Day-417
Quiz-summary
0 of 5 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Information
To attempt the Quiz, simply click on START Button.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 5 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 points1. Which among the following statements is/are correct about the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?
1. It provided for the indirect elections to the Panchayats at the intermediate level in all states.
2. It made the approval of the Gram Sabha mandatory for the Village Development Plan prepared by the Village Panchayat.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
73rd CAA, 1992:
● The act provides for a three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state, that is, panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels . Thus, the act brings about uniformity in the structure of panchayati raj throughout the country. However, a state having a population not exceeding 20 lakh may not constitute panchayats at the intermediate level. All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. Further, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the state legislature determines.
● The act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati raj system. It is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines.
So, both the statements are incorrect.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
73rd CAA, 1992:
● The act provides for a three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state, that is, panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels . Thus, the act brings about uniformity in the structure of panchayati raj throughout the country. However, a state having a population not exceeding 20 lakh may not constitute panchayats at the intermediate level. All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. Further, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the state legislature determines.
● The act provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati raj system. It is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines.
So, both the statements are incorrect. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 points2. Which among the following statements is/are incorrect about the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT)?
1. It prohibits all types of testing of nuclear weapons by all UN members.
2. It came into force in 1996.
3. It has replaced the Partial Test Ban Treaty which prohibited some specific types of nuclear weapon testing only.
Select the correct answer by using the code given below:Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
● The CTBT was signed in 1996 but has not come into force. This is because the treaty provides that all those nuclear capable countries which are 44 in number should sign and ratify the treaty, then only the treaty will come into force. The treaty did not replace the PTBT but provides a comprehensive approach to global nuclear disarmament. Although the term comprehensive is used, it does not mean that the treaty prevents or prohibits all types of nuclear weapon tests. For instance, it does not prohibit subcritical, and computer simulated weapon tests and this has been one of the reasons why India has been reluctant to sign the CTBT.
Hence, all the statements are incorrect.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
● The CTBT was signed in 1996 but has not come into force. This is because the treaty provides that all those nuclear capable countries which are 44 in number should sign and ratify the treaty, then only the treaty will come into force. The treaty did not replace the PTBT but provides a comprehensive approach to global nuclear disarmament. Although the term comprehensive is used, it does not mean that the treaty prevents or prohibits all types of nuclear weapon tests. For instance, it does not prohibit subcritical, and computer simulated weapon tests and this has been one of the reasons why India has been reluctant to sign the CTBT.
Hence, all the statements are incorrect. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 points3. Consider the following statements:
1. The Global Development initiative has been launched by the European Union for socially responsible and equitable economic growth.
2. India has signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty but has not ratified which has resulted in India’s non-admission into the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
3. India has signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement with Sri Lanka.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: In September 2021, Chinese President Xi Jinping during the session of the United Nations General Assembly put forward the Global Development Initiative. The Global Development Initiative aims to support the timely achievement of all 17 SDGs of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development by revitalizing global development partnership, and promoting stronger, greener and healthier global development. As of October 2022, more than 100 countries and international organizations have expressed their support to the Initiative and 68 countries have joined the Group of Friends of the GDI at the UN.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: India has neither signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty nor ratified it. This is one major reason which has resulted in India’s non-admission into the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: India and Australia have entered into an Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement(ECTA), which was signed on 2nd April 2022.
The India-Australia ECTA covers the following major areas:
1. Trade in Goods
2. Trade in Services
3. Rules of Origin
4. Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) and Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures
5. Customs Procedures and Trade Facilitation
6. Trade Remedies
7. Legal & Institutional Issues
8. Movement of Natural Persons
The Economic and Technology Co-operation Agreement (ETCA) is a proposed agreement that seeks to add to the existing free trade agreement between India and Sri Lanka.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: In September 2021, Chinese President Xi Jinping during the session of the United Nations General Assembly put forward the Global Development Initiative. The Global Development Initiative aims to support the timely achievement of all 17 SDGs of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development by revitalizing global development partnership, and promoting stronger, greener and healthier global development. As of October 2022, more than 100 countries and international organizations have expressed their support to the Initiative and 68 countries have joined the Group of Friends of the GDI at the UN.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: India has neither signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty nor ratified it. This is one major reason which has resulted in India’s non-admission into the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: India and Australia have entered into an Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement(ECTA), which was signed on 2nd April 2022.
The India-Australia ECTA covers the following major areas:
1. Trade in Goods
2. Trade in Services
3. Rules of Origin
4. Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) and Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures
5. Customs Procedures and Trade Facilitation
6. Trade Remedies
7. Legal & Institutional Issues
8. Movement of Natural Persons
The Economic and Technology Co-operation Agreement (ETCA) is a proposed agreement that seeks to add to the existing free trade agreement between India and Sri Lanka.
Hence, the correct answer is option D. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 points4. In the aftermath of the implementation of Goods and Services Tax in India, the excise duty on Petrol is:
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Article 270: Taxes levied and distributed between the Union and the States.
(1) All taxes and duties referred to in the Union List, except the duties and taxes referred to in articles 268 and 269, respectively, surcharge on taxes and duties referred to in article 271 and any cess levied for specific purposes under any law made by Parliament shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and shall be distributed between the Union and the States in the manner provided in clause (2).
(2) Such percentage, as may be prescribed, of the net proceeds of any such tax or duty in any financial year shall not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India, but shall be assigned to the States within which that tax or duty is leviable in that year, and shall be distributed among those States in such manner and from such time as may be prescribed in the manner provided in clause (3).
(3) In this article, “prescribed” means, —
(i) until a Finance Commission has been constituted, prescribed by the President by order, and
(ii) after a Finance Commission has been constituted, prescribed by the President by order after considering the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
Hence option D is the correct answer.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Article 270: Taxes levied and distributed between the Union and the States.
(1) All taxes and duties referred to in the Union List, except the duties and taxes referred to in articles 268 and 269, respectively, surcharge on taxes and duties referred to in article 271 and any cess levied for specific purposes under any law made by Parliament shall be levied and collected by the Government of India and shall be distributed between the Union and the States in the manner provided in clause (2).
(2) Such percentage, as may be prescribed, of the net proceeds of any such tax or duty in any financial year shall not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India, but shall be assigned to the States within which that tax or duty is leviable in that year, and shall be distributed among those States in such manner and from such time as may be prescribed in the manner provided in clause (3).
(3) In this article, “prescribed” means, —
(i) until a Finance Commission has been constituted, prescribed by the President by order, and
(ii) after a Finance Commission has been constituted, prescribed by the President by order after considering the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
Hence option D is the correct answer. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 points5. Identify the most appropriate feature of a constitutional monarchy from the options given below:
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
● A constitutional monarchy is a form of government in which a monarch acts as head of state within the parameters of a written (i.e., codified), unwritten (i.e., uncodified) or blended constitution. It differs from absolute monarchy in that an absolute monarch serves as the sole source of political power in the state and is not legally bound by any constitution. Most constitutional monarchies employ a parliamentary system in which the Monarch may have strictly Ceremonial duties or may have Reserve Powers, depending on the Constitution. They have a directly or indirectly elected prime minister who is the head of government and exercises effective political power.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
● A constitutional monarchy is a form of government in which a monarch acts as head of state within the parameters of a written (i.e., codified), unwritten (i.e., uncodified) or blended constitution. It differs from absolute monarchy in that an absolute monarch serves as the sole source of political power in the state and is not legally bound by any constitution. Most constitutional monarchies employ a parliamentary system in which the Monarch may have strictly Ceremonial duties or may have Reserve Powers, depending on the Constitution. They have a directly or indirectly elected prime minister who is the head of government and exercises effective political power.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Social Media