Day-788
Quiz-summary
0 of 20 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
Information
DAILY MCQ
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 20 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Supreme Court cannot refuse to express its advisory opinion even if it is satisfied that it should not express its opinion.
Statement II: The Constitution confers power on the President to consult the Supreme Court and seek its opinion on a question of law or fact.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 143 of the Constitution of India lays down that the Supreme Court may be required to express its opinion to the President of India in an advisory capacity. However, it is within the discretion of the court to decide whether to refuse or to answer a question of the references on a question of law or fact of public importance made by the President.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 143 of the Constitution of India confers power on the President to consult the Supreme Court and seek its opinion on a question of law or fact, which is of such nature and of such importance that it is expedient to obtain the Supreme Court’s opinion.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 143 of the Constitution of India lays down that the Supreme Court may be required to express its opinion to the President of India in an advisory capacity. However, it is within the discretion of the court to decide whether to refuse or to answer a question of the references on a question of law or fact of public importance made by the President.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 143 of the Constitution of India confers power on the President to consult the Supreme Court and seek its opinion on a question of law or fact, which is of such nature and of such importance that it is expedient to obtain the Supreme Court’s opinion.
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
In the context of inter-state trade and commerce, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government can impose restrictions on the freedom of trade anywhere in the territory of India.
2. The Constitution declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
3. State bills which impose restriction upon freedom of trade can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the president.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 302 gives power to the Parliament to impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse carried on within a state or across states anywhere in the territory of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free. The object of this provision is to break down the border barriers between the states and to create one unit with a view to encourage the free flow of trade, commerce and intercourse in the country.
Statement 3 is correct: The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within that state in public interest (Article 304 (b)). But, a bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. Further, the state legislature cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the states.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 302 gives power to the Parliament to impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse carried on within a state or across states anywhere in the territory of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free. The object of this provision is to break down the border barriers between the states and to create one unit with a view to encourage the free flow of trade, commerce and intercourse in the country.
Statement 3 is correct: The legislature of a state can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse with that state or within that state in public interest (Article 304 (b)). But, a bill for this purpose can be introduced in the legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. Further, the state legislature cannot give preference to one state over another or discriminate between the states.
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
In the context of Inter-state water disputes, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Constitution provides for the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in relation to the inter-state water disputes.
Statement II: Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 262 provides that Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any interstate river water dispute or complaint. Hence, the Parliament enacted the Inter State Water Dispute Act, 1956. The Act states that the decision of the inter-state water dispute tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have original jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under the Act.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions:
-
- Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
- Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 262 provides that Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any interstate river water dispute or complaint. Hence, the Parliament enacted the Inter State Water Dispute Act, 1956. The Act states that the decision of the inter-state water dispute tribunal would be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to have original jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal under the Act.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 262 of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes. It makes two provisions:
-
- Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution and control of waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
- Parliament may also provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Both English and Hindi can be used as a language of communication for all the official purposes of the Union.
2. The state legislatures can adopt only those languages as the official state language which is mentioned in the eighth schedule.
3. All proceedings of the Supreme Court can be undertaken in English language only.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Official Languages Act, 1963 provides for the use of English and Hindi for all the official purposes of the Union as well as for the transaction of business in Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Constitution – The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. Until that is done, English is to continue as the official language of that state. The choice of the state is not limited to the languages enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the Constitution, until Parliament provides otherwise, all the proceedings of the Supreme Court can be undertaken in English language only. This was the provision for the High Court as well. However, the Official languages Act, 1963 empowered the governor of a state, with the previous consent of the President, to authorize the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state in the proceedings in the High court of the state. The Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. Hence, the Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Official Languages Act, 1963 provides for the use of English and Hindi for all the official purposes of the Union as well as for the transaction of business in Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Constitution – The legislature of a state may adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. Until that is done, English is to continue as the official language of that state. The choice of the state is not limited to the languages enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct: Under the Constitution, until Parliament provides otherwise, all the proceedings of the Supreme Court can be undertaken in English language only. This was the provision for the High Court as well. However, the Official languages Act, 1963 empowered the governor of a state, with the previous consent of the President, to authorize the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state in the proceedings in the High court of the state. The Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. Hence, the Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English.
-
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consider the following statements about the United Nations-Economic and Social Council (UN-ECOSOC)
1. It is the one of the 6 principal organs of the United Nations System established by the UN Charter in 1945.
2. It fosters debate on economic, social and environmental dimensions of sustainable development.
3. It provides support to the UN Member States to unlock financing for Sustainable Development Goals.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) is one of the 6 principal organs of the United Nations System established by the UN Charter in 1945. It consists of 54 Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly. ECOSOC coordinates economic, social, and related work of the fourteen United Nations specialized agencies, functional commissions and five regional commissions. It serves as the central forum for discussing international economic and social issues, and for formulating policy recommendations addressed to Member States and the United Nations system.
Statement 2 is correct: The Economic and Social Council is at the heart of the United Nations system to advance the three dimensions of sustainable development – economic, social and environmental. It is the central platform for fostering debate and innovative thinking, forging consensus on ways forward, and coordinating efforts to achieve internationally agreed goals. It is also responsible for the follow-up to major UN conferences and summits. The UN Charter established ECOSOC in 1945 as one of the six main organs of the United Nations.
Statement 3 is correct: The Financing for Sustainable Development Office (FSDO) under ECOSOC provides coherent and integrated support to Member States to unlock financing and other means of implementation for the 2030 Agenda and Sustainable Development Goals. FSDO promotes financing solutions for a sustainable world by: Serving as a global focal point for coherent, effective, inclusive and fully integrated substantive and organizational support to the financing for development processes.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) is one of the 6 principal organs of the United Nations System established by the UN Charter in 1945. It consists of 54 Members of the United Nations elected by the General Assembly. ECOSOC coordinates economic, social, and related work of the fourteen United Nations specialized agencies, functional commissions and five regional commissions. It serves as the central forum for discussing international economic and social issues, and for formulating policy recommendations addressed to Member States and the United Nations system.
Statement 2 is correct: The Economic and Social Council is at the heart of the United Nations system to advance the three dimensions of sustainable development – economic, social and environmental. It is the central platform for fostering debate and innovative thinking, forging consensus on ways forward, and coordinating efforts to achieve internationally agreed goals. It is also responsible for the follow-up to major UN conferences and summits. The UN Charter established ECOSOC in 1945 as one of the six main organs of the United Nations.
Statement 3 is correct: The Financing for Sustainable Development Office (FSDO) under ECOSOC provides coherent and integrated support to Member States to unlock financing and other means of implementation for the 2030 Agenda and Sustainable Development Goals. FSDO promotes financing solutions for a sustainable world by: Serving as a global focal point for coherent, effective, inclusive and fully integrated substantive and organizational support to the financing for development processes.
-
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Consider the following statements in the context of International Court of Justice (ICJ):
1. The judges to the ICJ are elected to the office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.
2. All the members of the UN are parties to the statute of ICJ.
3. It has jurisdiction to try individuals accused of crimes against humanity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The International Court of Justice is also known as the World Court.
Statement 2 is correct: All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the statute of ICJ.
Statement 3 is incorrect: ICJ has no jurisdiction to try individuals accused of war crimes or crimes against humanity. As it is not a criminal court, it does not have a prosecutor to initiate proceedings.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies. The International Court of Justice is also known as the World Court.
Statement 2 is correct: All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the statute of ICJ.
Statement 3 is incorrect: ICJ has no jurisdiction to try individuals accused of war crimes or crimes against humanity. As it is not a criminal court, it does not have a prosecutor to initiate proceedings.
-
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Consider the following pairs:
INITIATIVES – OBJECTIVE
1. Sagarmala initiative – tracks marine vessels in real-time
2. Sagar Manthan – promotes port-led development
3. O-SMART – to regulate use of marine resources for sustainable development
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Government of India has launched bold initiatives to promote the development of a blue economy. The Sagarmala initiative promotes port-led development. The Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Policy encourages domestic ship-building. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana is actively engendering a ‘blue revolution’ through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector. The Sagar Manthan dashboard tracks vessels in real-time. The Deep Ocean Mission explores deep-sea resources in the EEZ and continental shelf as well as development of technology for harnessing them. India adopted the Coastal Regulation Zone notification to classify and better manage coastal regions and conserve ecologically sensitive coastal and marine areas including ecosystems.
-
- The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to promote port-led development in the country by taking advantage of India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km long potentially navigable waterways and the strategic location on major maritime trade routes. The core vision of the Sagarmala programme is to reduce the logistics cost for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment.
- Sagar Manthan Dashboard is a development towards digitalization and transparency in the maritime transport sector. This dashboard helps various departments by improving well-coordinated real time information. Features of ‘SAGAR MANTHAN’ dashboard are: Data visualization, Real-time monitoring, Improved communication, Data-driven decision making and Increased accountability.
- Ocean Services, Modelling, Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART) of Ministry of Earth Sciences, to provide comprehensive coverage through strengthening the ongoing activities towards delivering cutting edge technology applicable for marine domain, forecast and warning services to various coastal stake holders, understanding biodiversity towards conservation strategy for marine living organisms and understanding coastal processes.
Refer to the correct pairs given below:
INITIATIVES – OBJECTIVE
1. Sagarmala initiative – promotes port-led development
2. Sagar Manthan – tracks marine vessels in real-time
3. O-SMART – to regulate use of marine resources for sustainable development
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Government of India has launched bold initiatives to promote the development of a blue economy. The Sagarmala initiative promotes port-led development. The Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Policy encourages domestic ship-building. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana is actively engendering a ‘blue revolution’ through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector. The Sagar Manthan dashboard tracks vessels in real-time. The Deep Ocean Mission explores deep-sea resources in the EEZ and continental shelf as well as development of technology for harnessing them. India adopted the Coastal Regulation Zone notification to classify and better manage coastal regions and conserve ecologically sensitive coastal and marine areas including ecosystems.
-
- The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways to promote port-led development in the country by taking advantage of India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km long potentially navigable waterways and the strategic location on major maritime trade routes. The core vision of the Sagarmala programme is to reduce the logistics cost for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment.
- Sagar Manthan Dashboard is a development towards digitalization and transparency in the maritime transport sector. This dashboard helps various departments by improving well-coordinated real time information. Features of ‘SAGAR MANTHAN’ dashboard are: Data visualization, Real-time monitoring, Improved communication, Data-driven decision making and Increased accountability.
- Ocean Services, Modelling, Application, Resources and Technology (O-SMART) of Ministry of Earth Sciences, to provide comprehensive coverage through strengthening the ongoing activities towards delivering cutting edge technology applicable for marine domain, forecast and warning services to various coastal stake holders, understanding biodiversity towards conservation strategy for marine living organisms and understanding coastal processes.
Refer to the correct pairs given below:
INITIATIVES – OBJECTIVE
1. Sagarmala initiative – promotes port-led development
2. Sagar Manthan – tracks marine vessels in real-time
3. O-SMART – to regulate use of marine resources for sustainable development
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Recently launched ‘CRISP app’ is related to which of the following?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Rubber Board has launched a mobile app CRISP to inform growers about rubber cultivation and provides solutions online.
The Comprehensive Rubber Information System Platform (CRISP) application has been developed by the Rubber Research Institute of India (RRII) in collaboration with the Digital University of Kerala. It gives information to rubber cultivators related to production and productivity enhancement, reduction of cultivation cost, maintenance of soil fertility, disease control measures, etc.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Rubber Board has launched a mobile app CRISP to inform growers about rubber cultivation and provides solutions online.
The Comprehensive Rubber Information System Platform (CRISP) application has been developed by the Rubber Research Institute of India (RRII) in collaboration with the Digital University of Kerala. It gives information to rubber cultivators related to production and productivity enhancement, reduction of cultivation cost, maintenance of soil fertility, disease control measures, etc.
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) issues licenses for the manufacture of synthetic narcotic drugs.
2. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is tasked with combating drug trafficking and the use of illegal substances.
3. Both the CBN and the NCB function under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN), have the following responsibilities:
-
- Supervision over licit cultivation of opium poppy in India which is spread across 22 Districts 102 Tehsils/ Parganas in the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
- Preventive and enforcement functions especially in the three poppy growing States.
- Investigation of cases under the NDPS Act, 1985 and filing of complaint in the Court.
- Action for tracing and freezing of illegally acquired property as per the provisions of Chapter V-A of the NDPS Act, 1985.
- Issue of licences for manufacture of synthetic narcotic drugs.
- Issuance of Export Authorisations/ Import Certificate for export/ import of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances.
Statement 2 is correct: The responsibility of drug abuse control, which is a central function, is carried out through a number of Ministries, Departments and Organisations. These include the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue which has the nodal co-ordination role as administrator of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 and the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988.
The Narcotics Control Bureau is an Indian central law enforcement and intelligence agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. The agency is tasked with combating drug trafficking and the use of illegal substances under the provisions of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
The Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) works under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN), have the following responsibilities:
-
- Supervision over licit cultivation of opium poppy in India which is spread across 22 Districts 102 Tehsils/ Parganas in the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
- Preventive and enforcement functions especially in the three poppy growing States.
- Investigation of cases under the NDPS Act, 1985 and filing of complaint in the Court.
- Action for tracing and freezing of illegally acquired property as per the provisions of Chapter V-A of the NDPS Act, 1985.
- Issue of licences for manufacture of synthetic narcotic drugs.
- Issuance of Export Authorisations/ Import Certificate for export/ import of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances.
Statement 2 is correct: The responsibility of drug abuse control, which is a central function, is carried out through a number of Ministries, Departments and Organisations. These include the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue which has the nodal co-ordination role as administrator of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 and the Prevention of Illicit Traffic in Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1988.
The Narcotics Control Bureau is an Indian central law enforcement and intelligence agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. The agency is tasked with combating drug trafficking and the use of illegal substances under the provisions of Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
The Central Bureau of Narcotics (CBN) works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) works under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
In the context of Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR), consider the following statements:
1. It was founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
2. It is an autonomous organization of the Government of India.
3. It aims to foster and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding among the Indian states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It was founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, the first Education Minister of independent India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) is an autonomous organisation of the Government of India, involved in India’s global cultural relations, through cultural exchange with other countries and their people.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Its objectives are to actively participate in the formulation and implementation of policies and programmes pertaining to India’s external cultural relations; to foster and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries; to promote cultural exchanges with other countries and people, and to develop relations with nations.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It was founded in 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, the first Education Minister of independent India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) is an autonomous organisation of the Government of India, involved in India’s global cultural relations, through cultural exchange with other countries and their people.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Its objectives are to actively participate in the formulation and implementation of policies and programmes pertaining to India’s external cultural relations; to foster and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries; to promote cultural exchanges with other countries and people, and to develop relations with nations.
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
‘Triple Test Formula’ often seen in the news is associated with:
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ‘triple test’ formula was suggested by the Supreme Court to provide OBC reservation in urban local body (ULB) elections. The formula requires the states to appoint a commission, collect quantifiable data of the community, and allocate reservations to them in local bodies without exceeding 50 percent total reservation.
-
- According to the triple test formula, it is necessary to set up a special commission to collect data on the conditions (economic and educational), nature and impact of backwardness of OBCs in local body elections in the state.
- On the basis of these recommendations, the state government will have to give reservations on a proportional basis in municipal and municipal elections.
- The state government will also have to keep in mind that the number of seats reserved for SC-ST or OBC should not go beyond the total reservation limit of 50 per cent.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ‘triple test’ formula was suggested by the Supreme Court to provide OBC reservation in urban local body (ULB) elections. The formula requires the states to appoint a commission, collect quantifiable data of the community, and allocate reservations to them in local bodies without exceeding 50 percent total reservation.
-
- According to the triple test formula, it is necessary to set up a special commission to collect data on the conditions (economic and educational), nature and impact of backwardness of OBCs in local body elections in the state.
- On the basis of these recommendations, the state government will have to give reservations on a proportional basis in municipal and municipal elections.
- The state government will also have to keep in mind that the number of seats reserved for SC-ST or OBC should not go beyond the total reservation limit of 50 per cent.
-
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Consider the following Statements about the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC):
1. It is an initiative of the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
2. It aims at promoting open networks developed on open-sourced methodology.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
PhonePe launched a new shopping app, “Pincode”, built on top of the ONDC platform. The app would pilot in Bengaluru with grocery, food, pharma, electronics and home decor providers.
Statement 1 is correct: Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), is an initiative of the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, to create a facilitative model to revolutionize digital commerce, giving greater thrust to penetration of retail e-commerce in India.
Statement 2 is correct: ONDC, a UPI of e-commerce, seeks to democratise digital or electronic commerce, moving it from a platform-centric model to an open-network. Through ONDC, merchants will be able to save their data to build credit history and reach consumers. It plans to enable sellers and buyers to be digitally visible and transact through an open network, regardless of what platform or application they use.
The new framework aims at promoting open networks developed on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform. It is expected to digitise the entire value chain, standardise operations, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiencies in logistics and enhance value for consumers.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
PhonePe launched a new shopping app, “Pincode”, built on top of the ONDC platform. The app would pilot in Bengaluru with grocery, food, pharma, electronics and home decor providers.
Statement 1 is correct: Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC), is an initiative of the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, to create a facilitative model to revolutionize digital commerce, giving greater thrust to penetration of retail e-commerce in India.
Statement 2 is correct: ONDC, a UPI of e-commerce, seeks to democratise digital or electronic commerce, moving it from a platform-centric model to an open-network. Through ONDC, merchants will be able to save their data to build credit history and reach consumers. It plans to enable sellers and buyers to be digitally visible and transact through an open network, regardless of what platform or application they use.
The new framework aims at promoting open networks developed on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform. It is expected to digitise the entire value chain, standardise operations, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiencies in logistics and enhance value for consumers.
-
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
In the context of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), consider the following statements:
1. It is an economic and military alliance of European nations only.
2. NATO membership is open to any European country which is in a position to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area.
3. Finland joined NATO as a member state in 2023.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NATO’s purpose is to guarantee the freedom and security of its members through political and military means.
POLITICAL: NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult and cooperate on defence and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust and, in the long run, prevent conflict.
MILITARY: NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes. If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations. These are carried out under the collective defence clause of NATO’s founding treaty – Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.
Canada and the USA are also the members of NATO, not the European nations.
Statement 2 is correct: NATO membership is open to “any other European state in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area.”
Statement 3 is correct: The most recent member state to be added to NATO was Finland in 2023, taking the total membership strength to 31.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NATO’s purpose is to guarantee the freedom and security of its members through political and military means.
POLITICAL: NATO promotes democratic values and enables members to consult and cooperate on defence and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust and, in the long run, prevent conflict.
MILITARY: NATO is committed to the peaceful resolution of disputes. If diplomatic efforts fail, it has the military power to undertake crisis-management operations. These are carried out under the collective defence clause of NATO’s founding treaty – Article 5 of the Washington Treaty or under a United Nations mandate, alone or in cooperation with other countries and international organisations.
Canada and the USA are also the members of NATO, not the European nations.
Statement 2 is correct: NATO membership is open to “any other European state in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area.”
Statement 3 is correct: The most recent member state to be added to NATO was Finland in 2023, taking the total membership strength to 31.
-
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar Survey:
1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Culture in partnership with the Common Services Centres (CSC).
2. It involves a CSC Village Level Entrepreneur (VLE) conducting the survey.
3. Cultural Asset Mapping involves art forms, artists and local festivals only.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In a bid to harness the unique cultural heritage of rural India, the government has identified and documented distinctive features of more than one lakh villages across the country. Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar Survey is implemented by the Ministry of Culture in partnership with the Common Services Centres (CSC), under the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MEITY).
Statement 2 is correct: It involves a CSC Village Level Entrepreneur (VLE) conducting the survey and locals for uploading facts about their village such as its places of interest, customs and traditions, famous personalities, festivals and beliefs, art and culture, etc.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In this cultural asset mapping, villages have been broadly divided into seven-eight categories based on whether they are important ecologically, developmentally or scholastically, if they produce a famous textile or product, and if they are connected to some historical or mythological events such as the Independence struggle or epics.
The ecological category, for example, includes the Bishnoi village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan, which is a case study for living in harmony with nature, and Uttarakhand’s Raini village, which is famous for the Chipko movement.
Suketi in Himachal Pradesh, Asia’s oldest fossil park, and Pandrethan in Kashmir, the village of Shaivite mystic Lal Ded, are also classified for their historical importance.
Villages that have developmental importance like Modhera in Gujarat, which is the first solar-powered village in India, have also been included in the list.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In a bid to harness the unique cultural heritage of rural India, the government has identified and documented distinctive features of more than one lakh villages across the country. Mera Gaon Meri Dharohar Survey is implemented by the Ministry of Culture in partnership with the Common Services Centres (CSC), under the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MEITY).
Statement 2 is correct: It involves a CSC Village Level Entrepreneur (VLE) conducting the survey and locals for uploading facts about their village such as its places of interest, customs and traditions, famous personalities, festivals and beliefs, art and culture, etc.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In this cultural asset mapping, villages have been broadly divided into seven-eight categories based on whether they are important ecologically, developmentally or scholastically, if they produce a famous textile or product, and if they are connected to some historical or mythological events such as the Independence struggle or epics.
The ecological category, for example, includes the Bishnoi village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan, which is a case study for living in harmony with nature, and Uttarakhand’s Raini village, which is famous for the Chipko movement.
Suketi in Himachal Pradesh, Asia’s oldest fossil park, and Pandrethan in Kashmir, the village of Shaivite mystic Lal Ded, are also classified for their historical importance.
Villages that have developmental importance like Modhera in Gujarat, which is the first solar-powered village in India, have also been included in the list.
-
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
With reference to the Indian laws restricting the general use of the internet services, consider the following statements:
Statement I: Internet services can be suspended on the grounds of ‘public emergency’ and ‘interest of public safety’.
Statement II: Internet shutdowns are procedurally regulated by the district magistrates exercising their powers under Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: The court in Anuradha Bhasin case (2020) said that the order to suspend telecom services is regulated under Section 5 of the Telegraph Act read with Rule 2 of the 2017 Rules. Only on the grounds of ‘public emergency’ or ‘in the interest of public safety’ can the internet be suspended.
Statement II is incorrect: The power of suspending the internet services is conferred under Section 5 (power for government to take possession of licensed telegraphs and to order interception of messages) of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 read with Rule 2 of the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017.
-
- Before the 2017 Rules had been notified, any measure restricting the general use of the internet or even internet shutdowns was procedurally regulated by the district magistrates exercising their powers under Section 144 (power to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC).
- Now as per the 2017 Rules, in ordinary circumstances, the suspension order shall be made by the secretary to the Union Ministry of Home Affairs at the Central level, or by the secretary to the state government’s home department at the state level, as per Rule 2(1). Only in unavoidable circumstances, as per the sub-rule, the order can be made by an officer not below the rank of a Joint Secretary, who is duly authorised to pass such an order, and the same shall be confirmed by the competent authority within 24 twenty-four hours, failing which the order will cease to exist.
- Under the 2017 Rules, the internet shutdown shall be supervised by the review committee within five days from the date on which suspension was notified, as per Rule 2(6). Review committee has to record its findings on whether the directions issued under Rule 2(1) are in accordance with Section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: The court in Anuradha Bhasin case (2020) said that the order to suspend telecom services is regulated under Section 5 of the Telegraph Act read with Rule 2 of the 2017 Rules. Only on the grounds of ‘public emergency’ or ‘in the interest of public safety’ can the internet be suspended.
Statement II is incorrect: The power of suspending the internet services is conferred under Section 5 (power for government to take possession of licensed telegraphs and to order interception of messages) of the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 read with Rule 2 of the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017.
-
- Before the 2017 Rules had been notified, any measure restricting the general use of the internet or even internet shutdowns was procedurally regulated by the district magistrates exercising their powers under Section 144 (power to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC).
- Now as per the 2017 Rules, in ordinary circumstances, the suspension order shall be made by the secretary to the Union Ministry of Home Affairs at the Central level, or by the secretary to the state government’s home department at the state level, as per Rule 2(1). Only in unavoidable circumstances, as per the sub-rule, the order can be made by an officer not below the rank of a Joint Secretary, who is duly authorised to pass such an order, and the same shall be confirmed by the competent authority within 24 twenty-four hours, failing which the order will cease to exist.
- Under the 2017 Rules, the internet shutdown shall be supervised by the review committee within five days from the date on which suspension was notified, as per Rule 2(6). Review committee has to record its findings on whether the directions issued under Rule 2(1) are in accordance with Section 5(2) of the Telegraph Act.
-
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
With reference to the “Language Friendship Bridge Project” consider the following statements:
1. The project will be implemented by the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR).
2. The project aims at creating a pool of language experts in languages spoken in the G20 countries.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Looking to expand its cultural footprint in nations with whom it has historical ties, including those in its immediate neighborhood, India is planning to create a pool of experts in languages spoken in countries Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Uzbekistan and Indonesia to facilitate better people-to-people exchanges.
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) has envisaged a special project called ‘The Language Friendship Bridge’, which plans to train five to 10 people in the official languages of each of these countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Language Friendship Bridge Project aims to create a pool of experts in languages spoken in countries like Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Uzbekistan and Indonesia to facilitate better people-to-people exchanges; and not of G20 countries.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Looking to expand its cultural footprint in nations with whom it has historical ties, including those in its immediate neighborhood, India is planning to create a pool of experts in languages spoken in countries Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Uzbekistan and Indonesia to facilitate better people-to-people exchanges.
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) has envisaged a special project called ‘The Language Friendship Bridge’, which plans to train five to 10 people in the official languages of each of these countries.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Language Friendship Bridge Project aims to create a pool of experts in languages spoken in countries like Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Uzbekistan and Indonesia to facilitate better people-to-people exchanges; and not of G20 countries.
-
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
With reference to the ‘UN Democracy Fund (UNDEF)’, consider the following statements:
1. It was created by the UN General Assembly to support democratization efforts around the world.
2. The UNDEF subsists entirely on contributions only from the permanent members of the UN Security Council.
3. A large majority of the UNDEF funds go to the local civil society organizations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Democracy Fund (UNDEF) was created by UN Secretary-General Kofi A. Annan in 2005 as a United Nations General Trust Fund to support democratization efforts around the world. It was welcomed by the General Assembly in the Outcome Document of the 2005 World Summit and was created by the UN Secretary General.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UNDEF subsists entirely on voluntary contributions from Governments; in 2015, it reached almost 170 million dollars in contributions and counts more than 40 countries as donors, including many middle- and low-income States in Africa, Asia and Latin America.
Statement 3 is correct: UNDEF supports projects that strengthen the voice of civil society, promote human rights, and encourage the participation of all groups in democratic processes. The large majority of UNDEF funds go to local civil society organizations – both in the transition and consolidation phases of democratization.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The United Nations Democracy Fund (UNDEF) was created by UN Secretary-General Kofi A. Annan in 2005 as a United Nations General Trust Fund to support democratization efforts around the world. It was welcomed by the General Assembly in the Outcome Document of the 2005 World Summit and was created by the UN Secretary General.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UNDEF subsists entirely on voluntary contributions from Governments; in 2015, it reached almost 170 million dollars in contributions and counts more than 40 countries as donors, including many middle- and low-income States in Africa, Asia and Latin America.
Statement 3 is correct: UNDEF supports projects that strengthen the voice of civil society, promote human rights, and encourage the participation of all groups in democratic processes. The large majority of UNDEF funds go to local civil society organizations – both in the transition and consolidation phases of democratization.
-
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
The Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative, is under which of the following?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative was conceptualized with the mission to spread awareness about cyber-crime and build capacities of Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT officials, across all government departments.
It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2018 in cooperation with National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and various industry partners in India.
The CISO training is the first-of-its-kind partnership between the Government and industry consortium under Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
Hence Option B is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative was conceptualized with the mission to spread awareness about cyber-crime and build capacities of Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT officials, across all government departments.
It was launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) in 2018 in cooperation with National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and various industry partners in India.
The CISO training is the first-of-its-kind partnership between the Government and industry consortium under Public Private Partnership (PPP) model.
Hence Option B is the correct answer.
-
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Consider the following statements about the recusal by a judge from a listed case:
1. The practice of recusal stems from the principle of due process of law.
2. There is no statute laying down the procedure for the recusal.
3. A judge can refuse to recuse from the case when a formal request is made by a lawyer of the parties concerned.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a conflict of interest, a judge can withdraw from hearing a case to prevent creating a perception that she carried a bias while deciding the case. The conflict of interest can be in many ways; from holding shares in a company that is a litigant to having a prior or personal association with a party involved in the case.
The practice stems from the cardinal principle of Natural Justice that nobody can be a judge in her own case. Any interest or conflict of interest would be a ground to withdraw from a case since a judge has a duty to act fair. Another instance for recusal is when an appeal is filed in the Supreme Court against a judgement of a High Court that may have been delivered by the SC judge when she was in the HC.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, there is no statute laying down the minimum procedure that judges must follow to ensure impartiality. However, courts have always insisted that judges and other adjudicatory authorities must ensure that they have ensured principles of impartiality.
In Ranjit Thakur v Union of India (1987), the Supreme Court held that the tests of the likelihood of bias is the reasonableness of the apprehension in the mind of the party. The proper approach for the Judge is not to look at his own mind and ask himself , however honestly, “Am I biased?” but to look at the mind of the party before him. The 1999 charter ‘Restatement of Values in Judicial Life’, a code of ethics adopted by the Supreme Court states that “A Judge shall not hear and decide a matter in a company in which he holds shares, unless he has disclosed his interest and no objection to his hearing and deciding the matter is raised.”
Statement 3 is correct: Once a request is made for recusal, the decision to recuse or not rests with the judge. While there are some instances where judges have recused even if they do not see a conflict but only because such an apprehension was cast, there have also been several cases where judges have refused to withdraw from a case.
For instance, in 2019, Justice Arun Mishra had controversially refused to recuse himself from a Constitution Bench set up to re-examine a judgement he had delivered previously, despite several requests from the parties. Justice Mishra had reasoned that the request for recusal was really an excuse for “forum shopping” and agreeing could compromise the independence of the judiciary.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: When there is a conflict of interest, a judge can withdraw from hearing a case to prevent creating a perception that she carried a bias while deciding the case. The conflict of interest can be in many ways; from holding shares in a company that is a litigant to having a prior or personal association with a party involved in the case.
The practice stems from the cardinal principle of Natural Justice that nobody can be a judge in her own case. Any interest or conflict of interest would be a ground to withdraw from a case since a judge has a duty to act fair. Another instance for recusal is when an appeal is filed in the Supreme Court against a judgement of a High Court that may have been delivered by the SC judge when she was in the HC.
Statement 2 is correct: In India, there is no statute laying down the minimum procedure that judges must follow to ensure impartiality. However, courts have always insisted that judges and other adjudicatory authorities must ensure that they have ensured principles of impartiality.
In Ranjit Thakur v Union of India (1987), the Supreme Court held that the tests of the likelihood of bias is the reasonableness of the apprehension in the mind of the party. The proper approach for the Judge is not to look at his own mind and ask himself , however honestly, “Am I biased?” but to look at the mind of the party before him. The 1999 charter ‘Restatement of Values in Judicial Life’, a code of ethics adopted by the Supreme Court states that “A Judge shall not hear and decide a matter in a company in which he holds shares, unless he has disclosed his interest and no objection to his hearing and deciding the matter is raised.”
Statement 3 is correct: Once a request is made for recusal, the decision to recuse or not rests with the judge. While there are some instances where judges have recused even if they do not see a conflict but only because such an apprehension was cast, there have also been several cases where judges have refused to withdraw from a case.
For instance, in 2019, Justice Arun Mishra had controversially refused to recuse himself from a Constitution Bench set up to re-examine a judgement he had delivered previously, despite several requests from the parties. Justice Mishra had reasoned that the request for recusal was really an excuse for “forum shopping” and agreeing could compromise the independence of the judiciary.
-
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
With reference to the G20 consider the following statements:
1. It was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis
2. The G20 Summit is held annually under a rotating presidency.
3. Its secretariat is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The G20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues.
Statement 2 is correct: The G20 Summit is held annually under a rotating presidency. The G20 presidency does not come with any formal powers except from hosting the summit and setting the theme.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The G-20 group does not have a permanent secretariat.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The G20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues.
Statement 2 is correct: The G20 Summit is held annually under a rotating presidency. The G20 presidency does not come with any formal powers except from hosting the summit and setting the theme.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The G-20 group does not have a permanent secretariat.
