DTRS-3 | Daily Takkar Rapid Series | UPSC Prelims

Answer: B
Explanation
Context:
The Chimbu, an indigenous tribe from Papua New Guinea’s central highlands, practice a unique tradition
of painting themselves as skeletons, a ritual rooted in cultural and spiritual significance recently. The
practice, which initially served purposes such as scaring away monsters or enemies, is now showcased at
cultural events to celebrate their heritage.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chimbu tribe, also known as Simbu, is an indigenous group from Papua New Guinea.
Statement 2 is correct: They are renowned for their unique body art, often involving face and body
painting, as well as their vibrant cultural ceremonies.
Source:
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/why-the-chimbu-tribe-paints-themselves-in-skeletaldesigns/articleshow/115905952.cms

Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
Oxford study lauds PRAGATI monitoring of infra projects, and the report says the platform symbolises
India’s commitment to overcoming bureaucratic inertia and fostering a Team India mindset and culture of accountability and efficiency.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The RAGATI Monitoring Platform is developed to monitor the implementation of
rural infrastructure and welfare schemes under various government ministries, not specifically for POSHAN
Abhiyaan or by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
Statement 2 is correct: The RAGATI platform leverages AI and Geospatial Technology to track and
provide real-time updates, enabling better monitoring and transparency.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is also a robust system for bringing e-transparency and e-accountability with
real-time presence and exchange among the key stakeholders. The platform was launched on March
25, 2015. The PRAGATI platform uniquely bundles three latest technologies: Digital data management,
video-conferencing and geo-spatial technology. It also offers a unique combination in the direction of
cooperative federalism since it brings on one stage the Secretaries of Government of India and the Chief
Secretaries of the States. With this, the Prime Minister is able to discuss the issues with the concerned
Central and State officials with full information and latest visuals of the ground level situation.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/oxford-study-lauds-pragati-monitoring-of-infraprojects/article68938473.ece

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the FSSAI classified packaged drinking water as a ‘High Risk Food Category’.
Explanation:
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has recently reclassified packaged drinking and mineral
water. This category is now deemed “Highest Risk Food Category,” which follows the removal of the Bureau of Indian
Standards (BIS) certification requirement.
Classification of Packaged Water: Packaged drinking and mineral water are now classified as high-risk food products,
involving stricter regulations and oversight. The aim is to enhance consumer safety.
Mandatory Inspections: Manufacturers must undergo annual inspections, which will assess compliance with safety
standards. Inspections will also occur prior to receiving a license or registration.
Third-Party Audits: All businesses in the high-risk category must have annual audits. These audits must be conducted by
FSSAI-recognised third-party agencies. This ensures an unbiased evaluation of safety practices.
Simplification of Compliance: The new regulations aim to simplify compliance for manufacturers. The industry had
previously sought to eliminate dual certification requirements. This move is expected to reduce the compliance burden
on businesses.
Industry Response: Experts believe the changes will benefit the industry. The removal of the BIS certification requirement
is seen as a positive step. It allows manufacturers to focus on meeting FSSAI standards.
Consumers can expect improved safety in packaged water products. Regular inspections and audits should enhance
product quality. The new regulations aim to protect public health effectively.
Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer.
Source:
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/fssai-classifies-packaged-drinking-water-as-high-risk-foodcategory/article68935349.ece

Answers: D
Explanation:
Context:
The powerful Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association (SCAORA) on 2nd December 2, 2024) asked Chief Justice of
India Sanjiv Khanna to undo two alterations made by his predecessor, Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, to the top court building.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Advocate-on-Record (AOR) examination is conducted by the Supreme Court of India. The AOR
exam is a requirement for lawyers who want to practice in the Supreme Court.
To become an Advocate-on-Record, lawyers must:
Meet specific eligibility criteria, including a minimum number of years of practice
Complete a one-year training under an AOR approved by the Supreme Court
Pass the AOR exam
Have a registered office within 10 miles of the Supreme Court building
Have a registered clerk
The AOR exam is a four-day offline exam with four papers of 100 marks each. To pass, a lawyer must score at least 60% overall,
with at least 50% in each subject. It’s estimated that around 80% of people who take the exam fail each year.
The AOR exam covers topics such as: Relevant provisions of the Constitution of India, Supreme Court Rules, Civil Procedure
Code, Limitation Act, and General Principles of court fees Act.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Advocate-on-Record (AOR) designation is not mandatory for all advocates practising law in India.
• Eligibility: Only advocates who pass the AOR exam are eligible to practice in the Supreme Court of India. The exam
tests a lawyer’s skills, knowledge, and calibre.
• Authority: Only AORs are authorized to appear, plead, and address the Supreme Court on behalf of their clients.
• Responsibilities: AORs are responsible for paying all fees and charges owed to the court, and filing a certificate with the
taxing officer before the Bill of Costs is taxed.
• AORs must instruct any other advocates who wish to appear in a matter, and the Supreme Court sends all notices,
orders, and correspondence to the AOR.
• Training: To become an AOR, applicants must complete one year of training with an AOR or a court-approved
representation of an AOR. They must also have a minimum of four years of training in the legal field.
About Advocate-on-Record (AoR):
The concept of AoR was introduced by the SC with the power given to it under Article 145(1) of the Indian Constitution,
which states that the SC may, from time to time, make rules for regulating the practices and procedures in the court.
An AoR is a lеgal profеssional who is entitled to represent clients and plead for them in the SC.
It is a spеcific catеgory of advocates with rights of audiеncе in thе SC.
An AoR has thе exclusive right to filе and conduct casеs in thе SC.
All the procedural aspects need to be completed by AOR with the assistance of a registered clerk.
This includеs drafting and filing pеtitions, applications, and othеr lеgal documents.
Any notice or order/correspondence by the SC is sent to the AoR.
They specialize in thе practicе and procеdurе of thе SC. They are familiar with thе rules and regulations governing thе
court and play a crucial role in navigating lеgal matters through thе highest court of thе country.
No other High Court in India has a similar provision.
Order IV rule 5 of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013 lays down the requirements to be fulfilled to become an AoR. They are
as follows:
• The Advocate is required to be enrolled with any State Bar Council.
• The Advocate is required to have a prior experience of at least 4 years.
• The Advocate has undergone a training of 1 year under a senior AoR.
• The Advocate has appeared for the examination conducted by the SC.
• The Advocate is required to have an office in Delhi within a radius of 10 miles from the SC house and give an
undertaking to employ a clerk, who shall be a registered clerk, within one month of being registered as an
advocate on record.
Once registered, an AOR is issued a unique identification number that must be used on all documents filed in the SC.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/scaora-asks-cji-to-remove-changes-made-to-court-building-by-hispredecessor/article68939361.ece

Answer: D
Explanation:
Context: Recently, Artificial Intelligence has helped discover hundreds of mysterious Nazca geoglyphs in Peru. Some
400 km south of Lima, Peru, on the barren Nazca Pampa, lie hundreds (maybe thousands) of ancient geoglyphs.
Geoglyphs are large designs or motifs, often abstract or representational, created on the earth’s surface through
the accumulation or removal of materials like stones, earth, and gravel. They range from simple geometric shapes
to complex depictions of animals, humans, and other figures.
The ones in Nazca — the oldest among which are more than 2,000 years old — were built by removing rocks and
earth to create “negative” images. With the topsoil in the desert oxidised to a deep rust colour, the furrows stand in
contrast to the ground around them. And since the area receives next to no rain, and little wind, the designs have
largely escaped erosion and survived for thousands of years.
Additional information:
Formation:
Geoglyphs span a vast chronological range, with the oldest dating back to the Late Upper Paleolithic era. Others,
like the Marree Man in Australia, were created in contemporary times. The age of geoglyphs can vary widely from
thousands to even tens of thousands of years old.
Location:
While geoglyphs can be found worldwide, they are most prevalent in arid regions of South America, notably the
Nazca Desert in Peru. Recent discoveries have expanded their known distribution to regions like Russia, Kazakhstan,
and India, indicating a global presence across various ecosystems.
Purpose:
The interpretations of geoglyphs’ purposes are diverse, including ritual sites, commemorative landscapes, defensive
structures, landmarks, and astronomical observatories. Their functions might have varied based on the cultural
context and geographic location.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/ai-nazca-geoglyphs-peru-9702610/

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: After conducting tests on INS Vikrant, the Indian Navy is set to finalise the deal for 26 Rafale-M
(Navy version of Rafale jet) in the coming two months. The deal is expected to be signed for INR 60,000
crore.
Statement 1 is correct: Rafale-M (Marine) is the naval version of the Rafale fighter jet, specifically designed
to operate from aircraft carriers. It is equipped with features like a reinforced undercarriage and tailhook
to support carrier-based operations, making it a versatile choice for naval forces.
Statement 2 is correct: The Rafale-M is equipped with advanced radar systems such as the AESA (Active
Electronically Scanned Array) radar and can carry a variety of weapons, including air-to-air missiles (like
Meteor and MICA) and air-to-ground missiles (like SCALP), enhancing its multi-role combat capabilities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While catapult-assisted takeoff is common for some naval jets, the Rafale-M can
operate from STOBAR (Short Take-Off but Arrested Recovery) carriers like India’s INS Vikrant. It has been
tested to successfully launch from ski-jump ramps used on STOBAR carriers, contrary to the statement that
it relies exclusively on catapult systems.
Statement 4 is correct: After evaluating both Rafale-M and Boeing’s F/A-18 Super Hornet, India opted for
Rafale-M due to its compatibility with the Indian Navy’s operational requirements, including successful
tests on the INS Vikrant and its ability to integrate with existing defense systems.
Source: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/indian-navy-set-to-finalize-rs-60000-crore-rafale-m-dealall-about-the-game-changing-jets-2644523-2024-12-04

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context: California’s Tulare Lake resurfaces after 130 years, floods 94,000 acres of farmland
· Located in San Joaquin Valley, California, U.S.A.
· After a disappearance lasting over 130 years, this Lake has returned, reclaiming its place in the San
Joaquin Valley and swallowing approximately 94,000 acres of private farmland.
· Also known as ‘Ghost Lake’.
· Once the largest body of freshwater west of the Mississippi River, the lake had vanished in the late
19th century due to extensive human intervention, known as the “reclamation” process, but it has now
made a dramatic comeback.
· It was an important source of water for local indigenous communities, like the Tachi Yokut tribe,
who called the lake “Pa’ashi.”
· In 2023, after massive winter storms and snowmelt from the Sierra Nevada mountains, the lake began
to return. The waters overwhelmed the canals meant to hold them back and started flooding the
farmland again.
Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/ghost-lake-returns-tulare-lake-resurfaces-after-130-
years-submerging-94000-acres-of-farmland/articleshow/115905150.cms

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
On 3rd December 2024, the birth anniversary of Nandalal Bose, who is recognised as one of the pioneers
of modern Indian art and a prominent figure in the neo-Bengal school. Notably, the illustrations in the
Constitution of India were conceived and created in Santiniketan by Nandalal Bose and his team.
Statement 1 is correct: Nandalal Bose was a key figure of the Bengal School of Art and drew inspiration
from Indian culture and the Swadeshi movement.
Statement 2 is correct: He illustrated the original manuscript of the Indian Constitution, including beautiful
motifs from Indian art and heritage.
Statement 3 is incorrect: His artwork was rooted in Indian traditions and themes, not Western ones.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/upsc-current-affairs/upsc-essentials/knowledge-nugget-of-the-daynandalal-bose-pioneer-of-modern-indian-art-upsc-9703534/

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
India has contributed nearly $2 billion to the BRICS New Development Bank (NDB), and 20 externally aided
projects, with loans amounting to $4,867 million in areas such as transportation, water conservation, food
management, and connectivity in rural areas, are currently ongoing in the country, Union Minister of State
for Finance said on 2nd Dec 2024.
Statement 1 is correct: The NDB was established to support infrastructure and sustainable development
projects in BRICS and other developing countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The headquarters of the NDB is located in Shanghai, China.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The NDB focuses on minimizing currency risks, it provides loans in multiple
currencies, not limited to BRICS currencies, to suit the needs of its borrowers.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/business/india-has-contributed-2-billion-to-brics-bank-finance-ministry9702399/

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
On the occasion of Navy Day on 4th December 2024, here’s a look at why Shivaji is honoured as the
pioneer of the Indian Navy.
Statement 1 is correct: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj is regarded as the founder of the Maratha Empire and
played a significant role in resisting Mughal dominance in western India.
Statement 2 is correct: Shivaji Maharaj established a strong naval fleet to secure the Konkan coastline and
protect it from foreign powers like the Portuguese and Siddis, as well as to encourage maritime trade.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The title “Chhatrapati,” meaning “paramount sovereign,” was self-adopted by
Shivaji during his coronation in 1674, symbolising his sovereignty and independence. It was not conferred
by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/research/why-chhatrapati-shivaji-is-called-the-father-of-the-indian-navy9705777/