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DAILY MCQ
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
2. The advice tendered by the CVC is binding on the Central Government.
3. Its members can only be removed in the same manner as that of the judge of the Supreme Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: CVC has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character. It may call for information or report from the Central government or its authorities so as to enable it to exercise general supervision over the vigilance and anticorruption work in them.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The advice rendered by the CVC to the Central Government is not binding on the Central Government. The CVC, on receipt of the report of the inquiry undertaken by any agency on a reference made by it, advises the Central government or its authorities as to the further course of action. The Central government or its authorities shall consider the advice of the CVC and take appropriate action. However, where the Central government or any of its authorities does not agree with the advice of the CVC, it shall communicate the reasons to the CVC.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The members of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) can be removed from the office:
● If he is adjudged an insolvent; or
● If he has been convicted of an offense which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or
● If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
● If he is (in the opinion of the President), unfit to continue in office by reason or infirmity of mind or body; or
● If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to prejudicially affect his official functions. They can also be removed on the ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity. However, in these cases, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. Thus, the manner of removal of the members of the Central Vigilance Commission is different from that of the judge of the Supreme Court.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: CVC has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character. It may call for information or report from the Central government or its authorities so as to enable it to exercise general supervision over the vigilance and anticorruption work in them.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The advice rendered by the CVC to the Central Government is not binding on the Central Government. The CVC, on receipt of the report of the inquiry undertaken by any agency on a reference made by it, advises the Central government or its authorities as to the further course of action. The Central government or its authorities shall consider the advice of the CVC and take appropriate action. However, where the Central government or any of its authorities does not agree with the advice of the CVC, it shall communicate the reasons to the CVC.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The members of the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) can be removed from the office:
● If he is adjudged an insolvent; or
● If he has been convicted of an offense which (in the opinion of the Central government) involves a moral turpitude; or
● If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
● If he is (in the opinion of the President), unfit to continue in office by reason or infirmity of mind or body; or
● If he has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to prejudicially affect his official functions. They can also be removed on the ground of proven misbehavior or incapacity. However, in these cases, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an enquiry. Thus, the manner of removal of the members of the Central Vigilance Commission is different from that of the judge of the Supreme Court. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
With reference to the Competition Commission of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002.
2. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002.
3. Its decisions can be appealed only in the division bench of a High Court.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Competition Act, 2002 was passed by the Parliament in the year 2002, to which the President accorded assent in January, 2003. It was subsequently amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007. In accordance with the provisions of the Amendment Act, the Competition Commission of India was established.
Statement 2 is correct: The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002, on the recommendations of the Raghavan Committee.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Competition Appellate Tribunal has been established as a statutory organization under the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002 to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India. But in 2017, the appellate tribunal was merged with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal which now hears appeals against the decisions of CCI.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Competition Act, 2002 was passed by the Parliament in the year 2002, to which the President accorded assent in January, 2003. It was subsequently amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007. In accordance with the provisions of the Amendment Act, the Competition Commission of India was established.
Statement 2 is correct: The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002, on the recommendations of the Raghavan Committee.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Competition Appellate Tribunal has been established as a statutory organization under the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002 to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the Competition Commission of India. But in 2017, the appellate tribunal was merged with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal which now hears appeals against the decisions of CCI. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
With reference to the Anti-Defection Law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tenth schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of a legislator on account of defection.
2. The law provides exemption from disqualification to a member of a House on the ground of a split within his/her legislature party.
3. It is a tool to prevent defection by providing punitive measures.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The anti-defection law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act. It added the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution and amended four articles in the Constitution. It amended Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191 which are related to the vacating of seats and disqualification of MPs and MLAs. Article 102 (and 191) gives authority to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution to disqualify any member.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The law provides exemption from disqualification to a member of a House on the ground of a MERGER between political parties.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a tool to prevent defection by providing punitive measures. For instance, disobeying a whip can put the lawmaker’s membership of the House at risk.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The anti-defection law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act. It added the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution and amended four articles in the Constitution. It amended Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191 which are related to the vacating of seats and disqualification of MPs and MLAs. Article 102 (and 191) gives authority to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution to disqualify any member.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The law provides exemption from disqualification to a member of a House on the ground of a MERGER between political parties.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a tool to prevent defection by providing punitive measures. For instance, disobeying a whip can put the lawmaker’s membership of the House at risk. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Consider the following statements about the Metropolitan Planning Committee (MPC):
1. The Constitution provides for the mandatory setting up of MPC in every municipal area having ten lakh or more population.
2. The Constitution empowers the government of a state to make rules with respect to the composition of the Metropolitan Planning Committee.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution provides for the mandatory setting up of MPC in every metropolitan area (an area having 10 lakh or more populations).
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to-
-
- The composition of the Metropolitan Planning Committees;
- The manner in which the seats in such Committees shall be filled
Provided that not less than two-thirds of the members of such Committee shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area, in proportion to the ratio between the population of the Municipalities and of the Panchayats in that area.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution provides for the mandatory setting up of MPC in every metropolitan area (an area having 10 lakh or more populations).
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Constitution, the Legislature of a State may, by law, make provision with respect to-
-
- The composition of the Metropolitan Planning Committees;
- The manner in which the seats in such Committees shall be filled
Provided that not less than two-thirds of the members of such Committee shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members of the Municipalities and Chairpersons of the Panchayats in the Metropolitan area, in proportion to the ratio between the population of the Municipalities and of the Panchayats in that area.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consider the following statements about political parties in India:
1. All political associations need to mandatorily register with the Election Commission of India (ECI)
2. The ECI classifies the political parties into recognized and unrecognized political parties based on their membership.
3. There are seven Recognized National Parties in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not necessary for every association to get registered by the Election Commission. Only an association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party and intending to avail itself of the provisions of Part-IV-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, (relating to registration of political parties) is required to get itself registered with the Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The ECI classifies the political parties into recognized and unrecognized political parties based on percentage of valid votes polled and/or seats won in the election to the Parliament and/or state legislatures.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There are six Recognized National Parties in India.
1. Bahujan Samaj Party
2. Bharatiya Janata Party
3. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
4. Indian National Congress
5. Aam Aadmi Party
6. National People’s Party
Additional Information: According to the ECI’s Political Parties and Election Symbols, 2019 handbook, a political party would be considered a National Party if:
-
- It is ‘recognised’ in four or more states; or
- If its candidates have secured at least 6% of total valid votes in at least 4 states (in latest Lok Sabha or Assembly elections) and the party has at least 4 MPs in the last LS polls; or
If it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the LS from at least 3 states.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not necessary for every association to get registered by the Election Commission. Only an association or body of individual citizens of India calling itself a political party and intending to avail itself of the provisions of Part-IV-A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, (relating to registration of political parties) is required to get itself registered with the Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The ECI classifies the political parties into recognized and unrecognized political parties based on percentage of valid votes polled and/or seats won in the election to the Parliament and/or state legislatures.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There are six Recognized National Parties in India.
1. Bahujan Samaj Party
2. Bharatiya Janata Party
3. Communist Party of India (Marxist)
4. Indian National Congress
5. Aam Aadmi Party
6. National People’s Party
Additional Information: According to the ECI’s Political Parties and Election Symbols, 2019 handbook, a political party would be considered a National Party if:
-
- It is ‘recognised’ in four or more states; or
- If its candidates have secured at least 6% of total valid votes in at least 4 states (in latest Lok Sabha or Assembly elections) and the party has at least 4 MPs in the last LS polls; or
If it has won at least 2% of the total seats in the LS from at least 3 states.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC):
1. It was constituted according to the Mandal case judgment of the Supreme Court.
2. The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred a constitutional status to the Commission.
3. It functions under the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In the Mandal case judgment (1992), the Supreme Court directed the central government to constitute a permanent statutory body to examine the complaints of under inclusion, over inclusion or non-inclusion of any class of citizens in the list of backward classes. Accordingly, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was set up in 1993.
Statement 2 is correct: The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred a constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). The amendment inserted a new Article 338-B in the constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) functions under the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In the Mandal case judgment (1992), the Supreme Court directed the central government to constitute a permanent statutory body to examine the complaints of under inclusion, over inclusion or non-inclusion of any class of citizens in the list of backward classes. Accordingly, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was set up in 1993.
Statement 2 is correct: The 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred a constitutional status on the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). The amendment inserted a new Article 338-B in the constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) functions under the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements:
1. It cannot exercise suo motu proceedings against environmental law defaulters.
2. The decisions of the NGT are binding.
3. Civil courts cannot hear matters related to environmental issues which the NGT is empowered to adjudicate.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai v Ankita Sinha (2021) case held that the National Green Tribunal (NGT) has the power and jurisdiction to institute suo moto proceedings against environment law defaulters.
Statement 2 is correct: Decisions of the Tribunal are binding. The Tribunal’s orders are enforceable as the powers vested are the same as in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Statement 3 is correct: With the enactment of the NGT Act, Civil courts cannot hear matters related to Environmental issues under the seven laws which the NGT is empowered to deal with i.e. cases under
-
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
- The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
- The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; and
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai v Ankita Sinha (2021) case held that the National Green Tribunal (NGT) has the power and jurisdiction to institute suo moto proceedings against environment law defaulters.
Statement 2 is correct: Decisions of the Tribunal are binding. The Tribunal’s orders are enforceable as the powers vested are the same as in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Statement 3 is correct: With the enactment of the NGT Act, Civil courts cannot hear matters related to Environmental issues under the seven laws which the NGT is empowered to deal with i.e. cases under
-
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
- The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
- The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
- The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
- The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; and
- The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
1. It can pass orders imposing any punishment on erring police officers.
2. It has its own investigation team to conduct inquiry into human rights violations.
3. It may approach the Supreme Court or the High court for the necessary writs upon the completion of an inquiry.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It can’t pass orders imposing any punishment on erring police officers. The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
Statement 2 is correct: It has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigation into human rights violations. Besides it is also empowered to utilize the services of any officer or investigation agency of the central government or any state government for the purpose
Statement 3 is correct: It may approach the Supreme Court or the High Court for the necessary directions, orders or writs upon the completion of an inquiry.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It can’t pass orders imposing any punishment on erring police officers. The functions of the commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
Statement 2 is correct: It has its own nucleus of investigating staff for investigation into human rights violations. Besides it is also empowered to utilize the services of any officer or investigation agency of the central government or any state government for the purpose
Statement 3 is correct: It may approach the Supreme Court or the High Court for the necessary directions, orders or writs upon the completion of an inquiry.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme is implemented by Khadi and Village Industries Commission.
2. The programme facilitates generation of employment opportunities for the unemployed youth across the country.
3. Co-operative Banks are not allowed to extend loans under this programme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: PMEGP is a central sector scheme being administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) but the implementing agency at the national level is Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) – a statutory organization under the administrative control of the Ministry of MSME.
Statement 2 is correct: It facilitates generation of employment opportunities for unemployed youth across the country by assisting setting up of micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Loans under the scheme are provided by Public Sector Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Co-operative Banks and Private Scheduled Commercial Banks approved by respective State Task Force Committee.
Additional Information:
According to the data shared by the minister of state Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, over four lakh jobs have been created with over 55 thousand new micro units set up till January 2023 since April 2022, under the government’s Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP).
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: PMEGP is a central sector scheme being administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) but the implementing agency at the national level is Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) – a statutory organization under the administrative control of the Ministry of MSME.
Statement 2 is correct: It facilitates generation of employment opportunities for unemployed youth across the country by assisting setting up of micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Loans under the scheme are provided by Public Sector Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Co-operative Banks and Private Scheduled Commercial Banks approved by respective State Task Force Committee.
Additional Information:
According to the data shared by the minister of state Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, over four lakh jobs have been created with over 55 thousand new micro units set up till January 2023 since April 2022, under the government’s Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP).
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Which of the following organizations publish the Methane Global Tracker report?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
The International Energy Agency’s (IEA), releases annual Methane Global Tracker report. The recent report released in February 2023, said that fossil fuel companies emitted 120 million metric tonnes of methane into the atmosphere in 2022, only slightly below the record highs seen in 2019.
The report also said 75 percent of methane emissions from the energy sector can be reduced with the help of cheap and readily available technology. The implementation of such measures would cost less than three per cent of the net income received by the oil and gas industry in 2022, but fossil fuel companies failed to take any substantial action regarding the issue.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
The International Energy Agency’s (IEA), releases annual Methane Global Tracker report. The recent report released in February 2023, said that fossil fuel companies emitted 120 million metric tonnes of methane into the atmosphere in 2022, only slightly below the record highs seen in 2019.
The report also said 75 percent of methane emissions from the energy sector can be reduced with the help of cheap and readily available technology. The implementation of such measures would cost less than three per cent of the net income received by the oil and gas industry in 2022, but fossil fuel companies failed to take any substantial action regarding the issue.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Consider the following:
1. Competition Commission of India
2. University Grant Commission
3. Law Commission of India
4. National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions
How many of the above given are statutory bodies?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the chief national competition regulator in India. It is a statutory body within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and is responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, of 2002, in order to promote competition and prevent activities that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India.
Option 2 is correct: The University Grants Commission of India (UGC India) is a statutory body set up by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, and Government of India in accordance with the UGC Act 1956 and is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India and disbursements of funds to such recognized universities and colleges.
Option 3 is incorrect: Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body, it is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India. Its major function is to work for legal reforms.
Option 4 is correct: National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI) was established to protect and safeguard the educational institutions that are established by the minorities in India. It is a statutory body established by the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions Act (NCMEI Act), 2004.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is the chief national competition regulator in India. It is a statutory body within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and is responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, of 2002, in order to promote competition and prevent activities that have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India.
Option 2 is correct: The University Grants Commission of India (UGC India) is a statutory body set up by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, and Government of India in accordance with the UGC Act 1956 and is charged with coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of higher education. It provides recognition to universities in India and disbursements of funds to such recognized universities and colleges.
Option 3 is incorrect: Law Commission of India is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body, it is an executive body established by an order of the Government of India. Its major function is to work for legal reforms.
Option 4 is correct: National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI) was established to protect and safeguard the educational institutions that are established by the minorities in India. It is a statutory body established by the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions Act (NCMEI Act), 2004.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Consider the following:
1. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was constituted on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee.
2. The CBI derives its power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946.
3. The CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences only in the Union Territories.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. The CBI was then formed by a resolution of the Home Affairs Ministry. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, later on, took over the responsibility of the CBI and now it plays the role of an attached office.
Statement 2 is correct: The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Government of India. It is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946.
Statement 3 is correct: CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences only in the Union Territories. However, they are restricted to the areas notified in section 3 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. The CBI was then formed by a resolution of the Home Affairs Ministry. The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, later on, took over the responsibility of the CBI and now it plays the role of an attached office.
Statement 2 is correct: The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Government of India. It is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946.
Statement 3 is correct: CBI can suo-moto take up investigation of offences only in the Union Territories. However, they are restricted to the areas notified in section 3 of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Consider the following Rights:
1. To appear before any court of law within the state.
2. Right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the Legislative Assembly only.
3. Privileges and immunities as available to a member of the state legislature.
How many of the rights given above are not available to the Advocate General of the State?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In the performance of his official duties, the Advocate General is entitled to appear before any court of law within the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Advocate General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the state legislature or any committee of the state legislature of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
Statement 3 is correct: He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In the performance of his official duties, the Advocate General is entitled to appear before any court of law within the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Advocate General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the state legislature or any committee of the state legislature of which he may be named a member but without a right to vote.
Statement 3 is correct: He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Consider the following statements in the context of the State Public Service Commission (SPSC):
1. By convention, the Governor of a state appoints the Chairman of the SPSC.
2. The chairman and the Members of the SPSC can be removed only by the President.
3. The Chairman of SPSC is eligible for reappointment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution authorizes the Governor to appoint the Chairman and members of the SPSC (Article 316).
Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman and the Members of the SPSC can be removed only by the President. However, the Governor has the power to suspend the Chairman or any other member (Article 317).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chairman of SPSC is not eligible for reappointment to the office; however, he can be the Chairman of any other SPSC, UPSC or the member of UPSC. (Article 319)
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution authorizes the Governor to appoint the Chairman and members of the SPSC (Article 316).
Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman and the Members of the SPSC can be removed only by the President. However, the Governor has the power to suspend the Chairman or any other member (Article 317).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chairman of SPSC is not eligible for reappointment to the office; however, he can be the Chairman of any other SPSC, UPSC or the member of UPSC. (Article 319)
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the working of the Supreme Court:
1. The President appoints the senior-most judge as the acting Chief Justice when the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant.
2. The President can appoint an ad-hoc judge with the previous consent of the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant, the President appoints such one of the other judges of the Court as acting Chief Justice. (Art 126)
Statement 2 is incorrect: When there is a lack of quorum of the Supreme Court Judges to conduct proceedings, the Chief Justice of India with the previous consent of the President can designate a sitting judge of a HC, duly qualified to be a SC judge as an ad hoc judge (Art 127).
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant, the President appoints such one of the other judges of the Court as acting Chief Justice. (Art 126)
Statement 2 is incorrect: When there is a lack of quorum of the Supreme Court Judges to conduct proceedings, the Chief Justice of India with the previous consent of the President can designate a sitting judge of a HC, duly qualified to be a SC judge as an ad hoc judge (Art 127).
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Consider the following statements about the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011:
1. It made the right to form cooperative societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19.
2. It amended the Directive Principle of State Policy to include the promotion of cooperative societies.
3. It added Schedule IX-B in the Constitution which enumerates the subjects on which cooperatives can be formed.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:
Statement 1 is correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, of 2011 made the right to form cooperative societies a Fundamental Right (Article 19).
Statement 2 is correct: It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
Statement 3 is incorrect: It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution, which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:
Statement 1 is correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, of 2011 made the right to form cooperative societies a Fundamental Right (Article 19).
Statement 2 is correct: It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
Statement 3 is incorrect: It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution, which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament cannot curtail the powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India.
2. The Parliament can extend the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The Constitution has guaranteed the exclusive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court of India in case of federal disputes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India has made various provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court and Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament can extend the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution has guaranteed the exclusive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court of India in case of federal disputes. Exclusive means that no other court can decide on such disputes and original means the power to hear such disputes in the first instance.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution of India has made various provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Supreme Court and Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament can extend the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution has guaranteed the exclusive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court of India in case of federal disputes. Exclusive means that no other court can decide on such disputes and original means the power to hear such disputes in the first instance.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that the harmonious existence between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP is part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru vs. State of Kerala Case, 1973: It upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment act and opined that parliament is empowered to take away or abridge any of the FRs. However, such changes should not alter the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution.
In Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain, 1975 the Supreme Court held that the power of Judicial review comes under the basic structure of the Constitution of India.
Minerva Mills Ltd. vs. Union of India, 1980: Parliament by enacting 42nd Amendment Act which declared that under Article 368 there is no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament and it barred the courts from questioning such amendments. This provision was invalidated by the SC stating that Parliament cannot take away the ‘judicial review’ power of the constitution since it is part of the ‘basic structure of the doctrine’. The Supreme Court held that the harmonious existence between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP is part of the basic structure of the Constitution, in this case.
S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, 1994: The court held that the power of the President to dismiss a State government is not absolute. The President should exercise the power only after his proclamation is approved by both Houses of Parliament. Till then the President can only suspend the Legislative Assembly by suspending the provisions of the Constitution relating to the Legislative Assembly. The verdict ruled that the floor of the Assembly is the only forum that should test the majority of the government of the day, and not the subjective opinion of the Governor, who is often referred to as the agent of the Central government.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru vs. State of Kerala Case, 1973: It upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment act and opined that parliament is empowered to take away or abridge any of the FRs. However, such changes should not alter the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution.
In Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain, 1975 the Supreme Court held that the power of Judicial review comes under the basic structure of the Constitution of India.
Minerva Mills Ltd. vs. Union of India, 1980: Parliament by enacting 42nd Amendment Act which declared that under Article 368 there is no limitation on the constituent power of Parliament and it barred the courts from questioning such amendments. This provision was invalidated by the SC stating that Parliament cannot take away the ‘judicial review’ power of the constitution since it is part of the ‘basic structure of the doctrine’. The Supreme Court held that the harmonious existence between the Fundamental Rights and DPSP is part of the basic structure of the Constitution, in this case.
S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, 1994: The court held that the power of the President to dismiss a State government is not absolute. The President should exercise the power only after his proclamation is approved by both Houses of Parliament. Till then the President can only suspend the Legislative Assembly by suspending the provisions of the Constitution relating to the Legislative Assembly. The verdict ruled that the floor of the Assembly is the only forum that should test the majority of the government of the day, and not the subjective opinion of the Governor, who is often referred to as the agent of the Central government.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Recently launched ‘Women Icons Leading Swachhata’ (WINS) Awards are given to highlight the impact of women in sanitation and waste management. In the context of the given statement consider the following categories:
1. Self-Help Groups (SHGs)
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Non-Government Organisations (NGOs)
4. Individual Women Leaders
How many of the above given are the eligible categories to apply for the awards?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
To highlight the impact of women in sanitation and waste management, the Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, announced the ‘Women Icons Leading Swachhata’ (WINS) Awards 2023 in March 2023, on the eve of International Women’s Day. The WINS Awards 2023 aim to recognize, celebrate and disseminate inspiring and exemplary initiatives in urban sanitation and waste management by women-led organizations and individual women.
Option 2 is incorrect: Eligible categories to apply for the award are (i) Self-Help Groups (SHGs) (ii) Micro-enterprises, (iii) Non-Government Organisations (NGOs), (iv) Startups and (v) Individual Women Leaders/Swachhata champions.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
To highlight the impact of women in sanitation and waste management, the Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs, announced the ‘Women Icons Leading Swachhata’ (WINS) Awards 2023 in March 2023, on the eve of International Women’s Day. The WINS Awards 2023 aim to recognize, celebrate and disseminate inspiring and exemplary initiatives in urban sanitation and waste management by women-led organizations and individual women.
Option 2 is incorrect: Eligible categories to apply for the award are (i) Self-Help Groups (SHGs) (ii) Micro-enterprises, (iii) Non-Government Organisations (NGOs), (iv) Startups and (v) Individual Women Leaders/Swachhata champions.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
With reference to the Asia Energy Transition Initiative (AETI), consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint initiative of India and Japan.
2. It seeks to achieve both sustainable growth and carbon neutrality in Asia.
3. It supports the Association of SouthEast Asian Nations (ASEAN) countries towards achieving net zero emissions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: AETI is an initiative of Japan that now looks forward to supporting India’s clean energy transition by including the country in the AETI.
Statement 2 is correct: It seeks to achieve both sustainable growth and carbon neutrality in Asia, where energy demand will continue to grow. Various and pragmatic energy transitions that reflect different circumstances of each country, and utilise all energy sources and all technologies, are essential. The Government of Japan announced the AETI, which includes a variety of support for realising energy transitions in Asia.
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- Support drawing roadmaps for energy transitions.
- The Asian version of transition finance.
- US$10 billion in finance support (e.g.) renewable energy, energy efficiency, LNG etc.
- Technology development and deployment, utilizing the achievement of 2 trillion yen fund in areas like Offshore wind power generation, Fuel-ammonia, Hydrogen etc.
- Capacity building of decarbonisation technologies, and knowledge sharing through Asia CCUS network.
Statement 3 is correct: Japan’s Asia Energy Transition Initiative (AETI), launched in 2021, initially supported the Association of SouthEast Asian Nations (ASEAN) countries towards achieving net zero emissions, including financial assistance of $10 billion for renewable energy.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: AETI is an initiative of Japan that now looks forward to supporting India’s clean energy transition by including the country in the AETI.
Statement 2 is correct: It seeks to achieve both sustainable growth and carbon neutrality in Asia, where energy demand will continue to grow. Various and pragmatic energy transitions that reflect different circumstances of each country, and utilise all energy sources and all technologies, are essential. The Government of Japan announced the AETI, which includes a variety of support for realising energy transitions in Asia.
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- Support drawing roadmaps for energy transitions.
- The Asian version of transition finance.
- US$10 billion in finance support (e.g.) renewable energy, energy efficiency, LNG etc.
- Technology development and deployment, utilizing the achievement of 2 trillion yen fund in areas like Offshore wind power generation, Fuel-ammonia, Hydrogen etc.
- Capacity building of decarbonisation technologies, and knowledge sharing through Asia CCUS network.
Statement 3 is correct: Japan’s Asia Energy Transition Initiative (AETI), launched in 2021, initially supported the Association of SouthEast Asian Nations (ASEAN) countries towards achieving net zero emissions, including financial assistance of $10 billion for renewable energy.
