DTRS-7 | Daily Takkar Rapid Series | UPSC Prelims

Answer: C
Explanation:
Context: Recently, the Khadia or Soapstone mining has been mined in the Uttarakhand’s Bageshwar for decades, but mining operations have begun to show severe environmental impact in recent years.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Soapstone is a metamorphic rock formed by millions of years of metamorphism and metasomatism that’s resistant to heat.
Statement 2 is correct: Soapstone is a soft silicate rock used in manufacturing paints, paper and cosmetics.
Other uses:
·Casting metals like lead, pewter, and silver
·Cooking pots, pizza stones, and other cookware
·Fireplaces and wood-burning stoves
·Tobacco pipes
Statement 3 is correct: The main sources of soapstone in India are the states of Rajasthan and Uttarakhand:
·Rajasthan: This state is the hub of talc activity in India, with 49% of the country’s soapstone resources.
·Uttarakhand: The Bageshwar district of Uttarakhand is one of the richest areas for soapstone, with 90
sanctioned mines in the region.
Other states
The remaining 22% of soapstone resources are in Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Sikkim, and Tamil Nadu. Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/digging-a-disaster

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Minister of State for Heavy Industries and Steel provided information about the SAMARTH Udyog Bharat 4.0
initiative in the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 1 is incorrect: SAMARTH Udyog Bharat 4.0 Initiative is an initiative of the Ministry of Heavy Industry & Public Enterprises, Government of India under its scheme on Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector. SAMARTH Udyog encompasses manufacturers, vendors and customers as the main stakeholders.
The experiential and demonstration centres for Industry 4.0 have been proposed to spread awareness about I4.0 amongst the Indian manufacturing industries.
Under this 4 Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) Centres have been set up namely:
•Centre for Industry 4.0 (C4i4) Lab, Pune;
•IITD-AIA Foundation for Smart Manufacturing, IIT Delhi;
•I-4.0 India @ IISc, Bengaluru; and
•Smart Manufacturing Demo & Development Cell, CMTI, Bengaluru.
Statement 2 is correct: SAMARTH Udyog Bharat 4.0 is aimed at fostering the adoption of Industry 4.0 technologies to enhance productivity and competitiveness in the manufacturing sector. SAMARTH Centres have been providing assistance to industries including MSMEs to train the workforce and make them aware of Industry 4.0 technologies in the following ways:
•Organizing Awareness Seminars/ Workshops and knowledge-sharing events on Industry 4.0;
•Training industries to create awareness about Industry 4.0;
•Providing consultancy (in areas such as IOT Hardware, Software development, and data analytics) and incubation support
to start-ups including MSMEs.
•No financial assistance is given to any industry including MSME for adopting Industry 4.0-enabled technologies under the SAMARTH centre initiative of the Scheme.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2084143

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context :
The Delhi High Court recently discussed a ‘flux’ in the legal position with respect to the power of officers of
the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) to issue show-cause notices and recover duties under the Customs Act, 1962.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) was constituted in 1957 as the apex anti-smuggling intelligence and investigation agency. It works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, of 1962, and over fifty other allied Acts, including the Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA (Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities), Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act, etc.
It is tasked with detecting and curbing the smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of customs duty.
It has a country-wide network of zonal, regional and sub-regional units and intelligence cells.
DRI collects, analyzes, and disseminates intelligence to the field formations, helps in investigations, and keeps statistics of seizures and prices/rates, etc., for watching trends of smuggling and movement of other contraband and suggest remedies for fixing loopholes in existing laws and procedures.
Statement 2 is correct: The DRI works closely with international organizations like the World Customs Organization (WCO) and other enforcement agencies to combat cross-border crimes.
Source:
https://www.livelaw.in/tax-cases/power-of-dri-officers-to-issue-show-cause-notices-customs-act-flux-legal- position-delhi-hc-discusses-278196

Answer: C
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Indian Institute of Technology-Madras (IIT-M) released highly detailed 3D images of a foetal brain
named, Dharini. About Dharini:
•It is now the largest publicly accessible digital dataset of the human foetal brain and is freely available to researchers worldwide.
•The dataset provides detailed insights into brain development from the second trimester of a foetus and
researchers have identified over 500 brain regions, making it a complete atlas of the human brain.
•It was created with less than one-tenth of the initial funds that powered the Allen Brain Atlas, and with a technology platform that was entirely custom-made in India.
•The dataset offers key applications, including advancements in fetal imaging technology for early diagnosis
and treatment of developmental disorders.
•It also serves as an invaluable resource for researchers aiming to understand neurodevelopmental processes and conditions.
•The project was supported by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India and private entities.
•Significance
•It could offer new insights into neonatal brain health and help improve early diagnosis and treatment.
•The dataset is available to all researchers and can help in the development of treatments for brain-related health conditions.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/iit-madras-releases-highly-detailed-3d-images-of-foetal- brain/article68969956.ece

Answer: A
Explanation:
Consider:
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully carried out the sea level hot test of its CE20 cryogenic engine.
Statement 1 is correct: CE20 Cryogenic engine is the indigenous engine developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre of ISRO. It is powering the upper stage of the LVM3 launch vehicle and has been qualified to operate at a thrust level of 19 tonnes.
This engine has successfully powered the upper stage of six LVM3 missions so far.
Recently, the engine was qualified for the Gaganyaan mission with a thrust level of 20 tonnes and also to an uprated thrust level of 22 tonnes for the future C32 stage, towards enhancing the payload capability of the LVM3 launch vehicle.
It features an innovative Nozzle Protection System that overcomes previous complexities in engine testing.
Key achievements of the test include the successful testing of an engine with a nozzle area ratio of 100, the evaluation of a multi- element igniter by activating only the first element, and the confirmation of normal engine and facility performance.
Significance: This test marks a significant step in ISRO’s indigenous engine development, showcasing its ability to overcome complex rocket propulsion challenges.
Statement 2 is correct: The CE20 Cryogenic Engine operates on liquid oxygen (oxidizer) and liquid hydrogen (fuel), which are typical cryogenic propellants. These provide high efficiency and thrust compared to conventional fuels, which is essential for lifting heavy payloads into higher orbits.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The CE-20 cryogenic rocket engine is not the first cryogenic engine developed in the world for heavy-lift rockets, but it is one of the most powerful upper-stage cryogenic engines in the world. The CE-20 is the first Indian cryogenic engine to use a gas-generator cycle. It uses liquid hydrogen as fuel and liquid oxygen as an oxidizer. The CE-20 has a thrust level of 19 tonnes and has powered the upper stage of six LVM3 missions. It has been successfully human-rated for the Gaganyaan mission.The CE-20’s features are important for India’s progress towards lowering launch costs, achieving self-sufficiency in launch capabilities, and human spaceflight.
The United States developed the RL10 cryogenic engine in the 1960s.
Russia developed the RD-0120 cryogenic engine for its Energia launch vehicle in the 1980s. The Vulcain engine used in Europe’s Ariane rockets also predates the CE20.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/isro-conducts-successful-sea-level-hot-test-of-ce20-cryogenic-engine-paving-
the-way-for-future-missions/article68977406.ece

Answer: C
Explanation:
Context:
The Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology informed the Rajya Sabha about the DAE- Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme.
Statement 1 is correct: DAE- Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme is administered by the Department of Atomic Energy. It is for Distinguished Scientists/Professors, in order to give recognition and an opportunity to outstanding Scientists and Engineers including those retired /superannuated scientists/engineers who were involved in the development of sensitive and/ or critical technologies to carry out research and development work in the fields of their choice and of interest to the Department of Atomic Energy.
The tenure under DAE- Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme is for the period of one to five years at the discretion of the
Selection Committee.
Under the scheme each awardee shall be entitled to an honorarium of Rs. 200000/-m. (In case honorarium plus pension sanctioned is more than pay last drawn, honorarium would be restricted to pay last drawn before retirement).
A contingency grant of Rs.76000/- per annum to cover expenditures like secretarial assistance, telephone bills and stationery.
A lump sum equipment allowance (inclusive of Book Allowance) not exceeding Rs.125000/- would also be made available during the entire tenure of the awardee subject to actual utilization. The equipment allowance also includes a sum of Rs.10000/- towards Book Allowance.
A fixed monthly transport allowance is also provided in case the awardee of the scheme is not provided with an official vehicle.
Statement 2 is correct: The DAE-Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme aims to honor eminent scientists, those from international
backgrounds, and involves their active contribution to India’s strategic and R&D initiatives.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2083837

Answer: C
Explanation:
Context:
After a delay of more than a year, a permanent Vice-Chancellor is set to be appointed in Mumbai-based Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS), with the selection committee slated to conduct in-person interviews with 10 shortlisted candidates
Statement 1 is correct: The Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS) is a multi-campus, public-funded research
university in Mumbai, India. TISS is Asia’s oldest institute for professional social work education. It was founded in 1936 in the then-Bombay Presidency of British India as the Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work by the Sir Dorabji Tata Trust.
In 1944, it was renamed the Tata Institute of Social Sciences.
In 1964, TISS was declared Deemed to be a University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act (UGC), 1956.
TISS’s academic programs focus on the Social Sciences and offer doctoral degrees in Management and Labour Studies, Disaster Studies, Development Studies, Education, Gender Studies, Health Studies, Law, Media and Cultural Studies, Public Policy, Rural Development and Social Work.
Since its inception, TISS has had a focus on field activities, including responding to disasters such as the Partition of India, the Bhopal disaster and Uttarakhand floods.
Statement 2 is correct: It was recognized as a deemed university under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/selection-committee-to-interview-10-shortlisted- candidates-for-tiss-vice-chancellor-post/article68985472.ece

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context :
The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) is likely to submit its final report on the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Scheme (KLIS) soon, excluding the aspect of conducting geo-technical tests.
Statement 1 is correct: The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP) is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the
Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana, India.
It is designed to provide water for irrigation and drinking purposes to about 45 lakh acres in 20 of the 31 districts in Telangana, apart from Hyderabad and Secunderabad.
Currently the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers.
The Pranahita River is itself a confluence of various smaller tributaries, including the Wardha, Painganga, and
Wainganga rivers, which combine to form the seventh-largest drainage basin on the subcontinent.
KLIP is divided into 7 links and 28 packages spanning a distance of approximately 500 km (310 mi) through 13 districts and utilizing a canal network of more than 1,800 km (1,100 mi).
The project aims to produce a total of 240 TMC (195 from Medigadda Barrage, 20 from the Sripada Yellampalli project, and 25 from groundwater), of which 169 has been allocated for irrigation, 30 for Hyderabad municipal water, 16 for miscellaneous industrial uses, and 10 for drinking water in nearby villages, with the remainder being estimated evaporation loss.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The project is funded by the Telangana state government, with assistance from loans, but it is not funded under the Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) of the Government of India.
Source:
https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2024/Dec/15/ndsa-likely-to-submit-final-report-on- kaleshwaram-lift-irrigation-scheme-by-december-end

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: OP29, the ongoing climate capital Baku, has given a fillip to the idea of using carbon markets to curb carbon emissions by approving standards that can help in the setting up of an international carbon market as soon as the coming year.
Statement 1 is Correct:
Carbon markets often operate under the “cap-and-trade” system. This system sets a cap on total greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions for a group of emitters, such as companies or industries. The cap is typically reduced over time to encourage overall emissions reduction.
Companies are allocated or auctioned emission allowances, which represent the right to emit a certain amount of GHGs (usually measured in tons of CO₂-equivalent).
If a company emits less than its allowance, it can sell the surplus allowances to other companies struggling to meet their cap, thus incentivizing lower emissions across the board. Examples include the EU Emissions Trading System (ETS) and the California Cap-and-Trade Program.
Statement 2 is Correct:
Voluntary carbon markets (VCMs) operate outside government-mandated regulations. They allow entities—such as corporations, organizations, or individuals—to purchase carbon credits voluntarily to offset their emissions.
The credits in VCMs often come from projects focused on carbon sequestration or reduction, such as reforestation, renewable energy projects, or
methane capture from landfills.
These markets are growing due to corporate sustainability goals, with companies like Microsoft and Google participating to achieve net-zero targets.
Statement 3 is Incorrect:
In compliance markets, carbon credits are measurable, reportable, and verifiable (MRV), but they are also transferable between entities. This is the foundation of the trade element in cap-and-trade systems, where companies can buy or sell credits depending on their ability to reduce emissions. For example, if Company A emits less than its allowance, it can sell its unused credits to Company B, which may exceed its limit. The transferability of credits ensures flexibility and cost-effectiveness in achieving emissions reductions.
Statement 4 is Correct:
The Kyoto Protocol (1997) laid the groundwork for international carbon markets with mechanisms like:
Clean Development Mechanism (CDM): Allowed developed countries to invest in emission reduction projects in developing countries and earn carbon credits (Certified Emission Reductions or CERs).
Joint Implementation (JI): Enabled countries with emission reduction targets to jointly undertake projects.
The Paris Agreement (2015) continued this framework with its Article 6, which promotes voluntary cooperation among countries in achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). It introduced mechanisms like:
Article 6.2: Facilitates bilateral trade of carbon credits.
Article 6.4: Establishes a global carbon credit mechanism under the UN, similar to CDM.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/how-would-a-carbon-market-function- explained/article68989518.ece#:~:text=Large%20multinational%20corporations%20such%20as,t%20need%20them%20as%20much.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Context: Swiss withdrawal of MFN status to India won’t have immediate impact on trade: Officials
Explanation: Both the statements are correct
Statement 1 is correct:
·A most-favored-nation (MFN) clause requires a country providing a trade concession to one trading partner to extend the same treatment to all.
·Used in trade treaties for hundreds of years, the MFN clause and its principle of universal equal treatment underpin the World Trade Organization.
Statement 2 is correct:
The loss of MFN status exposes a country to discriminatory import tariffs on its products.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/swiss-withdrawal-of-mfn- status-to-india-wont-have-immediate-impact-on-trade officials/articleshow/116344046.cms?from=mdr