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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Consider the following:
Statement I: The members enjoy freedom from arrest in any civil case only when the house is in session.
Statement II: Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect:
The members enjoy freedom from arrest in any civil case 40 days before and after the adjournment of the house and also when the house is in session.
No member can be arrested from the limits of the parliament without the permission of the house to which s/he belongs so that there is no hindrance in performing their duties.
If the detention of any members of the parliament is made, the chairman or the speaker should be informed by the concerned authority, of the reason for the arrest.
Statement II is correct:
Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
These privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
Under these privileges, the members of Parliament are exempted from any civil liability (but not criminal liability) for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
Additional Information:
The freedom of speech and expression guaranteed to a citizen under Article 19(2) is different from the freedom of speech and expression provided to a member of the parliament.
It has been guaranteed under Article 105(1) of the Indian constitution. But the freedom is subject to rules and orders which regulate the proceedings of the parliament.
Limitations:
Freedom of speech should be in accordance with the constitutional provisions and subject to rules and procedures of the parliament, as stated under Article 118 of the Constitution.
Under Article 121 of the Constitution, the members of the parliament are restricted from discussing the conduct of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
Article 105(2) of the Constitution, no person shall be held liable for publishing any reports, discussions etc. of the house under the authority of the member of the house.
The members of the house have the power and right to exclude strangers who are not members of the house from the proceedings. This right is very essential for securing free and fair discussion in the house.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect:
The members enjoy freedom from arrest in any civil case 40 days before and after the adjournment of the house and also when the house is in session.
No member can be arrested from the limits of the parliament without the permission of the house to which s/he belongs so that there is no hindrance in performing their duties.
If the detention of any members of the parliament is made, the chairman or the speaker should be informed by the concerned authority, of the reason for the arrest.
Statement II is correct:
Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
These privileges are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution.
Under these privileges, the members of Parliament are exempted from any civil liability (but not criminal liability) for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
Additional Information:
The freedom of speech and expression guaranteed to a citizen under Article 19(2) is different from the freedom of speech and expression provided to a member of the parliament.
It has been guaranteed under Article 105(1) of the Indian constitution. But the freedom is subject to rules and orders which regulate the proceedings of the parliament.
Limitations:
Freedom of speech should be in accordance with the constitutional provisions and subject to rules and procedures of the parliament, as stated under Article 118 of the Constitution.
Under Article 121 of the Constitution, the members of the parliament are restricted from discussing the conduct of the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
Article 105(2) of the Constitution, no person shall be held liable for publishing any reports, discussions etc. of the house under the authority of the member of the house.
The members of the house have the power and right to exclude strangers who are not members of the house from the proceedings. This right is very essential for securing free and fair discussion in the house.
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution does not deal with the disqualification of a member of a legislative council of a state.
2. A member of a legislative assembly disqualified for defecting cannot contest an election during the period of disqualification.
3. The decision of the Chairman or the Speaker of such House on disqualification is final and not subject to ‘Judicial review’.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 popularly known as the anti-defection law amended articles 101, 102, 190 and 191 of the Constitution regarding disqualification from membership of Parliament and the State Legislatures. It added a new schedule i.e. the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not prescribe any time period for disqualification. It means that disqualification under defection operates till the person is re-elected or when the house is dissolved in the case of Lok Sabha and state assembly.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan versus Zachillu and Others, 1992 has said that judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman. Nor would interference be permissible at an interlocutory stage of the proceedings. Therefore, Constitutional courts cannot judicially review disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) of the Constitution until the Speaker or Chairman makes a final decision on merits.
The decision of the Speaker however falls squarely within the scope of judicial review.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 popularly known as the anti-defection law amended articles 101, 102, 190 and 191 of the Constitution regarding disqualification from membership of Parliament and the State Legislatures. It added a new schedule i.e. the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not prescribe any time period for disqualification. It means that disqualification under defection operates till the person is re-elected or when the house is dissolved in the case of Lok Sabha and state assembly.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan versus Zachillu and Others, 1992 has said that judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman. Nor would interference be permissible at an interlocutory stage of the proceedings. Therefore, Constitutional courts cannot judicially review disqualification proceedings under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) of the Constitution until the Speaker or Chairman makes a final decision on merits.
The decision of the Speaker however falls squarely within the scope of judicial review.
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Name of the Committees – Subject Matter
1. BN Srikrishna – Data Protection Framework
2. MN Venkatachaliah – Review of the working of the Constitution
3. K Santhanam – Election to panchayats
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refer to the pair or correct matches given below.
Name of the Committees – Subject Matter
1. BN Srikrishna – Data Protection Framework
2. MN Venkatachaliah – Review of the working of the Constitution
3. K Santhanam – Election to panchayats
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refer to the pair or correct matches given below.
Name of the Committees – Subject Matter
1. BN Srikrishna – Data Protection Framework
2. MN Venkatachaliah – Review of the working of the Constitution
3. K Santhanam – Election to panchayats
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Consider the following:
Statement I: Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
Statement II: The Constitution of India provides for its amendment in order to adjust itself to the changing conditions and needs.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement I is correct:Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of parliament to amend the constitution. It states that the Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.
However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
It provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and the special majority of parliament along with the ratification of half of the states legislatures by a simple majority.
Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution requires amendment by a simple majority of each house present and voting. These amendments are not deemed to be amendments under Article 368.
Statement II is correct: There is a reason why the fathers of our constitution made the constitution as flexible as it is today. This is to ensure that the document evolves and grows along with the nation. The Constitution provides for its amendment in order to adjust itself according to the changing needs of the society.
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement I is correct:Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of parliament to amend the constitution. It states that the Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.
However, the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
It provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and the special majority of parliament along with the ratification of half of the states legislatures by a simple majority.
Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution requires amendment by a simple majority of each house present and voting. These amendments are not deemed to be amendments under Article 368.
Statement II is correct: There is a reason why the fathers of our constitution made the constitution as flexible as it is today. This is to ensure that the document evolves and grows along with the nation. The Constitution provides for its amendment in order to adjust itself according to the changing needs of the society.
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consider the following statements about the National Emergency:
1. The normal federal fabric of centre-state relation does not change on the proclamation of National Emergency.
2. The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to any matters in the State List, while a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation.
3. The President can confer power and impose duties upon the centre during the period of emergency.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre-State relations undergoes a basic change. It modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one.
Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to any matters in the State List, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Parliament (not President) can confer power and impose duties upon the centre during the period of emergency.
Additional Information:
Effect on the centre- state relations: While a proclamation of emergency is in force, the centre state relations undergo basic changes. This is headed under:
Executive:
During a national emergency, the executive power of the centre extends to directing any state regarding the way in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the union can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the centre, though they are not suspended.
Legislative:
During a national emergency, the parliament is empowered to make laws on any subject-matter mentioned in the state list. Though the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the parliament. The laws made by the parliament on the state matters will not be functioning after the emergency ceases to operate.
Financial:
While a proclamation of national emergency is in process, the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from centre to the state. Every such order of the president has to be laid before the both houses of parliament.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: While a proclamation of Emergency is in force, the normal fabric of the Centre-State relations undergoes a basic change. It modifies the federal system of government to a unitary one.
Statement 2 is correct: The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to any matters in the State List, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Parliament (not President) can confer power and impose duties upon the centre during the period of emergency.
Additional Information:
Effect on the centre- state relations: While a proclamation of emergency is in force, the centre state relations undergo basic changes. This is headed under:
Executive:
During a national emergency, the executive power of the centre extends to directing any state regarding the way in which its executive power is to be exercised. In normal times, the union can give executive directions to a state only on certain specified matters. Thus, the state governments are brought under the complete control of the centre, though they are not suspended.
Legislative:
During a national emergency, the parliament is empowered to make laws on any subject-matter mentioned in the state list. Though the legislative power of a state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the parliament. The laws made by the parliament on the state matters will not be functioning after the emergency ceases to operate.
Financial:
While a proclamation of national emergency is in process, the president can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from centre to the state. Every such order of the president has to be laid before the both houses of parliament.
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Consider the following:
1. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Chief Minister of the State and the Governor of the State.
2. The strength of the High Court is decided by the collegium of the Supreme Court.
3. The Constitution provides for the appointment of the superannuated judges as Ad-hoc judges.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 217 of the Constitution: It states that the Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI), the Governor of the State. In the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court is consulted.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify the strength of a High Court and leaves it to the discretion of the President. The President determines the strength of the High Court from time to time depending upon its workload.
Statement 3 is correct: The appointment of retired judges is provided for in the Constitution under Article 224A. Under the Article, the Chief Justice of a High Court for any State may at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of judge of that court or of any other High Court to sit and act as a judge of the High Court for that State.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 217 of the Constitution: It states that the Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI), the Governor of the State. In the case of appointment of a Judge other than the Chief Justice, the Chief Justice of the High Court is consulted.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify the strength of a High Court and leaves it to the discretion of the President. The President determines the strength of the High Court from time to time depending upon its workload.
Statement 3 is correct: The appointment of retired judges is provided for in the Constitution under Article 224A. Under the Article, the Chief Justice of a High Court for any State may at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of judge of that court or of any other High Court to sit and act as a judge of the High Court for that State.
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Consider the following:
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
3. Making rules to conduct the business of the State Government
How many of the given above are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
The discretionary powers of the Governor in state are much more extensive as compared to the President in centre in India. Taking an example of Article 163 of the Constitution which says that there shall be a Council of Ministers in the states with the Chief Minister at the head to aid, advise and help the Governor in exercising his functions, except those which are required to be done by the Governor on his/ her discretion.
Statement 1 is correct: Governor, on his/ her discretion, can recommend the president about the failure of the constitutional machinery and thus implementation of President’s Rule.
Statement 2 is correct: The Governor on his/ her discretion, the Governor can reserve a bill which has been passed by the state legislature for president’s assent.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Governor does not have discretion in making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. They are made by the state legislative assembly.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The discretionary powers of the Governor in state are much more extensive as compared to the President in centre in India. Taking an example of Article 163 of the Constitution which says that there shall be a Council of Ministers in the states with the Chief Minister at the head to aid, advise and help the Governor in exercising his functions, except those which are required to be done by the Governor on his/ her discretion.
Statement 1 is correct: Governor, on his/ her discretion, can recommend the president about the failure of the constitutional machinery and thus implementation of President’s Rule.
Statement 2 is correct: The Governor on his/ her discretion, the Governor can reserve a bill which has been passed by the state legislature for president’s assent.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Governor does not have discretion in making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. They are made by the state legislative assembly.
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Consider the following statements about the Inter-State Council:
1. It is constituted as per Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
2. The Home Minister acts as the Chairman of the Council.
3. The Sarkaria Commission recommended for establishing a permanent Inter-State Council.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution, which states that the President may constitute such a body if a need is felt for it. It is a mechanism that was constituted to support Centre-State and Inter-State coordination and cooperation in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Inter-State Council (ISC) is constituted with the Prime Minister as Chairman and Chief Ministers of all States and six Union Ministers as members.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the important recommendations of Sarkaria Commission was for establishing a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation with a mandate well defined in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
Additional Information:
Mission of the Inter- State Council:
Create a strong institutional framework to promote and support cooperative federalism in the country.
Activate the Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils by organizing its regular meetings.
Facilitate consideration of all pending and emerging issues of Centre State and Inter-State relations by the Zonal Councils and Inter- State Council.
Develop a sound system of monitoring the implementation of the recommendations of the Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263 of the Constitution, which states that the President may constitute such a body if a need is felt for it. It is a mechanism that was constituted to support Centre-State and Inter-State coordination and cooperation in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Inter-State Council (ISC) is constituted with the Prime Minister as Chairman and Chief Ministers of all States and six Union Ministers as members.
Statement 3 is correct: One of the important recommendations of Sarkaria Commission was for establishing a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for consultation with a mandate well defined in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
Additional Information:
Mission of the Inter- State Council:
Create a strong institutional framework to promote and support cooperative federalism in the country.
Activate the Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils by organizing its regular meetings.
Facilitate consideration of all pending and emerging issues of Centre State and Inter-State relations by the Zonal Councils and Inter- State Council.
Develop a sound system of monitoring the implementation of the recommendations of the Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils.
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Consider the following regarding the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
1. It is a political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries.
2. The GCC is currently India’s largest trading partner bloc.
3. India and the GCC signed a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) in 2022.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries—Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the United Arab Emirates, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman. The GCC was established in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in May 1981. The purpose of the GCC is to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and Islamic cultures. Presidency of the council rotates annually.
Statement 2 is correct: The GCC is currently India’s largest trading partner bloc with bilateral trade in FY 2021-22 valued at over USD 154 billion with exports valued at approximately USD 44 billion and imports of around USD 110 billion (non-oil exports of USD 33.8 Billion and non-oil imports of USD 37.2 Billion). Bilateral trade in services between India and the GCC was valued at around USD 14 billion in FY 2021-22, with exports valued at USD 5.5 Billion and imports at USD 8.3 Billion.
GCC countries contribute almost 35% of India’s oil imports and 70% of gas imports. India’s overall crude oil imports from the GCC in 2021-22 were about $48 billion, while LNG and LPG imports in 2021-22 were about $21 billion. Investments from the GCC in India are currently valued at over USD 18 billion.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is between India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
Additional Information:
It is a kind of free trade pact that covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic partnership.
It may even consider negotiation in areas such as trade facilitation and customs cooperation, competition, and IPR.
Partnership agreements or cooperation agreements are more comprehensive than Free Trade Agreements.
CEPA also looks into the regulatory aspect of trade and encompasses an agreement covering the regulatory issues.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries—Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the United Arab Emirates, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman. The GCC was established in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in May 1981. The purpose of the GCC is to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and Islamic cultures. Presidency of the council rotates annually.
Statement 2 is correct: The GCC is currently India’s largest trading partner bloc with bilateral trade in FY 2021-22 valued at over USD 154 billion with exports valued at approximately USD 44 billion and imports of around USD 110 billion (non-oil exports of USD 33.8 Billion and non-oil imports of USD 37.2 Billion). Bilateral trade in services between India and the GCC was valued at around USD 14 billion in FY 2021-22, with exports valued at USD 5.5 Billion and imports at USD 8.3 Billion.
GCC countries contribute almost 35% of India’s oil imports and 70% of gas imports. India’s overall crude oil imports from the GCC in 2021-22 were about $48 billion, while LNG and LPG imports in 2021-22 were about $21 billion. Investments from the GCC in India are currently valued at over USD 18 billion.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is between India and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
Additional Information:
It is a kind of free trade pact that covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic partnership.
It may even consider negotiation in areas such as trade facilitation and customs cooperation, competition, and IPR.
Partnership agreements or cooperation agreements are more comprehensive than Free Trade Agreements.
CEPA also looks into the regulatory aspect of trade and encompasses an agreement covering the regulatory issues.
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Consider the following statements in the context of National Green Hydrogen Mission:
1. Aid in reducing dependency on the imported fossil fuels.
2. It will help in achieving emission goals of the Paris Agreement.
3. Help in decarbonisation of the energy sector
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Union Cabinet approved the National Green Hydrogen mission that aims to make India a ‘global hub’ for using, producing and exporting green hydrogen. The intent of the mission is to incentivise the commercial production of green hydrogen and make India a net exporter of the fuel. The mission has laid out a target to develop green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. This is alongside adding renewable energy capacity of about 125 GW (gigawatt) in the country. This will help in decarbonisation of the industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; developing indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creating employment opportunities; and developing new technologies such as efficient fuel cells.
Statement 2 is correct: About 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are expected to be averted by 2030. As per its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to meet the goals of the Paris Agreement, India has committed to reduce emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030, from 2005 levels.
Additional Information:
There are two umbrella sub-missions under the programme.
The first is the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), that will fund the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and produce green hydrogen.
The second is to support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. States and regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilisation of hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
Statement 3 is correct: It will help entail the decarbonisation of the industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; developing indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creating employment opportunities; and developing new technologies such as efficient fuel cells.
Additional Information:
India has a favourable geographic location and abundance of sunlight and wind for the production of green hydrogen.
Green hydrogen technologies are being promoted in sectors where direct electrification isn’t feasible.
Heavy duty, long-range transport, some industrial sectors and long-term storage in the power sector are some of these sectors.
The nascent stage of this industry allows for the creation of regional hubs that export high-value green products and engineering, procurement and construction services.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Union Cabinet approved the National Green Hydrogen mission that aims to make India a ‘global hub’ for using, producing and exporting green hydrogen. The intent of the mission is to incentivise the commercial production of green hydrogen and make India a net exporter of the fuel. The mission has laid out a target to develop green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. This is alongside adding renewable energy capacity of about 125 GW (gigawatt) in the country. This will help in decarbonisation of the industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; developing indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creating employment opportunities; and developing new technologies such as efficient fuel cells.
Statement 2 is correct: About 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are expected to be averted by 2030. As per its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to meet the goals of the Paris Agreement, India has committed to reduce emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030, from 2005 levels.
Additional Information:
There are two umbrella sub-missions under the programme.
The first is the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), that will fund the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and produce green hydrogen.
The second is to support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. States and regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilisation of hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
Statement 3 is correct: It will help entail the decarbonisation of the industrial, mobility and energy sectors; reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock; developing indigenous manufacturing capabilities; creating employment opportunities; and developing new technologies such as efficient fuel cells.
Additional Information:
India has a favourable geographic location and abundance of sunlight and wind for the production of green hydrogen.
Green hydrogen technologies are being promoted in sectors where direct electrification isn’t feasible.
Heavy duty, long-range transport, some industrial sectors and long-term storage in the power sector are some of these sectors.
The nascent stage of this industry allows for the creation of regional hubs that export high-value green products and engineering, procurement and construction services.
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
With reference to Collegium System, consider the following statements:
1. Article 124 of the Constitution provides for the establishment of the Collegium system.
2. The Collegium recommends the names of Judges to be appointed to the Constitutional Court.
3. The Government cannot return the recommendations of the Collegium for reconsideration.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Articles 124(2) and 217 of the Indian Constitution deal with the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts. However, the Collegium system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the SC, and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: The SC collegium is headed by the CJI (Chief Justice of India) and comprises four other senior most judges of the court.
A High Court collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and two other senior most judges of that court.
Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Collegium recommends the name of Judges to be appointed to the Court. The Government can return the recommendations of the Collegium for reconsideration only once. If the same names of judges are again recommended by the collegium, then as the Supreme Court has iterated at various instances, it becomes obligatory on the government to accept it.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Articles 124(2) and 217 of the Indian Constitution deal with the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts. However, the Collegium system of appointment and transfer of judges that has evolved through judgments of the SC, and not by an Act of Parliament or by a provision of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: The SC collegium is headed by the CJI (Chief Justice of India) and comprises four other senior most judges of the court.
A High Court collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and two other senior most judges of that court.
Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Collegium recommends the name of Judges to be appointed to the Court. The Government can return the recommendations of the Collegium for reconsideration only once. If the same names of judges are again recommended by the collegium, then as the Supreme Court has iterated at various instances, it becomes obligatory on the government to accept it.
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
With reference to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), consider the following statements:
1. The Bureau of Indian Standards Act 2016 establishes the BIS as the National Standards Body of India.
2. Self-declaration of conformity is not allowed under the BIS Act 2016.
3. Under the new standards published in 2022 by the BIS the digital television receivers will have in-built satellite tuners.
4. BIS launched Standards National Action Plan (SNAP) 2022- 27, to enrich and strengthen the quality culture in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) Act 2016 establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as the National Standards Body of India. The 2016 Act replaced the Bureau of Indian Standards Act of 1986.
Statement 2 is incorrect: BIS Act allows multiple types of simplified conformity assessment schemes including self-declaration of conformity. BIS Act provides enabling provisions for making hallmarking of precious metal articles mandatory. The Act enables the Central Government to appoint any authority/agency, in addition to the BIS, to verify the conformity of products and services with the established standard and issue certificates of conformity. There is a provision for repair or recall, of the products (bearing Standard Mark) that do not conform to the relevant Indian Standard.
Statement 3 is correct: The digital television receivers will now come with in-built satellite tuners. This will enable reception of Free-To-Air TV and Radio channels of Doordarshan (DD) and All India Radio (AIR) just by connecting a dish antenna. This would facilitate transmission of knowledge about government initiatives, schemes, and educational content.
Statement 4 is correct: Standards National Action Plan (SNAP) 2022- 27 is released by BIS in January 2023.
This is a document to serve as a strong foundation for standardization to meet the emerging technologies and concerns of sustainability and climate change.
It will play an important role in steering the national standardization efforts which would lead to standards becoming a key enabler of India’s economic aspirations.
The implementation of key recommendations and strategies of the document will be pivotal in enriching and strengthening “Quality Culture” in the Nation.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Bureau of Indian standards (BIS) Act 2016 establishes the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) as the National Standards Body of India. The 2016 Act replaced the Bureau of Indian Standards Act of 1986.
Statement 2 is incorrect: BIS Act allows multiple types of simplified conformity assessment schemes including self-declaration of conformity. BIS Act provides enabling provisions for making hallmarking of precious metal articles mandatory. The Act enables the Central Government to appoint any authority/agency, in addition to the BIS, to verify the conformity of products and services with the established standard and issue certificates of conformity. There is a provision for repair or recall, of the products (bearing Standard Mark) that do not conform to the relevant Indian Standard.
Statement 3 is correct: The digital television receivers will now come with in-built satellite tuners. This will enable reception of Free-To-Air TV and Radio channels of Doordarshan (DD) and All India Radio (AIR) just by connecting a dish antenna. This would facilitate transmission of knowledge about government initiatives, schemes, and educational content.
Statement 4 is correct: Standards National Action Plan (SNAP) 2022- 27 is released by BIS in January 2023.
This is a document to serve as a strong foundation for standardization to meet the emerging technologies and concerns of sustainability and climate change.
It will play an important role in steering the national standardization efforts which would lead to standards becoming a key enabler of India’s economic aspirations.
The implementation of key recommendations and strategies of the document will be pivotal in enriching and strengthening “Quality Culture” in the Nation.
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Consider the following:
1. Infrastructure Development
2. Supporting Social Development Projects
3. Empowering Youth and Women
How many of the above are the objectives of the Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for the North Eastern Region (PM-DevINE)?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PM-DevINE scheme as a Central Sector scheme, was introduced as a part of the Union Budget 2022-23. The Cabinet granted approval for the PM-DevINE scheme in October 2022. It has been granted 100% Central funding, ensuring that resources are directly allocated to the development initiatives.
It will be implemented by the Ministry of Development of the North-East Region.
Objectives of PM-DevINE:
Infrastructure Development: In line with the spirit of PM GatiShakti, PM-DevINE aims to fund infrastructure projects in a cohesive manner, ensuring seamless connectivity and accessibility across the NER.
Supporting Social Development Projects: Recognizing the unique needs and challenges of the NER, the scheme endeavors to support social development projects that address critical issues and improve the overall quality of life for the region’s inhabitants.
Empowering Youth and Women: PM-DevINE seeks to create livelihood opportunities specifically targeting the youth and women of the NER, enabling them to participate actively in the region’s development and progress.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
The PM-DevINE scheme as a Central Sector scheme, was introduced as a part of the Union Budget 2022-23. The Cabinet granted approval for the PM-DevINE scheme in October 2022. It has been granted 100% Central funding, ensuring that resources are directly allocated to the development initiatives.
It will be implemented by the Ministry of Development of the North-East Region.
Objectives of PM-DevINE:
Infrastructure Development: In line with the spirit of PM GatiShakti, PM-DevINE aims to fund infrastructure projects in a cohesive manner, ensuring seamless connectivity and accessibility across the NER.
Supporting Social Development Projects: Recognizing the unique needs and challenges of the NER, the scheme endeavors to support social development projects that address critical issues and improve the overall quality of life for the region’s inhabitants.
Empowering Youth and Women: PM-DevINE seeks to create livelihood opportunities specifically targeting the youth and women of the NER, enabling them to participate actively in the region’s development and progress.
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary Committees:
Statement I: A Parliamentary committee is a committee of Members of Parliament (MPs) who are elected or appointed from amongst the members of the house or nominated by the Speaker or Chairman.
Statement II: Parliamentary Committees are made as per convention and do not have a Constitutional mandate.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. The committee works under the direction of the Speaker/chairman and it presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/chairman. Parliamentary Committees have their origins in the British Parliament.
Statement II is incorrect: Parliamentary committees draw their authority from Article 105 (on privileges of Parliament members) and Article 118 (on Parliament’s authority to make rules for regulating its procedure and conduct of business).
Additional information:
Broadly there are two types of Parliamentary Committees– Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees. The Standing Committees are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. Standing Committees can be classified into the following six categories:
1. Financial Committees
2. Departmental Standing Committees
3. Committees to Enquire
4. Committees to Scrutinise and Control
5. Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of the House
6. House-Keeping Committees or Service Committees
While the Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. They are further subdivided into Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman. The committee works under the direction of the Speaker/chairman and it presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/chairman. Parliamentary Committees have their origins in the British Parliament.
Statement II is incorrect: Parliamentary committees draw their authority from Article 105 (on privileges of Parliament members) and Article 118 (on Parliament’s authority to make rules for regulating its procedure and conduct of business).
Additional information:
Broadly there are two types of Parliamentary Committees– Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees. The Standing Committees are permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis. Standing Committees can be classified into the following six categories:
1. Financial Committees
2. Departmental Standing Committees
3. Committees to Enquire
4. Committees to Scrutinise and Control
5. Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of the House
6. House-Keeping Committees or Service Committees
While the Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. They are further subdivided into Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees.
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Consider the following:
1. President of India
2. Member of Rajya Sabha
3. Member of Lok Sabha
How many of the above given are elected as per the ‘Proportional Representation’ system for the elections?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
In India, ‘Proportional Representation’ system has been adopted on a limited scale for indirect elections. The Constitution prescribes the ‘Proportional Representation’ system for the election of President, Vice President, and for the election to the Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishads (Legislative Councils of states).
Members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly are elected based on the First-Past-The-Post system of election.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
In India, ‘Proportional Representation’ system has been adopted on a limited scale for indirect elections. The Constitution prescribes the ‘Proportional Representation’ system for the election of President, Vice President, and for the election to the Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishads (Legislative Councils of states).
Members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly are elected based on the First-Past-The-Post system of election.
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Consider the following:
1. Rejection or amendment of a money bill
2. Passage of no-confidence bill
3. Passage of constitutional amendment bill
4. Initiating the removal of Vice President
Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in how many of the above given instances?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect: With respect to the money bill, Lok Sabha has more power than Rajya Sabha.
Option 2 is incorrect: No-confidence motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
Option 3 is correct: The Parliament has the power of discussing and enacting changes to the Constitution. The constituent powers of both the houses are similar. All constitutional amendments have to be approved by a special majority of both Houses.
Option 4 is incorrect: Removal of the Vice President can only be initiated in the Rajya Sabha.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect: With respect to the money bill, Lok Sabha has more power than Rajya Sabha.
Option 2 is incorrect: No-confidence motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
Option 3 is correct: The Parliament has the power of discussing and enacting changes to the Constitution. The constituent powers of both the houses are similar. All constitutional amendments have to be approved by a special majority of both Houses.
Option 4 is incorrect: Removal of the Vice President can only be initiated in the Rajya Sabha.
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution does not provide for the office of the Deputy Speaker in the Lok Sabha.
Statement II: The election of Deputy Speaker is governed by the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: Under Article 93 of the Constitution of India the House of the People (Lok Sabha) shall, as soon as may be, choose two members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker so often as the offices become vacant. However, it does not provide a specific time frame.
Also, Article 178 contains the corresponding position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state.
Statement II is correct: In Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker is governed by Rule 8 of The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
Additional Information:
Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually for the entire duration of the House (5 years).
Under Article 95 of the Constitution of India, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant and acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both the cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House. Consequently, if either of them wishes to resign, they must submit their resignation to the House which implies that the Speaker gives resignation to the Deputy Speaker.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: Under Article 93 of the Constitution of India the House of the People (Lok Sabha) shall, as soon as may be, choose two members to be Speaker and Deputy Speaker so often as the offices become vacant. However, it does not provide a specific time frame.
Also, Article 178 contains the corresponding position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state.
Statement II is correct: In Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker is governed by Rule 8 of The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
Additional Information:
Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually for the entire duration of the House (5 years).
Under Article 95 of the Constitution of India, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant and acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both the cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker.
The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House. Consequently, if either of them wishes to resign, they must submit their resignation to the House which implies that the Speaker gives resignation to the Deputy Speaker.
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Consider the following statements about the State Legislative Assemblies as provided in the Constitution of India:
1. The maximum and minimum strength of legislative assemblies vary among the states but not in Union Territories.
2. The members of Rajya Sabha representing the state are elected by the legislative assembly only.
3. The number of single-member districts in each state equals the number of legislators contesting in the election.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and its minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in the case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in the case of Mizoram and Nagaland; it is 40 and 46 respectively.
Statement 2 is correct: The elected members of the legislative assembly form part of the Electoral College, and those elected members, in turn, elect the President. The members of Rajya Sabha representing the state are also elected by the legislative assembly. One-third of members of the legislative council are also elected by the legislative assembly.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Members are elected from territorial constituencies. Every state is divided into as many single member constituencies as the number of members to be elected.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and its minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state. However, in the case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in the case of Mizoram and Nagaland; it is 40 and 46 respectively.
Statement 2 is correct: The elected members of the legislative assembly form part of the Electoral College, and those elected members, in turn, elect the President. The members of Rajya Sabha representing the state are also elected by the legislative assembly. One-third of members of the legislative council are also elected by the legislative assembly.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Members are elected from territorial constituencies. Every state is divided into as many single member constituencies as the number of members to be elected.
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Consider the following Constitutional provisions for the appointment of a person as the Governor of a State:
1. The person should have completed the age of 35 years.
2. The person should not belong to the state where he/she is appointed.
3. Consultation with the Chief Minister of the state concerned, by the President.
4. The person should be qualified for election as a member of the state assembly.
How many of the above given provisions are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a Governor under Article 157 of the Constitution of India. These are:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should have completed the age of 35 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Additionally, two conventions have also developed in this regard over the years, but these are not the Constitutional provisions.
First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed so that he is free from local politics.
Second, while appointing the Governor, the President is required to consult the Chief Minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a Governor under Article 157 of the Constitution of India. These are:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should have completed the age of 35 years. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Additionally, two conventions have also developed in this regard over the years, but these are not the Constitutional provisions.
First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed so that he is free from local politics.
Second, while appointing the Governor, the President is required to consult the Chief Minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Consider the following statements about “Bharatmala Pariyojana”:
1. It aims at enhancing India’s blue economy and skill development of individuals.
2. It aims at optimal resource allocation for highway development.
3. It aims at the development of the onshore wind energy plants at major ports of India.
How many of the above given are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across India. The objective of the program is optimal resource allocation for a holistic highway development and improvement initiative.
KEY FEATURES OF THE SCHEME
Improving the quality of roads – The launch of the scheme has been done to bring a new wave of development in the nation in the form of well-maintained and developed roads. Under this project, the construction of roads in all parts of the nation will be undertaken.
Total road construction – As per the draft of the scheme, the government and the ministry will strive to complete new roads, which will add up to a whopping 34, 800 kms.
Integrated scheme – The Bharatmala is the name that is given to the road development and it will include many other related schemes as well. With the completion of all the schemes, the overall success of the scheme will be guaranteed.
Total tenure of the program -The central government has the plans of finishing the scheme within a span of five years. Thus, all is set for finishing the first phase before the end of 2022.
Segmentation in phases – Due to the sheer magnitude and spread of the scheme, it will be divided into seven distinct phases. As of now, the first phase is under construction.
Constriction on a daily basis – To finish the first phase in time, the respective department has made efforts of constructing at least 18 km of path on a daily basis. To beat the clock, continued efforts are being made to raise it to 30 km/day.
Different categories of road construction – It has been highlighted in the official draft of the scheme that to provide better connectivity, the construction of various categories of roads will be undertaken.
Multi-source of finding – One source will not be enough for funding a mammoth project. Thus, the government will have to depend on other sources for generating adequate money to meet the expenses.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector that focuses on optimizing efficiency of freight and passenger movement across India. The objective of the program is optimal resource allocation for a holistic highway development and improvement initiative.
KEY FEATURES OF THE SCHEME
Improving the quality of roads – The launch of the scheme has been done to bring a new wave of development in the nation in the form of well-maintained and developed roads. Under this project, the construction of roads in all parts of the nation will be undertaken.
Total road construction – As per the draft of the scheme, the government and the ministry will strive to complete new roads, which will add up to a whopping 34, 800 kms.
Integrated scheme – The Bharatmala is the name that is given to the road development and it will include many other related schemes as well. With the completion of all the schemes, the overall success of the scheme will be guaranteed.
Total tenure of the program -The central government has the plans of finishing the scheme within a span of five years. Thus, all is set for finishing the first phase before the end of 2022.
Segmentation in phases – Due to the sheer magnitude and spread of the scheme, it will be divided into seven distinct phases. As of now, the first phase is under construction.
Constriction on a daily basis – To finish the first phase in time, the respective department has made efforts of constructing at least 18 km of path on a daily basis. To beat the clock, continued efforts are being made to raise it to 30 km/day.
Different categories of road construction – It has been highlighted in the official draft of the scheme that to provide better connectivity, the construction of various categories of roads will be undertaken.
Multi-source of finding – One source will not be enough for funding a mammoth project. Thus, the government will have to depend on other sources for generating adequate money to meet the expenses.
