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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Rays – Definition
1. Alpha rays – Fast moving electrons
2. Beta rays – Doubly ionised helium atom
3. Gamma rays – Electromagnetic radiation
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation
Radiation is energy given off by matter in the form of rays or high-speed particles. All matter is composed of atoms. Atoms are made up of various parts; the nucleus contains minute particles called protons and neutrons, and the atom’s outer shell contains other particles called electrons. The nucleus carries a positive electrical charge, while the electrons carry a negative electrical charge. These forces within the atom work toward a strong, stable balance by getting rid of excess atomic energy (radioactivity). In that process, unstable nuclei may emit a quantity of energy, and this spontaneous emission is what we call radiation. There are four types of radiation given off by radioactive atoms:
A. Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Gamma rays
D. Neutrons
• Pair 1 is INCORRECT: Alpha or α-rays consist of α-particles, which are doubly ionised helium ion. Alpha rays are the positively charged particles. These particles have the minimum penetration power and highest ionization power. They can cause serious damage if they get into the body due to their high ionization power. They are capable of ionizing numerous atoms by a short distance. Ionisation means knocking off electron to make the stable atom reactive in form of ions.
• Pair 2 is INCORRECT: Beta or β-rays consist of fast moving electrons. They bear negligible mass and carry the negative charge. Beta particles have a higher penetration power when compared to alpha particles and can travel through the skin with ease. Beta particles can be dangerous and any contact with the body must be avoided, though their ionization power is low.
• Pair 3 is CORRECT: Gamma or γ- rays are electromagnetic rays. These waves arise from the high-frequency end of the electromagnetic spectrum. They hold the highest power of penetration. They are the most penetrating but least ionizing and very difficult to resist them from entering the body. The Gamma rays carry a large amount of energy and can also travel via thick concrete and thin lead.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation
Radiation is energy given off by matter in the form of rays or high-speed particles. All matter is composed of atoms. Atoms are made up of various parts; the nucleus contains minute particles called protons and neutrons, and the atom’s outer shell contains other particles called electrons. The nucleus carries a positive electrical charge, while the electrons carry a negative electrical charge. These forces within the atom work toward a strong, stable balance by getting rid of excess atomic energy (radioactivity). In that process, unstable nuclei may emit a quantity of energy, and this spontaneous emission is what we call radiation. There are four types of radiation given off by radioactive atoms:
A. Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Gamma rays
D. Neutrons
• Pair 1 is INCORRECT: Alpha or α-rays consist of α-particles, which are doubly ionised helium ion. Alpha rays are the positively charged particles. These particles have the minimum penetration power and highest ionization power. They can cause serious damage if they get into the body due to their high ionization power. They are capable of ionizing numerous atoms by a short distance. Ionisation means knocking off electron to make the stable atom reactive in form of ions.
• Pair 2 is INCORRECT: Beta or β-rays consist of fast moving electrons. They bear negligible mass and carry the negative charge. Beta particles have a higher penetration power when compared to alpha particles and can travel through the skin with ease. Beta particles can be dangerous and any contact with the body must be avoided, though their ionization power is low.
• Pair 3 is CORRECT: Gamma or γ- rays are electromagnetic rays. These waves arise from the high-frequency end of the electromagnetic spectrum. They hold the highest power of penetration. They are the most penetrating but least ionizing and very difficult to resist them from entering the body. The Gamma rays carry a large amount of energy and can also travel via thick concrete and thin lead. -
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
With reference to the nuclear energy, consider the following statements
1. Fission energy is also known as thermonuclear energy.
2. Nuclear fusion releases more energy per unit mass than nuclear fission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation
Nuclear energy is the energy that is obtained from the nucleus of a radioactive nucleus. The materials which are radioactive in nature keep on disintegrating by emission of certain types of radiations. There are broadly two types of nuclear processes- nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. The process of nuclear fission involves splitting of heavier radioactive nucleus of an atom into lighter nuclei. It is used to generate electricity and for destructive purposes in the form of atomic bombs. Nuclear fusion involves two or more lighter nuclei come together to form a heavy nucleus with emission of a large amount of energy.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Nuclear Fusion energy is known as thermonuclear energy. This is because it requires extremely high temperature (in millions of degrees Celsius) to start the fusion process. Fusion energy is the main source of energy in stars. The International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor or ITER is an international nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject aimed at creating energy through a fusion process similar to that of the Sun.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Nuclear fusion produces more energy than nuclear fission. The reason for this is that in nuclear fusion, lighter elements like hydrogen are involved whereas in nuclear fission, heavier elements like uranium are involved. So, if compared on per unit mass basis nuclear fusion releases far more energy than nuclear fusion.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation
Nuclear energy is the energy that is obtained from the nucleus of a radioactive nucleus. The materials which are radioactive in nature keep on disintegrating by emission of certain types of radiations. There are broadly two types of nuclear processes- nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. The process of nuclear fission involves splitting of heavier radioactive nucleus of an atom into lighter nuclei. It is used to generate electricity and for destructive purposes in the form of atomic bombs. Nuclear fusion involves two or more lighter nuclei come together to form a heavy nucleus with emission of a large amount of energy.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Nuclear Fusion energy is known as thermonuclear energy. This is because it requires extremely high temperature (in millions of degrees Celsius) to start the fusion process. Fusion energy is the main source of energy in stars. The International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor or ITER is an international nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject aimed at creating energy through a fusion process similar to that of the Sun.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Nuclear fusion produces more energy than nuclear fission. The reason for this is that in nuclear fusion, lighter elements like hydrogen are involved whereas in nuclear fission, heavier elements like uranium are involved. So, if compared on per unit mass basis nuclear fusion releases far more energy than nuclear fusion. -
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
With reference to the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), consider the following statements:
1. It generally consists of 3 stages namely – Solid stage, liquid stage and upper cryogenic stage.
2. It is used to place remote sensing satellites into the Sun Synchronous Orbit.
3. PSLV launches have never failed since its inception in 1993.
How many of the above statements are correct?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The PSLV has four stages, using solid and liquid propulsion systems alternately. GSLV Mark II rockets use the upper cryogenic stage.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: PSLV rockets are used for placing remote sensing satellites into Sun Synchronous Orbit. A Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) is a particular kind of polar orbit. Satellites in SSO, travelling over the Polar Regions, are synchronous with the Sun. This means they are synchronised to always be in the same ‘fixed’ position relative to the Sun. So, PSLV rockets are used for this.
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: As of July 30, 2023, there have been 59 launches by the PSLV. 56 launches have been successful so far. Incidentally, the 1st launch by PSLV rocket in 1993 was a failure.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The PSLV has four stages, using solid and liquid propulsion systems alternately. GSLV Mark II rockets use the upper cryogenic stage.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: PSLV rockets are used for placing remote sensing satellites into Sun Synchronous Orbit. A Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) is a particular kind of polar orbit. Satellites in SSO, travelling over the Polar Regions, are synchronous with the Sun. This means they are synchronised to always be in the same ‘fixed’ position relative to the Sun. So, PSLV rockets are used for this.
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: As of July 30, 2023, there have been 59 launches by the PSLV. 56 launches have been successful so far. Incidentally, the 1st launch by PSLV rocket in 1993 was a failure. -
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
With reference to Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:
1. All the satellites have been located in the geostationary orbit.
2. The Global Positioning System (GPS) uses single band whereas IRNSS uses dual band.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), or NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system of India that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services. It covers India and a region extending 1,500 km (930 mi) around it. However, there are plans to extend the geographical area of operation. NavIC-based tracking system is compulsory on commercial vehicles in India. Also, some consumer mobile phones with support for it have been available since the first half of 2020.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The constellation consists of 7 satellites. Three of the seven satellites are located in geostationary orbit (GEO) approximately 36,000 km (22,000 mi) above Earth’s surface. The remaining four satellites are in inclined geosynchronous orbit (GSO).
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: The GPS system uses single frequency i.e. the L band. However, IRNSS uses dual bands (L band and S band). By using dual band IRNSS tracking is more accurate as any delay in S band frequency, is automatically as compared to the L band.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation
The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), or NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system of India that provides accurate real-time positioning and timing services. It covers India and a region extending 1,500 km (930 mi) around it. However, there are plans to extend the geographical area of operation. NavIC-based tracking system is compulsory on commercial vehicles in India. Also, some consumer mobile phones with support for it have been available since the first half of 2020.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The constellation consists of 7 satellites. Three of the seven satellites are located in geostationary orbit (GEO) approximately 36,000 km (22,000 mi) above Earth’s surface. The remaining four satellites are in inclined geosynchronous orbit (GSO).
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: The GPS system uses single frequency i.e. the L band. However, IRNSS uses dual bands (L band and S band). By using dual band IRNSS tracking is more accurate as any delay in S band frequency, is automatically as compared to the L band. -
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consider the following space missions:
Missions – Countries/Agencies
1. SLIM – Canada
2. Euclid – European Space Agency
3. Artemis – USA
4. XRISM – Japan
How many of the above statements are correctly matched?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation
• Pair 1 is INCORRECT: SLIM is Japan’s first lunar surface mission. It aims to demonstrate precise lunar landing. SLIM or Smart Lander for Investigating Moon is a small-scale exploration lander designed for pinpoint landings on the Moon’s surface. It was launched in September 2023.
• Pair 2 is CORRECT: Euclid is a European Space Agency (ESA) deep space mission to study the geometry, composition and nature of the Dark Universe by accurately measuring the accelerating expansion of the universe. It has been launched in July 2023.
• Pair 3 is CORRECT: Artemis is a series of space programs launched by NASA (USA) for restarting manned mission on Moon. The program’s long-term goal is to establish a permanent base on the Moon to facilitate the feasibility of human missions to Mars. The first launch was in 1972 and the latest in 2022.
• Pair 4 is CORRECT: The X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM), is an X-ray space telescope mission of the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in partnership with NASA to provide breakthroughs in the study of structure formation of the universe, outflows from galaxy nuclei, and dark matter. It has been launched in September 2023.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation
• Pair 1 is INCORRECT: SLIM is Japan’s first lunar surface mission. It aims to demonstrate precise lunar landing. SLIM or Smart Lander for Investigating Moon is a small-scale exploration lander designed for pinpoint landings on the Moon’s surface. It was launched in September 2023.
• Pair 2 is CORRECT: Euclid is a European Space Agency (ESA) deep space mission to study the geometry, composition and nature of the Dark Universe by accurately measuring the accelerating expansion of the universe. It has been launched in July 2023.
• Pair 3 is CORRECT: Artemis is a series of space programs launched by NASA (USA) for restarting manned mission on Moon. The program’s long-term goal is to establish a permanent base on the Moon to facilitate the feasibility of human missions to Mars. The first launch was in 1972 and the latest in 2022.
• Pair 4 is CORRECT: The X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM), is an X-ray space telescope mission of the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) in partnership with NASA to provide breakthroughs in the study of structure formation of the universe, outflows from galaxy nuclei, and dark matter. It has been launched in September 2023. -
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Algae are considered as plants.
Statement II: Algae do not have a well differentiated body design.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation
• Both Statements are CORRECT and Statement 2 is NOT the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Algae are considered as plants because they are autotrophs and use chlorophyll for photosynthesis. Algae can be unicellular or multicellular.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT but is NOT the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1: Algae do not have a well differentiated body design and are grouped under Thallophytes. Thallophytes are plants which do not have a well differentiated body design. Thallophytes are predominantly aquatic.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation
• Both Statements are CORRECT and Statement 2 is NOT the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Algae are considered as plants because they are autotrophs and use chlorophyll for photosynthesis. Algae can be unicellular or multicellular.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT but is NOT the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1: Algae do not have a well differentiated body design and are grouped under Thallophytes. Thallophytes are plants which do not have a well differentiated body design. Thallophytes are predominantly aquatic. -
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. All mammals give birth to young ones.
2. All mammals have glands for milk production.
3. All mammals are warm blooded animals.
How many of the above statements are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mammals are one of the subclasses of vertebrates. Some of the features of mammals are:
• Four chambered hearts
• Mammary glands for milk production
• Skin has hair as well as sweat and oil glands.
• Most of them are viviparous (give birth to young ones)
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Most of the mammals give birth to their young ones but, few of them like platypus and the echidna lay eggs.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: All mammals have mammary glands to produce milk for nourishment of their young ones. However, some of the marine mammals do not have breast and nipple.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: All mammals are warm blooded animals. Like birds, they can maintain their body temperature by generating internal heat.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mammals are one of the subclasses of vertebrates. Some of the features of mammals are:
• Four chambered hearts
• Mammary glands for milk production
• Skin has hair as well as sweat and oil glands.
• Most of them are viviparous (give birth to young ones)
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Most of the mammals give birth to their young ones but, few of them like platypus and the echidna lay eggs.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: All mammals have mammary glands to produce milk for nourishment of their young ones. However, some of the marine mammals do not have breast and nipple.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: All mammals are warm blooded animals. Like birds, they can maintain their body temperature by generating internal heat. -
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
With reference to acquired immunity, consider the following statements:
1. Antibodies made in the body after getting vaccination is an example of artificial passive immunity.
2. Antibodies transmitted from mother to baby is an example of natural passive immunity.
3. Antibodies made after direct exposure to an infection is an example of natural active immunity.
How many of the above statements are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Immunity is the ability of the body to defend itself against disease-causing organisms. Our body has the ability to release antibodies against pathogens and protects the body against diseases. This defence mechanism is called immunity.
There are two major types of immunity:
Innate or Natural Immunity: Immunity which is present in an organism by birth.
Acquired or Adaptive Immunity: Immunity that our body acquires or gains over time after birth.
Acquired Immunity is of 4 types.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Immunity acquired after vaccination or immunisation is an example of artificial active immunity.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Immunity which is passed from mother to child is an example of natural passive immunity.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: Direct exposure to infection is a manifestation of natural active immunity.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Immunity is the ability of the body to defend itself against disease-causing organisms. Our body has the ability to release antibodies against pathogens and protects the body against diseases. This defence mechanism is called immunity.
There are two major types of immunity:
Innate or Natural Immunity: Immunity which is present in an organism by birth.
Acquired or Adaptive Immunity: Immunity that our body acquires or gains over time after birth.
Acquired Immunity is of 4 types.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Immunity acquired after vaccination or immunisation is an example of artificial active immunity.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Immunity which is passed from mother to child is an example of natural passive immunity.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: Direct exposure to infection is a manifestation of natural active immunity. -
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Consider the following diseases:
1. Malaria
2. Ebola
3. Tuberculosis
4. Measles
How many of the diseases mentioned above are caused by viruses?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Viral diseases are infections caused by viruses. Different types of viruses cause different infections. Common cold is the most common type of viral infection that is caused by infections in the respiratory tract.
• Disease 1 is INCORRECT: Malaria is caused by protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. It is transmitted to humans by female mosquitoes of the genus Anopheles.
• Disease 2 is CORRECT: Ebola disease is caused by an infection with one of a group of viruses, known as ebolaviruses, that are found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa. Although Ebola disease is rare, people can get the disease through contact with an infected animal, or a sick or dead person infected with an ebolavirus.
• Disease 3 is INCORRECT: Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a type of bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
• Disease 4 is CORRECT: Measles is a highly contagious disease caused by a virus. It spreads easily when an infected person breathes, coughs or sneezes. It can cause severe disease, complications, and even death. Measles can affect anyone but is most common in children.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Viral diseases are infections caused by viruses. Different types of viruses cause different infections. Common cold is the most common type of viral infection that is caused by infections in the respiratory tract.
• Disease 1 is INCORRECT: Malaria is caused by protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. It is transmitted to humans by female mosquitoes of the genus Anopheles.
• Disease 2 is CORRECT: Ebola disease is caused by an infection with one of a group of viruses, known as ebolaviruses, that are found primarily in sub-Saharan Africa. Although Ebola disease is rare, people can get the disease through contact with an infected animal, or a sick or dead person infected with an ebolavirus.
• Disease 3 is INCORRECT: Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a type of bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
• Disease 4 is CORRECT: Measles is a highly contagious disease caused by a virus. It spreads easily when an infected person breathes, coughs or sneezes. It can cause severe disease, complications, and even death. Measles can affect anyone but is most common in children. -
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: It is harder to make anti-viral medicines than anti-bacterial medicines.
Statement II: Viruses have fewer biochemical mechanisms of their own than bacteria.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation
There are two ways to treat an infectious disease:
1. To reduce the effect of the disease (symptoms)
2. To kill the cause of the disease (pathogens)
Microbes can be classified into different categories – viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa. Each of them has unique biochemical processes. This is used to develop medicines to kill the respective pathogens.
• Both Statements are CORRECT and Statement 2 is the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: It is harder to make anti-viral medicines than anti-bacterial medicines.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT and is the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1: This is because viruses have fewer biochemical mechanisms of their own. They enter the host cell and use the resource and then design their own biochemical processes for survival in that environment. This means that there are relatively fewer virus-specific targets to aim at.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation
There are two ways to treat an infectious disease:
1. To reduce the effect of the disease (symptoms)
2. To kill the cause of the disease (pathogens)
Microbes can be classified into different categories – viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa. Each of them has unique biochemical processes. This is used to develop medicines to kill the respective pathogens.
• Both Statements are CORRECT and Statement 2 is the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: It is harder to make anti-viral medicines than anti-bacterial medicines.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT and is the CORRECT explanation of Statement 1: This is because viruses have fewer biochemical mechanisms of their own. They enter the host cell and use the resource and then design their own biochemical processes for survival in that environment. This means that there are relatively fewer virus-specific targets to aim at. -
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
With reference to the Satellite Orbits, consider the following statements:
1. Geostationary orbit and geosynchronous orbit have roughly the same orbital height from the Earth’s surface.
2. A Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) can be used to launch a satellite in geostationary orbit.
3. Communication satellites are launched in geostationary orbit.
How many of the above statements are correct?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Geostationary orbit is a circular orbit at 35,785 km (22,236 miles) above Earth’s Equator in which a satellite’s orbital period is equal to Earth’s rotation period of 23 hours and 56 minutes. A spacecraft in this orbit appears to an observer on Earth to be stationary in the sky.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: geostationary orbit is one of the geosynchronous orbits. But, geostationary orbit lies in the same plane as that of the equator.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: A PSLV can be used to launch satellite in geostationary orbit. But, the payload cannot be more than 1450kg. This is because PSLV rockets are not as powerful as GSLV rockets. So, to put a satellite in a higher orbit, lower payload is used. Eg- PSLV has also been used to launch various satellites into Geosynchronous and Geostationary orbits, like satellites from the IRNSS Constellation.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: Communication satellites are launched in geostationary orbit because earth-based satellite antennas (located on Earth) do not have to rotate to track them but can be pointed permanently at the position in the sky where the satellites are located.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Geostationary orbit is a circular orbit at 35,785 km (22,236 miles) above Earth’s Equator in which a satellite’s orbital period is equal to Earth’s rotation period of 23 hours and 56 minutes. A spacecraft in this orbit appears to an observer on Earth to be stationary in the sky.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: geostationary orbit is one of the geosynchronous orbits. But, geostationary orbit lies in the same plane as that of the equator.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: A PSLV can be used to launch satellite in geostationary orbit. But, the payload cannot be more than 1450kg. This is because PSLV rockets are not as powerful as GSLV rockets. So, to put a satellite in a higher orbit, lower payload is used. Eg- PSLV has also been used to launch various satellites into Geosynchronous and Geostationary orbits, like satellites from the IRNSS Constellation.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: Communication satellites are launched in geostationary orbit because earth-based satellite antennas (located on Earth) do not have to rotate to track them but can be pointed permanently at the position in the sky where the satellites are located. -
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
With respect to Dark Matter and Anti Matter, consider the following statements:
1. Dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic waves.
2. Anti matter has been discovered but dark matter is still a theory.
3. Anti matter makes up most of the spaces in the Universe.
How many of the above statements are correctCorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dark matter and the imbalance between matter and antimatter are two of the biggest mysteries of the universe. Astronomical observations tell us that dark matter makes up most of the matter in the cosmos but we do not know what it is made of. However, mystery of universe and its ever expanding nature pushes us to explore the unheard side.
Dark matter: Dark matter is matter that does not interact electromagnetically and therefore cannot be seen using light. At the same time, dark matter does interact gravitationally and can therefore be “seen” through its gravitational effect on other matter.
Anti matter: Antimatter is just regular matter with a few properties flipped, such as the electric charge. For example, the antimatter version of an electron is a positron. They both have the same mass, but have opposite electric charge.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic waves. So, gravitational waves are studied for Dark Matter.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Anti matter is not a science fiction or a theory but are real discoveries. They are rare although, but they have been discovered in many quantum experiments.
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: It is Dark matter which makes up most of the spaces in Universe. Since, they are poorly understood, so we do not have comprehensive details about the nature and interaction of dark matter.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Dark matter and the imbalance between matter and antimatter are two of the biggest mysteries of the universe. Astronomical observations tell us that dark matter makes up most of the matter in the cosmos but we do not know what it is made of. However, mystery of universe and its ever expanding nature pushes us to explore the unheard side.
Dark matter: Dark matter is matter that does not interact electromagnetically and therefore cannot be seen using light. At the same time, dark matter does interact gravitationally and can therefore be “seen” through its gravitational effect on other matter.
Anti matter: Antimatter is just regular matter with a few properties flipped, such as the electric charge. For example, the antimatter version of an electron is a positron. They both have the same mass, but have opposite electric charge.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic waves. So, gravitational waves are studied for Dark Matter.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Anti matter is not a science fiction or a theory but are real discoveries. They are rare although, but they have been discovered in many quantum experiments.
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: It is Dark matter which makes up most of the spaces in Universe. Since, they are poorly understood, so we do not have comprehensive details about the nature and interaction of dark matter. -
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
With reference to the Gravitational waves, consider the following statements:
1. Gravitational waves are produced by massive stationary objects.
2. Electromagnetic waves are extremely weaker than gravitational waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. The strongest gravitational waves are produced by cataclysmic events such as colliding black holes, supernovae, and colliding neutron stars.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Gravitational waves are produced by accelerating objects. Einstein’s mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (things like neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that ‘waves’ of undulating space-time would propagate in all directions away from the source.
• Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Gravitational waves are extremely weak. In fact, we need special observatory to detect cosmic gravitational waves. The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) is a large-scale physics experiment and observatory designed to detect cosmic gravitational waves and to develop gravitational-wave observations as an astronomical tool.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity. The strongest gravitational waves are produced by cataclysmic events such as colliding black holes, supernovae, and colliding neutron stars.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Gravitational waves are produced by accelerating objects. Einstein’s mathematics showed that massive accelerating objects (things like neutron stars or black holes orbiting each other) would disrupt space-time in such a way that ‘waves’ of undulating space-time would propagate in all directions away from the source.
• Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Gravitational waves are extremely weak. In fact, we need special observatory to detect cosmic gravitational waves. The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) is a large-scale physics experiment and observatory designed to detect cosmic gravitational waves and to develop gravitational-wave observations as an astronomical tool. -
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which of the following devices allows electric current to flow in one direction only?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
• A diode is an electrical device that essentially acts as a one-way switch for current. It allows current to flow easily in one direction, but severely restricts current from flowing in the opposite direction. Diodes are also known as rectifiers because they change alternating current (ac) into pulsating direct current (dc). Diodes are rated according to their type, voltage, and current capacity. Diodes are also known as rectifiers because they change alternating current (ac) into pulsating direct current (dc). Diodes are rated according to their type, voltage, and current capacity.
• Resistors oppose the flow of current in any direction. The main purpose of resistor is to reduce the current flow and to lower the voltage in any particular portion of the circuit.
• A capacitor is an electrical device that can store energy in the form of an electric charge.
• An inductor, also called a coil, choke, or reactor, is a passive electrical component that stores energy in a magnetic field when electric current flows through it.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
• A diode is an electrical device that essentially acts as a one-way switch for current. It allows current to flow easily in one direction, but severely restricts current from flowing in the opposite direction. Diodes are also known as rectifiers because they change alternating current (ac) into pulsating direct current (dc). Diodes are rated according to their type, voltage, and current capacity. Diodes are also known as rectifiers because they change alternating current (ac) into pulsating direct current (dc). Diodes are rated according to their type, voltage, and current capacity.
• Resistors oppose the flow of current in any direction. The main purpose of resistor is to reduce the current flow and to lower the voltage in any particular portion of the circuit.
• A capacitor is an electrical device that can store energy in the form of an electric charge.
• An inductor, also called a coil, choke, or reactor, is a passive electrical component that stores energy in a magnetic field when electric current flows through it. -
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
With reference to the domestic electrical circuits, consider the following statements:
1. Electrical fuses are connected in series with live wires.
2. Heavy electrical equipment is connected in parallel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Domestic electrical circuit is a schematic sketch of the total distribution of electrical load and its connection till the main meter and main fuse. Electricity is supplied to our household via main line. At the main metre junction, this main line gets distributed into numerous internal wirings as per the requirement. Thus, electrical circuit diagram helps in identification live wires, neutral wires and earth wires and their connections.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: A fuse in a circuit prevents damage to the appliances due to overloading. It is always connected in series with the live wire. This way, the metal of the fuse melts if high current is drawn in the circuit. This breaks the circuit and thus, flow of current.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Heavy electrical equipment like air conditioners, heaters operate at standard voltage. Parallel connection helps in maintain same voltage across the terminals of the equipment.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Domestic electrical circuit is a schematic sketch of the total distribution of electrical load and its connection till the main meter and main fuse. Electricity is supplied to our household via main line. At the main metre junction, this main line gets distributed into numerous internal wirings as per the requirement. Thus, electrical circuit diagram helps in identification live wires, neutral wires and earth wires and their connections.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: A fuse in a circuit prevents damage to the appliances due to overloading. It is always connected in series with the live wire. This way, the metal of the fuse melts if high current is drawn in the circuit. This breaks the circuit and thus, flow of current.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Heavy electrical equipment like air conditioners, heaters operate at standard voltage. Parallel connection helps in maintain same voltage across the terminals of the equipment. -
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Consider the following:
1. Sulphur
2. Nitrogen
3. Oxygen
4. Carbon Dioxide
How many of the above are taken up by the plants through the soil?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Plants take various nutrients from soil as well as air to:
1. Prepare food via photosynthesis
2. To respire
• 1st is CORRECT: Plants absorb sulphur in the form of mineralised inorganic sulphates from the soil.
• 2nd is CORRECT: Plants take nitrogen from the soil by absorption through their roots as amino acids, nitrate ions, nitrite ions, or ammonium ions. Plants do not get their nitrogen directly from the air.
• 3rd is INCORRECT: Oxygen is directly taken from the air for respiration. It is done via gaseous exchange through the surface of the leaves.
• 4th is INCORRECT: Carbon dioxide is taken up from the air by the stomata present in leaves and sometimes on stems. It is used for preparing food for photosynthesis by the plants.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Plants take various nutrients from soil as well as air to:
1. Prepare food via photosynthesis
2. To respire
• 1st is CORRECT: Plants absorb sulphur in the form of mineralised inorganic sulphates from the soil.
• 2nd is CORRECT: Plants take nitrogen from the soil by absorption through their roots as amino acids, nitrate ions, nitrite ions, or ammonium ions. Plants do not get their nitrogen directly from the air.
• 3rd is INCORRECT: Oxygen is directly taken from the air for respiration. It is done via gaseous exchange through the surface of the leaves.
• 4th is INCORRECT: Carbon dioxide is taken up from the air by the stomata present in leaves and sometimes on stems. It is used for preparing food for photosynthesis by the plants. -
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
With reference to the digestive enzymes, consider the following pairs:
Enzymes – Aids digestion of
1. Amylase – protein
2. Lipase – Fat
3. Trypsin – Carbohydrates
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Digestive enzymes are biochemical catalysts, and they help to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins from food. This is necessary to allow for the absorption of nutrients and to maintain optimal health.
• Pair 1 is INCORRECT: Amylase breaks complex carbohydrate molecule like starch into small carbohydrate molecules. This enzyme is produced in two areas. Firstly, salivary glands in our mouth generate salivary amylase that starts the process of digestion by breaking down starch and converting it into maltose and smaller carbohydrate. Cells in the pancreas also produce a different type of amylase, known as pancreatic amylase, that travels via a duct to reach the small intestine. Pancreatic amylase finishes the digestion of carbohydrates, producing glucose.
• Pair 2 is CORRECT: Lipase breaks down dietary fats into smaller molecules known as glycerol and fatty acids. The pancreas is the primary source of lipase in the digestive tract, which produces pancreatic lipase which acts in the small intestine. The bile produced in the liver and liberated in the intestine transforms dietary fat into small fat globules. Pancreatic lipase acts on these fat globules and converts them into glycerol and fatty acids which are small, energy molecules. Glycerol and fatty acids move in the blood and lymph vessels to move in every part of the body.
• Pair 3 is INCORRECT: Trypsin breaks down proteins in our diet. Trypsin breaks down the proteins into smaller peptides by hydrolysis reaction.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Digestive enzymes are biochemical catalysts, and they help to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins from food. This is necessary to allow for the absorption of nutrients and to maintain optimal health.
• Pair 1 is INCORRECT: Amylase breaks complex carbohydrate molecule like starch into small carbohydrate molecules. This enzyme is produced in two areas. Firstly, salivary glands in our mouth generate salivary amylase that starts the process of digestion by breaking down starch and converting it into maltose and smaller carbohydrate. Cells in the pancreas also produce a different type of amylase, known as pancreatic amylase, that travels via a duct to reach the small intestine. Pancreatic amylase finishes the digestion of carbohydrates, producing glucose.
• Pair 2 is CORRECT: Lipase breaks down dietary fats into smaller molecules known as glycerol and fatty acids. The pancreas is the primary source of lipase in the digestive tract, which produces pancreatic lipase which acts in the small intestine. The bile produced in the liver and liberated in the intestine transforms dietary fat into small fat globules. Pancreatic lipase acts on these fat globules and converts them into glycerol and fatty acids which are small, energy molecules. Glycerol and fatty acids move in the blood and lymph vessels to move in every part of the body.
• Pair 3 is INCORRECT: Trypsin breaks down proteins in our diet. Trypsin breaks down the proteins into smaller peptides by hydrolysis reaction. -
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
With reference to the breakdown of glucose, consider the following statements:
1. Breakdown of glucose into pyruvate takes place in the mitochondria of the cell.
2. Breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen releases ethanol.
3. Breakdown of glucose in the limited supply of oxygen releases lactic acid.
How many of the above statements are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
The food material taken in during the process of nutrition is used in cells to provide energy for various life processes. This is known as cellular respiration.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The first step of cellular respiration is the breakdown of 6-carbon molecule glucose into 3-carbon molecules called as pyruvate. This process takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen is called as anaerobic respiration. It releases ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy. This type of process takes place in yeast.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: When there is a lack of oxygen, glucose first gets converted into pyruvate and then pyruvate releases lactic acid and energy. This build-up of lactic acid in our muscles during sudden activity causes cramps.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The food material taken in during the process of nutrition is used in cells to provide energy for various life processes. This is known as cellular respiration.
• Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The first step of cellular respiration is the breakdown of 6-carbon molecule glucose into 3-carbon molecules called as pyruvate. This process takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• Statement 2 is CORRECT: Breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen is called as anaerobic respiration. It releases ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy. This type of process takes place in yeast.
• Statement 3 is CORRECT: When there is a lack of oxygen, glucose first gets converted into pyruvate and then pyruvate releases lactic acid and energy. This build-up of lactic acid in our muscles during sudden activity causes cramps. -
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In blood pressure measurement, systolic pressure is always higher than diastolic pressure.
Statement II: Systolic pressure measures artery’s pressure whereas diastolic pressure measures pressure in veins.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by the flowing blood on the elastic walls of arteries. Blood flows in closed vessels so it exerts pressure on the walls of these vessels. As soon as the blood is pumped into the arteries it exerts pressure on the artery wall.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Systolic pressure is always greater than diastolic pressure because systole is a measure of ventricular contraction whereas diastole is a measure of ventricular relaxation. Contraction of muscle exerts more pressure than relaxation.
• Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Blood pressure is measured as the force exerted by the flowing blood on the walls of arteries. Since, pressure in arteries is much greater than in veins so artery pressure is measured as one of the indicators of internal functioning of the body.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by the flowing blood on the elastic walls of arteries. Blood flows in closed vessels so it exerts pressure on the walls of these vessels. As soon as the blood is pumped into the arteries it exerts pressure on the artery wall.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Systolic pressure is always greater than diastolic pressure because systole is a measure of ventricular contraction whereas diastole is a measure of ventricular relaxation. Contraction of muscle exerts more pressure than relaxation.
• Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Blood pressure is measured as the force exerted by the flowing blood on the walls of arteries. Since, pressure in arteries is much greater than in veins so artery pressure is measured as one of the indicators of internal functioning of the body. -
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
With reference to the lymphatic system, consider the following statements:
1. Unlike circulatory system, which is a closed system, lymphatic system is an open system.
2. Lymphatic system does not involve any organ in the human body.
3. Lymph fluid is the same as blood plasma.
How many of the above statements are correct?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vast network of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, lymphatic or lymphoid organs, and lymphoid tissues make up the lymphatic system. One of its main functions is to collect excess lymph fluid from human tissues and return it to the bloodstream. The other main function is that of immune defense.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Unlike the circulatory system that is a closed system, the lymphatic system is open. Lymphatic fluids move more slowly than blood because they are not pressurized by the heart as is the case with circulation of blood. Thus, there is no return mechanism in case of lymphatic system.
• Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Organs in the human body like spleen, thymus, tonsils are involved in the circulation of lymph fluid.
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: The lymph fluid is similar (but not same) to blood plasma because just like a blood plasma it is a colourless fluid like plasma, but lymph contains a large number of white blood cells. Also, the lymph fluid consists of proteins and cellular debris as well as foreign particles which is absent in the blood plasma.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vast network of lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, lymphatic or lymphoid organs, and lymphoid tissues make up the lymphatic system. One of its main functions is to collect excess lymph fluid from human tissues and return it to the bloodstream. The other main function is that of immune defense.
• Statement 1 is CORRECT: Unlike the circulatory system that is a closed system, the lymphatic system is open. Lymphatic fluids move more slowly than blood because they are not pressurized by the heart as is the case with circulation of blood. Thus, there is no return mechanism in case of lymphatic system.
• Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Organs in the human body like spleen, thymus, tonsils are involved in the circulation of lymph fluid.
• Statement 3 is INCORRECT: The lymph fluid is similar (but not same) to blood plasma because just like a blood plasma it is a colourless fluid like plasma, but lymph contains a large number of white blood cells. Also, the lymph fluid consists of proteins and cellular debris as well as foreign particles which is absent in the blood plasma.