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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1. Consider the following statements about the Electoral Bonds:
1. Electoral bonds are bearer instruments.
2. Electoral bonds can be used to fund independent candidates.
3. They can only be purchased from designated branches of the State Bank of India.
How many of the above given statements are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are bearer instruments, meaning that they do not carry the name of the donor and their identity remains anonymous.Electoral bonds are designed to protect the anonymity of donors, allowing them to contribute to political parties without fear of reprisal or undue influence. This anonymity aims to encourage transparency and prevent corruption in political funding.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Electoral bonds are strictly intended for funding registered political parties and cannot be used to directly finance individual and independent candidates. This restriction aims to prevent the use of electoral bonds for personal gain or undue influence over candidates.
Statement 3 is correct: The government has designated specific branches of the SBI as authorized sellers of electoral bonds. This centralized approach helps to monitor and regulate the issuance of electoral bonds and maintain a record of transactions.
Additional Information:
● The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill and it was implemented in 2018.
● State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore which are payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free.
● Can be purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India.
● They are valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue.
● SBI is the authorized issuer.
● Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Electoral bonds are bearer instruments, meaning that they do not carry the name of the donor and their identity remains anonymous.Electoral bonds are designed to protect the anonymity of donors, allowing them to contribute to political parties without fear of reprisal or undue influence. This anonymity aims to encourage transparency and prevent corruption in political funding.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Electoral bonds are strictly intended for funding registered political parties and cannot be used to directly finance individual and independent candidates. This restriction aims to prevent the use of electoral bonds for personal gain or undue influence over candidates.
Statement 3 is correct: The government has designated specific branches of the SBI as authorized sellers of electoral bonds. This centralized approach helps to monitor and regulate the issuance of electoral bonds and maintain a record of transactions.
Additional Information:
● The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill and it was implemented in 2018.
● State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore which are payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free.
● Can be purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India.
● They are valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue.
● SBI is the authorized issuer.
● Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2. Which of the following are the purposes of including the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Constitution of India?
1. Socio-economic development
2. Establishing political democracy
3. Creation of a welfare state
4. Serve as a moral compass for governance
Select the correct answer from the code given below:Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: To guide the government’s approach to socio-economic development and welfare: The DPSP outlines a vision for a just and equitable society, providing direction for the government’s policies and programs aimed at promoting social and economic well-being. These principles advocate for measures such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) do have some implications for political democracy, their primary focus is on establishing social and economic democracy.
Political democracy refers to a system of government in which power is held by the people, either directly through voting or indirectly through elected representatives. It is characterized by features such as free and fair elections, freedom of speech and assembly, and the rule of law.
Social and economic democracy, on the other hand, is concerned with creating a society in which all citizens have equal opportunities and a fair share of the nation’s resources. It encompasses concepts such as social justice, equitable distribution of wealth, and ensuring the basic needs of all citizens.
The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, primarily focuses on promoting social and economic democracy. They outline principles such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities. These principles aim to create a society where all citizens have equal access to opportunities and resources, regardless of their social background or economic status.
Statement 3 is correct: To promote a welfare state: The DPSP embodies the concept of a welfare state, emphasizing the government’s responsibility to ensure the well-being of its citizens. These principles encourage the government to take an active role in providing social services, such as healthcare, education, and social security, to uplift the lives of its citizens.
Statement 4 is correct: To serve as a moral compass for governance: The DPSP serves as guiding principles for the government’s actions, providing a moral framework for policymaking and decision-making. These principles encourage the government to consider not only immediate economic and political considerations but also the long-term social and moral implications of its actions.
Basics of Directive Principles of State Policy:
● Part IV of the Indian Constitution: The DPSP are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, along with the Fundamental Rights. These principles are considered to be “fundamental in the governance of the country” and “it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
● Non-justiciable nature: While the DPSP are considered important guiding principles, they are not justiciable. This means that individuals cannot directly approach courts to seek enforcement of these principles. However, the DPSP can be used by courts as a source of inspiration and interpretation when adjudicating cases related to Fundamental Rights.
● Role in policymaking: The DPSP serve as a moral compass for the government’s policies and programs. While not directly enforceable, these principles provide a framework for the government to strive towards achieving a just, equitable, and welfare-oriented society.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: To guide the government’s approach to socio-economic development and welfare: The DPSP outlines a vision for a just and equitable society, providing direction for the government’s policies and programs aimed at promoting social and economic well-being. These principles advocate for measures such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) do have some implications for political democracy, their primary focus is on establishing social and economic democracy.
Political democracy refers to a system of government in which power is held by the people, either directly through voting or indirectly through elected representatives. It is characterized by features such as free and fair elections, freedom of speech and assembly, and the rule of law.
Social and economic democracy, on the other hand, is concerned with creating a society in which all citizens have equal opportunities and a fair share of the nation’s resources. It encompasses concepts such as social justice, equitable distribution of wealth, and ensuring the basic needs of all citizens.
The DPSP, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, primarily focuses on promoting social and economic democracy. They outline principles such as providing adequate means of livelihood, securing the right to work and education, and promoting social justice and equal opportunities. These principles aim to create a society where all citizens have equal access to opportunities and resources, regardless of their social background or economic status.
Statement 3 is correct: To promote a welfare state: The DPSP embodies the concept of a welfare state, emphasizing the government’s responsibility to ensure the well-being of its citizens. These principles encourage the government to take an active role in providing social services, such as healthcare, education, and social security, to uplift the lives of its citizens.
Statement 4 is correct: To serve as a moral compass for governance: The DPSP serves as guiding principles for the government’s actions, providing a moral framework for policymaking and decision-making. These principles encourage the government to consider not only immediate economic and political considerations but also the long-term social and moral implications of its actions.
Basics of Directive Principles of State Policy:
● Part IV of the Indian Constitution: The DPSP are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, along with the Fundamental Rights. These principles are considered to be “fundamental in the governance of the country” and “it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.”
● Non-justiciable nature: While the DPSP are considered important guiding principles, they are not justiciable. This means that individuals cannot directly approach courts to seek enforcement of these principles. However, the DPSP can be used by courts as a source of inspiration and interpretation when adjudicating cases related to Fundamental Rights.
● Role in policymaking: The DPSP serve as a moral compass for the government’s policies and programs. While not directly enforceable, these principles provide a framework for the government to strive towards achieving a just, equitable, and welfare-oriented society. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
3. Tenth schedule to the Constitution of India was added by:
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation: Option B is correct.
The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 which introduced the concept of anti-defection. The aim of the Tenth Schedule is to prevent members of legislatures from switching parties for personal gain or political expediency, thereby promoting stability and coherence in the legislative process.
Prior to the Fifty-second Amendment, there was no constitutional provision against defection. This led to frequent instances of members of legislatures switching parties, often in exchange for personal benefits or ministerial positions. This instability and lack of loyalty to party principles undermined the integrity of the legislative process and raised concerns about the functioning of democracy.
45th Amendment Act, 1980:extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
54th Amendment Act, 1986:enhanced the salaries of Judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court of India.
59th Amendment Act, 1988:It empowered the President of India to impose President’s rule in Punjab for a period of up to three years, instead of the usual one year.Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation: Option B is correct.
The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 which introduced the concept of anti-defection. The aim of the Tenth Schedule is to prevent members of legislatures from switching parties for personal gain or political expediency, thereby promoting stability and coherence in the legislative process.
Prior to the Fifty-second Amendment, there was no constitutional provision against defection. This led to frequent instances of members of legislatures switching parties, often in exchange for personal benefits or ministerial positions. This instability and lack of loyalty to party principles undermined the integrity of the legislative process and raised concerns about the functioning of democracy.
45th Amendment Act, 1980:extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
54th Amendment Act, 1986:enhanced the salaries of Judges of the High Courts and Supreme Court of India.
59th Amendment Act, 1988:It empowered the President of India to impose President’s rule in Punjab for a period of up to three years, instead of the usual one year. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
4. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Article 300 of the Indian Constitution embodies the concept of constitutional tort.
Statement-II: Article 300 permits the Union and the State Governments to be sued as juristic persons.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
A “constitutional tort” refers to the violation of an individual’s constitutional rights by a state actor or government official. It’s a situation where a person’s rights, as granted by a nation’s constitution or other foundational legal document, are infringed upon by those acting on behalf of the government.
In such situations, the aggrieved individual may have the right to sue the state actor or the government itself for damages.
The concept of constitutional tort aims to provide a remedy for violations of constitutional rights and to hold state actors accountable for their actions.
Statement-I is correct: In the context of India, the term “constitutional tort” isn’t as commonly used as in some other jurisdictions, but the underlying idea is present within the Indian Constitution and legal system.
Constitutional tort in India refers to the breach of an individual’s fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution by a state actor or a public official. When the government or its agents act in a way that infringes upon an individual’s rights, the affected person can seek redressal through the judiciary.
The Indian Constitution, under Article 32 and Article 226, empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. In doing so, the courts often provide remedies and compensations, holding public officials accountable for their actions. Article 300 of the Constitution of India also embodies the concept of Constitutional tort.
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution ensures that the government is subject to the rule of law and can be involved in legal proceedings to resolve disputes or address claims related to its rights and liabilities. It reinforces the principle that no one, including the government, is above the law.
Statement-II is correct: Under Article 300(1) of the Constitution of India the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. This is a fundamental principle of Indian law that ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-IIncorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
A “constitutional tort” refers to the violation of an individual’s constitutional rights by a state actor or government official. It’s a situation where a person’s rights, as granted by a nation’s constitution or other foundational legal document, are infringed upon by those acting on behalf of the government.
In such situations, the aggrieved individual may have the right to sue the state actor or the government itself for damages.
The concept of constitutional tort aims to provide a remedy for violations of constitutional rights and to hold state actors accountable for their actions.
Statement-I is correct: In the context of India, the term “constitutional tort” isn’t as commonly used as in some other jurisdictions, but the underlying idea is present within the Indian Constitution and legal system.
Constitutional tort in India refers to the breach of an individual’s fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution by a state actor or a public official. When the government or its agents act in a way that infringes upon an individual’s rights, the affected person can seek redressal through the judiciary.
The Indian Constitution, under Article 32 and Article 226, empowers individuals to move the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. In doing so, the courts often provide remedies and compensations, holding public officials accountable for their actions. Article 300 of the Constitution of India also embodies the concept of Constitutional tort.
Article 300 of the Indian Constitution ensures that the government is subject to the rule of law and can be involved in legal proceedings to resolve disputes or address claims related to its rights and liabilities. It reinforces the principle that no one, including the government, is above the law.
Statement-II is correct: Under Article 300(1) of the Constitution of India the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State. This is a fundamental principle of Indian law that ensures that the government is accountable to the people.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
5. Consider the following:
1. India Innovation Index (III)
2. School Education Quality Index (SEQI)
3. State Health Index (SHI)
How many of the above given indices are released by the NITI Aayog?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation: All the above mentioned Indices are released by the NITI Aayog.
NITI Aayog, the Government of India’s think tank, releases a variety of indexes to assess and track the progress of various sectors and aspects of development in India.
India Innovation Index (III): The India Innovation Index, released annually, measures the innovation ecosystem across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses various aspects of innovation, including finance, human capital, research and development, and infrastructure.
The India Innovation Index (III) is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses seven pillars of innovation:
1. Human Capital: This pillar assesses the skills and capabilities of the workforce, including education, research and development, and creative talent.
2. Infrastructure: This pillar evaluates the availability and quality of physical and digital infrastructure, including transportation, communication, and IT infrastructure.
3. Finance: This pillar assesses the access to capital for innovation activities, including venture capital, angel investments, and government funding.
4. Market Access: This pillar evaluates the ease of doing business, market size, and regulatory environment for innovative products and services.
5. Knowledge Creation: This pillar assesses the output of innovation activities, including research and development, publications, and patents.
6. Business Environment: This pillar evaluates the overall business environment for innovation, including factors such as intellectual property protection, regulatory environment, and government support for innovation.
7. Performance: This pillar assesses the commercialization of innovation, including venture capital deals, startups, and global rankings.
Key Findings of the India Innovation Index (III) 2022:
● Karnataka topped the index for the third consecutive year.
● Karnataka was followed by Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Gujarat.
● Uttarakhand, Bihar, and Jharkhand were among the bottom-ranked states.
● The gap between the top-performing and bottom-performing states has narrowed in recent years.School Education Quality Index (SEQI): The School Education Quality Index, released every two years, measures the quality of school education across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses parameters such as learning outcomes, infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and school management.The SEQI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 70 indicators across five key dimensions:
1. Outcomes: This dimension assesses the learning outcomes of students, including their performance in national and international assessments.
2. Infrastructure and Facilities: This dimension evaluates the availability and quality of physical infrastructure, such as classrooms, libraries, and laboratories, as well as teacher-student ratios.
3. Teacher Availability and Quality: This dimension assesses the number, qualifications, and professional development of teachers.
4. Processes and Governance: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of school management, school governance, and teacher management practices.
5. Equity and Access: This dimension assesses the accessibility of education for all students, including those from marginalized communities and disadvantaged backgrounds.State Health Index (SHI): The State Health Index, released every three years, evaluates the performance of public health systems across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses factors such as health outcomes, infrastructure, access to services, and financial resources to provide a holistic evaluation of the healthcare delivery system and identify areas for improvement.
The SHI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 24 indicators across three key dimensions:
1. Health Outcomes: This dimension assesses the overall health status of the population, including indicators such as infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate, and life expectancy.
2. Governance and Information: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of the healthcare system’s governance, including factors such as health budget allocation, utilization of health services, and availability of health information.
3. Key Inputs and Processes: This dimension assesses the availability and quality of key health inputs, such as healthcare infrastructure, human resources, and access to essential medicines.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation: All the above mentioned Indices are released by the NITI Aayog.
NITI Aayog, the Government of India’s think tank, releases a variety of indexes to assess and track the progress of various sectors and aspects of development in India.
India Innovation Index (III): The India Innovation Index, released annually, measures the innovation ecosystem across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses various aspects of innovation, including finance, human capital, research and development, and infrastructure.
The India Innovation Index (III) is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses seven pillars of innovation:
1. Human Capital: This pillar assesses the skills and capabilities of the workforce, including education, research and development, and creative talent.
2. Infrastructure: This pillar evaluates the availability and quality of physical and digital infrastructure, including transportation, communication, and IT infrastructure.
3. Finance: This pillar assesses the access to capital for innovation activities, including venture capital, angel investments, and government funding.
4. Market Access: This pillar evaluates the ease of doing business, market size, and regulatory environment for innovative products and services.
5. Knowledge Creation: This pillar assesses the output of innovation activities, including research and development, publications, and patents.
6. Business Environment: This pillar evaluates the overall business environment for innovation, including factors such as intellectual property protection, regulatory environment, and government support for innovation.
7. Performance: This pillar assesses the commercialization of innovation, including venture capital deals, startups, and global rankings.
Key Findings of the India Innovation Index (III) 2022:
● Karnataka topped the index for the third consecutive year.
● Karnataka was followed by Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Gujarat.
● Uttarakhand, Bihar, and Jharkhand were among the bottom-ranked states.
● The gap between the top-performing and bottom-performing states has narrowed in recent years.School Education Quality Index (SEQI): The School Education Quality Index, released every two years, measures the quality of school education across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses parameters such as learning outcomes, infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and school management.The SEQI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 70 indicators across five key dimensions:
1. Outcomes: This dimension assesses the learning outcomes of students, including their performance in national and international assessments.
2. Infrastructure and Facilities: This dimension evaluates the availability and quality of physical infrastructure, such as classrooms, libraries, and laboratories, as well as teacher-student ratios.
3. Teacher Availability and Quality: This dimension assesses the number, qualifications, and professional development of teachers.
4. Processes and Governance: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of school management, school governance, and teacher management practices.
5. Equity and Access: This dimension assesses the accessibility of education for all students, including those from marginalized communities and disadvantaged backgrounds.State Health Index (SHI): The State Health Index, released every three years, evaluates the performance of public health systems across states and Union Territories in India. It assesses factors such as health outcomes, infrastructure, access to services, and financial resources to provide a holistic evaluation of the healthcare delivery system and identify areas for improvement.
The SHI is based on a comprehensive framework that encompasses 24 indicators across three key dimensions:
1. Health Outcomes: This dimension assesses the overall health status of the population, including indicators such as infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate, and life expectancy.
2. Governance and Information: This dimension evaluates the effectiveness of the healthcare system’s governance, including factors such as health budget allocation, utilization of health services, and availability of health information.
3. Key Inputs and Processes: This dimension assesses the availability and quality of key health inputs, such as healthcare infrastructure, human resources, and access to essential medicines.
