DTRS-5 | Daily Takkar Rapid Series | UPSC Prelims

Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, a Central African Slender-Snouted Crocodile, a new species discovered in Central
Congo Basin during a new study by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).

Africa’s

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Slender-Snouted Crocodile (Mecistops cataphractus) is native to freshwater habitats, including rivers and lakes in West and Central Africa.
Statement 2 incorrect: The IUCN classifies it as “Critically Endangered” due to habitat loss, poaching, and human-wildlife conflict. The species is characterised by its narrow snout, which is specialised for catching small fish and aquatic invertebrates.
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/742-species-of-flora-fauna-discovered-between-2013-and-2024-in-
central-africas-congo-basin-wwf

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
The Department of Consumer Affairs is developing eMaap to integrate State Legal Metrology Departments and their portals into a unified National System.
Presently, State Governments are using their own portals for the registration of packaged commodities, issue of licenses and verification/stamping of weighing & measuring instruments
Statement 1 is correct: The eMaap portal aims to unify state legal metrology portals into a national system to standardize processes. Currently, states operate individual portals for legal metrology functions.
Statement 2 is correct: The portal aims to streamline the issuance of licenses, verification, and enforcement of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009. This Act regulates trade practices related to weights, measures, and packaged commodities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The objective is to promote ease of doing business by minimizing compliance burdens for businesses and increasing transparency. Hence, businesses are key stakeholders in this initiative.
Benefits:
Foster ease of doing business and Transparency in trade practices by minimizing compliance burdens,
reducing paperwork under Legal Metrology Act, 2009.
Enables data-driven decision-making, streamlines enforcement activities, and facilitates policy formation, ensuring a robust and efficient regulatory framework.
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080446

Answer: C
Explanation:
Context:
The Rajya Sabha recently passed the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, via a voice vote, paving the way for
significant changes in India’s oil and gas exploration laws.
Statement 1 is correct: It is a bill to amend the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948, aiming to boost investment in oil and gas exploration and production. It aims to decriminalise some of the provisions of the original 1948 law by introducing “penalties, adjudication by an adjudicating authority, and appeal as against the order of the adjudicating authority”.
For cases of violation of rules, the bill provides to hike the punishment and penalty from a current fine of Rs 1000 to Rs 25 lakhs.
In cases of exploring, prospecting, and production without a valid lease, a penalty of Rs 25 lakhs and continued violations will attract a penalty of Rs 10 lakh per day.
For dispute resolution, the central government will appoint an officer of the rank of joint Secretary or above for adjudication of penalties. Appeals against the decision of the adjudication officer can be filed at the Appellate tribunal specified in the Petroleum and Natural Gas Board Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is correct: The bill will regulate the exploration and extraction of natural gas and petroleum. The amended bill expands the definition of mineral oils to include petroleum and natural gas in it. The amended bill includes any naturally occurring hydrocarbon, coal bed methane, and shale gas/oil in the category of mineral oils.
However, it clarifies that mineral oils will not include coal, lignite, or helium.
It also provides for mining leases; this will include various activities such as exploration, prospecting, production, making merchantable, and
disposal of mineral oils.
Prospecting is the initial stage in the search for oil and gas fields, involving the assessment of potential petroleum accumulations across large areas.
The new bill will replace the mining lease with a petroleum lease to cover a similar set of activities. However, existing mining leases granted under
the old Act will continue to be valid.
The new bill will empower the central government to make rules on several matters, like regulating the grant of leases, terms and conditions of leases, including the minimum and the maximum area and the period of the lease, conservation and development of mineral oils, methods for producing oil, and manner of collection of royalties, fees, and taxes.
It also empowers the central government to make rules on the merger and combination of petroleum leases, sharing of production and processing facilities, obligations of lessees towards protecting the environment and reducing emissions, and alternative mechanisms for resolving disputes in relation to the grant of petroleum leases.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/what-is-centres-new-oilfields-bill-how-will-it-change-indias-petroleum-industry/article68937965.ece

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
The Lok Sabha, on 3rd December 2024, passed the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024, the first Bill of the Winter Session after the week-long logjam ended.
Statement 1 is correct: The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 aims to improve governance, enhance regulatory compliance, and provide operational flexibility to banks (e.g., allowing multiple nominees and flexibility in auditor remuneration).
The bill addresses governance and reporting standards, but it does not explicitly focus on unifying the regulatory framework for private and public sector banks. However, broader provisions in the amendments do facilitate a more consistent approach to governance, especially with cooperative banks and PSBs aligning better.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 does not explicitly focus on NBFC supervision or grant enhanced powers to the RBI regarding NBFCs. Instead, it deals more with governance and operational flexibility within banks.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no provision in the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024, regarding mechanisms to resolve NPAs or financial disputes. These issues are typically addressed through other frameworks, such as the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) or specific RBI guidelines.
Hence, the correct answer is (a).
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/lok-sabha-passes-banking-laws-amendment-bill-allowing-four-
nominees-in-bank-accounts/article68943116.ece

Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
Around 1.45 crore registrations have been made under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, and 6.34 lakh installations have been completed, Parliament was informed recently.
Statement 1 is correct: The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana focuses on providing solar-based electricity connections to households in rural and semi-urban areas. This aligns with the goal of utilizing renewable energy to electrify underserved regions.
Statement 2 is correct: The scheme is targeted towards Below Poverty Line (BPL) households and aims to increase energy access in remote areas.
Statement 3 is correct: The scheme is part of India’s broader commitment to achieving its renewable energy targets under the National Solar Mission and meeting its Net-Zero goals by 2070. By promoting solar energy, it reduces the reliance on fossil fuels, contributing to both sustainability and energy security.
Thus, the correct answer is (d). Source:
https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/pm-surya-ghar-scheme-achieves-6-
3-lakh-solar-installations-in-nine-months/115989321

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
The Union government recently told the Lok Sabha that “growing awareness, wider publicity, and capacity building of police personnel” were among the reasons for the increasing number of
cases being under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
Statement 1 is correct: The primary purpose of the Act is to protect SCs and STs from social injustices and exploitation by persons who are not members of these communities. It seeks to
eliminate offenses against SCs and STs that harm their dignity, self-respect, and social status.
Statement 2 is correct: The Act mandates the establishment of Special Courts in every district, with the concurrence of the High Court, to ensure a speedy trial of cases. These courts operate
on a day-to-day basis to address atrocities effectively.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Act prescribes stringent penalties, the range of punishment varies based on the offense.
For many offenses, the minimum punishment is six months, and the maximum punishment can go up to life imprisonment or death, depending on the severity. The claim that penalties are capped at five years is inaccurate.
Objectives:
To prevent offenses of atrocities against SCs and STs. To provide relief and rehabilitation for victims.
To designate Special Courts for faster resolution of cases.
Key Features:
Offences:
The Act defines 37 specific offenses, including:
Denial of access to resources like water, land, or education. Assault or sexual exploitation.
Social or economic boycotts.
Use of derogatory language or gestures aimed at humiliating SCs/STs.
Crimes committed between SCs and STs are not covered under this Act.
Investigation:
All offenses under the Act are cognizable (police can act without prior approval).
Only officers above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP) can investigate such cases. Investigations must be completed within 30 days, and reports should be submitted to senior officials.
Special Courts:
The Act mandates the creation of Special Courts for handling cases.
Public Prosecutors or experienced advocates (minimum of 7 years) are appointed to represent cases in these courts.
Punishments:
Punishments vary based on the offense:
Minimum punishment: 6 months imprisonment.
Maximum punishment: Life imprisonment or death sentence for severe offenses. Section 4 penalizes negligence by public servants, with imprisonment up to 6 months.
The Act is implemented by State Governments with central assistance under a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Source:
https://www.livelaw.in/high-court/punjab-and-haryana-high-court/punjab-haryana-high-court-quashes-case-not-mentioned-in-fir-that-accused-was-aware-of-cast-alleged-derogatory- remark-not-made-in-public-276965

Answer: C
Explanation:
Context:
After an earthquake of magnitude 5.3 struck the Mulugu district of Telangana on 4th December 2024, tremors of the earthquake
were felt in Maharashtra’s Nagpur, Gadchiroli and Chandrapur districts as well.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Centre for Seismology (NCS) is the nodal agency of the Government of India for monitoring of earthquake activity and conducts seismological research in the country.
Statement 2 is correct: It is an attached office of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MOES). The NCS monitors earthquake activity all across the country through its 24×7 round-the-clock monitoring center for better understanding of earthquake source processes and their effect on the cause of earthquake-safe society.
It consists of various divisions:
Earthquake Monitoring and Services Earthquake Hazard and Risk Assessments Geophysical Observation Systems
It operates and maintains the NSN, or the National Seismological Network. The NSN consists of 153 seismological observatories spread across the country.
NSN is capable of recording earthquakes and events of magnitude (M)≥2.5 in and around Delhi, M≥3.0 for the North East
(NE) region, M≥3.5 in the peninsular and extra-peninsular areas, and M≥4.0 in border regions.
Whenever an earthquake occurs in the country, its information is immediately disseminated by NCS to a variety of user agencies, including disaster management authorities.
The NCS shares this information via earthquake bulletins within five minutes of an earthquake.
It is also involved in the monitoring of aftershock and swarm activity, if occurred, throughout the country.
Another important activity implemented by the NCS is microzonation. It is a site-specific study that provides a more realistic and
reliable representation of ground motion characteristics.
It is useful in land use and urban planning, as well as in retrofitting of existing buildings.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana-earthquakes-tremors-felt-in-parts-of-maharashtra/article68945900.ece

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: 75% global population to be affected by drought in 25 years: UNCCD’s ‘Drought Atlas’ provides adaptation guidelines.
World Drought Atlas, 2024:
·Published by: The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) with the European Commission Joint Research Centre.
Ø The atlas is co-produced with Cima Research Foundation (Italy), Vrije Universiteit Amsterdam (The Netherlands) and the UN University
Institute for Environment and Human Security (Germany).
·This publication comes as the UNCCD parties gather for their 16th meeting at Riyadh to build resilience against the harsh droughts in the near future.
·Key findings:
India specific:
Ø UNCCD advocated for better understanding of drought-related crop failure in the country, as India has the highest number of people
(more than 25 million) employed in the agricultural sector. The atlas predicted a huge loss of soybean yield due to droughts in India.
Ø It reminded of the ‘Day Zero’ in Chennai in 2019. A mismanagement of water resources and rampant urbanisation has resulted in water crisis in the city, which receives more than 1,400 millimetres of rainfall annually on an average.
Ø Although Chennai has several water bodies and is a pioneer city to make rainwater harvesting mandatory, lack of implementation of the legislation and unplanned growth of the city reduced the groundwater levels in the city, pushing it towards a drought-like situation, according to UNCCD.
·Suggestions:
Ø Data sharing will be key in the fight to reduce drought damage.
Ø Early warnings for droughts will also play a crucial role in bringing down risks and moving towards resilience. Ø Investment is required to improve on knowledge, forecasting droughts and measuring the risks.
Ø Appropriate soil and agronomical management practices are powerful tools to reduce the risk of impacts posed by droughts on crops.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/75-global-population-to-be-affected-by-drought-in-25-years-unccds-drought-atlas-
provides-adaptation-guidelines

Answer: D
Explanation:
Context: Recently released, “International Debt Report 2024” highlights a worsening debt crisis for developing nations, with 2023 marking the highest debt servicing levels in two decades, driven by rising interest rates and economic challenges.
·The International Debt Report (IDR) is an annual publication of the World Bank featuring external debt
statistics and analysis for the 122 countries that report to the World Bank Debtor Reporting System.
·The newly published IDR 2024 includes an analysis of end-2023 external debt flows and debt stock positions as well as the macroeconomic and debt outlook for 2024 and beyond, and updates on the debt transparency agenda.
·In addition, the IDS-DSSI database includes the actual debt service deferred from by each bilateral
creditor and the projected monthly debt-service payments owed to all bilateral creditors.
Additional information:
Key Findings of the International Debt Report, 2024?
§ Rising Debt Levels:
oThe total external debt of Low- and Middle-Income countries (Developing or LMICs) reached a record
USD 8.8 trillion by the end of 2023, marking an 8% increase since 2020.
oExternal debt for the International Development Association (IDA)-eligible countries rose by nearly 18%, reaching USD 1.1 trillion.
·IDA, established in 1960,is a World Bank Group institution providing concessional loans and grants to
the world’s poorest nations with low income and poor creditworthiness.
§ Rising Debt Servicing Costs:

o LMICs incurred a record USD 1.4 trillion in debt servicing costs (principal plus interest payments) in 2023, with interest payments increasing by 33% to USD 406 billion, placing immense pressure on national budgets.
o The sharp rise in interest payments has curtailed investments in vital sectors like health, education, and environmental
sustainability, exacerbating developmental challenges.
§ Rising Borrowing Costs:
o In 2023, interest rates on loans from official creditors doubled to over 4%, while rates from private creditors rose to 6%, the highest level in 15 years.
· This surge in interest rates significantly increased the financial burden on developing countries, exacerbating their
debt servicing challenges.
§ Role of Private and Official Creditors:
o As global credit conditions worsened, private creditors cut lending to IDA nations, leading to USD 13 billion more in debt servicing than new loans.
o In contrast, multilateral lenders, like the World Bank, supported these economies by providing USD 51 billion more than they collected in debt payments.
§ Impact on IDA-Eligible Countries:
o IDA-eligible countries faced severe financial strain in 2023, paying USD 96.2 billion in debt servicing, including USD
34.6 billion in record-high interest costs- 4 times higher than in 2014.
o On average, nearly 6% of their export earnings go to interest payments, with some allocating up to 38%.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/economy/developing-nations-struggle-as-debt-payments-hit-20-year-high- at-14-trillion-in-2023-world-bank

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context: The Supreme Court has eased the anti-pollution measures from GRAP 4 and has suggested to
implement a hybrid model of GRAP 2 and GRAP 3.
Statement 1 is Incorrect: GRAP is not a nationwide framework. It is specifically implemented in the Delhi-NCR region to tackle air pollution during winter when levels of pollutants, especially PM2.5 and PM10, spike dramatically. GRAP was first introduced in Delhi in 2017 as per the directives of the Supreme Court and is triggered by specific Air Quality Index (AQI) thresholds.
Statement 2 is Correct: CAQM is a statutory body established to coordinate air quality management in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas. The CAQM was established under the Commission for Air Quality Management in the NCR and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021. It is tasked with the holistic management of air quality in Delhi-NCR and neighboring regions, such as parts of Haryana, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
CAQM oversees measures like stubble burning control, industrial emission monitoring, and GRAP enforcement. Statement 3 is Correct: GRAP specifies graded actions based on AQI categories (Moderate, Poor, Very Poor, Severe, and Severe+). For instance:
Moderate to Poor AQI: Mechanical sweeping of roads and control of dust.
Severe AQI: Ban on construction activities, introduction of odd-even vehicle schemes, and closure of brick kilns.
Severe+ AQI: Entry of trucks into Delhi is stopped, and public activities are heavily curtailed.
Statement 4 is Correct: CAQM’s decisions are binding, and it can supersede state-level actions to ensure consistent and effective implementation of pollution-control measures. In 2022, CAQM directed a uniform ban on industrial and construction activities during severe pollution, despite resistance from some state agencies.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-relaxes-anti-pollution-restrictions-from-grap-iv-to-grap-ii-in- national-capital-region/article68950651.ece