IS RIGHT-WING POPULISM SEEING A RESURGENCE ACROSS THE WORLD?

THE CONTEXT: There is general conception that there is rise in right wing populism. Recently, Geert Wilders, an anti-Islam, far-right populist, won the general elections in the Netherlands. In Argentina, the far-right politician, Javier Milei, won the presidential elections. In the U.S., early polls suggest that Donald Trump has a chance of returning to power again. In India, the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) is widely expected to win a third term.

WHAT IS RIGHT WING POPULISM?

  • Populism is generally thought of as a political phenomenon in which a voice of the people begins to argue that they are being kept out of power by some elite forces in society.
  • The distinction between left-wing and right-wing populism lies at the roots of the de-legitimisation of the system.
  • Left-wing populists argue that the masses, the working class are not being allowed to influence public policy because the political elites, dominated by capitalist interests are exerting undue influence on the system.
  • The right-wing populists argue whether the liberal, democratic project of inclusion is legitimate. They target racial, religious minorities in society and suggest that these groups are not loyal citizens and so their voices are illegitimate.
  • There is a mix of economic appeals with identity appeals to form the version of right-wing populism.

TRENDS OF RISING RIGHT WING POPULISM:

  • Systematic destruction of public institutions in three ways:

1. By interpreting rules differently

2. By changing rules incrementally, such as by bringing in a Bill in India regulating the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner

3. By completely displacing rules, such as in the abrogation of Article 370 (in Jammu and Kashmir).

  • Trend of ethno-nationalist identity-based grievances: There is a trend of fuelling the ethno-nationalist identity-based grievances that there are people, both outside and within the country, to blame for many of the ills that are going on.
  • Trends of appeals: There are different kinds of appeals being made to win the elections.

In Argentina, with long standing economic crisis allows Mr. Milei to make the powerful appeal about 40 years of austerity measures and blaming the elites and the international economic system for this. In Hungary, for Viktor Orban, it was about migrants, but within the context of the European Union. In the Netherlands, India, or France, these actors have been around in the party system as fringe elements for a long time. They become powerful by fuelling support for grievances and the collapse of the centrist parties.

ISSUES:

  • Broader crisis of governance: There is a broader crisis of governance. Generally the work of government is of spending tax revenues on building better roads and highways, clean water and health facilities. However, globalisation, corruption and bureaucratic ineffectiveness mean that many developing countries lack the fiscal space to do all this. When governments lack fiscal resources to effectively conduct public policy, they resort to other ways of winning elections, such as making identity appeals. This shows a lack of trust in the act of governance and in democracy.
  • Undermines democratic institutions: This phase of populism has a majoritarian, ethno-nationalist flavour. There can be a Muslim ‘other’ to the Hindus, or a Tamil ‘other’ to the Sinhalese, or a Muslim ‘other’ to Christians, or a non-White ‘other’ to the White people. The manner in which this ‘othering’ is happening undermines democratic institutions.
  • Personification of election: There is growing personification of election where election is not based on political party but on a single person. For example, Javier Milei in Argentina was able to make himself the focus of that election. Over the last eight years, Mr. Trump has been taking the Republican Party and making it all about himself. Therefore, it becomes more about the test of loyalty to the person rather than party values.

THE CONCLUSION:

It can be concluded that there are numerous conditions that provide the ground for rise of right wing populism in the world. Certain events such as the financial crisis and the migrant crisis propelled these sentiments further. However, these issues need to be addressed wisely without any political bias for the inclusive growth and governance.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 ‘Indian diaspora has a decisive role to play in the politics and economy of America and European Countries’. Comment with examples. (2020)

Q.2 ‘The long sustained image of India as a leader of the oppressed and marginalised nations has disappeared on account of its newfound role in the emerging global order.’ Elaborate. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 Critically examine the socio-economic implications of resurgence of right-wing populism which is a recent phenomenon seen in the global scenarios.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/is-right-wing-populism-seeing-a-resurgence-across-the-world/article67684886.ece




TOPIC: THE NOBEL PRIZE IN PHYSIOLOGY (MEDICINE) 2023

THE CONTEXT: The 2023 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded jointly to Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman “for their discoveries concerning base modifications that enabled the development of effective mRNA vaccines against COVID-19”. This article explains in detail the various aspects of the work of these Nobel laureates from the UPSC perspective.

THE NOBEL LAUREATES

The Nobel Laureates

  • Katalin Kariko (Hungary):University of Pennsylvania, USA
  • Drew Weissman (USA): University of Pennsylvania, USA

NOBEL LAUREATES IN THE FIELD OF PHYSIOLOGY/MEDICINE

Research on Unmodified mRNA and Base – modified mRNA

Vaccines before the pandemic:

  • Vaccination stimulates the formation of an immune response to a particular pathogen.
  • This gives the body a head starts in the fight against disease in the event of a later exposure.
  • Vaccines based on killed or weakened viruses have long been available, exemplified by the vaccines against polio, measles, and yellow fever.
  • In 1951, Max Theiler was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for developing the yellow fever vaccine.

Producing protein-, vector-, or whole virus- was time consuming as they require large-scale cell culture.

Vaccines after the COVID-19 pandemic: mRNA vaccines

  • The basis for these vaccines is messenger RNA, or mRNA. The messenger RNA molecules that instruct the body’s cells to produce certain proteins are used in mRNA vaccines.
  • The mRNA vaccines are being developed to protect against other respiratory infections, such as influenza, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and metapneumovirus.
  • The mRNA vaccines have been shown to be highly effective against COVID-19, preventing serious illness, hospitalization, and death.

ABOUT THE mRNA VACCINES

  • The mRNA is a molecule that carries instructions from DNA to the ribosome, where proteins are made. mRNA vaccines work by delivering mRNA molecules into cells.
  • The mRNA molecules are then translated into proteins, which are displayed on the surface of the cell. The immune system then recognizes the proteins as foreign and produces antibodies and other immune cells against them.
  • If the body is later infected with the pathogen that the vaccine is targeting, the immune system will be able to quickly recognize and destroy the pathogen.

HOW ARE THESE VACCINES DIFFERENT (mRNA VS. DNA)?

WHAT DID KATALIN KARIKÓ AND DREW WEISSMAN DISCOVER?

In 2023, Kariko and Weissman were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for their groundbreaking work on mRNA. Their discovery is one of the most important scientific advances in the world, and it has the potential to revolutionize the way we prevent and treat diseases in the ecosystem. Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman’s discovery of how to modify mRNA to make it more stable and less inflammatory was a critical breakthrough in the development of mRNA vaccines. Their work has had a profound impact on the world, and it has the potential to revolutionize the way we prevent and treat diseases.

Their Discovery:

  • Unmodified mRNA is unstable and inflammatory. When unmodified mRNA is injected into the body, it is quickly degraded by enzymes and can trigger an inflammatory response.
  • Karikó and Weissman discovered that modifying a single nucleotide in mRNA could make it much more stable and less inflammatory. This modification, known as pseudouridylation, reduces the recognition of mRNA by the body’s immune system and prevents the inflammatory response.
  • Their discovery made it possible to develop safe and effective the mRNA vaccines. The mRNA vaccines can be used to deliver instructions to cells to produce proteins that can protect against infection or disease.

Karikó and Weissman’s work has had a number of important applications, including:

  • The development of mRNA vaccines against COVID-19. The mRNA vaccines have played a critical role in the fight against COVID-19, and they are now widely used to protect people from the virus.
  • The development of the mRNA vaccines against other diseases. The mRNA vaccines are currently being developed to protect against a wide range of other diseases, including malaria, cancer, and HIV.
  • The development of mRNA therapies. mRNA can also be used to deliver instructions to cells to produce proteins that can treat diseases. For example, mRNA therapies are being developed to treat cancer and genetic disorders.

THE BREAKTHROUGH

The breakthrough of the mRNA is a major scientific achievement that has the potential to revolutionize medicine. The mRNA vaccines are a new type of vaccine that uses messenger RNA (mRNA) to teach the body how to make proteins that can trigger an immune response. This makes it possible to develop vaccines against a wide range of diseases, including those that are difficult to vaccinate against using traditional methods. The mRNA vaccines are also very fast to develop, which makes them ideal for responding to new and emerging threats. For example, the mRNA vaccines against COVID-19 were developed in past record 2020.

The breakthroughs that have made the mRNA vaccines possible:

  • The discovery of how to modify mRNA to make it more stable and less inflammatory. This was essential for developing safe and effective mRNA vaccines.
  • The development of lipid nanoparticles (LNPs) to deliver mRNA to cells.
  • LNPs are tiny fat particles that can protect the mRNA from degradation and help it to enter cells.
  • The development of efficient methods for manufacturing mRNA in large quantities. This has made it possible to produce mRNA vaccines on a scale that is needed to vaccinate millions of people.

The breakthrough of mRNA is a testament to the power of scientific research and innovation. It has opened up new possibilities for preventing and treating diseases, and it has the potential to save millions of lives.

APPLICATION OF BASE-MODIFIED mRNA VACCINES

Base-modified mRNA vaccines are a new type of mRNA vaccine that uses modified mRNA nucleosides to improve the stability, safety, and efficacy of the vaccine. Modified mRNA nucleosides are synthetic nucleotides that have been chemically modified to alter their properties.

Base-modified mRNA vaccines have a number of potential advantages over traditional mRNA vaccines:

  • Increased stability:Modified mRNA nucleosides are more resistant to degradation than unmodified mRNA nucleosides. This means that base-modified mRNA vaccines can be stored for longer periods of time and can be delivered to the body using a wider range of delivery methods.
  • Reduced immunogenicity:Modified mRNA nucleosides are less likely to trigger an immune response than unmodified mRNA nucleosides. This reduces the risk of side effects and allows for repeat dosing.
  • Increased efficacy:Modified mRNA nucleosides can improve the translation of mRNA into proteins. This means that base-modified mRNA vaccines can produce a stronger immune response.

Base-modified mRNA vaccines are still in the early stages of development, but they have the potential to be used to develop vaccines against a wide range of diseases, including:

  • Infectious diseases: Base-modified mRNA vaccines are being developed to protect against infectious diseases such as COVID-19, influenza, malaria, and HIV.
  • Cancer:Base-modified mRNA vaccines are being developed to treat cancer by targeting tumor-specific antigens.
  • Rare diseases:Base-modified mRNA vaccines are being developed to treat rare diseases caused by genetic mutations.

Some specific examples of mRNA vaccines that are currently in development for use after the COVID-19 pandemic:

  • Moderna:Moderna is developing mRNA vaccines for influenza, RSV, HIV, and cancer.
  • Pfizer-BioNTech:Pfizer-BioNTech is developing mRNA vaccines for influenza, RSV, malaria, and shingles.
  • CureVac:CureVac is developing mRNA vaccines for influenza, rabies, and Zika virus.
  • Arcturus Therapeutics:Arcturus Therapeutics is developing mRNA vaccines for COVID-19 variants, influenza, and RSV.

Base-modified mRNA vaccines are a promising new technology with the potential to revolutionize the way we prevent and treat diseases. As base-modified mRNA vaccine technology continues to advance, we can expect to see even more innovative and effective vaccines against a wide range of diseases.

WHAT ARE mRNA VACCINES AND HOW DO THEY WORK?

The mRNA vaccines are a new type of vaccines that use messenger RNA (mRNA) to teach the body how to make proteins that can help in immunity system. mRNA is a molecule that carries instructions from DNA to the ribosome, where proteins are made.

How mRNA vaccines work?

  1. An mRNA vaccine is injected into the body.
  2. The mRNA enters cells and is translated into proteins.
  3. The proteins are displayed on the surface of the cell.
  4. The immune system recognizes the proteins as foreign and produces antibodies and other immune cells against them.
  5. If the body is infected with the pathogen that the vaccine is targeting, the immune system will be able to quickly recognize and destroy the pathogen.

The mRNA vaccines have a number of advantages over traditional vaccines:

  • They are very fast to develop, because they do not require the cultivation of live viruses or bacteria.
  • They can be easily modified to target different pathogens, making them a versatile platform for developing vaccines against new and emerging threats.
  • They are generally very safe, with mild side effects being the most common.
  • They have been shown to be highly effective against COVID-19, preventing serious illness, hospitalization, and death.

SIGNIFICANCE THE DISCOVERY OF mRNA VACCINES

The significance of the Nobel Prize awarded to Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman for their contributions to mRNA vaccines is multi-faceted and has wide-ranging implications. The significance of their work:

RECOGNITION OF PIONEERING MRNA RESEARCH

  • The groundbreaking discoveries in using modified nucleosides in synthetic mRNA can lay the foundation for mRNA vaccine technology.

REVOLUTION IN VACCINE DEVELOPMENT

  • The Nobel Prize underscores the revolutionary impact of mRNA vaccines on the field of vaccinology. These vaccines represent a paradigm shift, offering a faster and more adaptable approach to vaccine development.

GLOBAL HEALTH IMPACT

  • The award acknowledges the role of mRNA vaccines in addressing the global COVID-19 pandemic. mRNA vaccines like Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna have been instrumental in controlling the spread of the virus.

COLLABORATION AND INTERDISCIPLINARY SCIENCE

  • It highlights the collaborative efforts of scientists from different backgrounds and countries. Their collaboration underscores the importance of international cooperation and interdisciplinary research in addressing global health challenges.

INSPIRATION FOR FUTURE RESEARCH

  • It reinforces the importance of perseverance and long-term commitment to scientific endeavors.

ECONOMIC AND SOCIETAL IMPACT

  • The significance of mRNA vaccines extends beyond science and has social and economic ramifications in terms of vaccine manufacturing, distribution, and access.

EDUCATIONAL IMPLICATIONS

  • It underscores the importance of investing in scientific research and education to drive medical advancements and address global health challenges effectively

THE CONCLUSION: The Nobel Prize awarded to Katalin Karikó and Drew Weissman for their contributions to mRNA vaccines is significant role in future. This is because it not only recognizes their individual and collaborative achievements but also highlights the transformative impact of mRNA vaccine technology on public health, global disease control, and the future of medical research and development. Thanks to the progress in molecular biology in recent decades, vaccines based on individual viral components, rather than whole viruses, have been developed.

UPSC PERSPECTIVE QUESTIONS

Q.1 Recent breakthroughs in mRNA technology have revolutionized the fields ranging from vaccines to therapeutics. Discuss the significance of these advancements.

Q.2 What is mRNA technology? Discuss the challenges and ethical considerations associated with the use of mRNA. How can India harness this technology for public health and scientific advancement?

UPSC Civil Services Examination (PYQs)

Prelims

Q. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.

2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector-based platform.

3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a)    1 and 2 only

(b)    2 and 3 only

(c)    1 and 3 only

(d)    1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Mains

Q.1 What is the basic principle behind vaccine development? How do vaccines work? What approaches were adopted by the Indian vaccine manufacturers to produce COVID-19 vaccines? (2022)




Day-564 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Wild pigs and nilgai enjoy the same level of protection in India.
    Statement II: Both of these species are listed under the Schedule III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect: Wild pigs and nilgai, among others, enjoy the same level of protection in the country. Wild pigs and nilgai are placed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act after the recent amendments made to the list in 2023.
    ● The hunting of these animals by any individual is prohibited as per the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act.
    ● If the Chief Wildlife Warden or the authorised officer is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule II has become dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land) or is disabled or diseased beyond recovery, only then the hunting of such animals is permitted by written order of the authority.
    ● The provisions of the amended act also mention that the Central Government through a notification can declare any wild animal specified in Schedule II to be vermin for any area. The period for which it is declared as vermin should also be specified in the notification.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect: Wild pigs and nilgai, among others, enjoy the same level of protection in the country. Wild pigs and nilgai are placed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act after the recent amendments made to the list in 2023.
    ● The hunting of these animals by any individual is prohibited as per the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act.
    ● If the Chief Wildlife Warden or the authorised officer is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule II has become dangerous to human life or to property (including standing crops on any land) or is disabled or diseased beyond recovery, only then the hunting of such animals is permitted by written order of the authority.
    ● The provisions of the amended act also mention that the Central Government through a notification can declare any wild animal specified in Schedule II to be vermin for any area. The period for which it is declared as vermin should also be specified in the notification.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. The term ‘ Ampelognathus coheni ‘ mentioned in the media was in reference to:

    Correct

    Answer. A
    Explanation: An extraordinary discovery has been made in the Dallas-Fort Worth area of Texas in the USA, as palaeontologists have identified a new dinosaur species that lived approximately 96 million years ago. The species, named Ampelognathus coheni, is particularly significant because herbivorous dinosaur fossils are seldom found in North Texas.
    It is the first small-bodied ornithopod dinosaur discovered from the Lewisville Formation.
    Dinosaurs roamed Earth roughly 175 million years ago, and most were wiped out by an extinction event roughly 65 million years ago.
    Additional information: Similar discovery from India
    Indian palaeontologists have unearthed one of the world’s oldest fossils of a long-neck, plant-eating dinosaur from Thar desert in Rajasthan.
    The dinosaur has been named Tharosaurus indicus after the desert and is the oldest known member of a family of the ancient creatures called Diplodocoidea. A more famous member of the same family is Diplodocus, made popular by blockbuster movies like Jurassic Park.
    Tharosaurus is half of a size of a diplodocus. Its neck-to-tail length is about 10-13 mt while that of a diplodocus was around 26 mt.

    Incorrect

    Answer. A
    Explanation: An extraordinary discovery has been made in the Dallas-Fort Worth area of Texas in the USA, as palaeontologists have identified a new dinosaur species that lived approximately 96 million years ago. The species, named Ampelognathus coheni, is particularly significant because herbivorous dinosaur fossils are seldom found in North Texas.
    It is the first small-bodied ornithopod dinosaur discovered from the Lewisville Formation.
    Dinosaurs roamed Earth roughly 175 million years ago, and most were wiped out by an extinction event roughly 65 million years ago.
    Additional information: Similar discovery from India
    Indian palaeontologists have unearthed one of the world’s oldest fossils of a long-neck, plant-eating dinosaur from Thar desert in Rajasthan.
    The dinosaur has been named Tharosaurus indicus after the desert and is the oldest known member of a family of the ancient creatures called Diplodocoidea. A more famous member of the same family is Diplodocus, made popular by blockbuster movies like Jurassic Park.
    Tharosaurus is half of a size of a diplodocus. Its neck-to-tail length is about 10-13 mt while that of a diplodocus was around 26 mt.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following:
    1. Killer whales
    2. Chimpanzees
    3. Humans
    4. Dolphins
    5. Orangutan
    Menopause as a characteristic feature, has been witnessed in how many of the above-mentioned species?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation: Options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
    While humans, short-finned pilot whales, killer whales are among the only long-lived mammals that undergo menopause, dolphins continue to reproduce throughout their life. Dolphins don’t experience menopause.
    ● After decades of observations in a rainforest in Uganda, the scientists discovered that some chimpanzees go through menopause, too. Without much disease, Ngogo chimpanzees may live long enough to experience menopause.
    ● A female orangutan named ‘Gina’ at Durrell wildlife park (Jerzey Island) is believed to have gone through the menopause, the first time this is known to have been medically recorded. Orangutans and humans share 97.6% of their DNA. This research has established that orangutans experience menopause too.

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation: Options 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
    While humans, short-finned pilot whales, killer whales are among the only long-lived mammals that undergo menopause, dolphins continue to reproduce throughout their life. Dolphins don’t experience menopause.
    ● After decades of observations in a rainforest in Uganda, the scientists discovered that some chimpanzees go through menopause, too. Without much disease, Ngogo chimpanzees may live long enough to experience menopause.
    ● A female orangutan named ‘Gina’ at Durrell wildlife park (Jerzey Island) is believed to have gone through the menopause, the first time this is known to have been medically recorded. Orangutans and humans share 97.6% of their DNA. This research has established that orangutans experience menopause too.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    1. The term ‘Critical Tiger Habitat’ is mentioned in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    2. The term ‘Critical Wildlife Habitat’ is defined in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
    3. A national park or a wildlife sanctuary constituting the core area of a tiger reserve is included in ‘Critical Tiger Habitat’.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statements 1 and 3 are correct: “Section 38V” of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (as amended in 2006) explains the core or critical tiger habitat as well as the buffer or peripheral area of a tiger reserve.
    A tiger reserve includes two parts:
    A. Core area or critical tiger habitat (National Park or Sanctuary status).
    B. Buffer or peripheral area
    The phrase ‘core or critical tiger habitat’ is mentioned only in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as a sequel to the amendment made to the said Act in 2006. It is NOT defined in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
    Critical tiger habitats are considered as inviolate areas in tiger reserves. ‘Core or critical tiger habitat’ is different from ‘critical wildlife habitat’. Since tigers are territorial big cats, hence considering their social land tenure dynamics, the ‘core / critical tiger habitat’ has been viewed separately from the ‘critical wildlife habitat’, which is applicable to other wild animal species.
    Statement 2 is correct: The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH) is notified within national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
    FRA defines CWHs as ‘areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation’. In order to notify a CWH, the Act requires state governments to establish that the presence of right-holders is causing irreversible damage to wildlife and their habitats, and that co-existence between rights holders and wildlife was not a reasonable option.
    While the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal authority for the Forest Rights Act, the law identifies the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC) as the agency to notify the guidelines regarding the notification and declaration of critical wildlife habitats.
    MoEF&CC finally issued CWH guidelines in January 2018. Key features of guidelines:
    ● The Chief Wildlife Warden of a state will notify an Expert Committee for the purpose of identification of critical wildlife habitats (CWH) in a national park or sanctuary.
    ● The Expert Committee will identify areas within national parks and sanctuaries, based on scientific and objective criteria relevant to the protected area, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of wildlife conservation.
    ● The Expert Committee shall issue a public notice on the intention to notify CWH. The public notice shall include details of areas required to be kept inviolate, criteria adopted for CWH identification, implication of the notification on existing rights, and all options of resettlement and rehabilitation schemes, if applicable.
    ● The Expert Committee shall carry out open consultations with all stakeholders, and the proceedings of the consultations, especially the objections, will be documented appropriately.
    ● The committee will submit the CWH proposal to the Chief Wildlife Warden. The decision on the proposal will be taken by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife. A Ministry of Tribal Affairs representative would be invited during the deliberation of the proposal by the standing committee. Following the committee’s recommendation, the notification of CWH will be published in the official gazette.

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statements 1 and 3 are correct: “Section 38V” of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (as amended in 2006) explains the core or critical tiger habitat as well as the buffer or peripheral area of a tiger reserve.
    A tiger reserve includes two parts:
    A. Core area or critical tiger habitat (National Park or Sanctuary status).
    B. Buffer or peripheral area
    The phrase ‘core or critical tiger habitat’ is mentioned only in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as a sequel to the amendment made to the said Act in 2006. It is NOT defined in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
    Critical tiger habitats are considered as inviolate areas in tiger reserves. ‘Core or critical tiger habitat’ is different from ‘critical wildlife habitat’. Since tigers are territorial big cats, hence considering their social land tenure dynamics, the ‘core / critical tiger habitat’ has been viewed separately from the ‘critical wildlife habitat’, which is applicable to other wild animal species.
    Statement 2 is correct: The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and NOT in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWH) is notified within national parks and wildlife sanctuaries.
    FRA defines CWHs as ‘areas of national parks and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation’. In order to notify a CWH, the Act requires state governments to establish that the presence of right-holders is causing irreversible damage to wildlife and their habitats, and that co-existence between rights holders and wildlife was not a reasonable option.
    While the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal authority for the Forest Rights Act, the law identifies the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC) as the agency to notify the guidelines regarding the notification and declaration of critical wildlife habitats.
    MoEF&CC finally issued CWH guidelines in January 2018. Key features of guidelines:
    ● The Chief Wildlife Warden of a state will notify an Expert Committee for the purpose of identification of critical wildlife habitats (CWH) in a national park or sanctuary.
    ● The Expert Committee will identify areas within national parks and sanctuaries, based on scientific and objective criteria relevant to the protected area, required to be kept inviolate for the purpose of wildlife conservation.
    ● The Expert Committee shall issue a public notice on the intention to notify CWH. The public notice shall include details of areas required to be kept inviolate, criteria adopted for CWH identification, implication of the notification on existing rights, and all options of resettlement and rehabilitation schemes, if applicable.
    ● The Expert Committee shall carry out open consultations with all stakeholders, and the proceedings of the consultations, especially the objections, will be documented appropriately.
    ● The committee will submit the CWH proposal to the Chief Wildlife Warden. The decision on the proposal will be taken by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife. A Ministry of Tribal Affairs representative would be invited during the deliberation of the proposal by the standing committee. Following the committee’s recommendation, the notification of CWH will be published in the official gazette.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to environment, the term ‘eDNA’, recently seen in the news, can be best understood as:

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation: The ability to identify certain animals living in an environment through environmental DNA, or ‘eDNA.’ has revolutionized conservation and wildlife monitoring.
    Environmental DNA or eDNA refers to eDNA is DNA shed by all organisms into their surroundings through natural processes during their lifetime or after death.
    A new method has been developed by the researchers at the Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES) which is cheaper, faster, and highly scalable to large freshwater and marine ecosystems which can help in monitoring and conserving the rich biodiversity of our country.
    LaCONES is a CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) laboratory headquartered in Hyderabad.
    The new non-invasive method can assess the total biodiversity of any ecosystem by sequencing the DNA fragments found in the environmental samples such as water, soil or air. This method can detect all kinds of organisms, including viruses, bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes such as fungi, plants, insects, birds, fish and other animals from just a few litres of water sample without any direct capture or counting of species.
    The scientists tested their method in the highly biodiverse wetland ecosystem of Chilika Lagoon in Odisha, the country’s largest brackish water lagoon. By comparing over 10 billion sequences of eDNA fragments from multiple seasonal samples with a large database of reference sequences from all the known species, the researchers were able to detect organisms across the tree of life.

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation: The ability to identify certain animals living in an environment through environmental DNA, or ‘eDNA.’ has revolutionized conservation and wildlife monitoring.
    Environmental DNA or eDNA refers to eDNA is DNA shed by all organisms into their surroundings through natural processes during their lifetime or after death.
    A new method has been developed by the researchers at the Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES) which is cheaper, faster, and highly scalable to large freshwater and marine ecosystems which can help in monitoring and conserving the rich biodiversity of our country.
    LaCONES is a CSIR-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) laboratory headquartered in Hyderabad.
    The new non-invasive method can assess the total biodiversity of any ecosystem by sequencing the DNA fragments found in the environmental samples such as water, soil or air. This method can detect all kinds of organisms, including viruses, bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes such as fungi, plants, insects, birds, fish and other animals from just a few litres of water sample without any direct capture or counting of species.
    The scientists tested their method in the highly biodiverse wetland ecosystem of Chilika Lagoon in Odisha, the country’s largest brackish water lagoon. By comparing over 10 billion sequences of eDNA fragments from multiple seasonal samples with a large database of reference sequences from all the known species, the researchers were able to detect organisms across the tree of life.

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SURGE IN PARTICIPATORY NOTES (P-NOTES) INVESTMENTS

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Investments through Participatory Notes (P-Notes) in the Indian capital markets witnessed a substantial rise, reaching ₹1.31 lakh crore by the end of November.

EXPLANATION:

  • This surge followed a decline in the previous month and was attributed to the robust performance of the domestic market amidst stable macroeconomic conditions.
  • Since March, P-notes investments had shown a steady upward trajectory, reflecting stable domestic macroeconomic factors against a backdrop of global uncertainty.
  • The data encompasses investments in Indian equity, debt, and hybrid securities through P-notes.

Participatory Notes

  • P-notes are instruments issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who seek exposure to the Indian stock market without direct registration.
  • However, investors utilizing P-notes are required to undergo a due diligence process.
  • As per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) data, P-note investments in Indian markets (equity, debt, and hybrid securities) reached ₹1,31,664 crore by November’s conclusion, showcasing an increase from ₹1,26,320 crore recorded in October.
  • The growth in P-notes typically correlates with trends in Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPIs).
  • In times of global environmental risk, investments through P-notes tend to rise, and conversely, they decrease in more stable environments.

Factors Influencing the Surge

  • Experts suggested that the decline in U.S. Treasury bond yields could have prompted Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to redirect their focus to the Indian market in pursuit of better returns.
  • Additionally, the attraction of Initial Public Offerings (IPOs) might have lured foreign investors back into the Indian market.

Previous Highs and Recent Trends

  • Prior to this recent surge, investments through P-notes hit a six-year peak at ₹1,33,284 crore by September-end.
  • This marked the highest level since July 2017 when P-notes investments stood at ₹1.35 lakh crore, indicating a positive and upward trend in P-notes utilization.

Conclusion: Impact and Future Implications

  • The resurgence in P-notes investments signifies increased confidence among foreign investors in the Indian market’s potential.
  • This trend, coupled with factors such as declining bond yields and attractive IPO listings, suggests a favourable outlook for foreign investment inflows into India’s capital markets.
  • The flexibility and appeal of P-notes continue to play a significant role in facilitating overseas investor participation in India’s financial landscape.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/investments-in-p-notes-rise-in-nov-to-131-lakh-cr/article67681158.ece




GOVERNMENT INCREASES MINIMUM SUPPORT PRICE (MSP) FOR COPRA IN 2024

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY, AGRICULTURE

THE CONTEXT: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) has approved a significant increase in the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for copra for the 2024 season.

EXPLANATION:

  • This decision aims to support coconut growers by offering higher remunerative returns and encouraging the expansion of copra production.
  • The new MSP for milling copra has been raised to ₹11,160 per quintal, marking a ₹300 per quintal increase from the previous year.
  • Ball copra’s new MSP stands at ₹12,000 per quintal, showing a hike of ₹250 per quintal from the previous year.
  • These revised rates will be effective from the upcoming year.

Government’s Rationale for the MSP Increase

  • Union Minister for Information and Broadcasting highlighted that despite global declines in copra prices, the government is committed to ensuring an MSP at least 50% higher than the production cost.
  • This move represents an effort to support coconut farmers amidst challenging market conditions.

Margin Ensured by the New Rates

  • The government’s release indicates that the new MSP rates guarantee a margin of 51.84% for milling copra and 63.26% for ball copra.
  • Milling copra, utilized for oil extraction, is majorly produced in Kerala and Tamil Nadu, while Karnataka is a significant producer of ball copra, consumed as a dry fruit and for religious purposes.

MSP Growth Over the Years

  • The government highlighted the significant increase in MSP over the past decade.
  • The MSP for both milling and ball copra has risen from ₹5,250 and ₹5,500 per quintal in 2014-15 to ₹11,160 and ₹12,000 per quintal in 2024-25, respectively, indicating a growth of 113% and 118%.

Impact and Benefits

  • The government emphasized that the heightened MSP will not only benefit coconut growers by providing better returns but will also incentivize farmers to expand copra production.
  • This expansion aims to meet the rising demand for coconut products both domestically and internationally.

Procurement Details and Agencies Involved

  • In 2023, the government procured over 1.33 lakh metric tonnes of copra, amounting to ₹1,493 crore, benefiting approximately 90,000 farmers.
  • This procurement reflects a significant 227% increase compared to the previous season (2022).
  • The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED) and National Cooperative Consumers’ Federation (NCCF) will continue to act as Central Nodal Agencies (CNAs) for copra and de-husked coconut procurement under the Price Support Scheme (PSS).

Price Support Scheme (PSS)

  • It is being implemented by the Government of India in the state.
  • It is one of the components of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (AASA) scheme.
  • The Department of Agriculture & Cooperation implements this scheme for procurement of oil seeds, pulses and cotton, through NAFED which is the Central nodal agency, at the MSP declared by the government.
  • Bajra, Jowar, Maize, Paddy, Cotton, Tur, Moong, Urad, Groundnut, Sesamum Wheat, Gram, Mustard, Sugarcane etc. are the major crops covered.
  • Farmers get the benefit of the scheme through the sale of their produce at support price in APMC centres opened by the Nodal procurement agency.
  • When prices of commodities fall below the MSP, State and central notified procurement nodal agencies purchase commodities directly from the farmers at MSP, Under specified FAQ (fair Average Quality).

Conclusion:

  • Supportive Measures for Coconut Growers The government’s decision to increase the MSP for copra signifies its commitment to bolstering the livelihoods of coconut farmers.
  • By ensuring better returns and stimulating increased copra production, the move aims to strengthen the coconut industry, meeting both domestic and global demand for coconut-based products.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/agri-business/centre-hikes-copra-msp-by-250-300-hike-per-quintal-for-2024-season/article67679949.ece




HUNTINGTON’S DISEASE THROUGH MOLECULAR UNDERSTANDING

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, in a study genetically engineered fruit flies were utilised to express mutated human HTT genes in their nervous systems.

EXPLANATION:

  • HTT is a gene code for a protein called huntingtin.
  • Leveraging the Gal4/UAS system from baker’s yeast, researchers induced the expression of abnormal Htt proteins with extended glutamine repeats (120 units) specifically in fruit fly neurons.
  • These flies exhibited neuronal degeneration, impaired motor function, reduced viability, and lifespan.

Critical Discovery: The Yod1 Gene’s Impact

  • Researchers tested 32 genes and identified Yod1’s significant impact when overexpressed in fruit flies.
  • Elevated Yod1 expression reversed disease-like effects, restoring neuronal health, motor function, and viability.
  • Notably, flies expressing shorter glutamine tracts or co-expressing Yod1 showed no signs of neurodegeneration.

Potential Implications and Future Research

  • The study’s findings highlight Yod1’s potential therapeutic role in Huntington’s disease, indicating a possible avenue for intervention.
  • However, further research is crucial to validate these results in humans.
  • Fruit fly studies provide invaluable insights into the molecular mechanisms underlying disease progression, offering unparalleled flexibility compared to clinical or postmortem investigations.

Understanding Huntington’s Disease: Molecular Level Insights

  • Huntington’s disease is a devastating neurodegenerative disorder characterized by a mutated HTT gene, leading to the production of an abnormal protein called huntingtin (Htt).
  • This defective protein triggers the destruction of neurons controlling movement, cognition, and memory.
  • Patients initially experience mild symptoms like forgetfulness and clumsiness, progressing to severe motor and cognitive impairments.

Molecular Basis: Glutamine Repeats and Dominant Gene Mutation

  • The normal HTT gene contains a specific sequence encoding glutamine repeats (11 to 31 times).
  • In the mutated HTT gene, this sequence expands to 35 or more repeats, correlating with increased disease severity and earlier onset.
  • Huntington’s disease is triggered even if only one copy of the gene is mutated, displaying dominance over the normal gene.

Role of Polyglutamine Tracts and Neuronal Degeneration

  • Several proteins, like Htt, possess polyglutamine tracts encoded by larger DNA sequences in mutated genes.
  • These expanded tracts can cause region-specific neuronal degeneration in the brain, disrupting cellular processes and leading to various motor control disorders.

Toxic Fragments and Neuronal Sensitivity

  • Enzymes cutting proteins with polyglutamine tracts produce toxic fragments interfering with cellular functions.
  • Different neurons exhibit varied sensitivity to these fragments, affecting neuronal health differently across regions.

Conclusion: Collaborative Efforts in Disease Research

  • As the study indicates the potential benefits of Yod1 in mitigating Huntington’s-like symptoms in fruit flies, it raises optimism for similar effects in humans.
  • The use of model organisms, like yeast and fruit flies, showcases the collaborative effort involving various scientific communities dedicated to unravelling complex diseases like Huntington’s.
  • These findings underscore the significance of multidisciplinary approaches in advancing medical understanding and potential treatments.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/2023-12-28/th_chennai/articleGUJC6U026-5321280.ece




SLIM’S REVOLUTION IN LUNAR LANDINGS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, Japan’s Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) spacecraft entered into orbit around the moon after a months-long journey, and ahead of its planned moon-landing attempt on January 19.

EXPLANATION:

  • Japan’s Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) spacecraft represents a significant advancement in lunar exploration.
  • It entered the moon’s orbit, marking Japan’s endeavour to soft-land a robotic craft on the lunar surface.
  • SLIM’s success or failure is poised to impact not only Japan’s lunar exploration initiatives but also India’s Chandrayaan missions, notably Chandrayaan-4.

Factors Contributing to SLIM’s Lower Weight and Impact on Mission Objectives

  • SLIM’s remarkable attribute lies in its significantly lower weight compared to other lunar exploration missions.
  • Weighing a mere 590 kg at launch, approximately one-seventh of the Chandrayaan-3 mission’s weight, SLIM’s lighter design stems from carrying much less fuel.
  • This weight reduction allows SLIM to follow a more fuel-efficient trajectory, taking four months to reach the moon compared to Chandrayaan-3’s quicker journey.
  • The spacecraft’s fuel-thrifty route, based on weak-stability boundary theory, involved swinging around Earth multiple times to build kinetic energy before shooting toward the moon’s orbit.
  • Upon nearing the moon, instead of slowing down to be captured by lunar gravity, SLIM allowed itself to be deflected by the combined forces of Earth and the moon, resulting in an elongated trajectory.

SLIM’s Lunar Objectives and Precision Landing

  • SLIM’s distinctive feature, termed the “moon sniper,” is its planned landing attempt on January 19, aiming to land within a remarkably tight limit of 100 meters from its chosen site near the Shioli Crater.
  • This precision far exceeds previous moon-landing missions’ accuracy. SLIM’s maneuverability, owing to its lower mass of 120 kg (excluding fuel), and small size will be tested during this endeavour.
  • Additionally, two small rovers, LEV-1 and LEV-2, will be deployed to study the lunar surface, collect data on temperature, radiation, and explore the moon’s mantle.

Impact on Chandrayaan-4 and India-Japan Lunar Exploration

  • SLIM’s success or failure holds implications for India’s Chandrayaan missions.
  • Chandrayaan-4, part of the Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) lunar exploration program, is slated as an Indian-Japan joint enterprise, although India’s final approval is pending.
  • Scheduled for a potential launch in 2026, Chandrayaan-4 aims to explore the moon’s South Pole region, focusing on areas perpetually shadowed that likely contain water-ice deposits.
  • The technologies tested by JAXA through SLIM, particularly the feature-matching algorithm and navigation systems, will be critical for Chandrayaan-4’s success.
  • This joint mission will involve Japan providing the launch vehicle and lunar rover, while India contributes the lander module.
  • The mission’s landing site, potentially closer to the moon’s South Pole, poses challenges due to rocky terrain and steep slopes, demanding precision in landing.
  • SLIM’s pioneering precision landing attempt influences the design and approach of Chandrayaan-4, shaping the future of India-Japan lunar exploration.

Conclusion

  • SLIM’s innovative approach to lunar landings and its precision-oriented mission signify a significant leap in space exploration.
  • Its success not only expands Japan’s achievements in lunar missions but also impacts the trajectory and technological advancements in India-Japan collaborative lunar exploration, notably influencing the forthcoming Chandrayaan-4 mission’s strategies and objectives.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/2023-12-28/th_chennai/articleGUJC6U06L-5321286.ece




AARDVARKS AND CLIMATE CHANGE: IMPACT ON SUB-SAHARAN ECOSYSTEMS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Recent studies, particularly from Oregon State University, highlighted the detrimental effects of climate change on aardvarks.

EXPLANATION:

  • The warming climate has led to aridification in their landscapes, significantly impacting their survival chances.
  • Aridification involves the drying and heating of the aardvarks’ habitats, causing disruptions in their distribution and movement patterns across the landscape.

Aardvarks

  • Aardvarks, the nocturnal burrowing mammals found across much of sub-Saharan Africa, play a crucial role in the region’s ecosystem.
  • Their habitat primarily includes savannah and semi-arid areas, where they contribute significantly by controlling termite populations that can otherwise damage human structures.
  • Additionally, their burrows serve as essential habitats for various other species.

Research Insights: Understanding Aardvark Population Dynamics

  • The study published in the journal Diversity and Distributions conducted by researchers at Oregon State University delved into a detailed examination of aardvark populations across various regions in sub-Saharan Africa.
  • The research aimed to understand how the changing landscape due to aridification affected the genetic structure and population dynamics of aardvarks.

Methodology and Findings

  • The researchers surveyed multiple areas in South Africa, Eswatini (formerly Swaziland), and Kenya to evaluate the impact of landscape on gene flow and genetic structure across different spatial extents.
  • They collected and analyzed a substantial number of aardvark faecal samples, totalling 253, and scrutinized 104 samples for genetic information.
  • At the local scale, the study revealed that aardvark populations in different regions within South Africa exhibited some level of separation.
  • They found individual aardvarks in various locations, with closely related ones being separated by significant distances, up to 7.3 km apart.
  • Genetic similarities were observed in aardvarks within 55 km, indicating their proximity as a determinant of genetic likeness.

Effects of Arid Areas on Aardvark Genetic Differentiation

  • The research identified that arid areas across South Africa and Eswatini posed challenges to gene flow among aardvark populations.
  • These areas acted as barriers, limiting genetic exchange among aardvarks.
  • The study correlated this phenomenon with lower rainfall, resulting in reduced vegetation and subsequently fewer termites and ants—the primary diet of aardvarks.

Conclusion and Recommendations

  • The study concluded that climate, particularly arid conditions, significantly influences the genetic structure of aardvarks.
  • Arid areas restrict gene flow among populations and drive genetic adaptation associated with temperature changes.
  • Consequently, the researchers recommend monitoring aardvark presence as an indicator of ecosystem changes attributed to aridification in sub-Saharan Africa.

Significance and Conservation Implications

  • Understanding how climate change impacts species like aardvarks is crucial for informed conservation and ecosystem management.
  • Aardvarks, despite being nocturnal, hard to trap, and existing in low densities across vast landscapes, play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.
  • Addressing the challenges they face due to climate change-induced aridification is imperative to ensure their continued presence and the overall health of sub-Saharan ecosystems.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/aardvarks-are-crucial-for-sub-saharan-africa-s-ecosystem-but-climate-change-is-impacting-their-chances-of-survival-93584




UNJUST AND UNWISE: ON COUNTER-INSURGENCY OPERATIONS IN J&K

THE CONTEXT: In a conflict-prone border province such as Jammu and Kashmir (J&K), security forces have to tackle not only terrorism but also engage in counter-insurgency operations in a precise and just manner.  The death of soldiers by militants and civilians who were detained by the Army in the area is a severe indictment of the counter-insurgency tactics there.

CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS RELATED TO RIGHTS OF ARMED FORCES:

Article 33 is an exception to the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution. It empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the application of the fundamental rights in relation to Armed Forces, Paramilitary Forces, Police, Persons employed in intelligence or counterintelligence services, and communication systems set up for the said organizations.

Acts such as the Army Act 1950, Navy Act 1957, Air Forces Act 1950 have been enacted as per Article 33. These acts restrict rights such as

  • Freedom of speech and expression
  • Freedom of assembly
  • Freedom to form associations and unions

ISSUES:

  • Human rights violation: The exercise of the extraordinary powers by armed forces has lead to allegations of fake encounters and other human rights violations in the disturbed areas.
  • Law and order situations: “Fake encounter” deaths and alleged torture by security agencies in the Valley have resulted in spurts of increased militancy besides public outrage that developed into major law and order situations.
  • Trust issues with the ruling government: Such actions by security forces targeting civilians in response to militant attacks are clearly problematic. It increases the unpopularity of a regime that has not been democratically elected in the Union Territory where provincial elections have not been held for more than half a decade.
  • Feeling of Alienation:Indiscrimination in the use of violence targeting civilians without just cause only results in the questioning of that legitimacy in the eyes of the people. The use of force further increases the feeling of alienation of the people in the region and solidification of militant actions.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Proactive approach of government: The government needs to adopt a more proactive approach toward safeguarding the rights of soldiers upholding both constitutional and moral principles.
  • Development of Disturbed areas: The lack of development in the region is also a major reason for the insurgency over there. Therefore, the Government should take urgent steps to create new opportunities for growth and development.
  • Effective justice delivery: The government agencies must now deliver justice quickly and in a firm manner. There is a need of greater transparency in communicating the status of existing cases to include its display on the army and government’s web sites. Every death caused by the armed forces in a disturbed area, be it of a common person or a criminal, should be independently enquired into and followed by adequate action.

THE CONCLUSION:

Peace and Rights can be established by only synchronised efforts of central and state government along with security forces. There is an urgent need for a clear-cut policy discussing the rights and duties of the security forces and at the same time society needs to be made aware of the sensitivity that an armed force personnel also deserves.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss The future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. (2016)

Q.2 The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-islaami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Fake encounter deaths and alleged torture by security agencies in the Jammu and Kashmir have resulted in spurts of increased militancy besides public outrage that developed into major law and order situations. Examine

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/unjust-and-unwise-the-hindu-editorial-on-counter-insurgency-operations-in-jammu-kashmir/article67680557.ece




Day-563 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. The term ‘Title 42’, often seen in the news, is related to which of the following?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Context: The United States lifted Title 42 that has blocked migrants caught at the U.S.-Mexico border from seeking asylum since 2020 in May 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● The COVID restrictions, known as Title 42, were first implemented under Republican then-President Donald Trump in March 2020 at the beginning of the pandemic.
    ● At the time, the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) said the order was needed to stem the spread of the coronavirus in crowded detention settings.
    ● Title 42 allowed border agents to rapidly expel many migrants to Mexico, but some public health experts, Democrats and advocates criticized its health justification, saying it was part of Trump’s goal of curbing legal and illegal immigration.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Context: The United States lifted Title 42 that has blocked migrants caught at the U.S.-Mexico border from seeking asylum since 2020 in May 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● The COVID restrictions, known as Title 42, were first implemented under Republican then-President Donald Trump in March 2020 at the beginning of the pandemic.
    ● At the time, the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) said the order was needed to stem the spread of the coronavirus in crowded detention settings.
    ● Title 42 allowed border agents to rapidly expel many migrants to Mexico, but some public health experts, Democrats and advocates criticized its health justification, saying it was part of Trump’s goal of curbing legal and illegal immigration.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements regarding the Arab League:
    1. It is a regional organization of Arab states which are geographically located only in the Middle East, aiming to strengthen ties among member states.
    2. It was formed in Cairo, Egypt, following the adoption of the Alexandria Protocol in 1944.
    3. It currently consists of 22 members including Palestine which is one of its founding members.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: The Arab League in May 2023 voted to reinstate Syria’s membership after its suspension more than 10 years ago, underlining the thawing relations between Damascus and other Arab countries. Syria’s participation has been suspended since November 2011 as a consequence of government repression during the Syrian Civil War.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa to strengthen ties among member states.
    Statement 2 is correct: It was formed in Cairo, Egypt, following the adoption of the Alexandria Protocol in 1944.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It currently consists of 22 members, but Palestine is not one of its founding members. Members: Algeria, Bahrain, Comoros, Djibouti, Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Mauritania, Morocco, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Sudan, Syria, Tunisia, the United Arab Emirates, and Yemen.
    Founding members: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria.

    Additional information:
    ● It aims to strengthen and coordinate the political, cultural, economic, and social programs of its members and to mediate disputes among them or between them and third parties.
    ● The signing on 13th April 1950, of an agreement on joint defense and economic cooperation also committed the signatories to coordination of military defense measures.
    ● According to the Council on Foreign Relations, an American think tank, “The League makes decisions on a majority basis, but there is no mechanism to compel members to comply with resolutions. “It has been criticised for its internal conflicts and collective inaction on important international issues.”

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: The Arab League in May 2023 voted to reinstate Syria’s membership after its suspension more than 10 years ago, underlining the thawing relations between Damascus and other Arab countries. Syria’s participation has been suspended since November 2011 as a consequence of government repression during the Syrian Civil War.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa to strengthen ties among member states.
    Statement 2 is correct: It was formed in Cairo, Egypt, following the adoption of the Alexandria Protocol in 1944.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It currently consists of 22 members, but Palestine is not one of its founding members. Members: Algeria, Bahrain, Comoros, Djibouti, Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Mauritania, Morocco, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Sudan, Syria, Tunisia, the United Arab Emirates, and Yemen.
    Founding members: Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria.

    Additional information:
    ● It aims to strengthen and coordinate the political, cultural, economic, and social programs of its members and to mediate disputes among them or between them and third parties.
    ● The signing on 13th April 1950, of an agreement on joint defense and economic cooperation also committed the signatories to coordination of military defense measures.
    ● According to the Council on Foreign Relations, an American think tank, “The League makes decisions on a majority basis, but there is no mechanism to compel members to comply with resolutions. “It has been criticised for its internal conflicts and collective inaction on important international issues.”

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. The 108-foot-tall ‘Statue of Oneness’ of Adi Shankaracharya was unveiled at Omkareshwar town, Madhya Pradesh recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Adi Shankaracharya?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Context: Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister has unveiled a colossal 108-foot statue of the 8th-century Hindu philosopher and saint, Adi Shankaracharya in September 2023 at Omkareshwar town, in Khandwa district, Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation:
    ● According to Sri Shankaracharya, knowledge is the only way to achieve salvation and to attain liberating enlightenment.
    ● He mentions that Sri Krishna in Srimad Bhagavadgita compares knowledge to a bright lamp that destroys the darkness of ignorance.
    Additional information:
    Shankaracharya (c. 788 – 820 CE)
    ● One of the mystic Bhakti poet-saint leaders who gave a new orientation to Hinduism.
    ● He was born in Kaladi in Kerala. He propounded the Advaita (Monism) philosophy and the idea of Nirgunabrahman (god without attributes).
    ● In Advaita, the reality of the world is denied, and Brahman is considered the only reality. It is only Brahman at its base that gives it its reality.
    ● His famous quotes include, ‘Brahma Satyam Jagat Mithya Jivo Brahmatra Naparaha’ meaning, “The Absolute Spirit is the reality, the world of appearance is Maya” and ‘Ekameva Adviteeyam Brahma’ meaning, “The absolute is one alone, not two”.
    ● Upadesasahasri, Vivekachudamani, Bhaja Govindum Stotra are some of the works authored by Shankaracharya. He also wrote commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita, the Brahma Sutra and the Upanishads.
    ● He set up mathas at Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri and Badrinath.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Context: Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister has unveiled a colossal 108-foot statue of the 8th-century Hindu philosopher and saint, Adi Shankaracharya in September 2023 at Omkareshwar town, in Khandwa district, Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation:
    ● According to Sri Shankaracharya, knowledge is the only way to achieve salvation and to attain liberating enlightenment.
    ● He mentions that Sri Krishna in Srimad Bhagavadgita compares knowledge to a bright lamp that destroys the darkness of ignorance.
    Additional information:
    Shankaracharya (c. 788 – 820 CE)
    ● One of the mystic Bhakti poet-saint leaders who gave a new orientation to Hinduism.
    ● He was born in Kaladi in Kerala. He propounded the Advaita (Monism) philosophy and the idea of Nirgunabrahman (god without attributes).
    ● In Advaita, the reality of the world is denied, and Brahman is considered the only reality. It is only Brahman at its base that gives it its reality.
    ● His famous quotes include, ‘Brahma Satyam Jagat Mithya Jivo Brahmatra Naparaha’ meaning, “The Absolute Spirit is the reality, the world of appearance is Maya” and ‘Ekameva Adviteeyam Brahma’ meaning, “The absolute is one alone, not two”.
    ● Upadesasahasri, Vivekachudamani, Bhaja Govindum Stotra are some of the works authored by Shankaracharya. He also wrote commentaries on the Bhagavad Gita, the Brahma Sutra and the Upanishads.
    ● He set up mathas at Dwarka, Puri, Sringeri and Badrinath.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Which of the following is correct regarding the objective of Tele MANAS?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS), helpline has reached a significant milestone. The toll-free service has received over 2,00,000 calls from various parts of the nation since the launch in 2022, portraying a consistently progressive trend.
    Explanation:
    ● The Tele (Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States) MANAS, the digital arm of the ‘District Mental Health Programme’) launched by the Government of India in October 2022 to strengthen mental health service delivery in the country.
    ● Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
    ● It aims to establish a digital mental health network that will withstand the challenges amplified by the pandemic.
    Objectives of Tele MANAS: –
    ● To enable people to seek support for their mental health issues while maintaining the anonymity of the callers, thereby reducing the stigma generally surrounding mental health issues.
    ● To exponentially scale up the reach of mental health services to anybody who reaches out, across India, any time, by setting up a 24×7 tele-mental health facility in each of the States and UTs of the country.
    ● To implement a full-fledged mental health-service network that, in addition to counselling, provides integrated medical and psychosocial interventions including video consultations with mental health specialists, e-prescriptions, follow-up services and linkages to in-person services.
    ● To extend services to vulnerable groups of the population and difficult-to-reach populations.
    Salient Features of Tele MANAS: –
    ● Tele MANAS will be organized as a two-tier system. (Tele-MANAS)
    ● Tier 1: comprise the State Tele MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists.
    ● Tier 2: comprise specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation.
    ● Toll-free helpline numbers: 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 with multi-language provision allows callers to select the language of their choice for availing the services. (Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health)
    Eligibility:
    ● Any individual with mental health issues can reach out to Tele MANAS services for help.
    ● Family members of persons with mental health issues can reach out for help.
    ● Grass-root health care providers/community health providers., Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), and community volunteers from the community can reach out to Tele MANAS on behalf of an individual or individuals in that community with mental health issues.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS), helpline has reached a significant milestone. The toll-free service has received over 2,00,000 calls from various parts of the nation since the launch in 2022, portraying a consistently progressive trend.
    Explanation:
    ● The Tele (Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States) MANAS, the digital arm of the ‘District Mental Health Programme’) launched by the Government of India in October 2022 to strengthen mental health service delivery in the country.
    ● Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
    ● It aims to establish a digital mental health network that will withstand the challenges amplified by the pandemic.
    Objectives of Tele MANAS: –
    ● To enable people to seek support for their mental health issues while maintaining the anonymity of the callers, thereby reducing the stigma generally surrounding mental health issues.
    ● To exponentially scale up the reach of mental health services to anybody who reaches out, across India, any time, by setting up a 24×7 tele-mental health facility in each of the States and UTs of the country.
    ● To implement a full-fledged mental health-service network that, in addition to counselling, provides integrated medical and psychosocial interventions including video consultations with mental health specialists, e-prescriptions, follow-up services and linkages to in-person services.
    ● To extend services to vulnerable groups of the population and difficult-to-reach populations.
    Salient Features of Tele MANAS: –
    ● Tele MANAS will be organized as a two-tier system. (Tele-MANAS)
    ● Tier 1: comprise the State Tele MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists.
    ● Tier 2: comprise specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation.
    ● Toll-free helpline numbers: 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 with multi-language provision allows callers to select the language of their choice for availing the services. (Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health)
    Eligibility:
    ● Any individual with mental health issues can reach out to Tele MANAS services for help.
    ● Family members of persons with mental health issues can reach out for help.
    ● Grass-root health care providers/community health providers., Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), and community volunteers from the community can reach out to Tele MANAS on behalf of an individual or individuals in that community with mental health issues.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. It is a robotic spacecraft that has been on a seven-year mission to collect and return samples from an asteroid called Bennu which is millions of kilometers from Earth. The mission in the paragraph refers to-

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Context: After a seven-year-round trip, NASA’s OSIRIS-REx brought asteroid samples to Earth in September, 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● NASA’s OSIRIS-REx is a robotic spacecraft that has been on a seven-year mission to collect and return samples from an asteroid called Bennu which is billions of kilometers from Earth.
    ● It took more than two years to reach Bennu after OSIRIS-REx launched in 2016. It then spent almost as much time mapping the asteroid, finding a site to scrape and collecting about 250 grams (8.8 ounces) of the rock. Then it began its journey back toward Earth.
    Additional information:
    ● It is the United States’ first asteroid sample return mission, aiming to collect and carry a pristine, unaltered sample from an asteroid back to earth for scientific study.
    ● The OSIRIS-REx (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security, Regolith Explorer) spacecraft was launched in 2016 for the journey to Bennu.
    ● The mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage and will conclude when at least 60 grams of samples are delivered back to the Earth (in 2023).
    ● As per NASA , the mission promises to bring the largest amount of extraterrestrial material back to the Earth since the Apollo era.
    ● Apollo was the NASA program that resulted in American astronauts’ making a total of 11 space flights and walking on the moon (1968-72).
    ● The spacecraft contains five instruments meant to explore Bennu, including cameras, a spectrometer and a laser altimeter.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Context: After a seven-year-round trip, NASA’s OSIRIS-REx brought asteroid samples to Earth in September, 2023.
    Explanation:
    ● NASA’s OSIRIS-REx is a robotic spacecraft that has been on a seven-year mission to collect and return samples from an asteroid called Bennu which is billions of kilometers from Earth.
    ● It took more than two years to reach Bennu after OSIRIS-REx launched in 2016. It then spent almost as much time mapping the asteroid, finding a site to scrape and collecting about 250 grams (8.8 ounces) of the rock. Then it began its journey back toward Earth.
    Additional information:
    ● It is the United States’ first asteroid sample return mission, aiming to collect and carry a pristine, unaltered sample from an asteroid back to earth for scientific study.
    ● The OSIRIS-REx (Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security, Regolith Explorer) spacecraft was launched in 2016 for the journey to Bennu.
    ● The mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage and will conclude when at least 60 grams of samples are delivered back to the Earth (in 2023).
    ● As per NASA , the mission promises to bring the largest amount of extraterrestrial material back to the Earth since the Apollo era.
    ● Apollo was the NASA program that resulted in American astronauts’ making a total of 11 space flights and walking on the moon (1968-72).
    ● The spacecraft contains five instruments meant to explore Bennu, including cameras, a spectrometer and a laser altimeter.

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Day-562 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | POLITY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements about the Electoral Bonds:
    1. Electoral bonds are bearer instruments.
    2. Electoral bonds can be used to fund independent candidates.
    3. They can only be purchased from designated branches of the State Bank of India.
    How many of the above given statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are bearer instruments, meaning that they do not carry the name of the donor and their identity remains anonymous.Electoral bonds are designed to protect the anonymity of donors, allowing them to contribute to political parties without fear of reprisal or undue influence. This anonymity aims to encourage transparency and prevent corruption in political funding.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Electoral bonds are strictly intended for funding registered political parties and cannot be used to directly finance individual and independent candidates. This restriction aims to prevent the use of electoral bonds for personal gain or undue influence over candidates.
    Statement 3 is correct: The government has designated specific branches of the SBI as authorized sellers of electoral bonds. This centralized approach helps to monitor and regulate the issuance of electoral bonds and maintain a record of transactions.
    Additional Information:
    ● The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill and it was implemented in 2018.
    ● State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore which are payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free.
    ● Can be purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India.
    ● They are valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue.
    ● SBI is the authorized issuer.
    ● Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are bearer instruments, meaning that they do not carry the name of the donor and their identity remains anonymous.Electoral bonds are designed to protect the anonymity of donors, allowing them to contribute to political parties without fear of reprisal or undue influence. This anonymity aims to encourage transparency and prevent corruption in political funding.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Electoral bonds are strictly intended for funding registered political parties and cannot be used to directly finance individual and independent candidates. This restriction aims to prevent the use of electoral bonds for personal gain or undue influence over candidates.
    Statement 3 is correct: The government has designated specific branches of the SBI as authorized sellers of electoral bonds. This centralized approach helps to monitor and regulate the issuance of electoral bonds and maintain a record of transactions.
    Additional Information:
    ● The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill and it was implemented in 2018.
    ● State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore which are payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free.
    ● Can be purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India.
    ● They are valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue.
    ● SBI is the authorized issuer.
    ● Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Which of the following are the purposes of including the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Constitution of India?
    1. Socio-economic development
    2. Establishing political democracy
    3. Creation of a welfare state
    4. Serve as a moral compass for governance
    Select the correct answer from the code given below:

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: To guide the government’s approach to socio-economic development and welfare: The DPSP outlines a vision for a just and equitable society, providing direction for the government’s policies and programs aimed at promoting social and economic well-being. These principles advocate for measures such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) do have some implications for political democracy, their primary focus is on establishing social and economic democracy.
    Political democracy refers to a system of government in which power is held by the people, either directly through voting or indirectly through elected representatives. It is characterized by features such as free and fair elections, freedom of speech and assembly, and the rule of law.
    Social and economic democracy, on the other hand, is concerned with creating a society in which all citizens have equal opportunities and a fair share of the nation’s resources. It encompasses concepts such as social justice, equitable distribution of wealth, and ensuring the basic needs of all citizens.
    The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, primarily focuses on promoting social and economic democracy. They outline principles such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities. These principles aim to create a society where all citizens have equal access to opportunities and resources, regardless of their social background or economic status.
    Statement 3 is correct: To promote a welfare state: The DPSP embodies the concept of a welfare state, emphasizing the government’s responsibility to ensure the well-being of its citizens. These principles encourage the government to take an active role in providing social services, such as healthcare, education, and social security, to uplift the lives of its citizens.
    Statement 4 is correct: To serve as a moral compass for governance: The DPSP serves as guiding principles for the government’s actions, providing a moral framework for policymaking and decision-making. These principles encourage the government to consider not only immediate economic and political considerations but also the long-term social and moral implications of its actions.
    Basics of Directive Principles of State Policy:
    ● Part IV of the Indian Constitution: The DPSP are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, along with the Fundamental Rights. These principles are considered to be “fundamental in the governance of the country” and “it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
    ● Non-justiciable nature: While the DPSP are considered important guiding principles, they are not justiciable. This means that individuals cannot directly approach courts to seek enforcement of these principles. However, the DPSP can be used by courts as a source of inspiration and interpretation when adjudicating cases related to Fundamental Rights.
    ● Role in policymaking: The DPSP serve as a moral compass for the government’s policies and programs. While not directly enforceable, these principles provide a framework for the government to strive towards achieving a just, equitable, and welfare-oriented society.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: To guide the government’s approach to socio-economic development and welfare: The DPSP outlines a vision for a just and equitable society, providing direction for the government’s policies and programs aimed at promoting social and economic well-being. These principles advocate for measures such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) do have some implications for political democracy, their primary focus is on establishing social and economic democracy.
    Political democracy refers to a system of government in which power is held by the people, either directly through voting or indirectly through elected representatives. It is characterized by features such as free and fair elections, freedom of speech and assembly, and the rule of law.
    Social and economic democracy, on the other hand, is concerned with creating a society in which all citizens have equal opportunities and a fair share of the nation’s resources. It encompasses concepts such as social justice, equitable distribution of wealth, and ensuring the basic needs of all citizens.
    The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, primarily focuses on promoting social and economic democracy. They outline principles such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities. These principles aim to create a society where all citizens have equal access to opportunities and resources, regardless of their social background or economic status.
    Statement 3 is correct: To promote a welfare state: The DPSP embodies the concept of a welfare state, emphasizing the government’s responsibility to ensure the well-being of its citizens. These principles encourage the government to take an active role in providing social services, such as healthcare, education, and social security, to uplift the lives of its citizens.
    Statement 4 is correct: To serve as a moral compass for governance: The DPSP serves as guiding principles for the government’s actions, providing a moral framework for policymaking and decision-making. These principles encourage the government to consider not only immediate economic and political considerations but also the long-term social and moral implications of its actions.
    Basics of Directive Principles of State Policy:
    ● Part IV of the Indian Constitution: The DPSP are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, along with the Fundamental Rights. These principles are considered to be “fundamental in the governance of the country” and “it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
    ● Non-justiciable nature: While the DPSP are considered important guiding principles, they are not justiciable. This means that individuals cannot directly approach courts to seek enforcement of these principles. However, the DPSP can be used by courts as a source of inspiration and interpretation when adjudicating cases related to Fundamental Rights.
    ● Role in policymaking: The DPSP serve as a moral compass for the government’s policies and programs. While not directly enforceable, these principles provide a framework for the government to strive towards achieving a just, equitable, and welfare-oriented society.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Tenth schedule to the Constitution of India was added by:

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Option B is correct.
    The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 which introduced the concept of anti-defection. The aim of the Tenth Schedule is to prevent members of legislatures from switching parties for personal gain or political expediency, thereby promoting stability and coherence in the legislative process.
    Prior to the Fifty-second Amendment, there was no constitutional provision against defection. This led to frequent instances of members of legislatures switching parties, often in exchange for personal benefits or ministerial positions. This instability and lack of loyalty to party principles undermined the integrity of the legislative process and raised concerns about the functioning of democracy.
    45th Amendment Act, 1980:extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    54th Amendment Act, 1986:enhanced the salaries of Judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court of India.
    59th Amendment Act, 1988:It empowered the President of India to impose President’s rule in Punjab for a period of up to three years, instead of the usual one year.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Option B is correct.
    The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 which introduced the concept of anti-defection. The aim of the Tenth Schedule is to prevent members of legislatures from switching parties for personal gain or political expediency, thereby promoting stability and coherence in the legislative process.
    Prior to the Fifty-second Amendment, there was no constitutional provision against defection. This led to frequent instances of members of legislatures switching parties, often in exchange for personal benefits or ministerial positions. This instability and lack of loyalty to party principles undermined the integrity of the legislative process and raised concerns about the functioning of democracy.
    45th Amendment Act, 1980:extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    54th Amendment Act, 1986:enhanced the salaries of Judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court of India.
    59th Amendment Act, 1988:It empowered the President of India to impose President’s rule in Punjab for a period of up to three years, instead of the usual one year.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Article 300 of the Indian Constitution embodies the concept of constitutional tort.
    Statement-II: Article 300 permits the Union and the State Governments to be sued as juristic persons.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A “constitutional tort” refers to the violation of an individual’s constitutional rights by a state actor or government official. It’s a situation where a person’s rights, as granted by a nation’s constitution or other foundational legal document, are infringed upon by those acting on behalf of the government.
    In such situations, the aggrieved individual may have the right to sue the state actor or the government itself for damages.
    The concept of constitutional tort aims to provide a remedy for violations of constitutional rights and to hold state actors accountable for their actions.
    Statement-I is correct: In the context of India, the term “constitutional tort” isn’t as commonly used as in some other jurisdictions, but the underlying idea is present within the Indian Constitution and legal system.
    Constitutional tort in India refers to the breach of an individual’s fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution by a state actor or a public official. When the government or its agents act in a way that infringes upon an individual’s rights, the affected person can seek redressal through the judiciary.
    The Indian Constitution, under Article 32 and Article 226, empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. In doing so, the courts often provide remedies and compensations, holding public officials accountable for their actions. Article 300 of the Constitution of India also embodies the concept of Constitutional tort.
    Article 300 of the Indian Constitution ensures that the government is subject to the rule of law and can be involved in legal proceedings to resolve disputes or address claims related to its rights and liabilities. It reinforces the principle that no one, including the government, is above the law.
    Statement-II is correct: Under Article 300(1) of the Constitution of India the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. This is a fundamental principle of Indian law that ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A “constitutional tort” refers to the violation of an individual’s constitutional rights by a state actor or government official. It’s a situation where a person’s rights, as granted by a nation’s constitution or other foundational legal document, are infringed upon by those acting on behalf of the government.
    In such situations, the aggrieved individual may have the right to sue the state actor or the government itself for damages.
    The concept of constitutional tort aims to provide a remedy for violations of constitutional rights and to hold state actors accountable for their actions.
    Statement-I is correct: In the context of India, the term “constitutional tort” isn’t as commonly used as in some other jurisdictions, but the underlying idea is present within the Indian Constitution and legal system.
    Constitutional tort in India refers to the breach of an individual’s fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution by a state actor or a public official. When the government or its agents act in a way that infringes upon an individual’s rights, the affected person can seek redressal through the judiciary.
    The Indian Constitution, under Article 32 and Article 226, empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. In doing so, the courts often provide remedies and compensations, holding public officials accountable for their actions. Article 300 of the Constitution of India also embodies the concept of Constitutional tort.
    Article 300 of the Indian Constitution ensures that the government is subject to the rule of law and can be involved in legal proceedings to resolve disputes or address claims related to its rights and liabilities. It reinforces the principle that no one, including the government, is above the law.
    Statement-II is correct: Under Article 300(1) of the Constitution of India the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. This is a fundamental principle of Indian law that ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following:
    1. India Innovation Index (III)
    2. School Education Quality Index (SEQI)
    3. State Health Index (SHI)
    How many of the above given indices are released by the NITI Aayog?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation: All the above mentioned Indices are released by the NITI Aayog.
    NITI Aayog, the Government of India’s think tank, releases a variety of indexes to assess and track the progress of various sectors and aspects of development in India.
    India Innovation Index (III): The India Innovation Index, released annually, measures the innovation ecosystem across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses various aspects of innovation, including finance, human capital, research and development, and infrastructure.
    The India Innovation Index (III) is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses seven pillars of innovation:
    1. Human Capital: This pillar assesses the skills and capabilities of the workforce, including education, research and development, and creative talent.
    2. Infrastructure: This pillar evaluates the availability and quality of physical and digital infrastructure, including transportation, communication, and IT infrastructure.
    3. Finance: This pillar assesses the access to capital for innovation activities, including venture capital, angel investments, and government funding.
    4. Market Access: This pillar evaluates the ease of doing business, market size, and regulatory environment for innovative products and services.
    5. Knowledge Creation: This pillar assesses the output of innovation activities, including research and development, publications, and patents.
    6. Business Environment: This pillar evaluates the overall business environment for innovation, including factors such as intellectual property protection, regulatory environment, and government support for innovation.
    7. Performance: This pillar assesses the commercialization of innovation, including venture capital deals, startups, and global rankings.
    Key Findings of the India Innovation Index (III) 2022:
    ● Karnataka topped the index for the third consecutive year.
    ● Karnataka was followed by Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Gujarat.
    ● Uttarakhand, Bihar, and Jharkhand were among the bottom-ranked states.
    ● The gap between the top-performing and bottom-performing states has narrowed in recent years.

    School Education Quality Index (SEQI): The School Education Quality Index, released every two years, measures the quality of school education across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses parameters such as learning outcomes, infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and school management.The SEQI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 70 indicators across five key dimensions:
    1. Outcomes: This dimension assesses the learning outcomes of students, including their performance in national and international assessments.
    2. Infrastructure and Facilities: This dimension evaluates the availability and quality of physical infrastructure, such as classrooms, libraries, and laboratories, as well as teacher-student ratios.
    3. Teacher Availability and Quality: This dimension assesses the number, qualifications, and professional development of teachers.
    4. Processes and Governance: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of school management, school governance, and teacher management practices.
    5. Equity and Access: This dimension assesses the accessibility of education for all students, including those from marginalized communities and disadvantaged backgrounds.

    State Health Index (SHI): The State Health Index, released every three years, evaluates the performance of public health systems across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses factors such as health outcomes, infrastructure, access to services, and financial resources to provide a holistic evaluation of the healthcare delivery system and identify areas for improvement.
    The SHI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 24 indicators across three key dimensions:
    1. Health Outcomes: This dimension assesses the overall health status of the population, including indicators such as infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate, and life expectancy.
    2. Governance and Information: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of the healthcare system’s governance, including factors such as health budget allocation, utilization of health services, and availability of health information.
    3. Key Inputs and Processes: This dimension assesses the availability and quality of key health inputs, such as healthcare infrastructure, human resources, and access to essential medicines.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation: All the above mentioned Indices are released by the NITI Aayog.
    NITI Aayog, the Government of India’s think tank, releases a variety of indexes to assess and track the progress of various sectors and aspects of development in India.
    India Innovation Index (III): The India Innovation Index, released annually, measures the innovation ecosystem across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses various aspects of innovation, including finance, human capital, research and development, and infrastructure.
    The India Innovation Index (III) is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses seven pillars of innovation:
    1. Human Capital: This pillar assesses the skills and capabilities of the workforce, including education, research and development, and creative talent.
    2. Infrastructure: This pillar evaluates the availability and quality of physical and digital infrastructure, including transportation, communication, and IT infrastructure.
    3. Finance: This pillar assesses the access to capital for innovation activities, including venture capital, angel investments, and government funding.
    4. Market Access: This pillar evaluates the ease of doing business, market size, and regulatory environment for innovative products and services.
    5. Knowledge Creation: This pillar assesses the output of innovation activities, including research and development, publications, and patents.
    6. Business Environment: This pillar evaluates the overall business environment for innovation, including factors such as intellectual property protection, regulatory environment, and government support for innovation.
    7. Performance: This pillar assesses the commercialization of innovation, including venture capital deals, startups, and global rankings.
    Key Findings of the India Innovation Index (III) 2022:
    ● Karnataka topped the index for the third consecutive year.
    ● Karnataka was followed by Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Gujarat.
    ● Uttarakhand, Bihar, and Jharkhand were among the bottom-ranked states.
    ● The gap between the top-performing and bottom-performing states has narrowed in recent years.

    School Education Quality Index (SEQI): The School Education Quality Index, released every two years, measures the quality of school education across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses parameters such as learning outcomes, infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and school management.The SEQI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 70 indicators across five key dimensions:
    1. Outcomes: This dimension assesses the learning outcomes of students, including their performance in national and international assessments.
    2. Infrastructure and Facilities: This dimension evaluates the availability and quality of physical infrastructure, such as classrooms, libraries, and laboratories, as well as teacher-student ratios.
    3. Teacher Availability and Quality: This dimension assesses the number, qualifications, and professional development of teachers.
    4. Processes and Governance: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of school management, school governance, and teacher management practices.
    5. Equity and Access: This dimension assesses the accessibility of education for all students, including those from marginalized communities and disadvantaged backgrounds.

    State Health Index (SHI): The State Health Index, released every three years, evaluates the performance of public health systems across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses factors such as health outcomes, infrastructure, access to services, and financial resources to provide a holistic evaluation of the healthcare delivery system and identify areas for improvement.
    The SHI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 24 indicators across three key dimensions:
    1. Health Outcomes: This dimension assesses the overall health status of the population, including indicators such as infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate, and life expectancy.
    2. Governance and Information: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of the healthcare system’s governance, including factors such as health budget allocation, utilization of health services, and availability of health information.
    3. Key Inputs and Processes: This dimension assesses the availability and quality of key health inputs, such as healthcare infrastructure, human resources, and access to essential medicines.

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TIGER MORTALITY IN INDIA: INSIGHTS FROM WPSI REPORT

TAG: GS 2: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Wildlife Protection Society of India (WPSI) recorded a distressing surge in tiger mortalities in India, marking a record loss of 204 tigers between January 1 and December 25, 2023.

EXPLANATION:

  • This figure reflects a significant increase compared to previous years, raising concerns about tiger conservation efforts in the country.

State-wise Breakdown of Tiger Deaths

  • The state of Maharashtra reported the highest tiger mortalities, accounting for 52 deaths, followed closely by Madhya Pradesh, India’s leading tiger state, with 45 fatalities.
  • Uttarakhand recorded 26 deaths, while Tamil Nadu and Kerala reported 15 tiger deaths each.
  • Karnataka, housing a substantial tiger population, documented 13 deaths, while Assam and Rajasthan witnessed 10 fatalities each.

 Causes for Tiger Deaths

  • The causes behind the tiger deaths are multifaceted, encompassing various factors.
  • ‘Natural & other causes’ emerged as the primary cause, responsible for 79 tiger deaths, making it the leading factor contributing to the mortality rate among tigers.
  • Poaching constituted a significant threat, claiming the lives of 55 tigers, followed by infighting, resulting in 46 tiger deaths.
  • Additionally, rescue/treatment efforts led to the deaths of 14 tigers, while accidents involving linear infrastructure, roadkill, and train or road incidents resulted in seven fatalities.
  • Two tigers fell victim to other species, and one was shot by forest department personnel or killed by villagers, underscoring the diverse range of threats faced by tigers in India.

Contrast with Tiger Population Growth

  • Interestingly, despite the alarming spike in tiger deaths in 2023, recent reports from the fifth cycle of the All India Tiger Estimation (2022) highlighted a positive trend.
  • The tiger population in India exhibited growth, increasing by 200 individuals from 2018 to 2022.
  • The report revealed that the tiger count in India reached 3,167 in 2022, up from 2,967 in 2018.

Government Efforts and Project Tiger’s Significance

  • The release of the tiger estimation report coincided with the commemoration of 50 years of ‘Project Tiger’ in Mysuru, Karnataka.
  • On this occasion, the Union Government unveiled the International Big Cats Alliance.
  • Despite this positive acknowledgment of tiger conservation efforts, the surge in tiger deaths in 2023 raises critical questions about the effectiveness of existing conservation strategies and the need for more stringent measures to protect this endangered species.

Wildlife Protection Society of India (WPSI):

  • The Wildlife Protection Society of India (WPSI) was established in 1994.
  • WPSI provides support and information to government authorities to combat poaching and the escalating illegal wildlife trade – particularly in wild tigers.
  • A countrywide network of WPSI wildlife crime investigators provides a constant flow of information that is processed and used to assist enforcement authorities in the arrest of hundreds of wildlife criminals throughout India.

International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA):

  • It is a proposed mega-global alliance that will work toward the protection and conservation of the seven major big cats — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, puma, jaguar, and cheetah.
  • Membership to the alliance will be open to 97 ‘range’ countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc.
  • The alliance’s purpose is to provide a platform for the dissemination of information on benchmarked practices, capacity building, resources repository, research and development, awareness creation, etc., on the protection and conservation of big cats.
  • Its major activities will include advocacy, partnership, knowledge e-portal, capacity building, eco-tourism, partnerships between expert groups and finance tapping.

Conclusion: Conservation Challenges and Future Strategies

  • The significant rise in tiger mortalities poses a serious threat to India’s tiger population despite previous growth.
  • This unfortunate trend highlights the urgency to address various threats, including poaching, habitat loss, and human-wildlife conflict.
  • Strengthening conservation efforts, enhancing anti-poaching measures, and fostering better habitat protection are imperative to ensure the sustained growth and survival of India’s tiger population.
  • The contrasting narrative of population growth amidst a record high in tiger deaths underscores the pressing need for proactive measures to safeguard this iconic species from further decline.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/india-lost-204-tigers-in-2023-most-of-them-in-maharashtra-wpsi-93564




INDIA-RUSSIA NUCLEAR DEAL FOR KUDANKULAM POWER PLANT EXPANSION

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: India and Russia have solidified their bilateral ties further by signing agreements concerning the future units of the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project situated in Tamil Nadu, India.

EXPLANATION:

  • This significant development was announced during the visit of Indian Foreign Minister to Russia.

Bilateral Talks and Key Discussions Expected

  • Foreign Minister’s visit to Russia encompasses crucial talks with his Russian counterpart Sergei Lavrov.
  • The discussions are anticipated to cover a wide array of topics, including reinforcing bilateral relations between India and Russia.
  • Moreover, the ministers plan to deliberate on the ongoing conflicts in Ukraine and Gaza.
  • The agenda extends to discussions involving entities such as BRICS, emphasizing India and Russia’s multilateral engagements.

Important Agreements Signed

  • At a gathering with the Indian community in Moscow, Foreign Minister disclosed the signing of pivotal agreements pertaining to the expansion of future units at the Kudankulam Nuclear Project.
  • These agreements were inked in the presence of Deputy Prime Minister Denis Manturov, signaling a significant milestone in the long-standing collaboration between India and Russia in the nuclear energy domain.

Background: Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project

  • The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project, located in Tamil Nadu, initiated its construction nearly two decades ago through a collaborative effort between India and Russia.
  • This project marked a key partnership between the two nations, reflecting their shared commitment to nuclear energy cooperation.

India-Russia Strong Relationship

  • India and Russia have fostered a robust and enduring relationship over several decades, characterized by strategic collaborations in various sectors.
  • Notably, India’s steadfast support for Russia amid the conflict with Ukraine underscores the strength and depth of their diplomatic ties.

Strategic Implications and Continued Cooperation

  • The latest agreements for the expansion of the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project underscore the continued commitment of both nations to strengthen their cooperation in the field of nuclear energy.
  • This development is crucial not only for India’s energy security but also for reinforcing the enduring partnership between India and Russia in the realm of nuclear technology and strategic alliances.

Conclusion

  • The signing of agreements for the future units at the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project symbolizes a significant milestone in the longstanding collaboration between India and Russia in the nuclear energy sector.
  • As both countries deepen their strategic ties and engage in discussions covering bilateral relations and global conflicts, the continued cooperation in nuclear energy underscores the enduring and multifaceted partnership between India and Russia.

SOURCE: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/india-russia-sign-deal-for-future-units-of-kudankulam-power-plant-in-tn-123122601139_1.html




GLOBAL TRADE DISRUPTION: IMPACT OF RED SEA ATTACKS AND PANAMA CANAL DROUGHT

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Recent attacks on ships passing through the Red Sea trade route, conducted by Yemen-based Houthi rebels, have raised significant concerns regarding the disruption of global trade.

EXPLANATION:

  • The attack on the Chemical tanker MV Chem Pluto near Gujarat, India, has heightened tensions among Indian oil importers and exporters dealing in commodities like basmati rice and tea.
  • The Houthi rebels’ attacks, driven by their opposition to Israel’s military actions in Gaza, have prompted swift countermeasures from the US-led maritime security coalition.
  • However, these attacks represent just one facet of the challenges impacting global shipping routes.

Critical Choke Points and Trade Implications

  • Two pivotal choke points, the Suez Canal and the Panama Canal, are under threat, potentially disrupting over one-third of global trade.
  • These choke points serve as essential channels for global maritime transport, with over 80% of global goods trade relying on sea routes.
  • Any blockage in these critical passages forces shipping lines to adopt longer alternative routes, elevating freight rates and causing significant logistical disruptions.
  • The disturbance in the Red Sea route, coupled with the potential blockage or slowdown in the Panama Canal due to drought conditions, poses severe repercussions for global trade.
  • The diversion of shipments through alternative routes, such as the Cape of Good Hope, adds to transit times and increases freight costs significantly.

Impact on Indian Trade and Agriculture

  • India, heavily reliant on sea routes for trade, faces adverse consequences due to these disruptions.
  • For instance, Indian agricultural product prices are anticipated to surge by 10-20% as shipments reroute through longer paths.
  • This price hike is particularly concerning amidst higher interest rates in Western countries, potentially impacting demand for Indian exports and affecting sectors like textiles and gems, majorly exporting to the European Union.

Challenges in the Panama Canal and Trade Route Deterioration

  • The Panama Canal has experienced a more than 50% reduction in shipping due to drought conditions, compelling vessels traveling from Asia to the US to opt for the lengthier Suez Canal
  • Concerns arise about prolonged canal bottlenecks due to Panama’s exceptionally dry rainy season.
  • Additionally, LNG vessels are resorting to costly auctions to expedite their transit, revealing the severity of the situation.

Resilience of Indian Oil Imports and Impact on Prices

  • Surprisingly, India’s oil imports from Russia have not suffered disruptions despite global shipping majors like Maersk avoiding the Red Sea route.
  • Russian tankers, perceived as allied with Iran, continue their passage through the Red Sea despite the ongoing attacks by Houthi rebels.
  • However, the spike in global benchmark crude prices to around $80 per barrel post-attacks on the Red Sea highlights market volatility and concerns regarding oil flow stability.

Freight Rate Surge and Economic Consequences

  • War risk surcharges imposed by global shipping firms due to Red Sea security concerns have led to an escalation in freight rates.
  • Indian exporters fear a substantial surge of 25-30% in freight rates for shipments bound to Europe and Africa, impacting crucial export sectors like textiles and gems, already grappling with reduced demand from the European Union.

Potential Resumption of Operations and Future Scenario

  • While shipping giant Maersk plans to resume operations in the Red Sea following increased security measures, uncertainties persist.
  • The company remains cautious, prepared to divert ship traffic based on evolving safety conditions, highlighting the volatile and precarious nature of current global trade routes.

Conclusion

  • The combined challenges faced by global shipping routes due to Red Sea attacks and Panama Canal droughts pose severe threats to the stability of global trade.
  • India, a significant player in international trade, faces potential disruptions impacting its exports and economic sectors.
  • The evolving situation underscores the need for strategic planning and robust measures to navigate the complexities of global trade in an increasingly uncertain environment.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/red-sea-attacks-shipping-global-trade-panama-canal-9083539/lite/




ADDRESSING ANAEMIA IN INDIA: ICMR’S INITIATIVE FOR NON-INVASIVE TESTING

TAG: GS 2: SOCIAL ISSUES

THE CONTEXT: The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has recognized the persistent issue and highlighted the importance of addressing anaemia, particularly among pregnant women and school-going adolescents.

EXPLANATION:

ICMR’s Call for Expression of Interest (EoI)

  • The ICMR, based in Delhi, has initiated a call for Expression of Interest (EoI) from eligible organizations, companies, and start-ups involved in the production of ‘non-invasive hemoglobinometers.’
  • These devices are pivotal in the effective screening and testing of anaemia.

Focus on Non-Invasive Hemoglobinometer Development

  • The ICMR emphasizes the significance of digital methods and point-of-care treatment for anaemia.
  • They seek a simple, user-friendly, and non-invasive hemoglobinometer that is acceptable, especially among young children.
  • While ‘Make in India’ non-invasive hemoglobinometer devices have emerged in recent years, their accuracy, bias, and precision need validation before being integrated into the AMB program.

Prevalence of Anaemia in India

  • According to the National Family Health Survey 5 (2019-21), anaemia prevalence in India is alarmingly high across various demographics:
    • 0% in men (15-49 years), 57.0% in women (15-49 years), 31.1% in adolescent boys (15-19 years), 59.1% in adolescent girls, 52.2% in pregnant women (15-49 years), and 67.1% in children (6-59 months).

ICMR’s Role and Proposed Activities

  • The ICMR outlines its pivotal role in the initiative, intending to conduct a hospital-based clinical study to validate the efficacy of promising non-invasive hemoglobinometer devices against the gold standard method of measuring haemoglobin.
  • Furthermore, the ICMR is poised to offer technical support, leveraging its team of experienced scientists.
  • This support would encompass study planning, product validation, protocol development, data analysis, outcome assessment, and potential product enhancement, establishing a collaborative partnership between the ICMR and potential collaborators.

Institute Support and Collaboration

  • Through its institutes, the ICMR plans to facilitate and support research and clinical studies involving new technologies or products related to anaemia detection and management.
  • These collaborations will be carried out in a professional and mutually agreed-upon manner and timelines, fostering a conducive environment for advancements in this critical area of healthcare.

Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) program:

  • In 2018, the Government of India launched the Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) strategy to reduce prevalence of anaemia in women, children and adolescents through life cycle approach.
  • The 6X6X6 strategy aims to reduce anaemia among six beneficiaries age groups through implementation of six interventions and six institutional mechanisms.
  • The UT of Jammu and Kashmir is implementing Anaemia Mukt Bharat strategy as per GOI guidelines.
  • In the UT of Jammu and Kashmir, all Reproductive, Maternal, Newborn, Child, Adolescent Health and Nutrition (RMNCAH+N) services are provided across all the districts.
  • Further, two aspirational districts (Kupwara district and Baramulla district) are identified under the Aspirational District programme to prioritize the reproductive health of women and children, including anaemia.
  • The steps taken by Government including the age specific interventions for reduction in anaemia among women and children across the country are provided at Annexure I.

Conclusion

  • The ICMR’s proactive approach, inviting collaborations and seeking advanced non-invasive testing solutions for anaemia detection, underscores its commitment to combatting this pervasive health issue.
  • The initiative’s success could significantly impact the diagnosis and treatment of anaemia, particularly among vulnerable populations like pregnant women and adolescents, contributing to improved healthcare outcomes across the nation.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/icmr-initiates-steps-to-provide-easy-to-use-non-invasive-testing-to-tackle-anaemia-in-india/article67676623.ece/amp/




OVERVIEW OF PRODUCTION-LINKED INCENTIVE (PLI) SCHEMES

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: As per the Commerce and Industry Ministry’s report, the PLI schemes garnered an impressive investment exceeding Rs 95,000 crore by September 2023.

EXPLANATION:

  • This substantial investment led to the approval of 746 applications by November 2023, signifying a considerable interest from businesses in these schemes.
  • The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes introduced by the Indian government encompass 14 sectors aimed at bolstering manufacturing capabilities, augmenting exports, and enhancing employment opportunities.
  • These schemes have successfully enticed substantial investments, resulting in tangible growth across various industries.

Sectoral Distribution and Objectives

  • The 14 sectors covered by these schemes span across electronics, telecommunications, pharmaceuticals, white goods (including components for air conditioners and LED lights), and textiles.
  • The primary objectives of these initiatives are to fortify India’s manufacturing prowess, encourage export growth, and stimulate economic development.

Impact on Manufacturing and Employment

  • The implementation of PLI schemes has had a profound impact on various sectors.
  • The investments facilitated production and sales valuing Rs 7.80 trillion, resulting in the creation of over 6.4 lakh jobs, both directly and indirectly.
  • Additionally, the disbursement of incentives totalling around Rs 2,900 crore in the fiscal year 2022-23 highlights the government’s commitment to incentivizing growth.

Sector-specific Achievements

  • Electronics Sector:
    • Notably, within the electronics sector, there has been a 20% value addition in mobile manufacturing over three years.
    • This industry witnessed a significant boost, with smartphones contributing USD 44 billion to the total electronics production, including USD 11.1 billion from exports.
  • Telecommunications Sector:
    • Import substitution in the telecom sector reached an impressive 60%, demonstrating India’s progress towards self-reliance, particularly in Antennae, GPON, and CPE manufacturing.
  • Pharmaceutical Sector:
    • The pharmaceutical industry experienced a substantial reduction in raw material imports.
    • India’s strides include the domestic production of unique intermediate materials and bulk drugs, including critical products like Penicillin-G.
    • Moreover, technology transfer facilitated the manufacturing of medical devices such as CT scan machines.
  • White Goods Sector:
    • In the white goods segment, 64 companies have been selected under the PLI scheme.
    • These companies are poised to invest significantly in air conditioner and LED component manufacturing, with future investments projected to create additional employment for approximately 48,000 individuals.
    • Notably, 13 foreign companies are partaking in this initiative, investing Rs 2,090 crore, indicating global interest in India’s manufacturing ecosystem.

Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes

  • Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes are a type of industrial policy tool used by governments to encourage domestic manufacturing in specific sectors.
  • Under these schemes, manufacturers are offered financial incentives based on their production and sales.
  • These incentives can take various forms, such as cash grants, tax breaks, or duty-free imports.

Here are some key features of PLI schemes:

  • Production-linked: The incentives are directly linked to the quantity or value of goods produced. This helps to ensure that the scheme leads to actual increases in production, rather than just encouraging companies to game the system.
  • Focus on targeted sectors: PLI schemes are typically targeted at specific sectors that are considered to be strategically important for the country’s economic development. This could include sectors such as electronics, automobiles, pharmaceuticals, or renewable energy.

Potential benefits of PLI schemes:

  • Increased domestic production: PLI schemes can help to boost domestic production in targeted sectors, which can lead to economic growth, job creation, and import substitution.
  • Enhanced global competitiveness: By improving the efficiency and competitiveness of domestic industries, PLI schemes can help Indian companies to compete in the global market.
  • Technological innovation: PLI schemes can encourage companies to invest in research and development, which can lead to technological innovation.
  • Attraction of foreign investments: PLI schemes can make India a more attractive destination for foreign direct investment (FDI).

Conclusion

  • The robust response to the PLI schemes across diverse sectors underscores their efficacy in attracting investments, fostering production, creating employment opportunities, and reducing import dependency.
  • The significant achievements in value addition, export promotion, and technological advancements reaffirm India’s commitment to bolstering its manufacturing capabilities and becoming a global manufacturing hub.

SOURCE: https://www.business-standard.com/industry/news/pli-schemes-attracts-over-rs-95-000-cr-investment-till-sep-centre-123122600771_1.html




LAW OF NUMBERS: ON THE WINTER SESSION AND A LOW IN INDIA’S PARLIAMENTARY DEMOCRACY

THE CONTEXT: The winter session of Parliament marked a new low in India’s parliamentary democracy as the ruling government refused to engage with the Opposition. It evaded executive accountability and passed a number of Bills with far-reaching consequences while a majority of the Opposition members remained suspended.

RULES OF SUSPENSION OF MPs

SUSPENSION RULES IN THE LOK SABHA:

  • Rule 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business: The speaker may direct any Member to withdraw immediately from the House and to remain absent during the rest of the day’s sitting if his/her conduct is grossly disordered.
  • Rule 374 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business: The Speaker may name a member if it thinks necessary, who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House persistently and wilfully obstruct the business.
  • Once the member is named, the government introduces a motion for their suspension. If the motion passes, the member gets suspended.
  • The member stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less.

SUSPENSION RULES IN THE RAJYA SABHA:

  • Rule 255 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business: Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered to direct any Member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disordered to withdraw immediately from the House.
  • The Chairman identifies any member causing undue disruptions. Following this, a motion is presented to the House for their suspension. If the House approves the motion, the member is suspended.

ISSUES:

  • Suspension of members: A total of 146 Members of Parliament (MP) from the Opposition bloc were suspended as they clamoured for a statement. This suspension is termed by the Opposition MP as “predetermined and premeditated” by the government. This suspension seems to be unconstitutional and illegal in nature as wilful and persistent obstruction of the business alone qualifies for the naming and suspension of a member. Moreover, suspension cannot be for an indefinite period.
  • Legislation without discussion: It was in the absence of a majority of the Opposition members that the government passed new laws. It includes rewriting the criminal code of the country, regulation of telecommunication and the appointment of the Election Commission of India The common feature of these laws is an unprecedented increase in the power of the executive, and it is not a coincidence that they were passed without a meaningful parliamentary debate.
  • Challenge to Democratic principles:Illegal and unconstitutional suspensions not only stifle opposition voices but also affects democratic discussions. This leads to disruptions in parliamentary proceedings and hinders the legislative work.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Adhere to Parliamentary Rules:Parliament should strictly follow Rules 374 of the Lok Sabha and Rules 256 of the Rajya Sabha while suspending members. It should not be done to satisfy the whims and fancies of the ruling government to supress the dissent of the opposition members.
  • Constructive role of opposition: Opposition should invest much time and effort in asking for a debate on the substantive legislative matters. They should play a constructive role in the Parliament and should be allowed to put forward their views and express themselves in a dignified manner.
  • Ensure dialogue: Such suspensions highlight the need for better methods to handle disagreements in Parliament. Political leaders should prioritize dialogue over suspensions to address disagreements in Parliament.

THE CONCLUSION:

The recent suspensions should be revisited to ensure they align with constitutional norms. The government should not use its majority to rush through legislation and should find ways to end the turmoil and bring harmony to our legislatures.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 Explain the structure of the Parliamentary Committee system. How far have the financial committees helped in the institutionalisation of the Indian Parliament? (2023)

Q.2 Discuss the role of Presiding Officers of state legislatures in maintaining order and impartiality in conducting legislative work and in facilitating best democratic practices. (2023)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 ‘’A parliament without opposition means an executive without accountability”. Discuss the statement in light of mass suspension of parliamentarians and passing of important Bills without effective discussion.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/law-of-numbers-on-the-winter-session-and-a-low-in-indias-parliamentary-democracy/article67677048.ece




GLOBAL GOAL ON ADAPTATION AND THE ROAD FROM DUBAI

THE CONTEXT: The 28th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the UNFCCC, in Dubai, was notable in terms of stopping the lackadaisical approach of the international community to the adaptation concern. Guided by the Paris Agreement on Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA) and the efforts put in at COP26 and COP27 culminated in the adoption of the framework for GGA at COP28.

WHAT IS GLOBAL GOAL ON ADAPTATION?

  • The Global Goal on Adaptation is a collective commitment under Article 7.1 of the Paris Agreement aimed at “enhancing adaptive capacity, strengthening resilience and reducing vulnerability to climate change.”
  • It was proposed by the African Group of Negotiators (AGN) in 2013 and established in 2015.
  • GGA is meant to serve as a unifying framework that can drive political action and finance for adaptation on the same scale as mitigation.
  • This means setting specific, measurable targets and guidelines for global adaptation action as well as enhancing adaptation finance and support for developing countries.

Key targets:

  • Parties to the Paris Agreement have to “conduct up-to-date assessments of climate hazards, and use the outcomes of these assessments to inform their formulation of national adaptation plans and planning strategies, by 2030.
  • All the Parties have to establish multi-hazard early warning systems, climate information services for risk reduction and systematic observation to support improved climate-related data, information and services by 2027.
  • National conditions, including administrative capacity and economic development, were identified alongside adequate support as key influencing factors for the implementation of a global goal.

CHALLENGES:

  • Inefficiency of Nationally Determined Goals: The best mitigation efforts enshrined in the nationally determined contributions (NDCs) of the Parties to the Paris Agreement are not in sight of restricting global average temperature below 1.5° C as compared to pre-industrial levels. They would rather nudge the world towards the 2.8° C point by the end of the century.
  • Alignment of global and national goals: There is a concern remaining here of alignment of global and national goals. A comprehensive review of experiences from the Millennium Development Goals found that globally agreed goals do not trickle down easily from the global to the national level.
  • Measuring GGA: Unlike mitigation of greenhouse gases, climate adaptation does not have a universal metric, and its ambition or implementation level cannot be simply aggregated based on countries’ national pledges. The GGA framework aims to launch a two-year work programme on indicators for measuring progress achieved towards the targets mentioned in paragraphs 9-10 of the GGA draft decisions. But there is no clarity on the parameters and the body who will develop it.
  • Issue of finance: The COP28 draft decision notes with concern that the adaptation finance gap is widening, which leads to widening gap between the estimated costs of meeting a given adaptation target and the amount of finance available. The COP26’s urge to developed countries to double overall adaptation finance from 2019 levels by 2025 was repeated in the Draft Decision. Estimation made on the basis of updated NDCs or national adaptation plans indicate a figure of $71 billion per year from now to 2030. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development countries have already admitted that their combined mitigation and adaptation finance flows fell short of the annual $100 billion to $83.3 billion in 2020.
  • Prioritising mitigation over adaptation: In a global context of scarce public funds and competing priorities, there is also a strong bias in climate financing in favour of mitigation as compared to adaptation. Buchner, in a study of Climate policy initiative, said that the split between mitigation and adaptation finance is 95:5.

Some of the reasons for that:

1. Climate change regime has been largely mitigation centric

2. Rich countries do not gain much as the benefits of adaptation are local

3. Mitigation projects generate benefits globally and the availability of low-cost mitigation options in developing countries.

  • The GGA is an encouraging development as it contains a number of developments that are very useful for the cause of adaptation. But it still falls short in terms of treating adaptation on a par with mitigation. It lays stress on holding the increase in the global average temperature well below 2° C and 1.5° C essential for ensuring the continued availability of the largest number of adaptation options. It also adds greater levels of mitigation that will reduce the need for additional adaptation efforts.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Urgent implementation: Implementing GGA needs more urgency in terms of treating adaptation on a par with mitigation in the face of extreme climate events with devastating consequences. As these climate change events are happening at only 1.1° Celsius as compared to pre-industrial levels.
  • Developing a standardised metrics: There is a need to develop a standardised metric supported by international donors and the national budget managers to help them in all sorts of adaptation projects. For example, the most sought-after dimension of climate change problem mitigation is working with universal metric of CO2 equivalents, which can be applied across specific contexts to measure impacts in an easily comparable format.

THE CONCLUSION:

With increasing effect of climate change, there is a need to anticipate the problems and look for measures to reduce the adverse effects of climate related projects. In this regard, policies on adaptation need to be considered with utmost safeguards and on par with mitigation to achieve the effects of the climate goals.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 Explain the purpose of Green Grid Initiative launched at the World Leaders Summit of COP26 UN Climate Change Conference in Glasglow in November 2021. When was the idea first floated in the International Solar Alliance (ISA)? (2021)

Q.2 Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference? (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 What is Global Goal on Adaptation  and what are its key targets?  Discuss the challenges and strategies required to achieve these goals?

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/global-goal-on-adaptation-and-the-road-from-dubai/article67674201.ece




EMERGENCE OF OMICRON SUBVARIANT JN.1

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The emergence of the omicron subvariant JN.1 has raised concerns due to its unique mutation in the spike protein, specifically the L455S, referred to as a “FLip” mutation.

EXPLANATION:

  • Researchers at the University of Tokyo have indicated that this mutation might facilitate evading immunity and contribute to a surge in COVID-19 cases.

Evolution from BA.2.86 Lineage to JN.1

  • 1, an offshoot of the BA.2.86 lineage, swiftly gained dominance globally, characterized by its spike protein mutation and surpassing other omicron sublineages like EG.5.1 and HK.3.
  • It’s noteworthy that JN.1’s rise doesn’t inherently denote increased danger but rather reflects the virus’s natural propensity to mutate.

Understanding “FLip” Mutations and Impact on Transmissibility

  • The “FLip” mutations – L455S, L455F, and F456L – significantly alter the spike protein’s structure, enhancing the virus’s binding affinity to ACE2 receptors.
  • This elevated binding potentially leads to increased transmissibility, as observed in the JN.1 lineage, outcompeting other variants.

Virological Insights and Transmissibility

  • Research from Peking University in The Lancet Infectious Diseases revealed that JN.1, with the L455S mutation, rapidly dominated over its predecessor 2.86.
    • It strains with the “FLip” mutations, showcasing a higher effective reproductive number (Re), indicating increased transmissibility.

Implications on Immunity and Vaccination

  • Studies from Biomedical Pioneering Innovation Center (BIOPIC) suggest that JN.1 exhibits a heightened ability to evade immunity.
  • It is evident from individuals experiencing breakthrough infections post-vaccination or reinfections after prior omicron lineage infections.
  • This raises concerns about potential vaccine evasion and the need for further vigilance.

Global Scenario and Public Health Concerns

  • Globally, an increase in COVID-19 cases and a decrease in deaths have been reported.
  • However, the accuracy of reported cases is affected by reduced testing and integrated reporting methods.
  • This situation underscores the importance of continued vigilance and improved surveillance.

Regional Impact and Response

  • Specifically, India observed a notable rise in cases within the Southeast Asia region, emphasizing the necessity for targeted responses, especially for vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with comorbidities, and immunocompromised individuals.

CDC’s Assessment and Cautionary Measures

  • The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) in the United States flagged the escalating prevalence of JN.1 globally.
  • While acknowledging its potential for increased transmissibility or immune evasion, the CDC cautioned that it’s premature to gauge the extent of its impact on infections or hospitalizations.

Future Trends and Emerging Concerns

  • Despite JN.1’s surge, EG.5 remains the most reported Variant of Interest (VOI) globally.
  • However, it has exhibited declining trends in recent weeks, signalling a dynamic landscape of emerging variants and the necessity for ongoing monitoring and analysis.

Conclusion

  • The emergence and dominance of omicron subvariant JN.1, characterized by the “FLip” mutation, pose potential challenges related to transmissibility, immune evasion, and vaccine efficacy.
  • Vigilant surveillance, robust research, and targeted interventions are crucial to mitigate the impact and better understand the evolving landscape of SARS-CoV-2 variants.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/-flip-mutations-of-sars-cov-2-may-be-evading-immunity-and-leading-to-surge-in-covid-cases-suggest-researchers-93553




RISING FEMALE PARTICIPATION IN INDIA’S EMPLOYMENT SCHEMES

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Recent official data highlighted a substantial increase in female participation in the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) during the ongoing financial year 2023-24.

EXPLANATION:

  • The proportion of women’s person-days in the total MGNREGS work touched an impressive 59.25% until December 24, marking the highest recorded participation in the past ten fiscal years.
  • This upward trend in female participation within NREGS showcases a significant surge from 54.78% in 2019-20 and 53.19% during the COVID-19 outbreak in 2020-21.

NREGS Data Analysis

  • The NREGS portal data reveals a detailed breakdown, indicating that out of a total of 238.62 crore person-days during 2023-24 until December 24, women accounted for 141.37 crore person-days, reflecting the increased participation rate.
  • Furthermore, the data suggests a consistent rise in female involvement, reinforcing a steady upward trajectory in rural women’s engagement in this job guarantee scheme.

Regional Disparities and State-Level Participation Rates

  • Notably, while southern states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Goa exhibited commendable rates of women’s participation, surpassing 70%, northern states such as Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh have struggled to maintain rates above 40% or even below over the years.
  • For the fiscal year 2023-24, states/UTs like Jammu and Kashmir, Lakshadweep, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra reported the lowest women participation rates.
  • However, there have been marginal improvements in participation rates in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Lakshadweep during the current financial year.

Trends in NREGS Participation

  • The data reflects an increase in the number of families availing NREGS benefits in recent years.
  • In 2023-24, approximately 5.38 crore families accessed NREGS by December 24, marking a slight decline compared to 6.18 crore in 2022-23 and 7.25 crore in 2021-22.
  • Despite fluctuations in family participation, the focus remains on the rising trend of female involvement in NREGS activities.

National Trends in Female Labour Force Participation

  • The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation underscores an overall increase in female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in the country, particularly in rural areas.
  • The rural female LFPR surged to 30.5% in 2022-23 from 18.2% in 2017-18, indicating a remarkable growth trajectory.
  • Simultaneously, the female unemployment rate witnessed a decline from 3.8% in 2017-18 to 1.8% in 2022-23, affirming positive strides in women’s employment opportunities.

Conclusion

  • The burgeoning participation of women in employment schemes like NREGS reflects a growing trend of empowerment and engagement in the rural workforce.
  • Despite regional disparities, the concerted efforts to elevate female participation are evident, aligning with broader national trends in increasing female Labour Force Participation Rates and declining unemployment rates among women.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/women-participation-in-nregs-continues-to-rise-59-this-fiscal-9082675/




INDIA-ASEAN FTA MODERNIZATION: ADDRESSING TRADE IMBALANCE AND REVAMPING STRATEGIES

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS, GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: India and the ASEAN bloc are gearing up to reevaluate and modernize their Free Trade Agreement (FTA) dating back almost 15 years.

EXPLANATION:

  • Top of Form
  • The primary intention behind this initiative is to rebalance the FTA, which currently appears skewed against India’s interests.
  • However, this modernization exercise will focus on revitalizing elements like product-specific rules and trade remedies, omitting newer areas such as labour, environment, Small and Medium-sized Enterprises (SMEs), and gender-related aspects.

Negotiation Schedule and Objectives

  • Negotiations to review the ASEAN India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITGA) will commence on February 18-19 in New Delhi, with a projected timeline aiming to conclude by 2025.
  • The discussions are slated to follow a quarterly schedule to streamline the revision process.
  • India has long pushed for a reassessment of the AITGA, particularly due to the imbalance in trade.
  • The current trade deficit of $43.57 billion with the ASEAN, significantly expanded from $7.5 billion annually when the agreement was initiated, prompts India to seek a more balanced trade scenario.

Challenges and Industry Inputs

  • Various industry sectors in India have raised concerns regarding both tariff and non-tariff barriers encountered in trade with ASEAN nations.
  • Sectors like chemicals, alloys, plastics, rubber, minerals, leather, textiles, gems, and jewellery need enhanced market access, according to industry analyses.

Key Components of FTA Revamp

  • Modernizing the AITGA encompasses significant alterations in the Rules of Origin (ROO), intending to favour India by potentially expanding market access for specific products and preventing the circumvention of goods by China through ASEAN nations.
  • This revamp is anticipated to introduce Product Specific Rules (PSRs) within the ROO chapter to facilitate relaxed rules for certain items to bolster exports and curb potential loopholes exploited by China.
  • Additionally, the revised AITGA will include a chapter on trade remedies, aiming to shield domestic industries against unfair trade practices or sudden surges in imported goods.

Exclusion of New Areas in FTA

  • The updated FTA will not include additional domains like environment, labour, MSMEs, or gender-related aspects.
  • The primary focus remains on optimizing the existing pact without complicating it with newer issues.

ASEAN’s Role and Impact on India’s Trade

  • The ten-member ASEAN bloc, including countries like Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia, constituted 11.3% of India’s global trade in the 2022-23 period.

Conclusion

  • The modernization of the India-ASEAN FTA aims to rectify trade imbalances and reinvigorate the agreement to benefit both parties.
  • By addressing concerns regarding market access, rules of origin, and trade remedies, the updated agreement seeks to foster a more equitable trade relationship between India and the ASEAN bloc.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-asean-set-to-review-trade-pact-for-modernisation-in-february/article67673605.ece




PM-JANMAN INITIATIVE: EMPOWERING PARTICULARLY VULNERABLE TRIBAL GROUPS (PVTGS)

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The Indian government, through the PM-JANMAN package, aims to address the needs of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) residing in 15,000 habitations across 100 districts.

EXPLANATION:

  • This initiative targets the saturation of essential documentation—Aadhaar, caste certificates, and Jan Dhan accounts—necessary to grant access to benefits under the program.

Scope and Objectives of the Campaign

  • The campaign, commencing on December 25, endeavours to cover 100 districts spanning 18 states and the UT of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
  • The first phase will focus on PVTG habitations, estimated at over 22,000 across various states, housing around 28 lakh individuals.
  • The comprehensive objective is to encompass all eligible beneficiaries within the PM-JANMAN package.

Components of the PM-JANMAN Package

  • This package consolidates 11 critical interventions already implemented by nine Ministries, including initiatives for housing, household electrification, road connectivity, telecommunications, and more.
  • The government aims to channelize these interventions towards achieving saturation in PVTG villages and habitations.

Funding and Government Commitment

  • Prime Minister announced the package, which received approval for a ₹24,000 crore expenditure over three years.
  • However, during a government plenary session on December 15, the necessity of ensuring basic documentation for PVTG beneficiaries was highlighted as a prerequisite for implementing any aspect of the PM-JANMAN package.

Implementation Strategy and Action Plan

  • An intensive Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) campaign starting on December 25, 2023, will drive the initiative.
  • A detailed action plan involves coordination between various stakeholders, including UIDAI, CSC, Ministry of Agriculture, PMJAY, District Magistrates, and other departments.
  • The goal is to achieve document saturation within one week in these PVTG habitations.

Awareness Creation and Local Engagement

  • Efforts to produce informative material in local languages, such as pamphlets, videos, wall paintings, jingles, and cultural programs, form an integral part of the campaign.
  • District-level officers, each assigned to a district, will supervise these activities, while state-level officers will coordinate with relevant state departments for seamless implementation.

Role of Tribal Research Institutes and Social Media Campaign

  • Tribal Research Institutes in various states have been assigned duties to assist in planning and executing campaign activities at different administrative levels.
  • Additionally, a social media campaign with specific hashtags aims to engage a broader audience and generate online discussions regarding the initiative’s objectives and progress.

Conclusion

  • The PM-JANMAN initiative underscores the government’s commitment to uplift Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups by addressing their essential documentation needs.
  • This comprehensive approach seeks to ensure the inclusion of all eligible beneficiaries, providing them access to vital services and benefits outlined in the package.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/pm-janman-government-targets-aadhaar-jan-dhan-caste-certificate-saturation-in-15000-pvtg-villages-in-1-week/article67674235.ece




EXPLORATION OF MARS: AN INTRIGUING QUEST FOR EVIDENCE OF LIFE

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: NASA’s Perseverance rover, actively conducting essential investigations on Mars’ surface, made a significant discovery.

EXPLANATION:

  • Captured by its Mastcam-Z camera, an image revealed an intriguing assortment of rocks and pebbles within Mars’ Jezero Crater, specifically identified as ‘Castell Henllys.’
  • Analysis suggests that these formations were transported by robust floodwaters billions of years ago, indicating a dynamic aqueous history on the Martian surface.

Ancient Mysteries of Mars: Water and Potential for Life

  • Mars, the enigmatic red planet, has captivated human imagination for centuries, often portrayed in various narratives as a celestial body of mystery and possibility.
  • Over decades of scientific exploration and study, compelling evidence has emerged, indicating that Mars once hosted rivers, lakes, and potentially oceans of liquid water.
  • This revelation fuels the tantalizing prospect of the red planet having supported life in its distant past.
  • While conclusive evidence of life on Mars remains elusive, the consensus among scientists is strong regarding Mars’ watery history.
  • This understanding stems from observations, including recent findings from NASA’s Perseverance rover.

Astrobiology Goals: Seeking Life Beyond Earth

  • The Perseverance mission encompasses pivotal objectives in astrobiology, aiming to ascertain definitive evidence of extraterrestrial life.
  • While this life may not mirror the alien depictions often seen in popular culture, the discovery of microorganisms or their fossils on Mars would mark a groundbreaking scientific achievement.

Significance of Water in the Search for Life Beyond Earth

  • Why the persistent quest for water on other planets?
  • Earth’s own evolutionary history holds the key.
  • After an initial lifeless phase, Earth witnessed the emergence of life within aquatic environments, starting with microorganisms and gradually evolving into complex aquatic organisms.
  • This progression further led to the development of terrestrial life forms.
  • Scientists emphasize that the presence of water significantly enhances the probability of a planet fostering life.
  • Beyond Mars, another celestial candidate of immense interest is Europa, Jupiter’s moon.
  • Europa, a frozen world, holds the tantalizing possibility of a vast liquid ocean beneath its icy exterior, potentially harbouring life.

Conclusion: Continual Exploration and the Pursuit of Extraterrestrial Life

  • The exploration of Mars, with its historical evidence of water and ongoing discoveries by missions like Perseverance, stands as a testament to humanity’s relentless pursuit of understanding our place in the cosmos.
  • Unravelling the mysteries of distant planets not only deepens scientific knowledge but also fuels the enduring fascination with the potential for life beyond Earth, beckoning us to explore further into the depths of our celestial neighbourhood.

SOURCE: https://www.wionews.com/science/nasa-perseverance-rover-finds-evidence-of-flowing-water-on-mars-673378