Day-797 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

• • The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory Corporation.

Statement 2 is correct:

President and Vice-President of NCDC:

• • The President shall be the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Cooperation in the Central Government.
  • The Secretary to the Government of India in the Ministry of Cooperation shall be the Vice-President of the General Council.

Vice-Chairman of the Board:

• • The Vice-Chairman of the Board shall be the Special Secretary or the Additional Secretary, as the case may be, for the time being in charge of the Ministry of Cooperation in the Central Government.

Statement 3 is correct:

• • YUVA SAHAKAR – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme: It is an NCDC sponsored scheme.
  • The scheme aims at encouraging newly formed cooperative societies with new and/or innovative ideas.
  • It is linked to a Cooperative Start-up and Innovation Fund created by NCDC.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:

• • National Horticulture Board is headquartered at Gurugram, Haryana

Pair 2 is matched correctly:

• • Coconut Development Board is headquartered at Kochi, Kerala

Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:

• • Central Institute for Horticulture is headquartered at Medziphema, Nagaland.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

• • “Tourism” as a subject is not a part of any of the three lists of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. There have been plans by the Union Government to bring Tourism as a subject into the Concurrent List.
  • Currently, the travel and tourism sector is largely treated as a state subject.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

• • The draft National Tourism Policy-2022 provides for a National Tourism Advisory Council (NTAC) chaired by the Union Minister for Tourism and comprising of all the Tourism Ministers of the States, Representatives of the relevant Line Ministries and Industry Stakeholder to provide overall vision, guidance and direction to the Development of Tourism Sector in the country.
  • However, there is a continuous demand for the constitution of the National Tourism Council on the same lines of the GST Council to be headed by the Prime Minister. However, the draft policy does not explicitly mention such plans.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

• The Travel & Tourism Development Index is released by World Economic Forum (WEF).

Answer: A

Explanation: Only Thimila and Tungdarbong are correctly matched.

Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:

• • Pohl belongs to the state of Himachal Pradesh.
  • This is a shiney, damru-like instrument.
  • It is made of brass and is used in the folk songs of Himachal Pradesh.

Pair 2 is matched correctly:

• • Thimila is associated with Kerala.
  • Although it has two sides, it is played only on one side with both hands.
  • The thimila is one of the Panchavadyam

Pair 3 is matched correctly:

• • Tungdarbong is associated with
  • This instrument is made of leather and hung from the neck.
  • It is used in various rituals of Sikkim.

Pair 4 is matched incorrectly:

• • Dama is associated with The hard dama of Tripura is made up of hardwood.
  • Meghalayan dama is also there but made up of softer wood. It is normally painted gold and red.

Pair 5 is matched incorrectly:

• • Pung is associated with
  • The pung is hung from the neck and played with both the hands.
  • It is used in the Nat Sankirtan and other traditions.

Answer: A

Explanation: Only the National Mission for Manuscripts is launched by the Ministry of Culture.

1. Dekho Apna Desh’: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tourism which was launched on 24th January 2020 by releasing the content of the pledge during a function on Mygov platform.

• • This initiative of the Ministry of Tourism is in line with the appeal of the Honorable Prime Minister made from the ramparts of Red Fort on 15th August 2019 in his speech asking every citizen to visit at least 15 destinations by the year 2022, to promote domestic tourism in India which is intended to enhance tourist footfalls in places of tourist interest so as to help develop the local economy.

2. Swadesh Darshan is a flagship scheme of the Ministry of Tourism.

3. The initiative ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’ was announced by the Prime Minister on 31st October, 2015 on the occasion of the 140th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

• • Through this innovative measure, the knowledge of the culture, traditions and practices of different states & UTs will lead to an enhanced understanding and bonding between the states, thereby strengthening the unity and integrity of India.
  • The Ministry of Education has been designated as the Nodal Ministry for co-ordination of the programme.

4. National Mission for Manuscripts: The National Mission for Manuscripts was established in February 2003, by the Ministry of Tourism and Culture (then conjoined). A unique project in its programme and mandate, the Mission seeks to unearth and preserve the vast manuscript wealth of India.

• • Nodal Agency: Indira Gandhi National Center for the Arts (IGNCA) functioning under the Ministry of Culture.

Answer: D

Statement 1 is incorrect:

• • Palak Lake or Pala Tipo is the largest lake of Mizoram located in Saiha district of Mizoram.
  • The lake is part of the Palak Wildlife Sanctuary which provides shelter to a variety of migratory birds along with rare endemic bird species.
  • Recently a nature walk was organized on the banks of this lake.
  • It was designated as a protected Ramsar site in the year 2021.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

• • It is rich in animal and plant species due to its geographical location under the Indo-Burma Biodiversity Hotspot.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

• • The Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP) was launched on January 7, 2023.
  • It was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23.
  • NITI Aayog is implementing this programme on the lines of Aspirational District Programme (ADP).
  • ABP focuses on improving governance to enhance the quality of life of citizens in the most difficult and relatively underdeveloped blocks of India.

Statement 2 is correct:

• • Delta Ranking of Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP) – The ranking of the blocks has been calculated on the basis of performance of blocks and progress achieved in the Key Performance Indicators (KPIs).
  • 40 KPIs used to measure the progress of the blocks have been grouped into 5 themes.
  • These are – Health & Nutrition, Education, Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development and Infrastructure.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

• • 500 blocks from 329 districts across 27 states and 4 Union Territories of India are part of the programme.
  • Over half of these blocks are in 6 states—Uttar Pradesh (68 blocks), Bihar (61), Madhya Pradesh (42), Jharkhand (34), Odisha (29) and West Bengal (29).

Additional Information

• • Tiriyani Block of Kumuram Bheem Asifabad district, Telangana secured the top position in the first delta rankings of Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP) announced by NITI Aayog.
  • The second position was bagged by the Kaushambi block of Kaushambi District, Uttar Pradesh.

Answer: D

Explanation: All the pairs are matched correctly.

• • Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components:
    • Richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories
    • High endemism
    • Presence of rare and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species or their varieties
    • Past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds
    • Having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values
    • Are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.

1. Hogrekan is located in Karnataka.

• • The area has unique Shola vegetation and grass land with a number of floral species which are unique and have a lot of medicinal value.
  • Hogrekan is moderately wooded land and its vegetation is of dry deciduous type and has a link with Bababudanagiri and Kemmangundi, adjoining Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary and Yemmedode Tiger Reserve and serving as “Wildlife Corridor” between Kudremukha and Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary.

2. Glory of Allapalli is located in Maharashtra.

• • It is a reserved forest being preserved as a natural forest having biological, ethinical and historical values.

3. Naro Hills are located in Madhya Pradesh.

• • Unique and varied geology and it supports a large number of ecosystems and species of Flora and Fauna.

4. Silachari Caves are located in Tripura.

• • Uniqueness: Only natural cave of Tripura. Unique habitat for several threatened cave bat species in Tripura. Rich floristic diversity. Ethno-religious and cultural significance. Critical habitat for rare wildlife. Stream rich in aquatic fauna. Multi- ecosystem services.

5. Haldir Char Island is located in West Bengal.

• • The land is a mangrove swamp with tidal influence and sustains littoral fauna.
  • The peripheral part, the land water interface, is populated with Saccharum spontaneum, Phragmites karka, Vetiveria zizanioides, effective in controlling erosion. The char land inside is populated with Avicennia marina, A. officianalis, Sonneratia apetala, Bruguiera gymnorhiza, Aegiceras corniculatum, Excoecaria agallocha and mangrove associates lke Derris scandens Thespesia populnea, Cryptocoryne ciliata, Acanthus ilicifolius, Clerodendron inerme, Dolichos sp. etc,
  • It also has remarkable avifauna including Microcarbo niger, Phalacrocorax fuscicollis, Egretta sp, Nycticorax nycticorax, Ardeola grayii besides the other vertebrates like Varanus bengalensis and Herpestes.

Additional Information

Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):

• • Recognition: As per Section 37 (1) of the Biological Diversity Act,2002 the State Government may, from time to time in consultation with the local bodies, notify in the Official Gazette, areas of biodiversity importance as Biodiversity Heritage Sites.
  • So far forty four (44) Biodiversity Heritage Sites have been notified by sixteen (16) states.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Gujral Doctrine-

• • The Gujral Doctrine is a set of five principles to guide the conduct of foreign relations with India’s immediate neighbours.
  • The Gujral Doctrine is a set of five principles to guide the conduct of foreign relations with India’s immediate neighbours.
  • The Gujral Doctrine was based on the understanding that India’s size and population by default made it a major player in South East Asia, and its position and prestige could be better cemented by adopting a non-domineering attitude towards its smaller neighbours.
  • It also emphasised the importance of keeping dialogue going, and avoiding needless provocations by commenting on the internal matters of other countries.
  • It, thus, recognises the supreme importance of friendly, cordial relations with neighbours.

So, these principles are:

• • • With neighbours like Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka, India does not ask for reciprocity but gives and accommodates what it can in good faith and trust.
    • No South Asian country should allow its territory to be used against the interest of another country of the region.
    • No country should interfere in the internal affairs of another.
    • All South Asian countries must respect each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
    • They should settle all their disputes through peaceful bilateral negotiations.

Answer: A

About Durgabai Deshmukh:

• • Durgabai Deshmukh was the only female member of the Panel of Chairmen in the Constituent Assembly. She played a significant role in the enactment of many social welfare laws.
  • She was also the one who proposed Hindustani (Hindi+Urdu) as the national language of India.
  • She proposed a period of fifteen years of status quo to enable all the non-Hindi speakers to adopt and learn Hindi.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

• • Creative Cities Network (UCCN) was launched by UNESCO in 2004 and aims to strengthen cooperation with and among cities that have recognized creativity as a strategic factor of sustainable development as regards economic, social, cultural and environmental aspects.
  • By joining the Network, cities acknowledge their commitment to sharing best practices, developing partnerships that promote creativity and the cultural industries, strengthening participation in cultural life and integrating culture in urban development plans.
  • The Network further commits to supporting the United Nations frameworks, particularly the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

Statement 2 is correct:

• • The UNESCO Creative Cities Network designates the cities in seven creative fields:
    • Crafts and Folk Art, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, and Music.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

• • Recently, UNESCO announced the addition of 55 new cities to its Creative Cities Network (UCCN).
  • Among the new entrants, two Indian cities made their mark:
    • Kozhikode in Kerala as the ‘City of Literature’
    • Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh as the ‘City of Music’. The Gwalior Gharana is one of the oldest Khayal Gharana in Indian classical music.
  • Other Indian cities which are added to this network
    • Srinagar and Jaipur: in the field of crafts and folk arts
    • Mumbai: Film category
    • Chennai and Varanasi: Music category
    • Hyderabad: Gastronomy category.

Answer: A

Explanation:

What is diabetes?

• • Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs either when the pancreas does not produce enough insulin or when the body cannot effectively use the insulin it produces.
  • Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood sugar.
  • Hyperglycaemia, or raised blood sugar, is a common effect of uncontrolled diabetes and over time leads to serious damage to many of the body’s systems, especially the nerves and blood vessels.

Statement 1 is incorrect:

Type 1 diabetes

• • Type 1 diabetes (previously known as insulin-dependent, juvenile or childhood-onset) is characterized by deficient insulin production and requires daily administration of insulin.
  • The cause of type 1 diabetes is not known and it is not preventable with current knowledge.
  • Symptoms include excessive excretion of urine (polyuria), thirst (polydipsia), constant hunger, weight loss, vision changes, and fatigue. These symptoms may occur suddenly.

Statement 2 is incorrect:

Type 2 diabetes

• • Type 2 diabetes (formerly called non-insulin-dependent, or adult-onset) results from the body’s ineffective use of insulin.
  • Type 2 diabetes comprises the majority of people with diabetes around the world, and is largely the result of excess body weight and physical inactivity.
  • Symptoms may be similar to those of type 1 diabetes, but are often less marked. As a result, the disease may be diagnosed several years after onset, once complications have already arisen.
  • Until recently, this type of diabetes was seen only in adults but it is now also occurring increasingly frequently in children.

Statement 3 is correct:

• • Insulin was discovered by Sir Frederick G Banting, Charles H Best and JJR Macleod at the University of Toronto in 1922 and it was later purified by James B Collip.
  • In recognition of their life-saving discovery, Banting and Macleod were jointly awarded the 1923 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine. Banting split his half of the Prize money with Best, and Macleod split the other half of the Prize money with Collip.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

• • The PM-DevINE scheme as a Central Sector scheme was introduced as a part of the Union Budget 2022-23.
  • The Cabinet granted approval for the PM-DevINE scheme on 12th October 2022.
  • It has been granted 100% central funding, ensuring that resources are directly allocated to the development initiatives.

Statement 2 is correct:

Administration of PM-DevINE

• • “PM-DevINE” will cover all the eight states of the North Eastern Region of India, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
  • The Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER) will administer the PM-DevINE scheme by selection, sanction and monitoring of projects under the scheme, in consultation with the State Governments, North Eastern Council (NEC) and Central Ministries concerned.
  • However, the scheme will be implemented through the North Eastern Council (NEC).

Statement 3 is correct:

Objectives-

Rapid and holistic development of the North-Eastern Region (NER) through –

• • Infrastructure development projects in the spirit of PM GatiShakti
  • Social development projects based on the felt needs of the region
  • Enhancing livelihood activities for youth & women of the region
  • Filling up developmental gaps in various sectors

Answer: A

Explanation:

• • Nepenthes attenboroughii or Attenborough’s pitcher plant is a montane species of carnivorous pitcher plant of the genus Nepenthes.
  • It is named after the celebrated broadcaster and naturalist Sir David Attenborough, who is a keen enthusiast of the genus.
  • The species is characterised by its large and distinctive bell-shaped lower and upper pitchers and narrow, upright lid.
  • The type specimen of N. attenboroughii was collected on the summit of Mount Victoria, an ultramafic mountain in central Palawan, the Philippines.

Status: Because of its desirability among collectors, and due to its very restricted distribution, N. attenboroughii is critically endangered in the wild. It faces the threat of extinction from poaching, and plants should only ever be sourced from reputable growers and nurseries.

Answer: B

Explanation:

• • GPAI is an international initiative to support responsible and human-centric development and the use of Artificial Intelligence.
  • It aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.

Statement 1 is correct:

• • Its Secretariat is hosted at the OECD which is headquartered in Paris, France.

Statement 2 is correct:

• • It was launched in June 2020 with 15 members.
  • Today GPAI’s membership has expanded to 28 member countries and the European Union.
  • India joined the GPAI as a founding member.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

• • India is hosting the Annual GPAI Summit from December 12 – 14, 2023.
  • Theme: Advancing Responsible AI in Public-Sector Applications
  • India is the current incoming Support Chair of GPAI and the Lead Chair for GPAI in 2024.
  • Japan became the first country to host the GPAI Summit in 2022.

Answer: C

Explanation: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Narco test:

• • As part of a narco test, sodium pentothal, also called ‘truth serum’, is injected into a person.
  • Doing this lowers a person’s self-consciousness, thereby allowing them to speak without inhibition.
  • This test is performed under the guidance and supervision of a psychologist, an investigating officer, or a forensic expert.
  • The Supreme Court in Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010) ruled that narco analysis, brain mapping and polygraph tests cannot be conducted on any person without his or her consent.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Centrally Sponsored Schemes-

Meaning:

• • The Union government supports several developmental initiatives at the state level.
  • These schemes are aimed at supplementing the efforts made by state governments since the central government has more resources at its disposal.
  • The category of centrally sponsored schemes comprises programmes that have a national character or a regional character.
  • The central welfare schemes at the state level fall into two broad categories.
    • The first category is centrally sponsored schemes
    • The second is the central sector schemes
  • While the Union government fully funds the central sector schemes, centrally sponsored schemes are jointly funded by the Centre and states in a definite ratio.

There are 29 centrally sponsored schemes.

• • These are broadly divided into two categories –
    • Core of the core schemes
    • Core schemes.
  • Six centrally sponsored schemes fall in the category of core of the core schemes, or the most crucial schemes for the government of India.

Centrally Sponsored Schemes: Core of the core schemes

• • National Social Assistance Programme
  • MGNREGA or the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
  • Umbrella Scheme for Development of Scheduled Castes
  • Umbrella Programme for Development of Scheduled Tribes
  • Umbrella Scheme for Development of Minorities
  • Umbrella Scheme for Development of Other Vulnerable Groups

Centrally Sponsored Schemes: Core schemes

• • There are other centrally sponsored schemes, which are listed under core schemes.
  • Most of the flagship schemes of the Union government are covered under this category. The centrally sponsored core schemes are:
    • Green Revolution
    • White Revolution
    • Blue Revolution
    • Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojna (PMKSY)
    • Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna etc.

Answer: C

Explanation:

• • The Turing Test is a deceptively simple method of determining whether a machine can demonstrate human intelligence: If a machine can engage in a conversation with a human without being detected as a machine, it has demonstrated human intelligence.
  • The Turing Test was proposed in a paper published in 1950 by mathematician and computing pioneer Alan Turing.
  • It has become a fundamental motivator in the theory and development of artificial Intelligence (AI).
  • According to the test, a computer program can think if its responses can fool a human into believing it, too, is human.

Answer: C

Explanation: Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I is correct:

• • There have been multiple communist governments throughout the World including in Russia, China, Vietnam, etc. Yet, the first communist ministry ever to come to office through “democratic elections”, was the ministry headed by E.M.S. Namboodiripad in Kerala (India) in 1957.

Statement-II is incorrect:

• • There were other national parties as well before 1977 and during 1977 elections like Communist Party of India, Communist Party of India (Marxist), Bhartiya Jan Sangh (1971), Janata Party (1977), Indian National Congress (O), etc.
  • The 1977 elections saw the rise of opposition political parties such as the Congress (O), Bharatiya Jana Sangh, Bharatiya Lok Dal as well as defectors from the Indian National Congress joined to form the Janata party, which won a sweeping majority in the Indian Parliament.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect:

Da Vinci glow:

• • The da Vinci glow is a phenomenon in which the crescent moon is on the horizon, but the outline of a full moon is visible.
  • The phenomenon usually happens close to sunset.
  • On some days, this happens after the sun sets, and the sky is dark but not completely dark.
  • This glow is also called earthshine since it occurs due to light reflected from the earth and not the sun.
  • The earthshine is the sunlight first reflected by the earth’s surface, and then it’s reflected by the moon before it reaches our eyes.
  • Since it is reflected twice, it is dimmer than the visible part of the moon and thus appears as a faint glow, called the da Vinci glow. Earth’s clouds are the primary source of this earthshine.
  • According to NASA, earthshine makes night on the moon 50 times brighter than a full-moon night on the Earth.

Leonardo da Vinci (1452-1519) was the first person to describe the phenomenon in the 16th century and it was named after him. Before da Vinci’s theory, the ‘ashen glow’ of the moon was often called the ‘old moon in the new moon’s arms’.