UNDERSTANDING THE COMPLEX RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN HDL-C AND CARDIOVASCULAR HEALTH

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: In the pursuit of health improvement, diagnostic tests play a crucial role, but interpreting the results requires a nuanced understanding of correlation and causation.

EXPLANATION:

Correlation vs. Causation:

  • Crucial Distinction:
    • The importance of distinguishing between correlation and causation when interpreting diagnostic test results has been emphasized.
    • It uses a vivid example of the correlation between ice cream sales and shark attacks to highlight the need for identifying underlying causative factors before implementing interventions.
  • Media Influence:
    • The impact of media headlines linking certain foods like coffee or chocolate to health benefits is discussed, emphasizing that terms like “linked” and “associated” imply correlation rather than causation.
    • The necessity of clear causative factors for effective interventions has been stressed.

The Case of HDL-C:

  • Historical Context:
    • HDL-C, labeled the “good” cholesterol due to its negative correlation with cardiovascular disease (CV) risk, has been a focus of research.
    • However, attempts to establish a causal link through pharmaceutical interventions raising HDL-C have not shown a reduction in CV disease risk.
  • Understanding Lipids:
    • A clarification is made regarding the discussion of lipids and cholesterol, differentiating between LDL and HDL particles and their cholesterol content (LDL-C and HDL-C).
    • The dynamic nature of these particles, constantly exchanging cholesterol with their surroundings has been emphasized.

Role of HDL-C in Cardiovascular Health:

  • Reverse Cholesterol Transport (RCT):
    • The role of HDL-C in the RCT pathway, a crucial process in preventing cholesterol deposits in coronary arteries.
    • HDL-C facilitates cholesterol efflux from cells and tissues, transporting it back to the liver for elimination.
  • Efflux Rate:
    • The critical factor in understanding HDL-C’s role is the rate of cholesterol removal (efflux rate) via HDL.
    • However, the routinely available measurement is HDL-C concentration, which does not provide insights into the efflux rate.

Complexity Revealed in Clinical Trials:

  • Failed Trials:
    • The failure of clinical trials attempting to establish a direct link between increased HDL-C and reduced CV risk.
    • Additional studies on the efflux rate highlight the complexity of HDL’s role, raising questions about its contribution to cardiovascular health.
  • Viewing HDL-C as an Indicator:
    • Presently, HDL-C is viewed as an indicator of overall good health, correlating with low CV risk.
    • The complexity of HDL-C pathway suggests that its role as a transporter of cholesterol remains a mystery.

Practical Implications:

  • Interpreting HDL-C Numbers:
    • While a high HDL-C number correlates with low CV risk, the article emphasizes the importance of considering other parameters.
    • A low HDL-C, however, may not be cause for concern, as modifiable factors like LDL-C, Apolipoprotein-B, exercise, and diet also influence CV risk.
  • Caution in Interpretation:
    • The article concludes by advising caution in interpreting correlational markers, drawing parallels with media headlines about coffee benefits.
    • Enjoying a morning cup of coffee may be pleasant, but the need to differentiate enjoyment from disease risk reduction has been stressed.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/how-hdl-c-is-actually-linked-to-cardiovascular-health-9160272/




WHOLESALE PRICE INFLATION MODERATES TO 0.27% IN JANUARY 2024

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: India’s Wholesale Price Index (WPI) data for January 2024 reveals a significant moderation in wholesale price inflation, marking the third consecutive month of positive growth after a seven-month deflationary period.

EXPLANATION:

  • The overall WPI inflation stood at 0.27%, reflecting the mildest price rise since November.

Overview of WPI Data:

  • Positive Growth Trend:
    • After a prolonged deflationary streak, the WPI has recorded positive growth for the third consecutive month.
  • Mild Inflation Rate:
    • January’s WPI inflation of 0.27% is a notable decline from the previous month’s 0.73%, indicating a moderation in wholesale price increases.
  • Sector-wise Analysis:
    • The moderation is primarily attributed to a 1.1% year-on-year drop in manufactured product prices.
    • While primary articles and food items witnessed a decrease in the rate of price rise to approximately 3.8% from over 5% in December.

Factors Influencing January’s Inflation:

  • Price Drivers:
    • The Commerce and Industry Ministry identifies increased prices of food articles, machinery & equipment, other manufacturing, minerals, and other transport equipment as the primary contributors to the positive inflation rate in January.
  • Month-on-Month Comparison:
    • On a month-on-month basis, the WPI reading decreased by 0.33% compared to December, with the Wholesale Food Index experiencing a 1.06% decline following a 2.18% dip in the previous month.
  • Fuel and Power Prices:
    • Fuel and power prices were 0.5% lower than January 2023 levels, marking a moderation from the previous months.
    • Electricity prices, however, rose by 3.3% in January compared to December 2023.

Food Inflation Dynamics:

  • Overall Decline:
    • The rate of inflation in primary food articles eased to a three-month low of 6.85% from 9.4% in December.
  • Specific Commodity Trends:
    • While the inflation rate for cereals eased to 4.1%, fruits witnessed a five-month low inflation of 1%.
    • Notably, onion inflation dropped from 91.8% in December to 29.2% in January.
  • Persistent High Inflation:
    • Despite the overall decline, certain food items such as vegetables (19.7%), pulses (16.1%), and paddy (9.6%) still registered relatively high inflation rates.

Manufactured Products and Disinflation:

  • Disinflation Trend:
    • Disinflation in manufactured products increased from -0.7% in December to -1.13% in January.
  • Price Changes by Segment:
    • Nine out of 22 product groups showed an increase in prices, while one segment remained constant.
    • Machinery & equipment, textiles, beverages, motor vehicles, trailers & semi-trailers, and rubber & plastics products experienced month-over-month price increases.
    • In contrast, prices dropped for food products, basic metals, chemicals, and some non-metallic mineral products.

Wholesale Price Index:

  • It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
  • Published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India.
  • Major criticism for this index is that the general public does not buy products at wholesale price.
  • The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.

Conclusion:

  • The moderation in wholesale price inflation in India for January 2024, coupled with specific trends in food and manufactured products, reflects a complex economic landscape.
  • While overall inflation has eased, the persistence of high inflation rates in certain food items underscores the need for continued monitoring and potential policy interventions to ensure sustained economic stability.
  • The nuanced analysis presented here provides a comprehensive understanding of the multifaceted factors influencing India’s wholesale price dynamics.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/indias-wholesale-price-inflation-decreased-in-january/article67844563.ece/amp/




HORSESHOE CRABS, LIVING FOSSILS OF THE SEA, DRAW ENDANGERED SPECIES PETITION

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Horseshoe crabs, often referred to as “living fossils,” are facing a significant threat to their existence, prompting environmental groups to petition the U.S. government for endangered species protection.

EXPLANATION:

  • This iconic marine arthropod, with a lineage dating back 450 million years, has seen a drastic decline in population, particularly in the Delaware Bay estuary, once considered a stronghold for their spawning activities.

Background:

  • Horseshoe crabs, despite their ancient lineage and primitive appearance, are harmless to humans and have been a familiar sight to beachgoers along the U.S. mid-Atlantic and Gulf Coasts.
  • Their populations have plummeted in recent decades, with spawning numbers in the Delaware Bay estuary down two-thirds since 1990.
  • Conservation groups also note an alarming 80% reduction in egg densities over the past four decades.

Contributing Factors:

  • Commercial Harvests:
    • Horseshoe crabs face threats from commercial harvests for bait and biomedical use.
    • The pharmaceutical industry, in particular, extracts their blue-coloured blood, which contains a clotting agent crucial for testing drugs and medical devices for bacterial endotoxins.
    • In 2022, nearly 1 million horseshoe crabs were harvested for this purpose.
  • Biomedical Industry Impact:
    • Regulations allow the biomedical industry to extract a portion of a horseshoe crab’s blood and release it alive; however, an estimated 10-15% of harvested animals die during this process.
    • The petition highlights concern that about 30% of horseshoe crabs collected for blood extraction die, contrary to official figures.
  • Over-Harvesting as Bait:
    • Horseshoe crabs are over-harvested as bait for commercial whelk and eel fisheries, contributing to further population decline.
    • Despite the imposition of quotas, there is no evidence of recovery.
  • Habitat Loss:
    • The creatures face growing habitat loss due to oceanfront development, dredging, pollution, coastal erosion, and sea-level rise associated with global warming.
    • Mass die-offs have been observed, with NOAA ranking the horseshoe crab’s overall vulnerability to climate change as “very high” in 2023.

Petition and Conservation Efforts:

  • A coalition of 23 environmental groups, led by the Center for Biological Diversity, has petitioned the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) for an endangered species declaration.
  • If granted, this designation would make it unlawful to harm or kill horseshoe crabs without a special permit.
  • The petition also seeks the designation of “critical habitat” for protection, particularly during spawning season.

Horseshoe crabs:

  • Horseshoe crabs are ancient marine arthropods that have been around for more than 450 million years.
  • They are found in shallow waters along the Atlantic coast of North America and in the Gulf of Mexico and are known for their unique appearance, with a hard exoskeleton and a long, pointed tail.
  • The crabs are represented by four extant species in the world.
  • Out of the four, two species are distributed along the northeast coast of India.
  • Only T gigas species of the horseshoe crab is found along Balasore coast of Odisha.
  • The crab was included in the Schedule IV of the Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972, under which, the catching and killing of a horseshoe crab is an offence.
  • Horseshoe crabs play an important ecological role as a food source for migratory shorebirds and other animals, and their eggs are an important food source for fish and other marine animals.

Conclusion:

  • The plight of horseshoe crabs, considered one of the world’s oldest and toughest creatures, highlights the urgent need for conservation measures.
  • Human activities, including commercial harvesting for biomedical purposes and as bait, alongside habitat loss and climate change, pose a severe threat to their survival.
  • The petition signals a crucial step towards acknowledging and addressing these threats to ensure the continued existence of this ancient species.
  • NOAA’s review of the petition will play a pivotal role in determining the future conservation status of horseshoe crabs in the United States.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/horseshoe-crabs-living-fossils-of-the-sea-draw-endangered-species-petition/article67840973.ece/amp/




THE ENVIRONMENTAL IMPLICATIONS AND TRANSITION TO SCIENTIFIC COAL MINING IN MEGHALAYA

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The environmental implications of transitioning from traditional rat-hole mining to open-cast mining of coal in Meghalaya.

EXPLANATION:

  • The shift is prompted by the National Green Tribunal’s ban on rat-hole mining in 2014, leading the authorities to consider open-cast progressive scientific mining as an alternative.
  • Despite the pending environmental clearance, four applicants have received approval for scientific coal mining, with the final hurdle being the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA)

Comparison of Mining Methods (Traditional Rat-Hole Mining vs. Open-Cast Mining):

  • Impact on Vegetation and Forest Cover:
    • Experts acknowledge that open-cast mining is expected to have a more significant impact on vegetation and forest cover compared to traditional rat-hole mining.
    • Central Mine Planning & Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL) officials suggest that rat-hole mining minimizes subsidence of land as workers maintain underground pillars to prevent soil collapse.
  • Subsidence of Land:
    • CMPDIL officials endorse the view that subsidence of land is minimal in rat-hole mining due to the maintenance of underground pillars.
    • This is contrasted with concerns about increased subsidence in open-cast mining.

Steps Toward Scientific Mining:

  • Clearance Process:
    • The Centre has given clearance to four applicants for scientific mining, and the final step is obtaining environmental clearance, which is expected to take 4-5 months.
    • The SEAC will issue terms of reference for the preparation of Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) and Environment Management Plan (EMP).
  • Reports Preparation:
    • The four project proponents will engage NABARD-empanelled consultants to prepare EIA and EMP reports based on the SEAC’s terms of reference.
  • Public Hearings:
    • After the reports are ready, the Meghalaya State Pollution Control Board will conduct public hearings where both reports will be circulated in local languages.
  • Clearance and Operation:
    • If everything proceeds smoothly, the SEAC is expected to grant clearance in four to five months.
    • Subsequently, the Meghalaya State Pollution Control Board will grant Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO) to the four proponents.

Different types of Coal in India:

  • They are peat, lignite, bituminous coal and anthracite. Peat is a precursor to coal. Another name of Lignite coal is brown coal. Bituminous coal has high heating (Btu) value. Anthracite is also called hard coal.
  • Peat is a precursor to coal. It is a soft organic material and contains partly decayed plant and deposited mineral matter. On application of peat, it becomes coal.
  • Lignite coal is also called brown coal. It has the least concentration of carbon. It is the lowest grade coal.
  • Bituminous coal has high heating value. It is used in the generation of electricity. It appears smooth and shiny. However, it has layers.
  • Anthracite is hard and brittle. It has black lustre. It is also called hard coal. It has a high percentage of fixed carbon and low percentage of volatile matter.

Conclusion:

  • The transition from traditional rat-hole mining to open-cast scientific mining in Meghalaya involves a complex process of obtaining environmental clearances.
  • The discussion reflects a balance between environmental concerns, economic benefits, and regulatory procedures in shaping the future of coal mining in the region.
  • The decision-makers, while recognizing the environmental impact, are driven by legal mandates and economic considerations in paving the way for scientific mining.

SOURCE: https://theshillongtimes.com/2024/02/15/open-cast-mining-may-harm-the-environment-experts/




FARMING CONSENSUS: ON THE GOVERNMENT AND THE FARMERS ON PROTEST

THE CONTEXT: Farmers from Punjab in thousands have assembled at three points along the border with Haryana, where they have been stopped from marching to Delhi. The protesters have a range of demands including legally guaranteed MSP for crops.

MORE ON THE NEWS:

  • Some of these demands were raised during their earlier protest in 2021-22, which was called off after the central government withdrew three controversial laws that had sought to reform the agriculture sector.
  • The protest now is spearheaded by the Sanyukt Kisan Morcha (SKM) (non-political), a splinter group of the body that had led the earlier protest. The body has influence in the interest groups across Haryana, Punjab and western U.P. and Rajasthan.
  • There are at least three other strands of protests gathering strength.

1. Farmers in western U.P. affected by the Jewar airport project and Yamuna Expressway are up in arms.

2. In Haryana’s Sonipat, farmers are protesting land acquisition for power cables.

3. The original SKM and several trade unions have called for a national rural and industrial strike with overlapping and additional demands that include the repeal of four labour codes.

Demands of farmers:

  • The headline demand in the farmers’ 12-point agenda is for a law to guarantee MSP for all crops, and the determination of crop prices in accordance with the Dr M S Swaminathan Commission’s report.
  • The other demands are:

1. Full debt waiver for farmers and labourers

2. Implementation of the Land Acquisition Act of 2013, with provisions for written consent from farmers before acquisition, and compensation at 4 times the collector rate

3. Punishment for the perpetrators of the October 2021 Lakhimpur Kheri killings

4. India should withdraw from the World Trade Organization (WTO) and freeze all free trade agreements

5. Pensions for farmers and farm labourers

6. Compensation for farmers who died during the Delhi protest, including a job for one family member

7. The Electricity Amendment Bill 2020 should be scrapped

8. 200 (instead of 100) days’ employment under MGNREGA per year, daily wage of Rs 700, and scheme should be linked with farming;

9. National commission for spices such as chilli and turmeric; etc.

ISSUES:

  • Legal guarantee of MSP unlikely: The government has opened talks with the farmers but a legal guarantee of MSP appears unlikely as government is silent on this matter. The Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare notified a committee headed by former agriculture secretary Sanjay Agrawal to make the MSP more effective and transparent. However, the committee’s terms of reference also do not include any legal guarantee to MSP, which was one of the key demands of the farmers protest of 2020-2021.
  • Unsustainable farm practices: Surplus producers of grain have benefited from the MSP scheme, but the scheme bypasses subsistence farmers in poorer regions. This uneven geographical spread of procurement has also led to unsustainable farm practices in some areas.
  • Majority of farmers remain uncovered: According to a NSSO survey, less than 6% of Indian farmers i.e over 9 crore agricultural households have benefited directly from selling their wheat or rice under the MSP regime.
  • Procurement is concentrated in a few states:The procurement of grains is concentrated only in a few states. For example, Punjab, Haryana, western UP, Chhattisgarh and Telangana for paddy; Telangana and Maharashtra for cotton, etc.
  • Poor implementation of the MS Swaminathan Commission recommendations: It recommended that MSP should be at least 50% more than the weighted average cost of production which is not in the sight of implementation.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Consensus and consultation: The Centre must address grievances of farmers through talks. According to the Union Agriculture Minister, there are some issues on which consensus has been reached. However, some issues need a permanent resolution and there should be a committee to address them.
  • Revamping of public support: There is a need for revamping of the public support for farming, which is essential for national food security. This can be achieved better through wide political consultation and by encouraging the beneficiaries of the current system to diversify production and increasing productivity.
  • Creation of Agriculture infrastructure: The government should make efforts to enable farmer participation in the market by creating modern world-class agriculture infrastructure like Cold Storage facilities.
  • Crop diversification: There is a need for mapping of existing cropping patterns of agro-ecological zones of producer and consumer states. Strategy for diversification policy needs to change the cropping pattern according to the changing needs of the country.

THE CONCLUSION:

Though, the MSP-based procurement by the Food Corporation of India has been the bedrock of food security but there is an urgent need for its reform as the farm sector needs a new model of public support. It cannot be left to the mercy of the market. The government should lead the efforts to create a national consensus on this question.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q.1 The Minimum Support Price (MSP) scheme protects farmers from the price fluctuations and market imperfections. In the light of the given statement, critically analyse the efficacy of the MSP. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Discuss the role of Minimum Support Price (MSP) in addressing the issue of farmers’ income and agricultural productivity. Suggest alternative ways to ensure farmers income and their livelihoods.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/farming-consensus-on-the-government-and-the-farmers-on-protest/article67846219.ece




INDIA MAY BE ON THE VERGE OF REDEFINITION OF DEMOCRACY

THE CONTEXT:

There is a suppression of dissent and the manipulation of law enforcement and public sentiment by the ruling party in India. They conflated the ruling party with government machinery, leading to a near-perfect alignment of political agendas with law enforcement actions. This situation raises concerns about the erosion of democratic principles and the rise of majoritarianism, posing significant challenges to the functioning of democracy in the country.

THE ISSUES:

  • Freedom of Expression (Article 19(1)(a)): The incidents described highlight the misuse of these restrictions to stifle dissent and criticism of the ruling party, raising questions about the balance between freedom of expression and reasonable restrictions. However, the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression, which is fundamental for the functioning of a democracy. However, this right is subject to reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) for reasons such as the sovereignty and integrity of India, public order, decency, or morality.
  • Right to Equality (Article 14): This article ensures equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The selective enforcement of laws and targeting of individuals based on their political views or affiliations challenge the principle of equality and non-discrimination.
  • Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21): The arbitrary detention of individuals, including the complainant and victims in the first incident, infringes upon their right to life and personal liberty, highlighting the need for police reform and accountability.
  • Police Reforms: The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2007) recommended comprehensive police reforms to ensure that the police act in a politically neutral manner, respecting human rights and the rule of law. The incidents underscore the urgent need to implement these reforms to prevent the misuse of police powers for political purposes.
  • Sedition Law: Various committees, including the Law Commission of India, have discussed the need to reconsider or repeal the sedition law (Section 124A of the IPC), which has been used to criminalize dissent and suppress free speech. The application of sedition charges in situations that do not meet the Supreme Court’s criteria for incitement to violence or disorder reflects the misuse of this colonial-era law.
  • Majoritarianism and Democracy: The Sachar Committee Report (2006) and the Ranganath Misra Commission Report (2007) have addressed issues related to social inclusion and the protection of minority rights. The rise of majoritarianism, as highlighted in the incidents, threatens the pluralistic fabric of Indian society and the principles of secularism and democracy enshrined in the Constitution.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Implement Police Reforms: Comprehensive police reforms are crucial to ensure law enforcement agencies operate impartially and are not influenced by political pressures. The recommendations of the National Police Commission, the Padmanabhaiah Committee, and directives from the Supreme Court, such as establishing State Security Commissions and ensuring a minimum tenure for the Director General of Police, should be implemented.
  • Strengthen Freedom of Expression: The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression, but it is subject to reasonable restrictions. There is a need to clearly define these restrictions to prevent their misuse against dissenting voices. Legal safeguards should be enhanced to protect the freedom of the press and expression against arbitrary executive actions.
  • Review and Amend Laws Used to Suppress Dissent: Laws such as sedition (Section 124A of the IPC) and national security often used to curb dissent should be reviewed and amended. This would ensure that they are not misused to silence opposition or criticism of the government.
  • Judicial Oversight and Independence: The judiciary safeguards democracy and fundamental rights. Ensuring the independence of the judiciary and its proactive role in checking executive excesses and protecting civil liberties is essential.
  • Encourage Inclusive Dialogue and Tolerance: Initiatives to promote interfaith dialogue, multiculturalism, and tolerance are essential to counter majoritarianism and polarization. Civil society organizations, educational institutions, and the media can significantly foster an inclusive and pluralistic society.
  • Strengthen Civil Society and Media: A vibrant civil society and an independent media are pillars of democracy. Supporting NGOs, activists, and journalists who work to hold the government accountable and provide a platform for diverse voices is crucial for a healthy democracy.

THE CONCLUSION:

Addressing the challenges highlighted requires concerted efforts from the government, judiciary, civil society, and citizens. While legal and institutional reforms are essential, societal changes toward more inclusive, tolerant, and participatory democracy are equally important. The solutions outlined above, drawn from various recommendations and analyses, provide a roadmap for strengthening democracy in India.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 ‘Constitutional Morality’ is rooted in the Constitution and founded on its essential facets. Explain the doctrine of ‘Constitutional Morality’ with the help of relevant judicial decisions. (2021)

Q.2 The Indian party system is passing through a transition phase which looks full of contradictions and paradoxes.” Discuss. (2016)

Q.3 What do you understand by the “freedom of speech and expression” concept? Does it cover hate speech also? Why do films in India stand on a slightly different plane from other forms of expression? Discuss. (2014)

Q.4 The Rules and Regulations provided to all civil servants are the same, yet there is a difference in performance. Positive-minded officers can interpret the Rules and Regulations in Favor of the case and achieve success, whereas negative-minded officers cannot achieve goals by interpreting the same Rules and Regulations against the case. Discuss with illustrations. (2022)

Q.5 Discuss the Public Services Code as recommended by the 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission. (2016)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Analyze the notion of majoritarianism in Indian democracy. How does it impact the fundamental right to dissent and minority interests, as provided by the Indian Constitution?

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/accessibleindia-can-mughalhistory-inspire-modern-inclusion-9162126




IN CLOSER TIES WITH THE GULF, A SIGNIFICANT WIN FOR INDIAN DIPLOMACY

THE CONTEXT:

The significant transformation of India’s relations with the Gulf countries over the last decade is marked by increased diplomatic engagement, strategic economic partnerships, and enhanced counter-terror and defence cooperation. This transformation is attributed to factors such as diplomatic, political, and religious shifts and the recognition of the Gulf’s capital potential to accelerate India’s economic growth.

THE ISSUES:

  • Diplomatic Engagement: The increased frequency and significance of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visits to the Middle East, contrasting it with the previous Indian administration’s less frequent visits. Modi’s diplomacy and the establishment of connections with Gulf leaders are noted as critical changes in India’s approach.
  • Political Domain: The shift from India’s historical support for Arab causes to a broader strategic engagement with the Gulf. This includes forming the I2U2 (India, Israel, UAE, and USA) group and announcing the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, signaling a radical reorientation of India’s geopolitical engagement with the Middle East.
  • Religious Lens and Pakistan Factor: India’s past tendency to view Gulf relations through a religious lens and the complications arising from Pakistan’s outreach to the region. It notes the recent trend of India discarding this approach, which has led to improved ties with the Gulf, as evidenced by the construction of the BAPS temple in Abu Dhabi and the release of Indian ex-naval personnel by Qatar.
  • Economic and Strategic Shift: The relationship between India and the Gulf has evolved from transactional to strategic, particularly in the economic domain. Recognizing the Gulf’s capital potential to accelerate India’s economic growth and the diversification of the Gulf economies beyond oil.
  • Counter-Terror and Defence Cooperation: There is an expansion of counter-terror collaboration and the potential for deeper defence cooperation between India and Gulf countries. It suggests there is room for growth in military exchanges and joint development of weapons and technologies.
  • Regional and International Impact: The transformation of India-Gulf relations has broader implications for regional peace and prosperity, especially in the Western Indian Ocean, and reflects India’s growing role as a global actor.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Diplomatic Engagement: Continued and enhanced diplomatic engagement, including high-level visits, personal connections with Gulf leaders, and a focus on mutual trust and political give and take.
  • Political Domain: A broader strategic engagement with the Gulf, including forming strategic partnerships, economic corridors, and shifting from declaratory positions to pragmatic engagement.
  • Religious Lens and Pakistan Factor: Discarding the historical approach of viewing the region through a religious lens and focusing on building goodwill and cooperation while addressing the impact of Pakistan’s outreach to the Gulf.
  • Economic and Strategic Shift: Leveraging the Gulf’s capital potential to accelerate India’s economic growth, diversifying economic partnerships, and focusing on long-term economic cooperation.
  • Counter-Terror and Defence Cooperation: Deepening counter-terror collaboration and exploring opportunities for enhanced defence cooperation, including joint development of weapons and military technologies.

THE CONCLUSION:

India’s closer ties with the Gulf countries represent a significant win for Indian diplomacy and have radically reorientated India’s geopolitical engagement with the Middle East. There is a need for deeper cooperation with the region in promoting prosperity and peace in the Western Indian Ocean, and the potential for long-term economic partnerships and enhanced defence cooperation cannot be ignored.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) How will the I2U2 (India, Israel, UAE, and USA) grouping transform India’s position in global politics? (2022)

Q.2) India’s energy security is the most important part of its economic progress. Analyse India’s energy policy cooperation with West Asian Countries. (2017)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) India’s evolving relationship with the Gulf countries has witnessed a significant transformation, encompassing diplomatic, economic, and strategic dimensions. In light of this, discuss the factors contributing to this transformation and the potential implications for India’s geopolitical engagement with the Middle East.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/indian-diplomacy-closer-ties-with-gulf-significant-win-9159128/




Day-593 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements about the ‘Namdapha flying squirrel’, recently seen in the news:
    1. It is an arboreal, nocturnal flying squirrel endemic to Arunachal Pradesh.
    2. It is a critically endangered species according to the IUCN Red Data Book.
    3. It is capable of flying like birds or bats.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamyopterus biswasi) has been recently sighted again in Arunachal Pradesh after going missing for 42 years. The Namdapha flying squirrel was last described in 1981 in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh.

    Statement 1 is correct: It is a rare nocturnal flying squirrel species found in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh, India.
    Statement 2 is correct: It’s a critically endangered species according to the IUCN Red Data Book.
    ● Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022: Schedule I
    ● These are animals of the rodent family which have the ability of gliding.
    ● There are 44 biological species across the world, of which 12 species are found in India.
    ● These are animals of the rodent family which have the ability of gliding.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: These are not capable of true flight like bats or birds, but they do engage in an impressive flight-like gliding. Flying squirrels launch themselves off tree branches and float through the air using a special membrane that extends from their front legs to their back legs.

    Additional Information:
    Namdapha Tiger Reserve
    ● It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1972,
    ● Namdapha Tiger Reserve was declared the country’s 15th project tiger reserve in 1983. Then in 1983 it was declared a national park and in the same year it became a tiger reserve under the Project Tiger scheme.
    ● Namdapha is the name of a river which is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
    ● The park is situated between the Dafa Bum Range and the Patkai Range of the Mishmi Hills. Which originates from Dafabam (Dafa is the name of the hill, Bam means hill top) and meets the Noa-Dehing river. This river flows in the exact north-south direction of the national park and hence it is named Namdapha.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamyopterus biswasi) has been recently sighted again in Arunachal Pradesh after going missing for 42 years. The Namdapha flying squirrel was last described in 1981 in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh.

    Statement 1 is correct: It is a rare nocturnal flying squirrel species found in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh, India.
    Statement 2 is correct: It’s a critically endangered species according to the IUCN Red Data Book.
    ● Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022: Schedule I
    ● These are animals of the rodent family which have the ability of gliding.
    ● There are 44 biological species across the world, of which 12 species are found in India.
    ● These are animals of the rodent family which have the ability of gliding.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: These are not capable of true flight like bats or birds, but they do engage in an impressive flight-like gliding. Flying squirrels launch themselves off tree branches and float through the air using a special membrane that extends from their front legs to their back legs.

    Additional Information:
    Namdapha Tiger Reserve
    ● It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1972,
    ● Namdapha Tiger Reserve was declared the country’s 15th project tiger reserve in 1983. Then in 1983 it was declared a national park and in the same year it became a tiger reserve under the Project Tiger scheme.
    ● Namdapha is the name of a river which is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
    ● The park is situated between the Dafa Bum Range and the Patkai Range of the Mishmi Hills. Which originates from Dafabam (Dafa is the name of the hill, Bam means hill top) and meets the Noa-Dehing river. This river flows in the exact north-south direction of the national park and hence it is named Namdapha.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. A ‘near threatened’ species of otter was recently spotted in India in a rare find. Consider the following statements about otters:
    1. Otters are indicators of high-quality grassland habitats.
    2. Otters are found only in the continent of Antarctica and Australia.
    3. Otters belong to the family of carnivorous mammals.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Eurasian otters were recently discovered for the first time from Kerala.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It can be both marine and freshwater: streams, rivers, lakes, ponds and marshes. They prefer unpolluted water with a minimal human disturbance. An extremely adaptable animal, otters tolerate hot and cold climates, as well as high elevations and lowland coastal waters.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Otters are found on every continent except Australia and Antarctica. The Eurasian otter is the most widely distributed otter species, found throughout Europe, North Africa, and Asia to Japan and Indonesia.
    Statement 3 is correct: Otters are carnivorous mammals in the subfamily Lutrinae. The 13 extant otter species are all semiaquatic, aquatic, or marine, with diets based on fish and invertebrates. Lutrinae is a branch of the Mustelidae family, which also includes weasels, badgers, mink, and wolverines, among other animals.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Eurasian otters were recently discovered for the first time from Kerala.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It can be both marine and freshwater: streams, rivers, lakes, ponds and marshes. They prefer unpolluted water with a minimal human disturbance. An extremely adaptable animal, otters tolerate hot and cold climates, as well as high elevations and lowland coastal waters.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Otters are found on every continent except Australia and Antarctica. The Eurasian otter is the most widely distributed otter species, found throughout Europe, North Africa, and Asia to Japan and Indonesia.
    Statement 3 is correct: Otters are carnivorous mammals in the subfamily Lutrinae. The 13 extant otter species are all semiaquatic, aquatic, or marine, with diets based on fish and invertebrates. Lutrinae is a branch of the Mustelidae family, which also includes weasels, badgers, mink, and wolverines, among other animals.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. “Karrar Combat Drones (KCD)” recently seen in the news, have been developed by:

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Iranian Army office on December 10, 2023, shows Iranian army officials inspecting Iranian homemade Karrar drones displayed during an inauguration ceremony in Tehran.
    • The Karrar Combat Drone (KCD) is an Unmanned Combat Air Vehicle (UCAV) developed by Iran. The HESA Karrar is a jet-powered target drone manufactured by Iran Aircraft Manufacturing Industrial Company (HESA) since 2010. It has a maximum speed granted by its turbojet installation of 360 miles per hour.

    Significance:
    • Long-range: Capable of flying up to 1,000 kilometers (621 miles).
    • High-altitude: Can reach an altitude of 49,000 feet.
    • Supersonic speed: Able to fly at Mach 0.8.
    • Air-to-air combat: Equipped with air-to-air missiles, such as the Shahab-e-Saqeb and Majid, for engaging enemy aircraft.
    • Electronic warfare: Can carry electronic countermeasures to disrupt enemy radars and communications.
    Hence, Option (b) is the correct answer.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Iranian Army office on December 10, 2023, shows Iranian army officials inspecting Iranian homemade Karrar drones displayed during an inauguration ceremony in Tehran.
    • The Karrar Combat Drone (KCD) is an Unmanned Combat Air Vehicle (UCAV) developed by Iran. The HESA Karrar is a jet-powered target drone manufactured by Iran Aircraft Manufacturing Industrial Company (HESA) since 2010. It has a maximum speed granted by its turbojet installation of 360 miles per hour.

    Significance:
    • Long-range: Capable of flying up to 1,000 kilometers (621 miles).
    • High-altitude: Can reach an altitude of 49,000 feet.
    • Supersonic speed: Able to fly at Mach 0.8.
    • Air-to-air combat: Equipped with air-to-air missiles, such as the Shahab-e-Saqeb and Majid, for engaging enemy aircraft.
    • Electronic warfare: Can carry electronic countermeasures to disrupt enemy radars and communications.
    Hence, Option (b) is the correct answer.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Green Rising Initiative’:
    1. It is a joint initiative of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
    2. It focuses on engaging youth for impactful environmental actions at the grassroots level.
    Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Tamil Nadu government recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), to develop an urban cooling programme in the State. The programme is being undertaken under the framework of the ‘Cool Coalition’ and the India-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a joint initiative of the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) and the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

    Statement 2 is correct: Its work focuses on engaging youth for impactful environmental action at the grassroots level.
    The main goal is to unite millions of youths around the world,
     To encourage their active participation in green initiatives
     and adapt to the severe impacts of climate change on their communities.
    Additional Information
    UNICEF
    • It was established on 11 December 1946, and headquartered in New York, United States.
    • President: Catherine M. Russell
    • UNICEF, in full originally called the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, now officially United Nations Children’s Fund
    • It is an agency of the United Nations responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The Tamil Nadu government recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), to develop an urban cooling programme in the State. The programme is being undertaken under the framework of the ‘Cool Coalition’ and the India-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a joint initiative of the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) and the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

    Statement 2 is correct: Its work focuses on engaging youth for impactful environmental action at the grassroots level.
    The main goal is to unite millions of youths around the world,
     To encourage their active participation in green initiatives
     and adapt to the severe impacts of climate change on their communities.
    Additional Information
    UNICEF
    • It was established on 11 December 1946, and headquartered in New York, United States.
    • President: Catherine M. Russell
    • UNICEF, in full originally called the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, now officially United Nations Children’s Fund
    • It is an agency of the United Nations responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following liquids:
    1. Nicotine
    2. Propylene
    3. Glycerol
    4. Aldehyde
    5. Phenolic
    How many of the above mentioned liquids are used inside an E-cigarette?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: Recently, E-cigarettes as consumer products are not shown to be effective for quitting tobacco use at the population level. Instead, alarming evidence has emerged on adverse population health effects according to the World Health Organisation(WHO).
    Explanation:
    ● Liquid for use inside an e-cigarette is called e-liquid also known as e-juice or vape juice. E-liquids contain nicotine, propylene glycol, vegetable glycerin or glycerol, Aldehyde,metals, volatile oxide substances (VEOs), Phenolic and other chemicals (including those used to create flavours) and, in some cases, water.
    Hence, Option (d) is the correct answer.
    Additional information
    ● E-cigarettes are the most common form of Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS), which are basically devices that do not burn or use tobacco leaves.
    ● Instead, they vaporise a solution using a battery and this vapour is then inhaled by the user.

    What is the status of E-Cigarette use in India?
    ● In 2019, the central government informed Parliament that e-cigarettes worth USD 1,91,781 were imported in India between 2016-16 and 2018-19, mostly from China, US, Hong Kong and Germany.
    ● Besides this, it estimates that between 2017 and 2018, e-cigarette use saw an increase of 78% among high school students and 48% among middle school students.
    ● The government of India through the Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes (production, manufacture, import, export, transport, sale, distribution, storage and advertisement) Ordinance 2019 banned e-Cigarettes in India.
    ● Any production, manufacturing, import, etc., shall be a cognisable offence in India, punishable with an imprisonment of up to 1 year/fine up to Rs 1 lakh/both for the first offence.
    ● India, where 65% of the population is under 35 years of age, is one of the few countries that has completely banned the sale of e-cigarettes.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: Recently, E-cigarettes as consumer products are not shown to be effective for quitting tobacco use at the population level. Instead, alarming evidence has emerged on adverse population health effects according to the World Health Organisation(WHO).
    Explanation:
    ● Liquid for use inside an e-cigarette is called e-liquid also known as e-juice or vape juice. E-liquids contain nicotine, propylene glycol, vegetable glycerin or glycerol, Aldehyde,metals, volatile oxide substances (VEOs), Phenolic and other chemicals (including those used to create flavours) and, in some cases, water.
    Hence, Option (d) is the correct answer.
    Additional information
    ● E-cigarettes are the most common form of Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS), which are basically devices that do not burn or use tobacco leaves.
    ● Instead, they vaporise a solution using a battery and this vapour is then inhaled by the user.

    What is the status of E-Cigarette use in India?
    ● In 2019, the central government informed Parliament that e-cigarettes worth USD 1,91,781 were imported in India between 2016-16 and 2018-19, mostly from China, US, Hong Kong and Germany.
    ● Besides this, it estimates that between 2017 and 2018, e-cigarette use saw an increase of 78% among high school students and 48% among middle school students.
    ● The government of India through the Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes (production, manufacture, import, export, transport, sale, distribution, storage and advertisement) Ordinance 2019 banned e-Cigarettes in India.
    ● Any production, manufacturing, import, etc., shall be a cognisable offence in India, punishable with an imprisonment of up to 1 year/fine up to Rs 1 lakh/both for the first offence.
    ● India, where 65% of the population is under 35 years of age, is one of the few countries that has completely banned the sale of e-cigarettes.

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