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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023:
1. The registration of births and deaths falls under the Union List.
2. As per the Bill, birth certificate of persons is required for registration of marriages also.
3. Birth certificate will be used as a single proof of date and place of birth of a person born on/before April 1, 2004.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The registration of births and deaths falls under the Concurrent List, giving powers to both Parliament and state legislatures to make laws on the subject.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The Bill requires the birth certificate of persons for certain purposes.
- Certain purposes include: (i) admission to an educational institution, (ii) preparation of voter lists, (iii) appointment to a government post, (iv) registration of marriage, and (v) any other purpose determined by the central government.
- The Law Commission (2018) recommended the inclusion of marriage registration in the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- It will provide for use of the birth certificate as a single document to prove the date and place of birth of a person born on or after the date of commencement of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, for admission to an educational institution, issuance of driving license, preparation of voter list, marriage registration, appointment to a post in central or state government or a local body or public sector undertaking or in any statutory or autonomous body under the central and state governments.
Additional Information
Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023-
Key Features of the Bill:
● Database of births and deaths: The Bill provides for the appointment of a Registrar-General, India who may issue general directions for registration of births and deaths.
● Electronic certificates: Earlier Act (of 1969) provides that any person may: (i) cause a search to be made by the Registrar for any entry in a register of births and deaths, and (ii) obtain an extract from the register related to any birth or death. The Bill amends this to provide for obtaining a birth or death certificate (electronically or otherwise) instead of extracts.
● Aadhaar details of parents and informants required: The Bill requires certain persons to report births and deaths to the Registrar.
● Connecting database: The Bill states that the national database may be made available to other authorities preparing or maintaining other databases.
● Use of birth certificate: The Bill requires the use of birth and death certificates to prove the date and place of birth for persons born on or after this Bill comes into effect.
● Appeal process: Any person aggrieved by any action or order of the Registrar or District Registrar may appeal to the District Registrar or Chief Registrar, respectively. Such an appeal must be made within 30 days from receipt of such action or order. The District Registrar or Chief Registrar must give their decision within 90 days from the date of appeal.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The registration of births and deaths falls under the Concurrent List, giving powers to both Parliament and state legislatures to make laws on the subject.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The Bill requires the birth certificate of persons for certain purposes.
- Certain purposes include: (i) admission to an educational institution, (ii) preparation of voter lists, (iii) appointment to a government post, (iv) registration of marriage, and (v) any other purpose determined by the central government.
- The Law Commission (2018) recommended the inclusion of marriage registration in the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- It will provide for use of the birth certificate as a single document to prove the date and place of birth of a person born on or after the date of commencement of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023, for admission to an educational institution, issuance of driving license, preparation of voter list, marriage registration, appointment to a post in central or state government or a local body or public sector undertaking or in any statutory or autonomous body under the central and state governments.
Additional Information
Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023-
Key Features of the Bill:
● Database of births and deaths: The Bill provides for the appointment of a Registrar-General, India who may issue general directions for registration of births and deaths.
● Electronic certificates: Earlier Act (of 1969) provides that any person may: (i) cause a search to be made by the Registrar for any entry in a register of births and deaths, and (ii) obtain an extract from the register related to any birth or death. The Bill amends this to provide for obtaining a birth or death certificate (electronically or otherwise) instead of extracts.
● Aadhaar details of parents and informants required: The Bill requires certain persons to report births and deaths to the Registrar.
● Connecting database: The Bill states that the national database may be made available to other authorities preparing or maintaining other databases.
● Use of birth certificate: The Bill requires the use of birth and death certificates to prove the date and place of birth for persons born on or after this Bill comes into effect.
● Appeal process: Any person aggrieved by any action or order of the Registrar or District Registrar may appeal to the District Registrar or Chief Registrar, respectively. Such an appeal must be made within 30 days from receipt of such action or order. The District Registrar or Chief Registrar must give their decision within 90 days from the date of appeal.
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. PM JANMAN yojana is a central sector scheme aiming to improve the socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
2. As per Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) scheme, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an EMRS.
3. Janjatiya Gaurav Divas is celebrated on November 30th of every year.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The yojana comprises central Sector and centrally sponsored schemes to focus on improving socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
- The PM-JANMAN tries to make 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- In order to give further impetus to EMRS, it has been decided that every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an EMRS.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- Janjatiya Gaurav Divas is celebrated on November 15th of every year.
Additional Information
Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN)-
● PM JANMAN is framed according to the announcement made during the Budget 2023-24 – “to improve socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG of Development Mission will be launched.
⮚ This will saturate PVTG households and habitations with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities.
⮚ An amount of Rs.15,000 crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next three years under the Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes (DAPST).”
● India has a ST population of 10.45 crore as per 2011 census, out of which 75 communities located in 18 States and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). These PVTGs continue to face vulnerability in social, economic and educational fields.
● The PM-JANMAN (comprising Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored Schemes) to focus on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including the Ministry8 of Tribal Affairs.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The yojana comprises central Sector and centrally sponsored schemes to focus on improving socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
- The PM-JANMAN tries to make 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- In order to give further impetus to EMRS, it has been decided that every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal persons, will have an EMRS.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- Janjatiya Gaurav Divas is celebrated on November 15th of every year.
Additional Information
Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN)-
● PM JANMAN is framed according to the announcement made during the Budget 2023-24 – “to improve socio-economic conditions of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG of Development Mission will be launched.
⮚ This will saturate PVTG households and habitations with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities.
⮚ An amount of Rs.15,000 crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next three years under the Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes (DAPST).”
● India has a ST population of 10.45 crore as per 2011 census, out of which 75 communities located in 18 States and the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands have been categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). These PVTGs continue to face vulnerability in social, economic and educational fields.
● The PM-JANMAN (comprising Central Sector and Centrally Sponsored Schemes) to focus on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries including the Ministry8 of Tribal Affairs.
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. National Investigation Agency (NIA) is a central agency established by the Indian Government to combat terror in India.
2. The agency is empowered to deal with terror related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
3. A State Government may request the Central Government to hand over the investigation of a case to the NIA.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The National Investigation Agency Act was enacted on 31 December, 2008 and the National Investigation Agency (NIA) was born.
- So, it is a statutory organisation.
- At present NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The agency is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
- The Agency has been empowered to conduct investigation and prosecution of offences under the Acts specified in the Schedule of the NIA Act.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- A State Government may request the Central Government to hand over the investigation of a case to the NIA, provided the case has been registered for the offences as contained in the schedule to the NIA Act.
Additional Information
National Investigation Agency (NIA)
● The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008.
● It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:
⮚ affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of State,
⮚ friendly relations with foreign States.
⮚ against atomic and nuclear facilities.
⮚ smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency.
● It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations.
● Its objective is also to combat terror in India.
● It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
● Headquarters: New Delhi
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The National Investigation Agency Act was enacted on 31 December, 2008 and the National Investigation Agency (NIA) was born.
- So, it is a statutory organisation.
- At present NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The agency is empowered to deal with terror-related crimes across states without special permission from the states.
- The Agency has been empowered to conduct investigation and prosecution of offences under the Acts specified in the Schedule of the NIA Act.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- A State Government may request the Central Government to hand over the investigation of a case to the NIA, provided the case has been registered for the offences as contained in the schedule to the NIA Act.
Additional Information
National Investigation Agency (NIA)
● The National Investigation Agency (NIA) was constituted under the National Investigation Agency (NIA) Act, 2008.
● It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:
⮚ affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of State,
⮚ friendly relations with foreign States.
⮚ against atomic and nuclear facilities.
⮚ smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency.
● It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations.
● Its objective is also to combat terror in India.
● It acts as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
● Headquarters: New Delhi
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
With reference to the Uniform Payments Interface (UPI), consider the following statements:
1. It has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
2. The UPI has been built on top of the National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) infrastructure.
3. There is a transaction limit of Rs 1 lakh per transaction across all categories of transaction.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Context: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanata Das in December 2023, announced several decisions on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), including raising the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) payment limit to hospitals and educational institutions to ₹5 lakh from ₹1 lakh. The limit for various categories of UPI transactions are revised from time to time.
Explanation:
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an RBI regulated entity. UPI is built over the IMPS infrastructure and allows you to instantly transfer money between any two parties’ bank accounts.
Statement 1 is correct: It has been developed by NPCI.
About NPCI
The National Payments Corporation of India is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India. It was created by the RBI for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UPI is built over the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure and allows you to instantly transfer money between any two parties’ bank accounts. NEFT settlement takes upto two hours for settlement.
Statement 3 is incorrect: For normal UPI the transaction limit is up to Rs 1 Lakh per transaction. For few specific categories of transaction in UPI like Capital Markets, Collections, Insurance, Foreign Inward Remittances the transaction limit is up to 2 lakh and for Initial Public Offering and Retail Direct Scheme the limit is up to Rs 5 lakh per transaction. Recently, RBI has raised the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) payment limit to hospitals and educational institutions to ₹5 lakh from ₹1 lakh per transaction.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Context: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanata Das in December 2023, announced several decisions on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), including raising the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) payment limit to hospitals and educational institutions to ₹5 lakh from ₹1 lakh. The limit for various categories of UPI transactions are revised from time to time.
Explanation:
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is an instant payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), an RBI regulated entity. UPI is built over the IMPS infrastructure and allows you to instantly transfer money between any two parties’ bank accounts.
Statement 1 is correct: It has been developed by NPCI.
About NPCI
The National Payments Corporation of India is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India, is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India. It was created by the RBI for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UPI is built over the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS) infrastructure and allows you to instantly transfer money between any two parties’ bank accounts. NEFT settlement takes upto two hours for settlement.
Statement 3 is incorrect: For normal UPI the transaction limit is up to Rs 1 Lakh per transaction. For few specific categories of transaction in UPI like Capital Markets, Collections, Insurance, Foreign Inward Remittances the transaction limit is up to 2 lakh and for Initial Public Offering and Retail Direct Scheme the limit is up to Rs 5 lakh per transaction. Recently, RBI has raised the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) payment limit to hospitals and educational institutions to ₹5 lakh from ₹1 lakh per transaction.
-
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consider the following statements about Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan (GOBARdhan) initiative:
1. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the initiative.
2. The initiative is a part of the solid and liquid waste management component under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Department of Drinking Water & Sanitation (Ministry of Jalshakti) is the nodal ministry for implementation of the initiative.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- The scheme is being implemented as part of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin).
Additional Information
Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan (GOBARdhan) initiative-
-
- It was launched by the Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation (now Ministry of Jalshakti ) in April 2018 as a part of the Solid and Liquid Waste Management component under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen).
- Aim: To positively impact village cleanliness and generate wealth and energy from cattle and organic waste.
-
- Objectives:
- To support villages in effectively managing their cattle waste, agricultural waste/residue, and all other organic waste.
- To support communities to convert their organic waste (especially cattle dung) to wealth through the generation of manure and energy out of waste.
- To create livelihood opportunities in rural areas and enhance the income of farmers and other rural people by supporting them to convert their waste to wealth.
- To promote rural entrepreneurship by involving entrepreneurs, SHGs, and Youth Groups in the setting up and operation and management of biogas plants.
- To promote environmental sanitation and curb vector-borne diseases through effective disposal of waste in rural areas.
- Benefits:
- Helps in managing a major portion of solid waste in villages i.e cattle dung and agricultural waste and promotes environmental sanitation.
- Substantially reduces vector-borne diseases and promotes public health.
- Promotes household income and saving as the use of biogas reduces the expenditure on LPG.
- Helps in generating organic manure which enhances agriculture and farm productivity.
- Promotes employment and income generation opportunities for SHGs/farmers’ groups.
- Helps in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promotes environmental sustainability.
- Helps to save foreign exchange by reducing the need for the import of natural gas.
- Objectives:
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Department of Drinking Water & Sanitation (Ministry of Jalshakti) is the nodal ministry for implementation of the initiative.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- The scheme is being implemented as part of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin).
Additional Information
Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan (GOBARdhan) initiative-
-
- It was launched by the Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation (now Ministry of Jalshakti ) in April 2018 as a part of the Solid and Liquid Waste Management component under the Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen).
- Aim: To positively impact village cleanliness and generate wealth and energy from cattle and organic waste.
-
- Objectives:
- To support villages in effectively managing their cattle waste, agricultural waste/residue, and all other organic waste.
- To support communities to convert their organic waste (especially cattle dung) to wealth through the generation of manure and energy out of waste.
- To create livelihood opportunities in rural areas and enhance the income of farmers and other rural people by supporting them to convert their waste to wealth.
- To promote rural entrepreneurship by involving entrepreneurs, SHGs, and Youth Groups in the setting up and operation and management of biogas plants.
- To promote environmental sanitation and curb vector-borne diseases through effective disposal of waste in rural areas.
- Benefits:
- Helps in managing a major portion of solid waste in villages i.e cattle dung and agricultural waste and promotes environmental sanitation.
- Substantially reduces vector-borne diseases and promotes public health.
- Promotes household income and saving as the use of biogas reduces the expenditure on LPG.
- Helps in generating organic manure which enhances agriculture and farm productivity.
- Promotes employment and income generation opportunities for SHGs/farmers’ groups.
- Helps in reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promotes environmental sustainability.
- Helps to save foreign exchange by reducing the need for the import of natural gas.
- Objectives:
-
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Institutions – Locations
1. Indian Institute of Millet Research – Hyderabad
2. Centre for High Technology (CHT) – Mumbai
3. Fishery Survey of India – Noida
4. National Institute of Fisheries Post Harvest Technology and Training – Kochin
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation: The institutions mentioned above have been in the news for various reasons.
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
-
- Indian Institute of Millet Research is located in Hyderabad (Telangana).
Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
-
- Centre for High Technology (CHT) is located in Noida (Uttar Pradesh).
Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
-
- The Fishery Survey of India is located in Mumbai (Maharashtra).
Pair 4 is matched correctly:
-
- National Institute of Fisheries Post Harvest Technology and Training is located in Kochin (Kerala).
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation: The institutions mentioned above have been in the news for various reasons.
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
-
- Indian Institute of Millet Research is located in Hyderabad (Telangana).
Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
-
- Centre for High Technology (CHT) is located in Noida (Uttar Pradesh).
Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
-
- The Fishery Survey of India is located in Mumbai (Maharashtra).
Pair 4 is matched correctly:
-
- National Institute of Fisheries Post Harvest Technology and Training is located in Kochin (Kerala).
-
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Consider the following statements
1. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) is a centrally sponsored scheme (CSS).
2. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY) is a central sector scheme.
3. ‘Sagar Parikrama program’ aims to disseminate information of various fisheries related schemes and programs with fishermen and coastal communities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It’s an umbrella scheme combining both the Central Sector Scheme (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) components.
Implementation strategy of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):
-
- The PMMSY will be implemented as an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely-
- Central Sector Scheme (CS)
- Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS)
- Under the Central Sector Scheme Component an amount of Rs. 1720 crores has been earmarked.
- Under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) Component, an investment of Rs. 18330 crores has been envisaged, which in turn is segregated into non-beneficiary oriented and beneficiary orientated sub-components/activities under the following three broad heads:
- Enhancement of production and productivity
- Infrastructure and post-harvest management
- Fisheries management and regulatory framework
- Majority of the activities under the Scheme would be implemented with active participation of States/UTs.
- The PMMSY will be implemented as an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely-
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- In the Union Budget 2023-24, a new sub-scheme named Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY) was announced.
- It will be a Central Sector Sub-scheme under PMMSY with targeted investment of INR 6,000 crore with the objective to further enhance the earnings and incomes of fishermen, fish vendors and micro & small enterprises engaged in the fisheries
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Government of India has launched the ‘Sagar Parikrama’ program on occasion of 75th Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
- Sagar Parikrama program is being organized through a pre-decided sea route covering coastal states/UTs.
- The main objectives of ‘Sagar Parikrama’ are
- To facilitate interaction with fishermen, coastal communities and stakeholders so as to disseminate information of various fisheries related schemes and programs being implemented by the Government.
- Demonstrating solidarity with all fisher folk, fish farmers and concerned stakeholder as a spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
- To promote responsible fisheries with focus on sustainable balance between the utilization of marine fisheries resources for food security of nation and livelihoods of coastal fisher communities
- Protection of marine ecosystems.
Additional Information
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):
● Nodal Ministry: Department of Fisheries; Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying
● Aim: To bring about ecologically healthy, economically viable, and socially inclusive development of the fisheries sector of India.
● Objectives of PMMSY
⮚ Harness the potential of the fisheries sector in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive, and equitable manner.
⮚ Enhance fish production and productivity through expansion, intensification, diversification, and productive utilization of land and water.
⮚ Modernize and strengthen the value chain including post-harvest management and quality improvement.
⮚ Double fishers and fish farmers’ incomes and generate meaningful employment.
⮚ Enhance the contribution of the fisheries sector to Agricultural GVA and exports.
⮚ Ensure social, physical, and economic security for fishers and fish farmers.
⮚ Build a robust fisheries management and regulatory framework.
Targets of PMMSY-
● Fish Production and Productivity
⮚ Increasing fish production to 22 million metric tons by 2024-25 from 13.75 million metric tons in 2018-19.
⮚ Enhancing aquaculture productivity to 5 tons per hectare from the current national average of 3 tons.
⮚ Augmenting domestic fish consumption from 5 kg to 12 kg per capita.
● Economic Value Addition –
⮚ Increasing contribution of the fisheries sector to the Agriculture GVA to about 9% by 2024-25 from 7.28% in 2018-19.
⮚ Doubling export earnings to ₹ 100000 crores by 2024-25 from ₹ 46,589 crores in 2018-19.
⮚ Facilitating private investment and growth of entrepreneurship in the fisheries sector.
⮚ Reduction of post-harvest losses from the reported 20-25% to about 10%.
● Enhancing Income and Employment Generation –
⮚ Generating 55 lakh direct and indirect employment opportunities along the value chain.
⮚ Doubling the incomes of fishers and fish farmers.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: It’s an umbrella scheme combining both the Central Sector Scheme (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) components.
Implementation strategy of Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):
-
- The PMMSY will be implemented as an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely-
- Central Sector Scheme (CS)
- Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS)
- Under the Central Sector Scheme Component an amount of Rs. 1720 crores has been earmarked.
- Under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) Component, an investment of Rs. 18330 crores has been envisaged, which in turn is segregated into non-beneficiary oriented and beneficiary orientated sub-components/activities under the following three broad heads:
- Enhancement of production and productivity
- Infrastructure and post-harvest management
- Fisheries management and regulatory framework
- Majority of the activities under the Scheme would be implemented with active participation of States/UTs.
- The PMMSY will be implemented as an umbrella scheme with two separate Components namely-
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- In the Union Budget 2023-24, a new sub-scheme named Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY) was announced.
- It will be a Central Sector Sub-scheme under PMMSY with targeted investment of INR 6,000 crore with the objective to further enhance the earnings and incomes of fishermen, fish vendors and micro & small enterprises engaged in the fisheries
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Government of India has launched the ‘Sagar Parikrama’ program on occasion of 75th Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
- Sagar Parikrama program is being organized through a pre-decided sea route covering coastal states/UTs.
- The main objectives of ‘Sagar Parikrama’ are
- To facilitate interaction with fishermen, coastal communities and stakeholders so as to disseminate information of various fisheries related schemes and programs being implemented by the Government.
- Demonstrating solidarity with all fisher folk, fish farmers and concerned stakeholder as a spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat.
- To promote responsible fisheries with focus on sustainable balance between the utilization of marine fisheries resources for food security of nation and livelihoods of coastal fisher communities
- Protection of marine ecosystems.
Additional Information
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):
● Nodal Ministry: Department of Fisheries; Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying
● Aim: To bring about ecologically healthy, economically viable, and socially inclusive development of the fisheries sector of India.
● Objectives of PMMSY
⮚ Harness the potential of the fisheries sector in a sustainable, responsible, inclusive, and equitable manner.
⮚ Enhance fish production and productivity through expansion, intensification, diversification, and productive utilization of land and water.
⮚ Modernize and strengthen the value chain including post-harvest management and quality improvement.
⮚ Double fishers and fish farmers’ incomes and generate meaningful employment.
⮚ Enhance the contribution of the fisheries sector to Agricultural GVA and exports.
⮚ Ensure social, physical, and economic security for fishers and fish farmers.
⮚ Build a robust fisheries management and regulatory framework.
Targets of PMMSY-
● Fish Production and Productivity
⮚ Increasing fish production to 22 million metric tons by 2024-25 from 13.75 million metric tons in 2018-19.
⮚ Enhancing aquaculture productivity to 5 tons per hectare from the current national average of 3 tons.
⮚ Augmenting domestic fish consumption from 5 kg to 12 kg per capita.
● Economic Value Addition –
⮚ Increasing contribution of the fisheries sector to the Agriculture GVA to about 9% by 2024-25 from 7.28% in 2018-19.
⮚ Doubling export earnings to ₹ 100000 crores by 2024-25 from ₹ 46,589 crores in 2018-19.
⮚ Facilitating private investment and growth of entrepreneurship in the fisheries sector.
⮚ Reduction of post-harvest losses from the reported 20-25% to about 10%.
● Enhancing Income and Employment Generation –
⮚ Generating 55 lakh direct and indirect employment opportunities along the value chain.
⮚ Doubling the incomes of fishers and fish farmers.
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
With reference to the MISHTI Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme aims to conserve the wetlands in India and compliment the efforts being made under Ramsar Convention.
2. The scheme will be implemented in 11 States and 2 Union Territories of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme-
-
- The MISHTI scheme is a government-led initiative aimed at increasing the mangrove cover along the coastline and on salt pan
- The objective of the scheme is to conserve and restore the mangrove ecosystem, which is critical to mitigating the effects of climate change, preventing coastal erosion, and sustaining local livelihoods.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The scheme envisages to comprehensively explore the possible area for development of Mangroves covering approximately 540 Sq. Kms. spreading across 11 States and 2 Union Territories during five years commencing FY 2023-24 onwards.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme-
-
- The MISHTI scheme is a government-led initiative aimed at increasing the mangrove cover along the coastline and on salt pan
- The objective of the scheme is to conserve and restore the mangrove ecosystem, which is critical to mitigating the effects of climate change, preventing coastal erosion, and sustaining local livelihoods.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The scheme envisages to comprehensively explore the possible area for development of Mangroves covering approximately 540 Sq. Kms. spreading across 11 States and 2 Union Territories during five years commencing FY 2023-24 onwards.
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission:
1. The mission aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia by 2047.
2. The mission targets screening of approximately 7 crore people in the next 3 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia by 2047.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission prioritizes the health of tribal communities in
- Mission targets screening approximately 7.0 crore people less than 40 years of age in the next 3 years.
Additional Information
National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission-
● Implemented in 17 high-focus states across the country, this program aims to improve the care and prospects of all sickle cell disease patients while reducing the prevalence of the disease.
● The 17 states are- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Bihar, and Uttarakhand.
● The program is executed in a mission mode as part of the National Health Mission (NHM), aims to eliminate sickle cell genetic transmission by the year 2047, showing a long-term commitment to eradicating the disease.
● Over a period of three years, spanning from the fiscal year 2023-24 to 2025-26, the program targets screening approximately 7.0 crore people.
● This ambitious goal highlights the program’s dedication to reaching a large portion of the population, promoting early diagnosis and intervention.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia by 2047.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission prioritizes the health of tribal communities in
- Mission targets screening approximately 7.0 crore people less than 40 years of age in the next 3 years.
Additional Information
National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission-
● Implemented in 17 high-focus states across the country, this program aims to improve the care and prospects of all sickle cell disease patients while reducing the prevalence of the disease.
● The 17 states are- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Bihar, and Uttarakhand.
● The program is executed in a mission mode as part of the National Health Mission (NHM), aims to eliminate sickle cell genetic transmission by the year 2047, showing a long-term commitment to eradicating the disease.
● Over a period of three years, spanning from the fiscal year 2023-24 to 2025-26, the program targets screening approximately 7.0 crore people.
● This ambitious goal highlights the program’s dedication to reaching a large portion of the population, promoting early diagnosis and intervention.
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
In relation to the National Medical Commission (NMC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body constituted by an Act of Parliament.
2. The Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare acts as the chairperson of the Commission.
3. Recently, NMC has been awarded the World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) recognition status for 10 years.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The National Medical Commission is a statutory body established under the National Medical Commission Act, 2019.
- The NMC replaced the erstwhile Medical Council of India (MCI) which was established in 1934.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Composition-
-
- The NMC consists of 33 members, including:
- A Chairperson (medical professionals only)
- 10 ex officio members
- 22 Part-time members
- The NMC consists of 33 members, including:
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The National Medical Commission (NMC), India has been awarded the World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) Recognition Status for 10 years, the highest standards in medical education and accreditation.
- This recognition is a testament to NMC’s unwavering commitment to the highest standards in medical education and accreditation.
- WFME’s accreditation program plays a pivotal role in ensuring that medical institutes meet and uphold the highest international standards of education and training.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- The National Medical Commission is a statutory body established under the National Medical Commission Act, 2019.
- The NMC replaced the erstwhile Medical Council of India (MCI) which was established in 1934.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Composition-
-
- The NMC consists of 33 members, including:
- A Chairperson (medical professionals only)
- 10 ex officio members
- 22 Part-time members
- The NMC consists of 33 members, including:
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The National Medical Commission (NMC), India has been awarded the World Federation for Medical Education (WFME) Recognition Status for 10 years, the highest standards in medical education and accreditation.
- This recognition is a testament to NMC’s unwavering commitment to the highest standards in medical education and accreditation.
- WFME’s accreditation program plays a pivotal role in ensuring that medical institutes meet and uphold the highest international standards of education and training.
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Recently the Government of India launched ‘AAINA Dashboard ’ online portal. This portal is related to which of the following?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
About ‘AAINA Dashboard’:
-
- The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal has been made live by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) on 13th November, 2023 where Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) across the country can participate in this pioneering initiative to voluntarily submit their key data on a regular basis, through a simple, easy-to-fill, data entry form on the portal.
- The primary objectives of the AAINA Dashboard are to help cities to-
- See how they are faring vis-à-vis other cities
- Inspire them by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement
- Providing opportunity to learn and engage with frontrunners.
- While not ranking the ULBs, the AAINA dashboard would serve as a tool for comparing similarly placed cities and promoting peer learning among cities.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
About ‘AAINA Dashboard’:
-
- The ‘AAINA Dashboard for Cities’ portal has been made live by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) on 13th November, 2023 where Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) across the country can participate in this pioneering initiative to voluntarily submit their key data on a regular basis, through a simple, easy-to-fill, data entry form on the portal.
- The primary objectives of the AAINA Dashboard are to help cities to-
- See how they are faring vis-à-vis other cities
- Inspire them by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement
- Providing opportunity to learn and engage with frontrunners.
- While not ranking the ULBs, the AAINA dashboard would serve as a tool for comparing similarly placed cities and promoting peer learning among cities.
-
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Consider the following portals:
1. UTSAH Portal
2. SWAYAM Portal
3. SATHEE platform
How many of the above portals/platforms are launched by the Ministry of Education?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation: All the three portals mentioned above are launched by the Ministry of Education.
1. Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education (UTSAH) portal:
-
- The UTSAH portal, launched by UGC, is designed to effectively track and support the implementation of the National Education Policy 2020 and its strategic initiatives in Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs).
- Feature: The UTSAH portal offers various key initiatives on its home page, catering to different stakeholders.
- Students can explore the ‘Student corners’ section for important updates, scholarships, and resources.
- Similarly, faculty members can access the ‘Faculty corners’ section for professional development opportunities, research grants, and teaching resources.
- The portal also provides information about different types of universities, including dashboards and e-Governance portals for UGC initiatives and schemes.
2. Study Webs of Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM) Portal:
-
- It is an online learning platform developed by the Ministry of Education that offers free online courses and resources to students and teachers.
- It provides courses from the undergraduate to postgraduate levels in various disciplines, including engineering, humanities, and social sciences.
3. SATHEE (Self-Assessment Test and Help for Entrance Exams) Portal:
-
- It is a new initiative by the Ministry of Education to provide a free learning and assessment platform for students.
- It will help students gain access to training and coaching for competitive examinations for free.
- The platform aims to bridge the gap for students in society who are not able to afford the costly entrance exam guidance and coaching.
- It will have preparation materials for students in English, Hindi, and other regional languages of India so that students can prepare for exams like JEE and NEET.
- It will be useful for candidates who will be preparing for CAT, GATE, UPSC, etc. It will also allow candidates to gain experience in coaching centres.
- The platform will have videos made by the faculty members of IITs and IISC to help students prepare for the competitive examinations. The videos would also help students learn concepts and revise topics they are weak at.
- It makes use of an indigenously developed AI programme called Prutor, which was developed by IIT-Kanpur.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation: All the three portals mentioned above are launched by the Ministry of Education.
1. Undertaking Transformative Strategies and Actions in Higher Education (UTSAH) portal:
-
- The UTSAH portal, launched by UGC, is designed to effectively track and support the implementation of the National Education Policy 2020 and its strategic initiatives in Higher Educational Institutions (HEIs).
- Feature: The UTSAH portal offers various key initiatives on its home page, catering to different stakeholders.
- Students can explore the ‘Student corners’ section for important updates, scholarships, and resources.
- Similarly, faculty members can access the ‘Faculty corners’ section for professional development opportunities, research grants, and teaching resources.
- The portal also provides information about different types of universities, including dashboards and e-Governance portals for UGC initiatives and schemes.
2. Study Webs of Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM) Portal:
-
- It is an online learning platform developed by the Ministry of Education that offers free online courses and resources to students and teachers.
- It provides courses from the undergraduate to postgraduate levels in various disciplines, including engineering, humanities, and social sciences.
3. SATHEE (Self-Assessment Test and Help for Entrance Exams) Portal:
-
- It is a new initiative by the Ministry of Education to provide a free learning and assessment platform for students.
- It will help students gain access to training and coaching for competitive examinations for free.
- The platform aims to bridge the gap for students in society who are not able to afford the costly entrance exam guidance and coaching.
- It will have preparation materials for students in English, Hindi, and other regional languages of India so that students can prepare for exams like JEE and NEET.
- It will be useful for candidates who will be preparing for CAT, GATE, UPSC, etc. It will also allow candidates to gain experience in coaching centres.
- The platform will have videos made by the faculty members of IITs and IISC to help students prepare for the competitive examinations. The videos would also help students learn concepts and revise topics they are weak at.
- It makes use of an indigenously developed AI programme called Prutor, which was developed by IIT-Kanpur.
-
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Archives of India:
1. It functions as an attached office of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It makes public records accessible to various Government agencies and research scholars.
3. It is the custodian of the current records of the Government which fall within the ambit of the Official Secrets Act.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- National Archives of India functions as an attached office of the Department of Culture under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The major activities of the National Archives of India include:
- Making public records accessible to various Government agencies and research scholars.
- An online search portal “www.abhilekh-patal.in” now facilitates access to
- Rendering technical assistance to individuals and institutions in the field of conservation of records.
- The Department through its regular diploma courses are being conducted by the School of Archival Studies imparts training in various disciplines of archival sciences.
- The major activities of the National Archives of India include:
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- The National Archives of India is the custodian of the non-current records of the Government of India and is holding them in trust for the use of the records creators and the users at large.
- It is also the nodal agency for the implementation of the Public Records Act, 1993 and public records.
- It is the biggest repository of the non-current records in South East Asia.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- National Archives of India functions as an attached office of the Department of Culture under the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- The major activities of the National Archives of India include:
- Making public records accessible to various Government agencies and research scholars.
- An online search portal “www.abhilekh-patal.in” now facilitates access to
- Rendering technical assistance to individuals and institutions in the field of conservation of records.
- The Department through its regular diploma courses are being conducted by the School of Archival Studies imparts training in various disciplines of archival sciences.
- The major activities of the National Archives of India include:
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- The National Archives of India is the custodian of the non-current records of the Government of India and is holding them in trust for the use of the records creators and the users at large.
- It is also the nodal agency for the implementation of the Public Records Act, 1993 and public records.
- It is the biggest repository of the non-current records in South East Asia.
-
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. The scheme focuses on the comprehensive development of all the States and Union Territories having international borders.
3. The objective of the programme is to create sufficient incentives for people to stay on in the selected villages.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched on 15th February, 2023.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- The scheme was launched for comprehensive development of the select villages in 46 blocks in 19 districts of abutting northern border in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and UT of Ladakh.
- So, all the States and UTs with international land borders are not covered under the scheme.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The programme envisages focused areas of interventions in the select villages for creation of opportunities for livelihood generation through promotion of tourism & cultural heritage, skill development & entrepreneurship and development of cooperative societies including agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs etc. the interventions also include providing road connectivity to unconnected villages, housing & village infrastructures, energy including renewable energy, television & telecom connectivity.
- The objective of the programme is to create sufficient incentives for people to stay on in the selected villages.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched on 15th February, 2023.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- The scheme was launched for comprehensive development of the select villages in 46 blocks in 19 districts of abutting northern border in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and UT of Ladakh.
- So, all the States and UTs with international land borders are not covered under the scheme.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- The programme envisages focused areas of interventions in the select villages for creation of opportunities for livelihood generation through promotion of tourism & cultural heritage, skill development & entrepreneurship and development of cooperative societies including agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs etc. the interventions also include providing road connectivity to unconnected villages, housing & village infrastructures, energy including renewable energy, television & telecom connectivity.
- The objective of the programme is to create sufficient incentives for people to stay on in the selected villages.
-
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB):
1. It is a statutory body established under the Petroleum Act, 1934.
2. It is mandated to regulate the production, refining, and distribution of crude oil and natural gas in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- As enshrined in the act, the board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.
More about the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)-
-
- The Act provides for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
-
- As enshrined in the act, the board has also been mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas excluding production of crude oil and natural gas so as and to ensure uninterrupted and adequate supply of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas in all parts of the country.
More about the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB)-
-
- The Act provides for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
-
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
With reference to the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate can be done only in the name of a girl child or woman.
2. The maturity period of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account is ten years.
3. The deposit made under the MSSC will bear interest at the rate of 7.5% per annum which will be compounded annually.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Eligibility:
-
- The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate can be done only in the name of a girl child or woman.
- A woman or the guardian of a minor girl child can open a Mahila Samman Saving Certificate scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Maturity
-
- The maturity period of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account is two years.
- Thus, the maturity amount will be paid to the account holder after two years from the account opening date.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- This scheme has a fixed interest rate of 7.5% per annum, much higher than most bank Fixed Deposits (FDs) and other popular small savings schemes.
- The interest will be credited quarterly and paid at the time of closure of the account.
Additional Information
Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme-
● The Union Finance Minister announced Mahila Samman Saving Certificate, a new small savings scheme for women and girls, in Budget Speech 2023-24.
● The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme was announced to commemorate the Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
● It is a one-time scheme available for two years, from April 2023-March 2025.
Features of the scheme:
Government-Backed Scheme
● Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme is a small savings scheme backed by the government. Hence, it does not have any credit risk.
Eligibility:
● The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate can be done only in the name of a girl child or woman.
● A woman or the guardian of a minor girl child can open a Mahila Samman Saving Certificate scheme.
Deposit Limits
● The minimum deposit amount under the scheme is Rs.1,000 in multiples of rupees one hundred.
● The maximum deposit amount is Rs.2 lakh in one account or all Mahila Samman Savings Certificate accounts held by an account holder.
● A woman or guardian of a girl child can open a second Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account after a minimum gap of three months from the opening of the existing account.
Maturity
● The maturity period of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account is two years. Thus, the maturity amount will be paid to the account holder after two years from the account opening date.
Withdrawal
● A partial withdrawal facility is provided under the Mahila Samman Saving Certificate scheme.
● The account holder can withdraw up to 40% of the account balance after one year from the account opening date.
Tax Benefits
● Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) is not deducted from the interest received under this scheme.
● However, CBDT notified that TDS would apply to the Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Scheme.
● As per Section 194A of the Income Tax Act, TDS will apply only when the interest received from the post office savings scheme in a financial year is more than Rs.40,000 or Rs.50,000 (in the case of senior citizens).
● Since the interest amount of this scheme for a maximum of Rs.2 lakh investment for two years does not exceed Rs.40,000, TDS is not deducted from the interest received under the Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Scheme.
Interest Rate of Mahila Samman Savings Certificate
● This scheme has a fixed interest rate of 7.5% p.a., much higher than most bank Fixed Deposits (FDs) and other popular small savings schemes.
● The interest will be credited quarterly and paid at the time of closure of the account.
Premature Closure of Mahila Samman Savings Certificate
The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account can be closed before two years in the following situations:
⮚ After six months of opening the account without giving any reason. In such a case, an interest of 5.5% will be given.
⮚ On the death of the account holder. In such a case, the interest will be paid on the principal amount.
⮚ In the case of an extreme compassionate ground, such as:
✔ A life-threatening disease of the account holder.
✔ Death of the guardian upon production of relevant documents. In such a case, the interest will be paid on the principal amount.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Eligibility:
-
- The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate can be done only in the name of a girl child or woman.
- A woman or the guardian of a minor girl child can open a Mahila Samman Saving Certificate scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Maturity
-
- The maturity period of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account is two years.
- Thus, the maturity amount will be paid to the account holder after two years from the account opening date.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
-
- This scheme has a fixed interest rate of 7.5% per annum, much higher than most bank Fixed Deposits (FDs) and other popular small savings schemes.
- The interest will be credited quarterly and paid at the time of closure of the account.
Additional Information
Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme-
● The Union Finance Minister announced Mahila Samman Saving Certificate, a new small savings scheme for women and girls, in Budget Speech 2023-24.
● The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme was announced to commemorate the Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
● It is a one-time scheme available for two years, from April 2023-March 2025.
Features of the scheme:
Government-Backed Scheme
● Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme is a small savings scheme backed by the government. Hence, it does not have any credit risk.
Eligibility:
● The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate can be done only in the name of a girl child or woman.
● A woman or the guardian of a minor girl child can open a Mahila Samman Saving Certificate scheme.
Deposit Limits
● The minimum deposit amount under the scheme is Rs.1,000 in multiples of rupees one hundred.
● The maximum deposit amount is Rs.2 lakh in one account or all Mahila Samman Savings Certificate accounts held by an account holder.
● A woman or guardian of a girl child can open a second Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account after a minimum gap of three months from the opening of the existing account.
Maturity
● The maturity period of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account is two years. Thus, the maturity amount will be paid to the account holder after two years from the account opening date.
Withdrawal
● A partial withdrawal facility is provided under the Mahila Samman Saving Certificate scheme.
● The account holder can withdraw up to 40% of the account balance after one year from the account opening date.
Tax Benefits
● Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) is not deducted from the interest received under this scheme.
● However, CBDT notified that TDS would apply to the Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Scheme.
● As per Section 194A of the Income Tax Act, TDS will apply only when the interest received from the post office savings scheme in a financial year is more than Rs.40,000 or Rs.50,000 (in the case of senior citizens).
● Since the interest amount of this scheme for a maximum of Rs.2 lakh investment for two years does not exceed Rs.40,000, TDS is not deducted from the interest received under the Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Scheme.
Interest Rate of Mahila Samman Savings Certificate
● This scheme has a fixed interest rate of 7.5% p.a., much higher than most bank Fixed Deposits (FDs) and other popular small savings schemes.
● The interest will be credited quarterly and paid at the time of closure of the account.
Premature Closure of Mahila Samman Savings Certificate
The Mahila Samman Savings Certificate account can be closed before two years in the following situations:
⮚ After six months of opening the account without giving any reason. In such a case, an interest of 5.5% will be given.
⮚ On the death of the account holder. In such a case, the interest will be paid on the principal amount.
⮚ In the case of an extreme compassionate ground, such as:
✔ A life-threatening disease of the account holder.
✔ Death of the guardian upon production of relevant documents. In such a case, the interest will be paid on the principal amount.
-
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Indradhanush Gas Grid Limited:
1. It is a joint venture of public sector oil and gas marketing companies in India.
2. It will connect all the north-eastern states of India with the National Gas Grid.
3. It completed Asia’s largest underwater hydrocarbon pipeline across Brahmaputra in 2023.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- Indradhanush Gas Grid Limited (IGGL) is a Joint Venture of Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC), GAIL, Oil India Limited (OIL) and Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL).
- IGGL was incorporated on the 10th of August 2018, towards implementing the Hydrocarbon Vision 2030 for North-East India released by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas in 2016.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- Hydrocarbon Vision 2030 envisages North-East India economic development by leveraging the region’s Hydrocarbon potential, enhancing access to clean fuel and accelerating the growth of entire North East India.
The Gas Grid Project: As per the plan on the Vision Document, The Gas Grid Project connects eight North- Eastern States-
-
- Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, to the National Gas Grid through Barauni-Guwahati Gas Pipeline.
- From Guwahati, the pipeline extends to Numaligarh, Dimapur, Kohima and Imphal in one direction; Shillong, Silchar, Aizawl and Agartala in the second direction and to Itanagar in the third direction.
- Gangtok gets connected to Siliguri from the gas pipeline coming from Barauni to Guwahati.
- The natural gas grid in the North east is planned to connect with the upcoming Barauni-Guwahati natural gas pipeline as a part of Urja-Ganga scheme.
- The grid would also connect to sustainable and viable gas sources in the North-east.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- Asia’s largest underwater hydro-carbon pipeline, below the river Brahmaputra connecting Jorhat and Majuli in Assam, was completed by the Indradhanush Gas Grid Limited (IGGL) in April, 2023.
- The total length of the pipeline is 4,080 It will form a part of the 1,656 km long North East Gas Grid connecting the major cities and demand centres of North East India with the National Gas Grid.
- The 1656 km long natural gas pipeline is constructed at a project cost of Rs 9,265 crore.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
-
- Indradhanush Gas Grid Limited (IGGL) is a Joint Venture of Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC), GAIL, Oil India Limited (OIL) and Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL).
- IGGL was incorporated on the 10th of August 2018, towards implementing the Hydrocarbon Vision 2030 for North-East India released by the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas in 2016.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- Hydrocarbon Vision 2030 envisages North-East India economic development by leveraging the region’s Hydrocarbon potential, enhancing access to clean fuel and accelerating the growth of entire North East India.
The Gas Grid Project: As per the plan on the Vision Document, The Gas Grid Project connects eight North- Eastern States-
-
- Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim, to the National Gas Grid through Barauni-Guwahati Gas Pipeline.
- From Guwahati, the pipeline extends to Numaligarh, Dimapur, Kohima and Imphal in one direction; Shillong, Silchar, Aizawl and Agartala in the second direction and to Itanagar in the third direction.
- Gangtok gets connected to Siliguri from the gas pipeline coming from Barauni to Guwahati.
- The natural gas grid in the North east is planned to connect with the upcoming Barauni-Guwahati natural gas pipeline as a part of Urja-Ganga scheme.
- The grid would also connect to sustainable and viable gas sources in the North-east.
Statement 3 is correct:
-
- Asia’s largest underwater hydro-carbon pipeline, below the river Brahmaputra connecting Jorhat and Majuli in Assam, was completed by the Indradhanush Gas Grid Limited (IGGL) in April, 2023.
- The total length of the pipeline is 4,080 It will form a part of the 1,656 km long North East Gas Grid connecting the major cities and demand centres of North East India with the National Gas Grid.
- The 1656 km long natural gas pipeline is constructed at a project cost of Rs 9,265 crore.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Consider the following:
1. Department of Space
2. Department of Atomic Energy
3. Department of Biotechnology
4. Legislative Department
How many of the above are the independent departments which come under no ministry?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Independent Departments: Only two departments are independent-
-
- Department of Atomic Energy (Parmanu Oorja Vibhag).
- Department of Space (Antariksh Vibhag)
Apex / Independent Office:
-
- Cabinet Secretariat
- President’s Secretariat
- Prime Minister’s Office
- NITI Aayog
- National Security Council Secretariat
Ministry of Law and Justice
-
- Department of Legal Affairs
- Legislative Department
- Department of Justice
Ministry of Science and Technology
-
- Department of Science and Technology
- Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
- Department of Bio-Technology
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Independent Departments: Only two departments are independent-
-
- Department of Atomic Energy (Parmanu Oorja Vibhag).
- Department of Space (Antariksh Vibhag)
Apex / Independent Office:
-
- Cabinet Secretariat
- President’s Secretariat
- Prime Minister’s Office
- NITI Aayog
- National Security Council Secretariat
Ministry of Law and Justice
-
- Department of Legal Affairs
- Legislative Department
- Department of Justice
Ministry of Science and Technology
-
- Department of Science and Technology
- Department of Scientific and Industrial Research
- Department of Bio-Technology
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Consider the following statements in relation to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):
1. It was established on the recommendations of the Lokur Committee.
2. It monitors, coordinates and implements the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project started in the year 2009.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- NCRB was set-up in 1986 to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.
- It was set up based on the recommendation of the Task force (set up by the Ministry of Home Affairs), 1985 and National Police Commission, 1977.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- NCRB is entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project in the year 2009.
- This project connects 15000+ police stations and 6000 higher offices of police in the country.
Additional Information
National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):
● It was set up in 1986 to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals.
● It was established on the recommendations of the Tandon Committee to the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Taskforce (1985).
● NCRB was entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project in the year 2009.
● In August 2017, NCRB launched the National Digital Police Portal, which allows search for a criminal/suspect on the CCTNS database.
● The Bureau has also been entrusted to maintain the National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO) and share it with the States/UTs on a regular basis.
● NCRB has also been designated as the Central Nodal Agency to manage technical and operational functions of the Online Cyber-Crime Reporting Portal.
● Major Publications:
⮚ Crimes in India
⮚ Accidental Deaths and Suicides
⮚ Prison Statistics
⮚ Reports on Missing Women and children in India
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
-
- NCRB was set-up in 1986 to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators.
- It was set up based on the recommendation of the Task force (set up by the Ministry of Home Affairs), 1985 and National Police Commission, 1977.
Statement 2 is correct:
-
- NCRB is entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project in the year 2009.
- This project connects 15000+ police stations and 6000 higher offices of police in the country.
Additional Information
National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):
● It was set up in 1986 to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals.
● It was established on the recommendations of the Tandon Committee to the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Taskforce (1985).
● NCRB was entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project in the year 2009.
● In August 2017, NCRB launched the National Digital Police Portal, which allows search for a criminal/suspect on the CCTNS database.
● The Bureau has also been entrusted to maintain the National Database of Sexual Offenders (NDSO) and share it with the States/UTs on a regular basis.
● NCRB has also been designated as the Central Nodal Agency to manage technical and operational functions of the Online Cyber-Crime Reporting Portal.
● Major Publications:
⮚ Crimes in India
⮚ Accidental Deaths and Suicides
⮚ Prison Statistics
⮚ Reports on Missing Women and children in India
-
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Which of the following is the primary objective of web-portal ‘UDGAM’ recently launched by RBI?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
About ‘UDGAM’ web-portal:
-
- Full name: Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access information (UDGAM)
- This portal has been developed by RBI for use by members of the public to facilitate and make it easier for them to search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one place.
- Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd (ReBIT), Indian Financial Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS) and participating banks have collaborated on developing the portal.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
About ‘UDGAM’ web-portal:
-
- Full name: Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access information (UDGAM)
- This portal has been developed by RBI for use by members of the public to facilitate and make it easier for them to search their unclaimed deposits across multiple banks at one place.
- Reserve Bank Information Technology Pvt Ltd (ReBIT), Indian Financial Technology & Allied Services (IFTAS) and participating banks have collaborated on developing the portal.
