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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Read the following description carefully and identify the biome:
‘Tall trees with pronounced stratification and abundance of epiphytes characterise this biome. The soil is deficient in nutrients.’
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Answer. B
Explanation- Tropical evergreen rain forest biome is distributed across countries like Mexico, Brazil, islands of Indonesia and India. Such biomes are characterised by:
● Prevalence in areas of high temperature and high rainfall (250-500 cm per year);
● Hardwood trees like rosewood, ebony, rubber, mahogany, cinchona etc.;
● Abundance of epiphytes;
● Tall trees with pronounced stratification and well-developed canopy cover;
● Soil deficient in nutrients due to excessive leaching.
About other biomes mentioned in the options-
TEMPERATE DECIDOUS FORESTS
● Shrubs, oaks, birch, maple, poplar are the main trees.
● Softwood trees seen alongwith Hardwood trees.
● Distribution- eastern USA, Eastern Asia, Canada and Eastern Australia.
● Trees shed their leaves during autumn and rejuvenate during spring season.
● Moderate climate with warm summer and moderately cold winter.
MONSOON FORESTS
● Tropical deciduous forest biome.
● Found in areas that experience a monsoon climate.
● It is a seasonal biome, characterized by wet summers and dry winters.
● This biome is found in several regions of the world, including South Asia, Southeast Asia, and Northern Australia.
MEDITERRANEAN FORESTS
● Biome comprising scrub forests.
● Trees- oak, eucalyptus, sage etc.
● Distribution- Mediterranean countries, Chile, California (USA), Western Cape of South Africa & southwest and southern Australia.
● Dry summers and rainy winters, with hot inland and cool coastal temperatures.
● Much of the woody vegetation in Mediterranean-climate regions is sclerophyll, which means ‘hard-leaved’ in Greek.
● Sclerophyllous vegetation generally has small, dark leaves covered with a waxy outer layer to retain moisture in the dry summer months.Incorrect
Answer. B
Explanation- Tropical evergreen rain forest biome is distributed across countries like Mexico, Brazil, islands of Indonesia and India. Such biomes are characterised by:
● Prevalence in areas of high temperature and high rainfall (250-500 cm per year);
● Hardwood trees like rosewood, ebony, rubber, mahogany, cinchona etc.;
● Abundance of epiphytes;
● Tall trees with pronounced stratification and well-developed canopy cover;
● Soil deficient in nutrients due to excessive leaching.
About other biomes mentioned in the options-
TEMPERATE DECIDOUS FORESTS
● Shrubs, oaks, birch, maple, poplar are the main trees.
● Softwood trees seen alongwith Hardwood trees.
● Distribution- eastern USA, Eastern Asia, Canada and Eastern Australia.
● Trees shed their leaves during autumn and rejuvenate during spring season.
● Moderate climate with warm summer and moderately cold winter.
MONSOON FORESTS
● Tropical deciduous forest biome.
● Found in areas that experience a monsoon climate.
● It is a seasonal biome, characterized by wet summers and dry winters.
● This biome is found in several regions of the world, including South Asia, Southeast Asia, and Northern Australia.
MEDITERRANEAN FORESTS
● Biome comprising scrub forests.
● Trees- oak, eucalyptus, sage etc.
● Distribution- Mediterranean countries, Chile, California (USA), Western Cape of South Africa & southwest and southern Australia.
● Dry summers and rainy winters, with hot inland and cool coastal temperatures.
● Much of the woody vegetation in Mediterranean-climate regions is sclerophyll, which means ‘hard-leaved’ in Greek.
● Sclerophyllous vegetation generally has small, dark leaves covered with a waxy outer layer to retain moisture in the dry summer months. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The pollution level in a waterbody can be gauged from Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
Statement II: BOD is indicative of the amount of oxygen required to break down the organic and inorganic material present in water.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Correct
Answer. C
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- The Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is one of the most widely used criteria for water quality assessment. It provides information about the readily biodegradable fraction of the organic load in water. The higher the BOD, the lesser the oxygen available to aquatic life.
● The unpolluted water is characteristically rich in DO and low in BOD. Higher the BOD, lower would be DO. Conversely, the polluted water has high values of BOD.
● A dissolved oxygen (DO) test measures the current status of oxygen in a water body. However, DO content can vary considerably from day-to-day as affected by many factors like temperature, wind velocity, eutrophication, pollution, etc.
● Water for drinking should have a BOD less than 1.
● Typical BOD value for raw sewage run from 200–400 mg of oxygen/litre.
● The maximum permissible limit of BOD followed by Central Pollution Control Board (India) for national water quality monitoring purposes is less than or equal to 3mg/L.
Statement 2 is incorrect- While BOD measures the amount of oxygen needed by microorganisms to break down organic matter in water, COD is indicative of the amount of oxygen required to oxidise total organic and inorganic pollutants in water chemically without the involvement of microbes. COD utilises a strong oxidising agent.
The value of BOD is lower than that of COD.
BOD is defined as the amount of oxygen, divided by the volume of the system, taken up through the respiratory activity of microorganisms growing on the organic compounds present in the sample (e.g. water or sludge) when incubated at a specified temperature (usually 20 °C) for a fixed period (usually 5 days, BOD5). It is a measure of that organic pollution of water which can be degraded biologically. In practice, it is usually expressed in milligrams O2 per litre.Incorrect
Answer. C
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- The Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is one of the most widely used criteria for water quality assessment. It provides information about the readily biodegradable fraction of the organic load in water. The higher the BOD, the lesser the oxygen available to aquatic life.
● The unpolluted water is characteristically rich in DO and low in BOD. Higher the BOD, lower would be DO. Conversely, the polluted water has high values of BOD.
● A dissolved oxygen (DO) test measures the current status of oxygen in a water body. However, DO content can vary considerably from day-to-day as affected by many factors like temperature, wind velocity, eutrophication, pollution, etc.
● Water for drinking should have a BOD less than 1.
● Typical BOD value for raw sewage run from 200–400 mg of oxygen/litre.
● The maximum permissible limit of BOD followed by Central Pollution Control Board (India) for national water quality monitoring purposes is less than or equal to 3mg/L.
Statement 2 is incorrect- While BOD measures the amount of oxygen needed by microorganisms to break down organic matter in water, COD is indicative of the amount of oxygen required to oxidise total organic and inorganic pollutants in water chemically without the involvement of microbes. COD utilises a strong oxidising agent.
The value of BOD is lower than that of COD.
BOD is defined as the amount of oxygen, divided by the volume of the system, taken up through the respiratory activity of microorganisms growing on the organic compounds present in the sample (e.g. water or sludge) when incubated at a specified temperature (usually 20 °C) for a fixed period (usually 5 days, BOD5). It is a measure of that organic pollution of water which can be degraded biologically. In practice, it is usually expressed in milligrams O2 per litre. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Trophic levels in food chain – Examples of associated species
1. Producer – Cyanobacteria
2. Primary consumer – Grasshopper
3. Secondary consumer – Killer whale
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?Correct
Answer. B
Explanation- Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched pairs.
Producers are the foundation of every food web in every ecosystem, and they occupy the first tropic level of the food web.
The second trophic level consists of primary consumers—the herbivores, or animals that eat plants. At the top level are secondary consumers—the carnivores and omnivores who eat the primary consumers. At times, the secondary consumers are also a food source for species from higher trophic levels known as tertiary consumers.
Ultimately, decomposers break down dead organisms, returning vital nutrients to the soil, and restarting the cycle.
1. Producer – Green plants, algae(cyanobacteria), few species of bacteria
2. Primary consumer (Herbivore) – Grasshopper, herring, etc.
3. Secondary consumer – Sea lion, snake, opossum, etc.
4. Tertiary consumer – Killer whale, Tiger, lion, etc.
Killer whales hunt seals and sea lions. Seals and sea lions are carnivores that consume fish, squid, and octopuses.Incorrect
Answer. B
Explanation- Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched pairs.
Producers are the foundation of every food web in every ecosystem, and they occupy the first tropic level of the food web.
The second trophic level consists of primary consumers—the herbivores, or animals that eat plants. At the top level are secondary consumers—the carnivores and omnivores who eat the primary consumers. At times, the secondary consumers are also a food source for species from higher trophic levels known as tertiary consumers.
Ultimately, decomposers break down dead organisms, returning vital nutrients to the soil, and restarting the cycle.
1. Producer – Green plants, algae(cyanobacteria), few species of bacteria
2. Primary consumer (Herbivore) – Grasshopper, herring, etc.
3. Secondary consumer – Sea lion, snake, opossum, etc.
4. Tertiary consumer – Killer whale, Tiger, lion, etc.
Killer whales hunt seals and sea lions. Seals and sea lions are carnivores that consume fish, squid, and octopuses. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Often seen in the news, the term ‘Aerial Seeding’ can be best understood in the context of:
Correct
Answer. C
Explanation- Aerial seeding is a technique of plantation in which seed balls – seeds covered with a mixture of clay, compost and other components – are sprayed on the ground using aerial devices including planes, helicopters or drones.
Seeds balls or seed pellets are dispersed in a targeted area by the low-flying drones, falling to the ground with the help of the coating of clay, compost, char and other material, that provides the required weight for seeds to drop on a predetermined location rather than disperse in the wind. These pellets will then sprout when there is enough rain, with the nutrients present within them helping in the initial growth.
Areas that are inaccessible, have steep slopes, are fragmented or disconnected with no forest routes, making conventional plantation difficult, can be targeted with aerial seeding. Furthermore, the process of the seed’s germination and growth is such that it requires no attention after it is dispersed – the reason why seed pellets are known as the “fire and forget” way of plantation.Incorrect
Answer. C
Explanation- Aerial seeding is a technique of plantation in which seed balls – seeds covered with a mixture of clay, compost and other components – are sprayed on the ground using aerial devices including planes, helicopters or drones.
Seeds balls or seed pellets are dispersed in a targeted area by the low-flying drones, falling to the ground with the help of the coating of clay, compost, char and other material, that provides the required weight for seeds to drop on a predetermined location rather than disperse in the wind. These pellets will then sprout when there is enough rain, with the nutrients present within them helping in the initial growth.
Areas that are inaccessible, have steep slopes, are fragmented or disconnected with no forest routes, making conventional plantation difficult, can be targeted with aerial seeding. Furthermore, the process of the seed’s germination and growth is such that it requires no attention after it is dispersed – the reason why seed pellets are known as the “fire and forget” way of plantation. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consider the following protected areas:
1. Kanha National Park
2. Jim Corbett National Park
3. Kanger Valley National Park
4. Kuno Palpur National Park
5. Bandhavgarh National Park
In which of the above national parks is Sal tree most commonly found?Correct
Answer. C
Explanation- Sal is a tree that belongs to deciduous forest. It is most common to find the following national parks of India:
● Kanha National Park
● Jim Corbett National Park
● Kanger Valley National Park
● Bandhavgarh National Park
Kuno Palpur National Park is dominated by trees from thorn type forest and dry deciduous type forest. Most commonly trees such as acacia, khair are found in Kuno.Incorrect
Answer. C
Explanation- Sal is a tree that belongs to deciduous forest. It is most common to find the following national parks of India:
● Kanha National Park
● Jim Corbett National Park
● Kanger Valley National Park
● Bandhavgarh National Park
Kuno Palpur National Park is dominated by trees from thorn type forest and dry deciduous type forest. Most commonly trees such as acacia, khair are found in Kuno. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Pyramid of numbers is upright for an aquatic ecosystem.
2. Pyramid of biomass is inverted for an aquatic ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer. C
Explanation- Pyramid of numbers deals with the relationship between the numbers of primary producers and consumers of different levels. It graphically represents the total number of individuals of different species, belonging to each trophic level in an ecosystem.
Statement 1 is correct- Pyramid of numbers is upright for an aquatic ecosystem as well as for a grassland ecosystem. This implies the number of individuals is decreased from lower trophic level to higher trophic level.
The number of organisms in each successive level decreases rapidly until there are very few animals at the top because the amount of food available at each trophic level to support the organisms decreases. For example, in case of any aquatic ecosystem like the ocean, the phytoplanktons i.e. the producers will be maximum. Primary consumers like zooplankton feeding on the phytoplankton will be less numerous, small fishes feeding on these zooplanktons would be even less in number and then the large fishes or sharks feeding on the primary consumers will be the least in count.
Statement 2 is correct- Pyramid of biomass is usually determined by collecting all organisms occupying each trophic level separately and measuring their dry weight. Biomass is measured in gram per metric cube. Pyramid of biomass is inverted in case of an aquatic ecosystem. This is because the producers are tiny phytoplankton that grow and reproduce rapidly. Thus, the pyramid of biomass has smaller base with consumer biomass at any instant actually exceeding the producer biomass.Incorrect
Answer. C
Explanation- Pyramid of numbers deals with the relationship between the numbers of primary producers and consumers of different levels. It graphically represents the total number of individuals of different species, belonging to each trophic level in an ecosystem.
Statement 1 is correct- Pyramid of numbers is upright for an aquatic ecosystem as well as for a grassland ecosystem. This implies the number of individuals is decreased from lower trophic level to higher trophic level.
The number of organisms in each successive level decreases rapidly until there are very few animals at the top because the amount of food available at each trophic level to support the organisms decreases. For example, in case of any aquatic ecosystem like the ocean, the phytoplanktons i.e. the producers will be maximum. Primary consumers like zooplankton feeding on the phytoplankton will be less numerous, small fishes feeding on these zooplanktons would be even less in number and then the large fishes or sharks feeding on the primary consumers will be the least in count.
Statement 2 is correct- Pyramid of biomass is usually determined by collecting all organisms occupying each trophic level separately and measuring their dry weight. Biomass is measured in gram per metric cube. Pyramid of biomass is inverted in case of an aquatic ecosystem. This is because the producers are tiny phytoplankton that grow and reproduce rapidly. Thus, the pyramid of biomass has smaller base with consumer biomass at any instant actually exceeding the producer biomass. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Consider the following faunal species:
1. Indian wild ass
2. Sloth bear
3. Nilgiri Tahr
How many of the above species are listed under ‘Schedule I’ of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?Correct
Answer. C
Explanation- Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 contains the list of those endangered species which need rigorous protection; thus, they are prohibited from hunting, killing, trading or harming them in any way unless they pose a threat to the human life. Some of the important species listed as Schedule 1 species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act are as follows-
● Indian wild ass
● Sloth bear
● Nilgiri Tahr
● Tiger
● Asiatic wild dog (Dhole)
● Himalayan serow
● Asiatic lion
● Caracal
● Snow leopard etc,.More info about all the three species given as options-
INDIAN WILD ASS
● Its range once extended from western India, southern Pakistan, i.e. provinces of Sindh and Baluchistan, Afghanistan, and south-eastern Iran.
● Today, its last refuge lies in the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, Little Rann of Kutch and its surrounding areas of the Great Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat province of India.
● Habitat- Saline deserts (rann ), arid grasslands and shrublands.
● Near Threatened (NT) on the IUCN Red List.
● Protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, India.
● Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
SLOTH BEAR
● It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and occurs in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Sri Lanka.
● It is unique among the bear species in being adapted to ‘myrmecophagy’, i.e to eating ants and termites, which form a large proportion of its diet.
● Sloth bear mothers carry their cubs up trees as the primary defense against attacks by predators instead of sending them up trees. The cubs can be threatened by predators such as tigers, leopards, and other bears.
● It is a good swimmer, and primarily enters water to play.
● IUCN Status- Vulnerable
NILGIRI TAHR
● It is the only mountain ungulate in southern India amongst the 12 species present in India.
● It is also the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
● The Nilgiri tahr, which used to be found along the entire stretch of Western Ghats, is presently found only in small fragmented pockets.
● Conservation status- ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
● Protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972.Incorrect
Answer. C
Explanation- Options 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 contains the list of those endangered species which need rigorous protection; thus, they are prohibited from hunting, killing, trading or harming them in any way unless they pose a threat to the human life. Some of the important species listed as Schedule 1 species under the Wildlife (Protection) Act are as follows-
● Indian wild ass
● Sloth bear
● Nilgiri Tahr
● Tiger
● Asiatic wild dog (Dhole)
● Himalayan serow
● Asiatic lion
● Caracal
● Snow leopard etc,.More info about all the three species given as options-
INDIAN WILD ASS
● Its range once extended from western India, southern Pakistan, i.e. provinces of Sindh and Baluchistan, Afghanistan, and south-eastern Iran.
● Today, its last refuge lies in the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, Little Rann of Kutch and its surrounding areas of the Great Rann of Kutch in the Gujarat province of India.
● Habitat- Saline deserts (rann ), arid grasslands and shrublands.
● Near Threatened (NT) on the IUCN Red List.
● Protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, India.
● Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)
SLOTH BEAR
● It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and occurs in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Sri Lanka.
● It is unique among the bear species in being adapted to ‘myrmecophagy’, i.e to eating ants and termites, which form a large proportion of its diet.
● Sloth bear mothers carry their cubs up trees as the primary defense against attacks by predators instead of sending them up trees. The cubs can be threatened by predators such as tigers, leopards, and other bears.
● It is a good swimmer, and primarily enters water to play.
● IUCN Status- Vulnerable
NILGIRI TAHR
● It is the only mountain ungulate in southern India amongst the 12 species present in India.
● It is also the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
● The Nilgiri tahr, which used to be found along the entire stretch of Western Ghats, is presently found only in small fragmented pockets.
● Conservation status- ‘Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
● Protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Consider the following:
1. Cauvery river delta
2. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
3. Lakshadweep Islands
4. Gulf of Khambhat
How many of the above sites support the growth of mangroves in India?Correct
Answer. D
Explanation- Mangroves are plants that grow in inter-tidal areas and are halophytes (‘salt-loving’). They live in a unique environment between land and sea, representing a characteristic littoral (near the seashore) forest ecosystem. These are mostly evergreen forests that grow in sheltered low-lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks backwaters (coastal waters held back on land), marshes, and lagoons of tropical and subtropical regions.
As per the India State of Forest Report, 2021, the mangrove cover in the country has been estimated at 4992 sq km with net increment of 17 sq.km in the year 2021 as compared to 2019. Mangroves in India are 3 percent of its total geographical area. The following sites in India are renowned for mangroves in the country:
● Andaman & Nicobar Islands
● Lakshadweep islands (Minicoy island)
● Sundarbans delta
● Krishna-Cauvery-Mahanadi deltas
● Godavari delta
● Gulf of Khambhat (Gujarat)
● Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat)
● Pichavaram (Tamil Nadu)
● Ratnagiri and Malvan (Maharashtra)
● Vembanad (Kerala) etc,.
Sundarbans in West Bengal accounts for almost half of the total area under mangroves in India.Incorrect
Answer. D
Explanation- Mangroves are plants that grow in inter-tidal areas and are halophytes (‘salt-loving’). They live in a unique environment between land and sea, representing a characteristic littoral (near the seashore) forest ecosystem. These are mostly evergreen forests that grow in sheltered low-lying coasts, estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks backwaters (coastal waters held back on land), marshes, and lagoons of tropical and subtropical regions.
As per the India State of Forest Report, 2021, the mangrove cover in the country has been estimated at 4992 sq km with net increment of 17 sq.km in the year 2021 as compared to 2019. Mangroves in India are 3 percent of its total geographical area. The following sites in India are renowned for mangroves in the country:
● Andaman & Nicobar Islands
● Lakshadweep islands (Minicoy island)
● Sundarbans delta
● Krishna-Cauvery-Mahanadi deltas
● Godavari delta
● Gulf of Khambhat (Gujarat)
● Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat)
● Pichavaram (Tamil Nadu)
● Ratnagiri and Malvan (Maharashtra)
● Vembanad (Kerala) etc,.
Sundarbans in West Bengal accounts for almost half of the total area under mangroves in India. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
In the context of ecological succession, consider the following statements:
1. The first species to colonise a barren land are called ‘seres’.
2. Lichens and mosses are examples of seral species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer. D
Explanation- Ecological Succession is a general, directional process which refers to the gradual change in condition of environment and the replacement of older species with newer ones.
Statement 1 is incorrect- The first species to colonise an undisturbed or new area are called ‘pioneer’ species. The final stage of succession is marked by the climax community which is more stable and complex. The stage leading to the climax community are called successional stages or ‘seres’.
Statement 2 is incorrect- Lichens and mosses are examples of pioneer species in primary succession since they have the ability to break down minerals to form soil and subsequently develop organic matter. Once pioneer species colonize the area and start to build soil, other species like grasses begin to move in. The complexity of the new community increases as more new species, including small shrubs and eventually trees, arrive.
Additional information-
Primary succession is characterised as initial stage of development of an ecosystem which begins with the creation of a community on such a location which was previously unoccupied by living organism. E.g., Formation of certain type of forests of dried lava.
Secondary succession is characterised as a stage of re-establishment of an ecosystem which existed earlier but was destroyed due to some natural calamities like fire, flood, etc. Such re-establishment occurs due to the presence of seeds and organic matter of biological community in soil. E.g., Vegetation grows once again which was destroyed due to flood.Incorrect
Answer. D
Explanation- Ecological Succession is a general, directional process which refers to the gradual change in condition of environment and the replacement of older species with newer ones.
Statement 1 is incorrect- The first species to colonise an undisturbed or new area are called ‘pioneer’ species. The final stage of succession is marked by the climax community which is more stable and complex. The stage leading to the climax community are called successional stages or ‘seres’.
Statement 2 is incorrect- Lichens and mosses are examples of pioneer species in primary succession since they have the ability to break down minerals to form soil and subsequently develop organic matter. Once pioneer species colonize the area and start to build soil, other species like grasses begin to move in. The complexity of the new community increases as more new species, including small shrubs and eventually trees, arrive.
Additional information-
Primary succession is characterised as initial stage of development of an ecosystem which begins with the creation of a community on such a location which was previously unoccupied by living organism. E.g., Formation of certain type of forests of dried lava.
Secondary succession is characterised as a stage of re-establishment of an ecosystem which existed earlier but was destroyed due to some natural calamities like fire, flood, etc. Such re-establishment occurs due to the presence of seeds and organic matter of biological community in soil. E.g., Vegetation grows once again which was destroyed due to flood. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the Botanical Survey in India?
Correct
Answer. A
Explanation-
Statement A is incorrect- The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) was established in 1890 with the objectives of exploring the plant resources of the country and identifying plant species with economic virtue. In 1954, the Government reorganised the BSI with the objectives of:
(1) undertaking intensive floristic surveys and collecting accurate and detailed information on the occurrence, distribution, ecology and economic utility of plants in the country;
(2) collecting, identifying and distributing materials that may be of use to educational and research institutions; and
(3) acting as the custodian of authentic collections in well planned herbaria and documenting plant resources in the form of local, district, state and national flora.
Statements B, C and D are correct- The BSI functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change as has the following mandate:
● Exploration, inventorization and documentation of phytodiversity (including non-flowering plants) in India; publication of National, State and District Floras.
● Identification of Red list species and species rich areas needing conservation; ex situ conservation of critically threatened texa in botanical gardens.
● Survey and documentation of traditional knowledge (ethnobotany) associated with plants.
● Develop National database of Indian plants, including herbarium specimens, live specimens, botanical paintings, illustrations etc.
● Revisionary/Monographic studies on selected plant groups.
● Capacity building in plant taxonomy through refresher courses and post M.Sc. certificate course.
● Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) of areas assigned to BSI for study.
● Develop and maintain Botanical Gardens, Museum and Herbaria.
● Preparation of Seed, Pollen and Spore Atlas of Indian Plants.Incorrect
Answer. A
Explanation-
Statement A is incorrect- The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) was established in 1890 with the objectives of exploring the plant resources of the country and identifying plant species with economic virtue. In 1954, the Government reorganised the BSI with the objectives of:
(1) undertaking intensive floristic surveys and collecting accurate and detailed information on the occurrence, distribution, ecology and economic utility of plants in the country;
(2) collecting, identifying and distributing materials that may be of use to educational and research institutions; and
(3) acting as the custodian of authentic collections in well planned herbaria and documenting plant resources in the form of local, district, state and national flora.
Statements B, C and D are correct- The BSI functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change as has the following mandate:
● Exploration, inventorization and documentation of phytodiversity (including non-flowering plants) in India; publication of National, State and District Floras.
● Identification of Red list species and species rich areas needing conservation; ex situ conservation of critically threatened texa in botanical gardens.
● Survey and documentation of traditional knowledge (ethnobotany) associated with plants.
● Develop National database of Indian plants, including herbarium specimens, live specimens, botanical paintings, illustrations etc.
● Revisionary/Monographic studies on selected plant groups.
● Capacity building in plant taxonomy through refresher courses and post M.Sc. certificate course.
● Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) of areas assigned to BSI for study.
● Develop and maintain Botanical Gardens, Museum and Herbaria.
● Preparation of Seed, Pollen and Spore Atlas of Indian Plants. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Alpha diversity refers to the diversity of species found in a particular area or ecosystem.
2. Beta diversity implies the overall diversity for the different ecosystems in a region.
3. Gamma diversity compares the diversity of species between two or more ecosystems.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Answer. A
Explanation- The two primary components that can be used to measure biodiversity are species richness and species evenness. R.H Whittaker was the first person to measure biodiversity.
Statement 1 is correct- Alpha diversity refers to the diversity of species found in a particular area or ecosystem, and is usually expressed by the number of species in that ecosystem.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect- Beta diversity refers to the comparison of the diversity of species between two or more ecosystems, usually measured as the change in the number of species between the ecosystems. Gamma diversity is the measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems in a region. It is highly subjective because of different perceptions about the boundaries of the region.Incorrect
Answer. A
Explanation- The two primary components that can be used to measure biodiversity are species richness and species evenness. R.H Whittaker was the first person to measure biodiversity.
Statement 1 is correct- Alpha diversity refers to the diversity of species found in a particular area or ecosystem, and is usually expressed by the number of species in that ecosystem.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect- Beta diversity refers to the comparison of the diversity of species between two or more ecosystems, usually measured as the change in the number of species between the ecosystems. Gamma diversity is the measure of the overall diversity for the different ecosystems in a region. It is highly subjective because of different perceptions about the boundaries of the region. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Montreux record’:
Statement I: Chilika lake and Loktak lake are the only entries from India in the Montreux Record.
Statement II: Montreux Record highlights the deteriorating status of wetlands due to pollution or technological developments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Correct
Answer. D
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- Montreux Record Sites in India:
● Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan (listed in 1990 because of management problems associated with water shortage and an unbalanced grazing regime)
● Loktak Lake, Manipur (listed in 1993 because of problems caused by deforestation in the catchment area, infestation of water hyacinth and pollution).
Chilika Lake (Odisha) was listed in Montreux Record in 1993 because of problems caused by shrinkage, siltation and sedimentation; choking of the mouth, decrease in bird migration and fishery potential, weed infestation and pollution. However, it was removed from the list following extensive rehabilitation in 2002.
Statement 2 is correct- The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar list.Incorrect
Answer. D
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- Montreux Record Sites in India:
● Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan (listed in 1990 because of management problems associated with water shortage and an unbalanced grazing regime)
● Loktak Lake, Manipur (listed in 1993 because of problems caused by deforestation in the catchment area, infestation of water hyacinth and pollution).
Chilika Lake (Odisha) was listed in Montreux Record in 1993 because of problems caused by shrinkage, siltation and sedimentation; choking of the mouth, decrease in bird migration and fishery potential, weed infestation and pollution. However, it was removed from the list following extensive rehabilitation in 2002.
Statement 2 is correct- The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar list. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
In the context of National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body established in 2003.
2. It advises the state governments in the selection of heritage sites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer. C
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established by the Central Government in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA is a statutory body and it performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
The NBA has its headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2 is correct- The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates implementation of the provisions of the Act through decentralized system with the NBA focusing on advising the Central Government on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of biological resources; and advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified under Sub-Section (1) of Section 37 as heritage sites and measures for the management of such heritage sites.
● All matters relating to requests by foreign individuals, companies or institutions and all matters relating to transfer of results of research to any foreigner, approvals for intellectual property protection where biological resources and associated knowledge are involved will be dealt with by NBA.
● All matters relating to access by Indians for commercial purposes will be under the purview of the concerned State Biodiversity Boards. However, the benefit sharing guidelines are to be issued by the NBA.Incorrect
Answer. C
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established by the Central Government in 2003 to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA is a statutory body and it performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the use of biological resources.
The NBA has its headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2 is correct- The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates implementation of the provisions of the Act through decentralized system with the NBA focusing on advising the Central Government on matters relating to the conservation of biodiversity, sustainable use of its components and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of biological resources; and advising the State Governments in the selection of areas of biodiversity importance to be notified under Sub-Section (1) of Section 37 as heritage sites and measures for the management of such heritage sites.
● All matters relating to requests by foreign individuals, companies or institutions and all matters relating to transfer of results of research to any foreigner, approvals for intellectual property protection where biological resources and associated knowledge are involved will be dealt with by NBA.
● All matters relating to access by Indians for commercial purposes will be under the purview of the concerned State Biodiversity Boards. However, the benefit sharing guidelines are to be issued by the NBA. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Identify the animal based on the description given below:
‘This mammal is poached for its highly-valued underfur used to make luxury shawls. It is native to India and China but is considered to be extinct in Nepal now. It is well-adapted to survive in Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir in India. It is listed under Appendix I of the CITES.’
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Answer. A
Explanation-
Chiru or Tibetan antelope is a mammal species. It is a medium-sized bovid native to the northeastern Tibetan plateau. Most of the population live within the Chinese border, while some scatter across India and Bhutan.
They are hunted for their extremely soft, light and warm underfur which is usually obtained after death. This underfur, known as shahtoosh (a Persian word meaning “king of fine wools”), is used to weave luxury shawls.
Habitat- Tibetan antelopes inhabit open alpine, montane valleys and cold steppe environments. They prefer flat, open terrain, with sparse vegetation cover.
Behaviour- Tibetan antelopes are gregarious, sometimes congregating in herds that may include hundreds of individuals when moving between summer and winter pastures. Tibetan antelopes usually graze in the morning and evening and rest during the day. In winter, they often dig through the snow to obtain their food.
Diet and nutrition- Tibetan antelopes are herbivores. They feed on forbs, grasses, herbs, shrubland, and sedges. They are also an important food source for local predators such as wolves, lynx, and snow leopards.
Reproduction- Tibetan antelopes are polygynous meaning that one male mates with several females. Females give birth to a single calf in June or July, after a gestation period of about 6 months. The calves are precocial; they are born fully developed and are able to stand within 15 minutes of birth.
Conservation status- Near Threatened as per the IUCN’s Red List; Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and Appendix 1 of CITES.Incorrect
Answer. A
Explanation-
Chiru or Tibetan antelope is a mammal species. It is a medium-sized bovid native to the northeastern Tibetan plateau. Most of the population live within the Chinese border, while some scatter across India and Bhutan.
They are hunted for their extremely soft, light and warm underfur which is usually obtained after death. This underfur, known as shahtoosh (a Persian word meaning “king of fine wools”), is used to weave luxury shawls.
Habitat- Tibetan antelopes inhabit open alpine, montane valleys and cold steppe environments. They prefer flat, open terrain, with sparse vegetation cover.
Behaviour- Tibetan antelopes are gregarious, sometimes congregating in herds that may include hundreds of individuals when moving between summer and winter pastures. Tibetan antelopes usually graze in the morning and evening and rest during the day. In winter, they often dig through the snow to obtain their food.
Diet and nutrition- Tibetan antelopes are herbivores. They feed on forbs, grasses, herbs, shrubland, and sedges. They are also an important food source for local predators such as wolves, lynx, and snow leopards.
Reproduction- Tibetan antelopes are polygynous meaning that one male mates with several females. Females give birth to a single calf in June or July, after a gestation period of about 6 months. The calves are precocial; they are born fully developed and are able to stand within 15 minutes of birth.
Conservation status- Near Threatened as per the IUCN’s Red List; Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and Appendix 1 of CITES. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN Red List:
1. It was first published in the year 1964.
2. It is the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global conservation status of animal and plant species only.
3. A species is considered ‘Near Threatened’ when it is vulnerable but does not qualify for its categorisation into ‘Endangered’ or ‘Critically Endangered’.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer. A
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect- Established in 1964, The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global conservation status of animal, fungi and plant species.
The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity. It provides information about range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.
Statement 3 is incorrect- A taxon is listed as ‘Near Threatened’ when it has been evaluated against the criteria but does not qualify for Critically Endangered, Endangered or Vulnerable now, but is close to qualifying for or is likely for a threatened category in the near future.
● A taxon is Critically Endangered when the best available evidence indicates that it meets the set criteria and therefore, is facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
● A taxon is Extinct in the Wild when it is known only to survive in cultivation, in captivity or as a naturalized population well outside the past range.
● A taxon is Endangered when the best available evidence indicates that it meets the set criteria and therefore, is facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild.
● A taxon is Vulnerable when the best available evidence indicates that it meets the set criteria and therefore, is facing a high risk of extinction in the wild.
Note that the degree of risk facing a taxon governs its classification into different categories of threatened species by the IUCN.
Additional information about the IUCN:
● Created in 1948, International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has evolved into the world’s largest and most diverse environmental network.
● Its members include expert and influential government, non-government and Indigenous Peoples’ Organisations from over 160 countries.Incorrect
Answer. A
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect- Established in 1964, The International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global conservation status of animal, fungi and plant species.
The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity. It provides information about range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade, threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.
Statement 3 is incorrect- A taxon is listed as ‘Near Threatened’ when it has been evaluated against the criteria but does not qualify for Critically Endangered, Endangered or Vulnerable now, but is close to qualifying for or is likely for a threatened category in the near future.
● A taxon is Critically Endangered when the best available evidence indicates that it meets the set criteria and therefore, is facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
● A taxon is Extinct in the Wild when it is known only to survive in cultivation, in captivity or as a naturalized population well outside the past range.
● A taxon is Endangered when the best available evidence indicates that it meets the set criteria and therefore, is facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild.
● A taxon is Vulnerable when the best available evidence indicates that it meets the set criteria and therefore, is facing a high risk of extinction in the wild.
Note that the degree of risk facing a taxon governs its classification into different categories of threatened species by the IUCN.
Additional information about the IUCN:
● Created in 1948, International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has evolved into the world’s largest and most diverse environmental network.
● Its members include expert and influential government, non-government and Indigenous Peoples’ Organisations from over 160 countries. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ):
1. They are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. They are notified by the Central government.
3. They ensure protection to those areas falling outside the protected areas but act as buffer zones to those protected areas.
How many of the statements given above are correct?Correct
Answer. B
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct- Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ) are notified by the Central Government through the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986.
● The establishment of industries, the use of commercial timber, mining, and tourism are prohibited in these Zones.
● Additionally, it is completely forbidden to produce dangerous substances, release solid or liquid waste, or engage in any activity that results in pollution of any type.
Statement 3 is correct- The Environmental Protection Act of 1986 requires state governments to designate land within 10 kilometers of the borders of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs).
Procedure for Declaring Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ):
● A Committee is made of wildlife experts, ecologists, revenue department officials, and officials from local administration to study the activities happening around protected areas.
● This committee prepares an audit report based on the study of land use patterns, different types of activities, and industrial operations around protected areas and wildlife corridors.
● Chief Wildlife Warden then categorizes the activities under prohibited, restricted, or permissible categories.
● The final proposals of the committee are sent to the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate change for further consideration, processing, and issuing notification for implementation.
● Finally, the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate change declares Ecologically Sensitive Zones.Incorrect
Answer. B
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct- Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ) are notified by the Central Government through the Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change under the Environment (Protection) Act 1986.
● The establishment of industries, the use of commercial timber, mining, and tourism are prohibited in these Zones.
● Additionally, it is completely forbidden to produce dangerous substances, release solid or liquid waste, or engage in any activity that results in pollution of any type.
Statement 3 is correct- The Environmental Protection Act of 1986 requires state governments to designate land within 10 kilometers of the borders of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs).
Procedure for Declaring Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ):
● A Committee is made of wildlife experts, ecologists, revenue department officials, and officials from local administration to study the activities happening around protected areas.
● This committee prepares an audit report based on the study of land use patterns, different types of activities, and industrial operations around protected areas and wildlife corridors.
● Chief Wildlife Warden then categorizes the activities under prohibited, restricted, or permissible categories.
● The final proposals of the committee are sent to the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate change for further consideration, processing, and issuing notification for implementation.
● Finally, the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate change declares Ecologically Sensitive Zones. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
‘Global E-waste Monitor’, sometimes seen in the news, is published by which one of the following organisations?
Correct
Answer. B
Explanation- The Global E-waste Monitor is a collaborative effort between the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), the Sustainable Cycles (SCYCLE) Programme currently co-hosted by the United Nations University (UNU) and the United Nations Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR), and the International Solid Waste Association (ISWA).
Toxic and hazardous substances such as mercury, brominated flame-retardants (BFR) or chloroflurocarbons (CFCs) are found in many types of electronic equipment and pose severe risk to human health and the environment if not handled in an environmentally sound manner. In 2018, the highest policy-making body of the ITU, the Plenipotentiary Conference, established a target to increase the global e-waste recycling rate to 30 per cent by 2023.
Additional Information: Regulation of E-waste in India
● The first set of e-waste Rules was notified in 2011 and came into effect in 2012. An important component of the Rules (2011) was the introduction of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR). Under EPR compliance, ‘producers’ are responsible for the safe disposal of electronic and electric products once the consumer discards them.
● E-waste Rules 2016, which were amended in 2018, were comprehensive and included provisions to promote ‘authorisation’ and ‘product stewardship’. Other categories of stakeholders such ‘Producer Responsibility Organisations (PRO) were also introduced in these rules.Incorrect
Answer. B
Explanation- The Global E-waste Monitor is a collaborative effort between the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), the Sustainable Cycles (SCYCLE) Programme currently co-hosted by the United Nations University (UNU) and the United Nations Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR), and the International Solid Waste Association (ISWA).
Toxic and hazardous substances such as mercury, brominated flame-retardants (BFR) or chloroflurocarbons (CFCs) are found in many types of electronic equipment and pose severe risk to human health and the environment if not handled in an environmentally sound manner. In 2018, the highest policy-making body of the ITU, the Plenipotentiary Conference, established a target to increase the global e-waste recycling rate to 30 per cent by 2023.
Additional Information: Regulation of E-waste in India
● The first set of e-waste Rules was notified in 2011 and came into effect in 2012. An important component of the Rules (2011) was the introduction of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR). Under EPR compliance, ‘producers’ are responsible for the safe disposal of electronic and electric products once the consumer discards them.
● E-waste Rules 2016, which were amended in 2018, were comprehensive and included provisions to promote ‘authorisation’ and ‘product stewardship’. Other categories of stakeholders such ‘Producer Responsibility Organisations (PRO) were also introduced in these rules. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Consider the following:
1. Explosives
2. Plastics
3. Sanitary products
4. Antiseptics
In the making of how many of the above are formaldehyde used?Correct
Answer. D
Explanation- Formaldehyde is a colorless, flammable gas at room temperature and has a strong odour. Exposure to formaldehyde may cause adverse health effects. Formaldehyde can cause irritation of the skin, eyes, nose, and throat. High levels of exposure may cause some types of cancers.
Formaldehyde is found in:
● Resins used in the manufacture of composite wood products (i.e., hardwood plywood, particleboard and medium-density fiber board);
● Building materials and insulation;
● Household products such as glues, permanent press fabrics, paints and coatings, lacquers and finishes, and paper products;
● Preservatives used in some medicines, cosmetics and other consumer products such as dishwashing liquids and fabric softeners; and
● Fertilizers and pesticides
● Car manufacturing
● Explosives
● Plastics
● Sanitary products like paper towels, napkins and tissues
● Disinfectant in industries
It is a byproduct of combustion and certain other natural processes, and so is also found in:
● Emissions from un-vented, fuel burning appliances, like gas stoves or kerosene space heaters; and
● Cigarette smoke.
Additional Information- Why in News?
The US drug regulator has decided to impose a ban on formaldehyde and other formaldehyde-releasing chemicals like methylene glycol in straightening products. The chemical hair straighteners release human carcinogens and can cause “long-term adverse health effects.”Incorrect
Answer. D
Explanation- Formaldehyde is a colorless, flammable gas at room temperature and has a strong odour. Exposure to formaldehyde may cause adverse health effects. Formaldehyde can cause irritation of the skin, eyes, nose, and throat. High levels of exposure may cause some types of cancers.
Formaldehyde is found in:
● Resins used in the manufacture of composite wood products (i.e., hardwood plywood, particleboard and medium-density fiber board);
● Building materials and insulation;
● Household products such as glues, permanent press fabrics, paints and coatings, lacquers and finishes, and paper products;
● Preservatives used in some medicines, cosmetics and other consumer products such as dishwashing liquids and fabric softeners; and
● Fertilizers and pesticides
● Car manufacturing
● Explosives
● Plastics
● Sanitary products like paper towels, napkins and tissues
● Disinfectant in industries
It is a byproduct of combustion and certain other natural processes, and so is also found in:
● Emissions from un-vented, fuel burning appliances, like gas stoves or kerosene space heaters; and
● Cigarette smoke.
Additional Information- Why in News?
The US drug regulator has decided to impose a ban on formaldehyde and other formaldehyde-releasing chemicals like methylene glycol in straightening products. The chemical hair straighteners release human carcinogens and can cause “long-term adverse health effects.” -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Consider the following:
1. Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Rajaji National Park
3. Corbett National Park
4. Sukhla Phanta Wildlife Sanctuary
How many of the above protected areas are part of the Terai Arc Landscape?Correct
Answer. D
Explanation- The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) is an 810 km stretch between the river Yamuna in the west and the river Bhagmati in the east, comprising the Shivalik hills, the adjoining bhabhar areas and the Terai flood plains.
It is spread across the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, and the low lying hills of Nepal. The landscape boasts of some of India’s most well-known Tiger Reserves and Protected Areas such a:
● Corbett Tiger Reserve (Uttarakhand),
● Rajaji National Park (Uttarakhand),
● Dudhwa Tiger Reserve (Uttar Pradesh),
● Valmiki Tiger Reserve (Bihar),
● Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttarkhand);
● Nepal’s Bardia Wildlife Sanctuary, Chitwan National Park, and Sukhla Phanta Wildlife Sanctuary.
These forests are home to three flagship species, the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris), the greater one horned rhino (Rhinoceros unicornis) and the Asian elephant (Elephas maximus). Apart from these, there are several other species of cats such as the rusty spotted cat, fishing cat, jungle cat, leopard and leopard cat, as well as antelopes and deer such as the four horned antelope, sambar, chital, hog deer and barking deer.Incorrect
Answer. D
Explanation- The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) is an 810 km stretch between the river Yamuna in the west and the river Bhagmati in the east, comprising the Shivalik hills, the adjoining bhabhar areas and the Terai flood plains.
It is spread across the Indian states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, and the low lying hills of Nepal. The landscape boasts of some of India’s most well-known Tiger Reserves and Protected Areas such a:
● Corbett Tiger Reserve (Uttarakhand),
● Rajaji National Park (Uttarakhand),
● Dudhwa Tiger Reserve (Uttar Pradesh),
● Valmiki Tiger Reserve (Bihar),
● Nandhaur Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttarkhand);
● Nepal’s Bardia Wildlife Sanctuary, Chitwan National Park, and Sukhla Phanta Wildlife Sanctuary.
These forests are home to three flagship species, the Bengal tiger (Panthera tigris), the greater one horned rhino (Rhinoceros unicornis) and the Asian elephant (Elephas maximus). Apart from these, there are several other species of cats such as the rusty spotted cat, fishing cat, jungle cat, leopard and leopard cat, as well as antelopes and deer such as the four horned antelope, sambar, chital, hog deer and barking deer. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Eutrophic lakes are rich in nutrients like Nitrogen and Potassium.
2. Oligotrophic lakes are rich in oxygen but have low primary productivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer. B
Explanation- Both natural and human-made factors might influence the trophic state of a water body. If the lake is located in a region that has a high level of nutrients, the lake will naturally be in the eutrophic state. Sewage entering the lake intentionally or accidentally, agricultural run-offs from crop-fields, or fertilizers leached into the waters are the different ways in which nutrients are added to a water body due to human activities.
Statement 1 is incorrect- Lakes that are eutrophic in nature have high levels of biological productivity. An abundance of plants is supported by such lakes due to the rich nutrient constitution, especially nitrogen and phosphorus. Initially, eutrophic lakes accelerate multiplication and growth of lake fauna due to the high levels of oxygen provided by a large number of plants growing in the lake. However, when things cross limits and plants or algal blooms overcrowd the lake, the lake fauna suffers due to the high levels of respiration by the living vegetative matter.
Hypereutrophic lakes also have more than 100 micrograms/litre of phosphorus and more than 40 micrograms/litre of total chlorophyll. The overgrowth of algae often suffocates the fauna below the water depths and this might create dead zones beneath the water surface.
Statement 2 is correct- An oligotrophic lake or water body is one which has a relatively low productivity due to the low nutrient content in the lake. The waters of these lakes are usually quite clear due to the limited growth of algae in the lake. Such lakes support aquatic species who require well-oxygenated, cold waters such as lake trout. Oligotrophic lakes are usually found in the cold regions of the world where mixing of nutrients is rare and slow due to the low temperatures of the lake waters.
Lakes with an intermediate level of productivity are called mesotrophic lakes. These lakes have medium-level nutrients and are usually clear water with submerged aquatic plants.Incorrect
Answer. B
Explanation- Both natural and human-made factors might influence the trophic state of a water body. If the lake is located in a region that has a high level of nutrients, the lake will naturally be in the eutrophic state. Sewage entering the lake intentionally or accidentally, agricultural run-offs from crop-fields, or fertilizers leached into the waters are the different ways in which nutrients are added to a water body due to human activities.
Statement 1 is incorrect- Lakes that are eutrophic in nature have high levels of biological productivity. An abundance of plants is supported by such lakes due to the rich nutrient constitution, especially nitrogen and phosphorus. Initially, eutrophic lakes accelerate multiplication and growth of lake fauna due to the high levels of oxygen provided by a large number of plants growing in the lake. However, when things cross limits and plants or algal blooms overcrowd the lake, the lake fauna suffers due to the high levels of respiration by the living vegetative matter.
Hypereutrophic lakes also have more than 100 micrograms/litre of phosphorus and more than 40 micrograms/litre of total chlorophyll. The overgrowth of algae often suffocates the fauna below the water depths and this might create dead zones beneath the water surface.
Statement 2 is correct- An oligotrophic lake or water body is one which has a relatively low productivity due to the low nutrient content in the lake. The waters of these lakes are usually quite clear due to the limited growth of algae in the lake. Such lakes support aquatic species who require well-oxygenated, cold waters such as lake trout. Oligotrophic lakes are usually found in the cold regions of the world where mixing of nutrients is rare and slow due to the low temperatures of the lake waters.
Lakes with an intermediate level of productivity are called mesotrophic lakes. These lakes have medium-level nutrients and are usually clear water with submerged aquatic plants.
