to its natural habitat.
-
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Consider the following bodies:
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Central Information Commission
4. Central Bureau of Investigation
How many of the above organisations come under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Organisations coming under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions:
-
- Union Public Service Commission
- Central Information Commission
- Central Vigilance Commission
- Central Administrative Tribunal
- Lokpal
- Staff Selection Commission
- Public Enterprises Selection Board
- Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration
- Institute of Secretariat Training & Management
- Capacity Building Commission
- Central Bureau of Investigation
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Organisations coming under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions:
-
- Union Public Service Commission
- Central Information Commission
- Central Vigilance Commission
- Central Administrative Tribunal
- Lokpal
- Staff Selection Commission
- Public Enterprises Selection Board
- Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration
- Institute of Secretariat Training & Management
- Capacity Building Commission
- Central Bureau of Investigation
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Consider the following statements about the World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
2. The Secretariat of WMO is headquartered in Paris.
3. “State of the Global Climate” report is published by WMO.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for promoting international cooperation on atmospheric science, climatology, hydrology and geophysics.
-
- The WMO originated from the International Meteorological Organization, a nongovernmental organization founded in 1873 as a forum for exchanging weather data and research.
- Proposals to reform the status and structure of the IMO culminated in the World Meteorological Convention of 1947, which formally established the World Meteorological Organization.
- The Convention entered into force on 23 March 1950, and the following year the WMO began operations as an intergovernmental organization within the UN system.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Secretariat of WMO is headquartered in Geneva.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The WMO State of the Global Climate report 2022 (released in April, 2023) focuses on key climate indicators – greenhouse gases, temperatures, sea level rise, ocean heat and acidification, sea ice and glaciers.
- It also highlights the impacts of climate change and extreme weather.
-
-
- Drought, floods and heat waves affect large parts of the world and the costs are rising
- Global mean temperatures for the past 8 years have been the highest on record
- Sea level and ocean heat are at record levels – and this trend will continue for many centuries
- Antarctic sea ice falls to lowest extent on record
- Europe shatters records for glacier melt
-
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for promoting international cooperation on atmospheric science, climatology, hydrology and geophysics.
-
- The WMO originated from the International Meteorological Organization, a nongovernmental organization founded in 1873 as a forum for exchanging weather data and research.
- Proposals to reform the status and structure of the IMO culminated in the World Meteorological Convention of 1947, which formally established the World Meteorological Organization.
- The Convention entered into force on 23 March 1950, and the following year the WMO began operations as an intergovernmental organization within the UN system.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Secretariat of WMO is headquartered in Geneva.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The WMO State of the Global Climate report 2022 (released in April, 2023) focuses on key climate indicators – greenhouse gases, temperatures, sea level rise, ocean heat and acidification, sea ice and glaciers.
- It also highlights the impacts of climate change and extreme weather.
-
-
- Drought, floods and heat waves affect large parts of the world and the costs are rising
- Global mean temperatures for the past 8 years have been the highest on record
- Sea level and ocean heat are at record levels – and this trend will continue for many centuries
- Antarctic sea ice falls to lowest extent on record
- Europe shatters records for glacier melt
-
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Consider the following schemes:
1. Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme
2. National Family Benefit Scheme
3. Annapurna Scheme
4. PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana
5. Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme
How many of the above schemes are included under the National Social Assistance Programme?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a welfare programme being administered by the Ministry of Rural Development. This programme is being implemented in rural areas as well as urban areas. NSAP represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution of India which enjoin upon the State to undertake within its means a number of welfare measures.
-
- PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana does not come under NSAP.
Presently NSAP now comprises of the following five schemes:-
-
- Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS): Under the scheme, BPL persons aged 60 years or above are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/- up to 79 years of age and Rs.500/- thereafter.
- Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS): BPL widows aged 40-59 years are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS): BPL persons aged 18-59 years with severe and multiple disabilities are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS): Under the scheme a BPL household is entitled to a lump sum amount of money on the death of primary breadwinner aged between 18 and 64 years. The amount of assistance is Rs. 10,000/-.
- Annapurna: Under the scheme, 10 kg of food grains per month are provided free of cost to those senior citizens who, though eligible, have remained uncovered under NOAPS.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a welfare programme being administered by the Ministry of Rural Development. This programme is being implemented in rural areas as well as urban areas. NSAP represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Constitution of India which enjoin upon the State to undertake within its means a number of welfare measures.
-
- PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana does not come under NSAP.
Presently NSAP now comprises of the following five schemes:-
-
- Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS): Under the scheme, BPL persons aged 60 years or above are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/- up to 79 years of age and Rs.500/- thereafter.
- Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS): BPL widows aged 40-59 years are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS): BPL persons aged 18-59 years with severe and multiple disabilities are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS): Under the scheme a BPL household is entitled to a lump sum amount of money on the death of primary breadwinner aged between 18 and 64 years. The amount of assistance is Rs. 10,000/-.
- Annapurna: Under the scheme, 10 kg of food grains per month are provided free of cost to those senior citizens who, though eligible, have remained uncovered under NOAPS.
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Consider the following pairs:
International Organisation – Headquarter
1. UNESCO – Paris
2. UNCITRAL – Vienna
3. WHO – Geneva
4. FAO – Rome
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
-
- The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at promoting world peace and security through international cooperation in education, arts, sciences and culture.
- It is headquartered in Paris, France.
Pair 2 is matched correctly:
-
- The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law is a subsidiary body of the U.N. General Assembly responsible for helping to facilitate international trade and investment.
- It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
Pair 3 is matched correctly:
-
- The World Health Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Pair 4 is matched correctly:
-
- The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. Its Latin motto, fiat panis, translates to “let there be bread”.
- It is headquartered in Rome, Italy.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
-
- The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations aimed at promoting world peace and security through international cooperation in education, arts, sciences and culture.
- It is headquartered in Paris, France.
Pair 2 is matched correctly:
-
- The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law is a subsidiary body of the U.N. General Assembly responsible for helping to facilitate international trade and investment.
- It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
Pair 3 is matched correctly:
-
- The World Health Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health.
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Pair 4 is matched correctly:
-
- The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. Its Latin motto, fiat panis, translates to “let there be bread”.
- It is headquartered in Rome, Italy.
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Animal Welfare Board of India:
1. It is a statutory advisory body established under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. It works under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
- It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- AWBI is functioning under the aegis of the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAH&D).
Additional Information
Animal Welfare Board of India-
-
- The Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale.
- Through its services, Board ensures that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advises the Government of India on animal welfare issues.
- Members: The Board consists of 28 Members including 6 Members of Parliament (2 Members of Parliament from Rajya Sabha and 4 Members of Parliament from Lok Sabha).
Ø The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country.
- It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- AWBI is functioning under the aegis of the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAH&D).
Additional Information
Animal Welfare Board of India-
-
- The Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale.
- Through its services, Board ensures that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, provides grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advises the Government of India on animal welfare issues.
- Members: The Board consists of 28 Members including 6 Members of Parliament (2 Members of Parliament from Rajya Sabha and 4 Members of Parliament from Lok Sabha).
Ø The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.
-
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: India is not a member of International Criminal Court (ICC).
Statement-II: Countries which are party to the Rome Statute are the members of ICC.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation: Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I:
International Criminal Court (ICC):
-
- Genesis: Established by Rome Statute of International Criminal Court in 1998.
- About: Permanent International court, governed by an International treaty- Rome Statute.
- Members: 123 countries are parties to the Rome Statute, India is not a member.
- Composition: The court consists of 18 judges. They serve a 9-year, non-renewable term.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation: Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I:
International Criminal Court (ICC):
-
- Genesis: Established by Rome Statute of International Criminal Court in 1998.
- About: Permanent International court, governed by an International treaty- Rome Statute.
- Members: 123 countries are parties to the Rome Statute, India is not a member.
- Composition: The court consists of 18 judges. They serve a 9-year, non-renewable term.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the newly proposed National Turmeric Board:
1. It will be established in Andhra Pradesh.
2. The proposed board will work under the aegis of Ministry of Commerce.
3. One of the objectives of the Board is to create and improve infrastructure and logistics for exports of turmeric and turmeric products.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- Government of India notified the establishment of a National Turmeric Board in the state of
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The proposed board is to work under the aegis of Ministry of Commerce.
Statement 3 is correct:
Key Objectives of the board-
-
- Create demand in domestic and international markets through promoting new product and value addition.
- Create and improve infrastructure and logistics for exports of turmeric and turmeric products.
- Ensure quality and safety standards across the supply chain of turmeric.
- Document the traditional knowledge related to use of turmeric and its applications.
- Encourage studies, clinical trials and research on medicinal, health and wellness enhancing properties of turmeric.
Additional Information
o India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of 3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of global turmeric production). More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
o India has more than 62% share of world trade in turmeric. During 2022-23, 1.534 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric products valued at 207.45 million USD were exported by more than 380 exporters. The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia. With the focused activities of the Board, it is expected that turmeric exports will reach USD 1 Billion by 2030.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- Government of India notified the establishment of a National Turmeric Board in the state of
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The proposed board is to work under the aegis of Ministry of Commerce.
Statement 3 is correct:
Key Objectives of the board-
-
- Create demand in domestic and international markets through promoting new product and value addition.
- Create and improve infrastructure and logistics for exports of turmeric and turmeric products.
- Ensure quality and safety standards across the supply chain of turmeric.
- Document the traditional knowledge related to use of turmeric and its applications.
- Encourage studies, clinical trials and research on medicinal, health and wellness enhancing properties of turmeric.
Additional Information
o India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of 3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of global turmeric production). More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
o India has more than 62% share of world trade in turmeric. During 2022-23, 1.534 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric products valued at 207.45 million USD were exported by more than 380 exporters. The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia. With the focused activities of the Board, it is expected that turmeric exports will reach USD 1 Billion by 2030.
-
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which one of the following is the objective of SWAMIH investment fund?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
SWAMIH investment fund-
-
- The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund I is India’s largest social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects.
- The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, and is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., a State Bank Group company.
- The Fund has no precedent or comparable peer fund in India or in the global markets.
- It has raised Rs. 15,530 crore so far (by April, 2023) with an aim to provide priority debt financing for the completion of stressed, brownfield and Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) registered residential projects that fall in the affordable, mid-income housing category.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
SWAMIH investment fund-
-
- The Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund I is India’s largest social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects.
- The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, and is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd., a State Bank Group company.
- The Fund has no precedent or comparable peer fund in India or in the global markets.
- It has raised Rs. 15,530 crore so far (by April, 2023) with an aim to provide priority debt financing for the completion of stressed, brownfield and Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) registered residential projects that fall in the affordable, mid-income housing category.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ANTARDRISHTI Dashboard:
1. The Dashboard is launched by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The main purpose of the Dashboard is monitoring the progress of financial inclusion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The Dashboard is launched by the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters.
- It will also enable us to gauge the extent of financial exclusion at granular levels across the country so that such areas can be addressed.
- The dashboard is presently intended for internal use in the RBI.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The Dashboard is launched by the Reserve Bank of India.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- It will provide the required insight to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters.
- It will also enable us to gauge the extent of financial exclusion at granular levels across the country so that such areas can be addressed.
- The dashboard is presently intended for internal use in the RBI.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
With reference to the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. It works under the aegis of Department of Science and Technology (DST).
3. It conducts experimental field trials before releasing any genetically engineered organism into the environment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- GEAC is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
- GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Statement 3 is correct:
Functions of GEAC:
-
- Its main function is to approve activities involving large-scale use of hazardous and recombinants in industrial production.
- It conducts experimental field trials before releasing any genetically engineered organism into the environment.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- GEAC is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
- GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Statement 3 is correct:
Functions of GEAC:
-
- Its main function is to approve activities involving large-scale use of hazardous and recombinants in industrial production.
- It conducts experimental field trials before releasing any genetically engineered organism into the environment.
-
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Consider the following statements about the PM-MITRA scheme:
1. PM MITRA Parks will be set up on the basis of proposals from State Governments ready to provide a contiguous and encumbrance-free land parcel of a minimum of 1000 acres.
2. The scheme does not involve foreign direct investment (FDI) since it was introduced to benefit local weavers and the domestic textile industry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) scheme is an integrated approach expected to contribute to the growth of the textile sector of the Indian economy.
- PM MITRA Parks will be set up on the basis of proposals from State Governments ready to provide a contiguous and encumbrance-free land parcel of a minimum of 1000 acres.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- The scheme to be implemented by both the Central and State governments, which are open for FDIs, will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large-scale investment, including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the sector.
Additional Information
PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) scheme
-
- PM MITRA Parks represent a unique model where the Centre and State Governments will work together to increase investment, promote innovation, create job opportunities and ultimately make India a global hub for textile manufacturing and exports.
- Nearly Rs. 70,000 crores investment and 20 lakhs employment generation have been envisaged through these parks.
- It is expected that these parks will enhance the competitiveness of the textiles industry by helping it achieve economies of scale as well as attract global players to manufacture in India.
- Eligible States and sites were evaluated using a transparent Challenge Method based on objective criteria taking into account a variety of factors such as connectivity, existing ecosystem, textile/industry policy, infrastructure, utility services etc.
- PM Gati Shakti- National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity was also used for validation.
- The Ministry of Textiles will oversee the execution of these projects. An SPV owned by Centre and State Government will be set up for each park which will oversee the implementation of the project.
- The Ministry of Textiles will provide financial support in the form of Development Capital Support upto Rs. 500 crore per park to the Park SPV.
- A Competitive Incentive Support (CIS) upto Rs 300 crore per park to the units in PM MITRA Park shall also be provided to incentivise speedy implementation. Convergence with other GOI schemes shall also be facilitated in order to ensure additional incentives to the Master Developer and investor units.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) scheme is an integrated approach expected to contribute to the growth of the textile sector of the Indian economy.
- PM MITRA Parks will be set up on the basis of proposals from State Governments ready to provide a contiguous and encumbrance-free land parcel of a minimum of 1000 acres.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- The scheme to be implemented by both the Central and State governments, which are open for FDIs, will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large-scale investment, including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the sector.
Additional Information
PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) scheme
-
- PM MITRA Parks represent a unique model where the Centre and State Governments will work together to increase investment, promote innovation, create job opportunities and ultimately make India a global hub for textile manufacturing and exports.
- Nearly Rs. 70,000 crores investment and 20 lakhs employment generation have been envisaged through these parks.
- It is expected that these parks will enhance the competitiveness of the textiles industry by helping it achieve economies of scale as well as attract global players to manufacture in India.
- Eligible States and sites were evaluated using a transparent Challenge Method based on objective criteria taking into account a variety of factors such as connectivity, existing ecosystem, textile/industry policy, infrastructure, utility services etc.
- PM Gati Shakti- National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity was also used for validation.
- The Ministry of Textiles will oversee the execution of these projects. An SPV owned by Centre and State Government will be set up for each park which will oversee the implementation of the project.
- The Ministry of Textiles will provide financial support in the form of Development Capital Support upto Rs. 500 crore per park to the Park SPV.
- A Competitive Incentive Support (CIS) upto Rs 300 crore per park to the units in PM MITRA Park shall also be provided to incentivise speedy implementation. Convergence with other GOI schemes shall also be facilitated in order to ensure additional incentives to the Master Developer and investor units.
-
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Consider the following statements about the Bharat 6G Vision document:
1. It lays out a roadmap to roll out 6G services across the country by 2030
2. The document is prepared by the Technology Innovation Group on 6G.
3. Technology Innovation Group on 6G was constituted in 2021 itself, much before the rollout of 5G in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- While, technically, 6G does not exist today, it has been conceived as a far superior technology promising internet speeds up to 100 times faster than 5G.
- India is gearing up to roll out high-speed 6G communication services by 2030.
- It has set up a Bharat 6G project to identify and fund research and deployment of the next-generation technology in the country.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The Bharat 6G Vision Document has been prepared by the Technology Innovation Group on 6G.
- 6G Vision is based on principles of Affordability, Sustainability, and Ubiquity.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The Department of Telecommunications constituted a Technology Innovation Group on 6G (TIG-6G) on 1st November 2021 with members from various Ministries/Departments, research and development institutions, academia, etc.
- Whereby the 5G started rolling out in the country in the first week of October 2022.
- Thus Technology Innovation Group on 6G was constituted much before the rollout of 5G in India.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- While, technically, 6G does not exist today, it has been conceived as a far superior technology promising internet speeds up to 100 times faster than 5G.
- India is gearing up to roll out high-speed 6G communication services by 2030.
- It has set up a Bharat 6G project to identify and fund research and deployment of the next-generation technology in the country.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The Bharat 6G Vision Document has been prepared by the Technology Innovation Group on 6G.
- 6G Vision is based on principles of Affordability, Sustainability, and Ubiquity.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The Department of Telecommunications constituted a Technology Innovation Group on 6G (TIG-6G) on 1st November 2021 with members from various Ministries/Departments, research and development institutions, academia, etc.
- Whereby the 5G started rolling out in the country in the first week of October 2022.
- Thus Technology Innovation Group on 6G was constituted much before the rollout of 5G in India.
-
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Consider the following statements about the Maritime Anti-Piracy Act:
1. It applies to India’s Exclusive Economic Zone, which lies up to 200 nautical miles and also beyond.
2. This Act will replace the outdated Piracy Suppression Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- Anti-Piracy Act 2022 enables Indian authorities to act against high-seas piracy.
- It will apply to all sea areas surrounding and extending beyond India’s Exclusive Economic Zone or 200 nautical miles from the coast.
- The Act defines piracy as any illegal act of violence, detention, or destruction against a ship, aircraft, or person, for private purposes, by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- Piracy Suppression Act is an Act to protect the commerce of the United States and punish the crime of piracy is an 1819 United States federal statute against piracy.
- India’s Anti-Maritime Piracy would provide an effective legal instrument to combat Maritime Piracy.
Additional Information
About Anti-Piracy Act 2022-
-
- The Bill enables Indian authorities to take action against piracy in the high seas.
- The Bill brings into law the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea. It applies to the sea beyond the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), i.e., beyond 200 nautical miles from India’s coastline.
- The Bill defines piracy as any illegal act of violence, detention or destruction against a ship, aircraft, person or property, for private purposes, by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft.
- Piracy also includes inciting and intentionally facilitating such acts of violence and voluntarily participating in the operation of a pirate ship or aircraft.
- Committing an act of piracy will be punishable with (i) life imprisonment; or (ii) death if the Act of piracy causes or seeks to cause death.
- Participating, organizing, aiding, supporting, attempting to commit, and directing others to participate in the act of piracy will be punishable by up to 14 years of imprisonment and a fine.
- If a person, while committing an act of piracy, causes or seeks to cause death, he will be punished with death.
- This implies a mandatory death penalty for such offenses.
- The Supreme Court has held that the mandatory death penalty for any offense is unconstitutional as it violates Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution. However, Parliament has passed laws providing for the mandatory death penalty for some offenses.
- The Act provides for imprisonment of up to 14 years if a person participates in the Act of piracy. Committing an act of piracy (which includes voluntarily participating in the operation of a pirate ship or aircraft) is punishable by life imprisonment.
- As these circumstances may overlap, it is unclear how the punishment would be determined in such cases.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- Anti-Piracy Act 2022 enables Indian authorities to act against high-seas piracy.
- It will apply to all sea areas surrounding and extending beyond India’s Exclusive Economic Zone or 200 nautical miles from the coast.
- The Act defines piracy as any illegal act of violence, detention, or destruction against a ship, aircraft, or person, for private purposes, by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- Piracy Suppression Act is an Act to protect the commerce of the United States and punish the crime of piracy is an 1819 United States federal statute against piracy.
- India’s Anti-Maritime Piracy would provide an effective legal instrument to combat Maritime Piracy.
Additional Information
About Anti-Piracy Act 2022-
-
- The Bill enables Indian authorities to take action against piracy in the high seas.
- The Bill brings into law the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea. It applies to the sea beyond the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), i.e., beyond 200 nautical miles from India’s coastline.
- The Bill defines piracy as any illegal act of violence, detention or destruction against a ship, aircraft, person or property, for private purposes, by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft.
- Piracy also includes inciting and intentionally facilitating such acts of violence and voluntarily participating in the operation of a pirate ship or aircraft.
- Committing an act of piracy will be punishable with (i) life imprisonment; or (ii) death if the Act of piracy causes or seeks to cause death.
- Participating, organizing, aiding, supporting, attempting to commit, and directing others to participate in the act of piracy will be punishable by up to 14 years of imprisonment and a fine.
- If a person, while committing an act of piracy, causes or seeks to cause death, he will be punished with death.
- This implies a mandatory death penalty for such offenses.
- The Supreme Court has held that the mandatory death penalty for any offense is unconstitutional as it violates Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution. However, Parliament has passed laws providing for the mandatory death penalty for some offenses.
- The Act provides for imprisonment of up to 14 years if a person participates in the Act of piracy. Committing an act of piracy (which includes voluntarily participating in the operation of a pirate ship or aircraft) is punishable by life imprisonment.
- As these circumstances may overlap, it is unclear how the punishment would be determined in such cases.
-
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Consider the following statements about Mission Amrit Sarovar:
1. It has a target to construct or rejuvenate at least 75 water bodies in each state across the country.
2. The excavated soil is being used by the Ministry of Railways and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways for infrastructure projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- Mission Amrit Sarovar aims to develop or rejuvenate at least 75 water bodies in each district (not State) of the country to celebrate Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
- Mission Amrit Sarovar had initially planned a target to construct or rejuvenate 50,000 Amrit Sarovar ponds across India by 15th August 2023.
- Now, an additional 50,000 Amrit Sarovar ponds will be constructed by 15th August 2023.
- The State Governments have identified sites for constructing Amrit Sarovar in the country.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- ‘Whole of Government’ approach is the soul of this Mission, wherein six Central Ministries, namely the Ministry of Rural Development together with the Ministry of Railways, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, the Ministry of Jal Shakti, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, are operational in convergence with technical organizations, namely Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geo-Informatics (BISAG-N), and all the States/UTs Governments.
- The highlight of this convergence is that the Ministry of Railway and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways are using the excavated soil/silt for infrastructure projects near the demarcated Amrit Sarovar sites.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- Mission Amrit Sarovar aims to develop or rejuvenate at least 75 water bodies in each district (not State) of the country to celebrate Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
- Mission Amrit Sarovar had initially planned a target to construct or rejuvenate 50,000 Amrit Sarovar ponds across India by 15th August 2023.
- Now, an additional 50,000 Amrit Sarovar ponds will be constructed by 15th August 2023.
- The State Governments have identified sites for constructing Amrit Sarovar in the country.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- ‘Whole of Government’ approach is the soul of this Mission, wherein six Central Ministries, namely the Ministry of Rural Development together with the Ministry of Railways, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, the Ministry of Jal Shakti, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, are operational in convergence with technical organizations, namely Bhaskaracharya National Institute of Space Applications and Geo-Informatics (BISAG-N), and all the States/UTs Governments.
- The highlight of this convergence is that the Ministry of Railway and the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways are using the excavated soil/silt for infrastructure projects near the demarcated Amrit Sarovar sites.
