Day-786 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GEOGRAPHY

Answer.  B

Explanation-

Concerted efforts were made to look at development critically at various times in the past. But the most systematic effort towards this was the publication of the First Human Development Report (HDR) by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 1990. Since then, the organisation has been bringing out the HDR every year.

Statement 1 is correct- The HDI as part of the first HDR was brought out in 1990; it sought to reflect the ideas of social justice and development given by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen.

Statement 2 is correct- UNDP published the Human Development Index as part of the HDR on an annual basis. The index ranks the countries after calculating the performance of the countries on the following three dimensions:

• • Decent standard of living: It is measured by gross national income (GNI) per capita.
  • Education: The education dimension is measured by mean of years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and more and expected years of schooling for children of school entering age.
  • Long and Healthy life: The health dimension is assessed by life expectancy at birth.

The scores for the three HDI dimension indices are then aggregated into a composite index using geometric mean.

Statement 3 is incorrect- The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) was brought out in 1970s by Morris D Morris as the measure of the level of well-being of the countries. The value is the average of three statistics:

• • Basic literacy rate
  • Infant mortality rate
  • Life expectancy at age of one.

Hence, the parameters used in HDI and PQLI are different.

Answer.  A

Explanation- With an average age of 29 years, India has one of the youngest populations globally which emphasizes the significance of demographic dividend in the country. India is home to a fifth of the world’s youth demographic. This population advantage could play a critical role in achieving the nation’s ambitious target to become a US$ 5 trillion economy.

Statement 1 is correct- The youth comprise 27.2% (nearly 30%) of the total population of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect- As per National Youth Policy of 2003, ‘youth’ was defined as a person of age between 13-35 years but in the current Policy Document i.e., National Youth Policy 2014, the persons between the age group of 15 and 29 years are considered youth.

Answer. C

Explanation:

Some of the important tribes, which often remain in limelight, have been given below-

Hakki-Pikki         –              Karnataka

Some tribal people from Hakki Pikki tribes were caught in the Sudan conflict. They live in several states in west and south India, especially near forest areas. Hakki Pikkis (Hakki in Kannada means ‘bird’ and Pikki means ‘catchers’) are a semi-nomadic tribe, traditionally of bird catchers and hunters.  They are divided into four clans, called Gujaratia, Panwar, Kaliwala and Mewaras.

Lotha                     –              Nagaland

Central Nagaland Tribes Council (CNTC) comprising the Ao, Sumi and Lotha tribes of Nagaland have opposed the plans of the government of India to implement the Uniform Civil Code in the country.

Santhal                 –              West Bengal

Santhals are the third largest scheduled tribe community in India after Gonds and Bhils. The Santhali population is mostly distributed in Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal.

Bhil                        –              Madhya Pradesh

Bhil, a tribal community in the western parts of India is demanding the creation of a separate state for them by carving out some districts from Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh.

Answer. D

Explanation- Recognising that the planning of families would improve individual health and welfare, the Government of India initiated a comprehensive Family Planning Programme in 1952. The Family Welfare Programme has sought to promote responsible and planned parenthood on a voluntary basis.

The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 provides a policy framework for imparting free and compulsory school education up to 14 years of age, achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine preventable diseases, reducing infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births, promoting delayed marriage for girls, and making family welfare a people-centred programme.

The NPP states its immediate objective as addressing the unmet needs for contraception, healthcare infrastructure, and health personnel, and providing integrated service delivery for basic reproductive and child healthcare.

The medium-term objective of the NPP 2000 was to reduce the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2010 i.e; 2.1 children per woman.

The long-term objective is “to achieve a stable population by 2045, at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth, social development, and environmental protection.”

Source- NCERT Class 9, Contemporary India

Answer. A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect– Births and deaths are the natural causes of population change. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate of a country is called the natural growth rate. The immigration or out-migration are not factored into the natural growth rate of the population.

Statement 2 is correct- In countries like Japan, low birth rates make the pyramid narrow at the base. Decreased death rates allow numbers of people to reach old age.

Answer. D

Explanation– Shale gas is an unconventional form of natural gas which is also referred to as “tight gas”. It is found in smaller patches in deeper reservoirs compared to the conventional crude deposits; so, it is extracted through the process of hydraulic fracking in which fractures are created in oil and gas rich shale to release hydrocarbons.

The following sedimentary basins are considered the prospective sites where shale gas and oil are present, as per the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (Ministry of Petroleum and Natural gas):

• • Cambay basin
  • Gondwana basin
  • Krishna- Godavari basin
  • Kaveri basin
  • Indo-Gangetic basin
  • Arakan basin in Assam
  • Ganga valley

Answer. B

Explanation– Drip irrigation also called as trickle irrigation is the method of applying filtered water (and fertilizers soluble in water) at a low discharge through the emitters or drippers directly onto or into the soil.

Options 1 and 4 are correct- Drip irrigation reduces soil erosion and susceptibility of crops to pest attacks.

• • No Soil Erosion: As water is not moved over the land surface, there is no soil erosion due to drip irrigation.
  • Minimum Diseases and Pest Problems: In drip system, because of less atmospheric humidity minimum diseases and pest problems are observed.

Options 2 and 3 are incorrect- The weed growth and salt concentration in soil(salinisation) are reduced due to drip irrigation.

• • Weed Control: In drip method, due to partial wetting of soil, weed infestation is very less in comparison to other methods of irrigation.
  • Use of Brackish/Saline Water: In this method the soil moisture can be maintained at low tension and therefore best suited to the application of brackish/saline water which is otherwise not possible in surface irrigation method due to moisture at high tension because of prolonged interval between two irrigations. As the irrigation requirement of this method is almost reduced by more than 50%, the use of water with salt loads cause the less salt accumulation compared to surface irrigation methods.

Other advantages of drip irrigation:

• • Water Use Efficiency: In drip irrigation system, the water is not moved over the soil surface or through the air. Therefore, the conveyance losses are totally eliminated. As water does not come in contact with the foliage, the interception losses are also eliminated. In addition to this as this method can wet only the desired soil root zone keeping other portion of the soil dry, the losses in application are also reduced.
  • Improved Crop Yield: As this method allows the efficient application of water in low volumes frequently, it is possible to maintain the water content in the soil root zone near to the field capacity or within allowable depletion soil moisture. At this level the soil moisture tension is low and the plant need not to exert much to extract water from the soil. Therefore, the plants are not subjected to water stress during the entire crop growth period.
  • Considerable saving in labour: The well-designed system needs labour only to start or stop the system. This method is also adaptable to automation of low to high level in water and fertilizer application.
  • Enhanced Fertilizer Application Efficiency: As water can be precisely applied in the root zone, fertilizer can also be applied in the root zone of the crop only. Therefore, the losses of fertilizers in the process of deep percolation, leaching, runoff etc can be considerably eliminated.

Answer. B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct- The consumer goods industries produced goods which are consumed by consumers directly. For example, industries producing breads and biscuits, tea, soaps and toiletries, paper for writing, televisions, etc. are consumer goods or non-basic industries.

Statement 2 is incorrect- India is the second largest producer of sugarcane in the world after Brazil.

Statement 3 is correct- The food processing industry of India accounts for 18.8% (approx. 20%) of the GVA of agriculture and allied sector.

Answer. A

Explanation:

Katni (Madhya Pradesh)                –                              Bauxite

Bhilwara (Rajasthan)                      –                             Copper

Raniganj (West Bengal)                  –                              Coal

Answer. C

Explanation- Kolkata Port is located on the Hugli river, 128 km inland from the Bay of Bengal. Like the Mumbai port, this port was also developed by the British.

• • Kolkata had the initial advantage of being the capital of British India.
  • The port has lost its significance considerably on account of the diversion of exports to the other ports such as Vishakhapatnam, Paradwip and its satellite port, Haldia.
  • Kolkata port is also confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river which provides a link to the sea.
  • Its hinterland coversP., Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Sikkim and the north-eastern states.
  • Apart from this, it also extends ports facilities to our neighbouring land-locked countries such as Nepal and Bhutan.

Answer. D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct– In intensive subsistence agriculture, the farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour. Climate with large number of days with sunshine and fertile soils permit growing of more than one crop annually on the same plot. Rice is the main crop. Other crops include wheat, maize, pulses and oilseeds. Intensive subsistence agriculture is prevalent in the thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of south, southeast and east Asia.

Statement 2 is correct- Major plantations are found in the tropical regions of the world:

• • Rubber in Malaysia
  • Coffee in Brazil
  • Tea in India and Sri Lanka.

Plantations are a type of commercial farming where single crop of tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton are grown. Large amount of labour and capital are required. The produce may be processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories. The development of a transport network is thus essential for such farming.

Answer. C

Explanation- Jute was also known as the ‘Golden Fibre’. It grows well on alluvial soil and requires high temperature, heavy rainfall and humid climate. This crop is grown in the tropical areas. India and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

Answer. C

Explanation- Temperature of 27 degrees Celsius and rainfall in the range of 100-200 cm marked by seasonal variation is ideal for the growth of tropical monsoon forests. The characteristics of such forests are as follows:

• • More open forest with bamboo thickets, deciduous trees and denser undergrowth.
  • Highly varied in characteristic features ranging from forests to thickets and from Savanna to scrubland.
  • Teak, sal, sandalwood, bamboo, casuarina are important trees.

Such forests are distributed in the lowlands bordering the Gulf of Guinea from Sierra Leone in the West to Cameroon and Gabon in the East, the Zaire basin, India, Myanmar, Thailand and Indo-China.

Answer. B

Explanation- The iron makes up 5% of the crust of the earth. All of its ores are not of equal value as their content of metal is varied. The ores of iron include Haematite, Magnetite, Limonite and Siderite.

Statement 1 is incorrect- Limonite and Siderite are residual ores of iron but the carbon content in them is varies, depending on the ore type:

Limonite is a brown ore with less than 50% of iron content.

Siderite is a carbonate of iron and is found inter-bedded with sedimentary rocks, especially with carbonaceous rocks where it is known as black band ironstone. It has iron content in the range of 20-30%.

Statement 2 is correct- Limonite is known as bog iron when it occurs in swamps.

Answer. B

Explanation-

Statement 1 is correct- Central Asia is rich in various minerals. Central Asia holds 38.6% of global manganese ore reserves, 30.07% of chromium, 20% of lead, 12.6% of zinc, 8.7% of titanium, 5.8.% of aluminium, 5.8% of cobalt and 5.2% of molybdenum.

Kazakhstan is the second largest producer of chromium in the world, which is used in wind turbines.

Statement 2 is incorrect- Central Asia has abundant reserves of coal, oil, natural gas and zinc.

Statement 3 is correct- Kimberley in South Africa is renowned for its quality diamonds. Diamond mining is common in this region. Iron, salt and gypsum are also worked in the vicinity.

Answer. B

Explanation-

Statement 1 is incorrect- The arable land in India was reported at 52%(approx.) in 2020.

Statement 2 is correct- India is home to 30% of the total organic producers in the world having 2.30 million hectares.

Organic farming is in its nascent stage in India. About 2.30 million hectares of farmland was under organic cultivation as of March, 2019. This is 2% of the total net sown area of the country.

Statement 3 is incorrect- The geographical area of India is divided into 15 agro-climatic zones.

Statement 4 is incorrect- The share of irrigated area accounts for about 48% of the total net sown area in the country. Out of the net irrigated area, about 40% is irrigated through canal systems and 60% through groundwater.

Answer. C

Explanation- Rainfed agriculture refers to the area under such crops whose the cultivation is dependent upon the monsoon rainfall.

Rain-dependent areas can be broadly categorized into two types: ‘dry lands’, which receive less than 75 cm of rain a year; and rainfed areas, which receive more than 75 cm of rainfall.

The following crops in India are predominantly cultivated under rainfed conditions:

• • Maize
  • Soyabean
  • Sesamum
  • Pearl millet
  • Groundnut
  • Jowar
  • Pigeon pea(arhar)

Rainfed agriculture occupies about 51 percent of country’s net sown area and accounts for nearly 40 percent of the total food production.

Answer. D

Explanation-

Statement 1 is incorrect- India imports fertilizers such as urea and potash. However, the proportion of imports of urea and potash vary, depending on the domestic production and consumption. India does not have any reserves of commercially usable potash, so it meets its entire requirement for potash through imports.

Globally, Canpotex, Canada is amongst the largest suppliers of potash. India imports potash from countries like South Korea, Canada, Russia and Belarus.

Potash is a source of potassium. It is used for direct application in the form of MOP (Muriate of Potash) as well as in combination with ‘N’ and ‘K’ nutrients in NPK fertilizers. Russia and Belarus together exported nearly 40% of potash to India in 2022-23.

India meets nearly 30% of its urea demand through imports from Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE. India aims to end the import dependency of urea from 2025. New urea production plants have been proposed at:

• • Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh
  • Ramagundam in southern Telangana
  • Talcher, Barauni and Sindri in Eastern India.

Statement 2 is correct-   India is the third largest producer of nitrogenous fertilizers in the world after China and United States of America.

Answer. C

Explanation-

Statement 1 is correct- Rajasthan is a major producer of zinc in India.

Rajasthan also has rich reserves of copper. The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan.

Statement 2 is correct- In Assam, Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran are important oil producing areas.

In India the main tea-producing regions are Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Renowned globally for its richly coloured and aromatic tea, Assam’s tea industry, which is the country’s largest, provides livelihoods to millions with many others directly or indirectly dependent on the plantations. The state is famed for both Orthodox as well as the CTC (Crush, Tear, Curl) varieties of tea. Assam accounts for around half of India’s overall tea production.

Additional information-

India is the world’s fourth-largest producer of zinc in 2022. India accounts for 6% of global production, with the largest producers being China, Peru, Australia and Mexico. Exports of zinc from India declined by 28.05% in 2022 over 2021, with the highest share being exported to China.

Answer. B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct– Soyabean is primarily cultivated in the Malwa plateau. The Malwa plateau of India covers the areas in Madhya Pradesh such as Devas, Indore, Dhar, Ujjain, Jhabua, Ratlam, Neenuch, Shajapur, Rajgarh etc.

Statement 2 is incorrect- Cardamom hills in Kerala (not Karnataka) are known as the abode of spices. These hills form the southern part of the Western Ghats. Besides spices such as cardamom, these hills are also known for cultivation of pepper and coffee.

Statement 3 is correct- The Nilgiri hills which spread across the states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala are home to the pastoral Toda tribes and tea gardens.