Day-761 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT

Answer. D
Explanation-
Financial and technical assistance is provided to elephant range states under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme ‘Project Elephant’ (launched in 1992) based on Annual Plan of Operations submitted by the State Governments. The objectives of the Project Elephant Scheme are:
(i) Conservation of Indian elephants and its habitat.
(ii) Addressing issues relating to human elephant conflict.
(iii) Welfare of Captive elephants.
Under the Scheme, the Ministry of Environment and Forests provides financial assistance to the states, for inter alia the following activities in elephant habitats and corridors:-
● Improvement of habitats / corridors by enrichment plantation/eco restoration
● Removal of invasive species
● Creation of water bodies/ salt licks
● Fire protection measures
● Eco-restoration of corridors/migration routes and paths including acquisition and relocation
● Soil and water conservation measures
● Development of wildlife highways (for safe passage of elephants and prevent human-elephant conflict)
33 elephant reserves have been notified (Terai ER in Utter Pradesh became 33rd India’s ER). 101 elephant corridors identified under the scheme.
It also supports the following activities for the welfare and conservation of elephants in the country:
● Create awareness of conservation among local people
● Provide improved veterinary care for captive elephants.
Additional information-
● As per Elephant Census (2017), there were 27,312 elephants on average in the country, according to figures collated from 23 States. Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054) in the country.
● More than 60% of the world’s elephant population is in India.
● The elephant is the ‘Natural Heritage Animal’ of India.
● Asian elephants are listed as “Endangered” on the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
About Elephants:
● There are three species of elephant: African Savanna (Bush), African Forest and Asian.
● The ears of African elephants are much larger than their cousins and are described as being shaped like the African continent, whereas the ears of Asian elephants are shaped like the Indian subcontinent.
● There’s also a trunk difference – African elephants have two ‘fingers’ at the tip of their trunks, whereas Asian elephants have one.
● Elephants have around 150,000 muscle units in their trunk. Their trunks are perhaps the most sensitive organ found in any mammal.
● The folds and wrinkles in their skin can retain up to 10 times more water than flat skin does, which helps to cool them down.
● Elephants eat grasses, leaves, shrubs, fruits and roots depending on the season and their habitat. When it’s particularly dry, elephants will eat more woody parts of trees and shrubs like twigs, branches and barks.
● Elephants communicate in a variety of ways – including sounds like trumpet calls (some sounds are too low for people to hear), body language, touch and scent. They can also communicate through seismic signals – sounds that create vibrations in the ground – which they may detect through their bones.
● The illegal trade in ivory is one of the greatest threats to elephants today.

Answer. B
Explanation- Options 2 and 3 are correct.
Warm-blooded is a term to describe animal species which have a relatively higher blood temperature, and maintain thermal homeostasis primarily through internal metabolic processes. Examples: Mammals and Birds.
Cold-blooded is a term often used to refer to animals that do not use their metabolism to maintain body temperature. Examples include reptiles, insects, arachnids, amphibians and fish.

Answer. B
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- Climate Change Performance Index is published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct- India secured 8th position in the CCPI 2023 which is 2 positions up from the last edition.
Since no country was strong enough in all index categories to achieve an overall very high rating, thus the top three places i.e 1-3 are vacant. Thereafter, India is amongst the top 5 countries. With India (8th), the United Kingdom (11th), and Germany (16th), only three G20 countries are among the high performers in CCPI 2023.Thus India’s rank is the best amongst the G 20 countries.
Denmark, Sweden, Chile and Morocco as the only four small countries that were ranked above India as 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th respectively.
Additional information-
The CCPI aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries.
Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU which together account for 92% of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
It is assessed in four categories:
o GHG Emissions (40% of overall score),
o Renewable Energy (20% of overall score),
o Energy Use (20% of overall score) and
o Climate Policy (20% of overall score).

Answer. B
Explanation- 1 and 3 are correctly matched pairs.
Bandipore National Park
River: Moyar
Bandipur National Park, located on the Mysore-Ooty highway in Karnataka.
It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
It shares its borders with Nagarhole National Park in Karnataka, Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala.
It is located partly in Gundlupet taluk of Chamarajanagar District and partly in H.D.Kote and Nanjangud taluks of Mysuru District.
This makes Bandipur the largest national park in the state of Karnataka.
It was once the private hunting ground for the Maharaja of Mysore.
The national park was established in 1973 as a part of Project Tiger, and today, it’s a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, one of the 12 UNESCO Biosphere Reserves in India.
Silent Valley National Park
River: Kunthipuzha
Located in the Northeast corner of Palakkad district of Kerala, Silent Valley was named a National Park only in 1984.
It constitutes the centrepiece of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, an integral part of the Western Ghats, christened a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2012.
Fauna: tigers, leopards, elephants, snakes, Lion-Tailed Macaques and Malabar Giant Squirrels.
It is home to India’s last substantial stretch of tropical evergreen forests.
Simlipal National Park
River: Palpala Bandan, Burhabalanga, Salandi, Kahairi and Deo.
Similipal, which derives its name from ‘Simul’ (Silk Cotton) tree, is a national park and a Tiger Reserve situated in the northern part of Orissa’s Mayurbhanj district.
The tiger reserve is spread over 2750 sq km and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani.
The park is surrounded by high plateaus and hills, the highest peak being the twin peaks of Khairiburu and Meghashini.
The vegetation is a mix of different forest types and habitats, with Northern tropical moist deciduous dominating some semi-evergreen patches.
Sal is the dominant tree species here.

Answer. C
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- The UN Conference on Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) led to establishment of UNEP. The history of sustainable development in the United Nations dates back to the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, held in Stockholm, Sweden, in 1972. The United Nations Conference on the Human Environment was the UN’s first major conference on the issue of the environment. The conference adopted the Stockholm Declaration and Plan of Action which set out principles for the preservation and enhancement of the human environment, with recommendations for international environmental action.
Headquarters of the UNEP – Nairobi, Kenya
Statement 2 is incorrect- The creation of UNFCCC is the outcome of the UN Summit on Environment and Development. The UNFCCC has near universal membership (198 Parties) and is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement.
The secretariat of UNFCCC was established in 1992 when countries adopted the UNFCCC. The original secretariat was in Geneva. Since 1996, the secretariat has been located in Bonn, Germany.
● Twenty years after the Stockholm Conference, at the historic Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in 1992, the United Nations sought to help Governments rethink economic development and find ways to stop polluting the planet and depleting it’s natural resources.
● The two-week “Earth Summit” was the climax of a process that had begun in December 1989, of planning, education and negotiations among all Member States of the United Nations, leading to the adoption of Agenda 21, an official global consensus on development and environmental cooperation.
● Other major outcomes of the Earth Summit include the setting up of UNCBD & UNCCD.

Answer. A
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- Examples of ecotones include:
● Marshlands (between dry and wet ecosystems)
● Mangrove forests (between terrestrial and marine ecosystems)
● Grasslands (between desert and forest)
● Estuaries (between saltwater and freshwater)
● Mountain ranges (due to changes in climatic conditions on the slopes; etc.
Statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1- Ecotones are areas of steep transition(junction) between ecological communities, ecosystems, or ecological regions along an environmental gradient. There are no sharp boundaries between most ecosystems. This means that there is a delicate zone where the blending of flora and fauna occurs. These regions form due to a variety of different factors, such as climate, location, temperature, etc.
Estuaries are the areas where fresh and saltwater mix. They are made up of many different types of habitats. These habitats can include oyster reefs, coral reefs, rocky shores, submerged aquatic vegetation, marshes, and mangroves. There are also different animals that live in each of these different habitats. Fish, shellfish, and migratory birds are just a few of the animals that can live in an estuary. Thus, different communities of species meet and enhance the species richness and diversity in the estuary as compared to the adjacent ecosystem. This is known as edge effect in an ecotone.

Answer. A
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- GREENEX Index was launched by the Bombay Stock Exchange in the year 2012 which measures the performance of the companies in terms of their carbon emissions such as the top-ranking companies from each sector like power, steel, cement etc.
The Green index, developed by the BSE in collaboration with the premier B-school Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad (IIM-A). Greenex has 20 companies from the broader BSE 100 index that meet energy efficiency norms, allowing investors to derive benefit from the related cost savings.
Statement 2 is correct- REDD+ refers to a process moderated by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) which supports countries’ efforts to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, and foster conservation, sustainable management of forests, and enhancement of forest carbon stocks.
Forests absorb vast amounts of carbon dioxide and can be a source of greenhouse gas emissions when destroyed or damaged. Countries established the ‘REDD+’ framework to protect forests as part of the Paris Agreement.
● ‘REDD’ stands for ‘Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries.
● The ‘+’ stands for additional forest-related activities that protect the climate, namely sustainable management of forests and the conservation and enhancement of forest carbon stocks.
● Under the framework with these REDD+ activities, developing countries can receive results-based payments for emission reductions when they reduce deforestation. This serves as a major incentive for their efforts.
● Beginning October 2017, Green Climate Fund has started to pilot REDD+ results-based payments, consistent with the Warsaw Framework for REDD+ and other REDD+ decisions under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Statement 3 is incorrect- The 52nd United Nations Statistical Commission, on March 2021, has adopted the System of Environmental-Economic Accounting—Ecosystem Accounting (SEEA EA). This new statistical framework enables countries to measure their natural capital and understand the immense contributions of nature to our prosperity and the importance of protecting it.

Answer. C
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India along with UNDP is implementing SECURE Himalaya.
Statement 2 is correct- The project promotes sustainable management of alpine pastures and forests in the high range Himalayan ecosystems to secure conservation of globally significant wildlife, including endangered snow leopard and their habitats to ensure sustainable livelihoods and socio-economic benefits for communities in the selected high-altitude landscapes in the Trans- and Greater Himalayan regions.
It contributes to the Global Snow Leopard Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP), a joint initiative of 12 range country governments, international agencies, civil society, and the private sector.
To conserve the snow leopard and its habitat, the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change is implementing the SECURE Himalaya project in:
● Ladakh (Changthang),
● Himachal Pradesh (Chandratal and Sechu Tuan Nala),
● Uttarakhand (Govind Pashu Vihar, Gangotri and Govind) and
● Sikkim (Shingba and Khangchendzonga).
Statement 3 is correct- The SECURE Himalaya project is a part of “Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development” (Global Wildlife Program) funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF).

Answer. D
Explanation- The animals are physiologically and behaviourally adapted to desert conditions:
● They are fast runners. They are nocturnal in behaviour to avoid the sun’s heat during day time.
● They conserve water by excreting concentrated urine. A few species of nocturnal rodents can live in deserts without drinking water.
● Animals and birds usually have long legs to keep the body away from the hot ground.
● Lizards are mostly insectivorous and can survive without drinking water for several days.
● Herbivorous animals get sufficient water from the seeds which they eat.
● Camel is known as the ship of the desert as it can travel long distances without drinking water for several days. They have humps to store fats which they break down into water and energy when water is not available. Also, they have large tough lips which enable them to pick and feed on dry thorny vegetation.
● Some animals migrate to escape the extreme hot and dry conditions and the dwindling food and water supplies. The Costa’s hummingbird can escape the heat of the hottest summer days by migrating to chaparral or scrub habitats.
● Fennec foxes have thick fur on their feet protecting them from the hot ground and large, bat-like ears that radiate body heat and help keep them cool.
● Kangaroo rats get moisture from their seed diet and live in burrows during the day to avoid extreme heat.
● Some animals adapt through aestivation and turpor. Aestivation is summer dormancy, that is, long-term torpor during summer for survival of hot and dry periods. Torpor is the state of being completely inactive mentally or physically, often to preserve the energy and adapt the harsh winter conditions, otherwise not conducive for their survival. Numerous desert reptiles and birds, including rattlesnakes, chuckwallas, desert tortoises, Gila monsters and nightjars and hummingbirds also experience torpid states.
● During hot, dry weather, the bullfrog can burrow into the ground and lie dormant in estivation. It sloughs off the skin, forming a cocoon to hold in the body’s moisture and absorb water stored in the bladder. It can lie in this hibernation like state for long periods—even longer than a year.
Meerkats (inhabiting the Kalahari desert) make use of burrow systems for escaping predators and harsh weather.

Answer. A
Explanation- Nitrogen is one of the primary nutrients critical for the survival of all living organisms. It is a necessary component of many biomolecules, including proteins, DNA, and chlorophyll. Although nitrogen is very abundant in the atmosphere as dinitrogen gas (N2), it is largely inaccessible in this form to most organisms, making nitrogen a scarce resource and often limiting primary productivity in many ecosystems. Only when nitrogen is converted from dinitrogen gas into ammonia (NH3) does it become available to primary producers, such as plants.
Statement 1 is correct- The process of converting N2 into biologically available nitrogen is called nitrogen fixation. Although most nitrogen fixation is carried out by prokaryotes, some nitrogen can be fixed abiotically by lightning or certain industrial processes, including the combustion of fossil fuels. Some nitrogen-fixing organisms are free-living while others are symbiotic nitrogen-fixers, which require a close association with a host to carry out the process. Microorganisms which facilitate nitrogen fixation are free-living bacteria like aerobic Azotobacter and anaerobic Clostridium; symbiotic nitrifying bacteria living in association with leguminous plants and symbiotic bacteria living in non-leguminous root nodule plants(e.g. Rhizobium) as well as blue green algae (e.g. Anabaena, Spirulina).

Statement 2 is incorrect- Ammonium ions can not be directly taken up as source of nitrogen by the plants, so these ions are oxidised into nitrites or nitrates by two groups of specialised bacteria: Nitrosomonas bacteria (converts ammonium into nitrite). Nitrite is then further transformed into nitrate by the bacteria Nitrobacter.
The nitrates synthesised by bacteria are taken up by the plants and converted into amino acids which are the building blocks of proteins. Certain quantity of soil nitrates being highly soluble in water, is lost to the system to being transported away by surface run-off or ground water. In the soil as well as oceans, there are special denitrifying bacteria such as Pseudomonas which convert the nitrates/nitrites to elemental nitrogen. This nitrogen then escapes into the atmosphere, thus completing the cycle.

Answer. D
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- When fertigation is applied through the drip irrigation system, crop foliage can be kept dry, thus avoiding leaf burn and delaying the development of plant pathogens. Fertigation helps to reduce weed menace, particularly between the crop rows. Use of plastic mulch along with fertigation through drip system allows effective weed control in widely spaced crops.
Drip irrigation is often preferred over other irrigation methods in fertigation process because it gives higher water application efficiency by reducing water losses through surface evaporation and deep percolation. Because of high frequency of water applications, concentrations of salts remain manageable in the rooting zone. Thus, it also helps in solving the problem of acidification of soils (occurs due to overirrigation in traditionally-irrigated fields).
Other advantages of fertigation in agriculture:
Use efficiency of applied nutrients in crops is greater under fertigation compared to that under conventional application of fertilizers to the soil. Intensification of agriculture led by use of irrigation water and indiscriminate use of fertilizers has led to the pollution of surface and ground waters by nutrients added through the chemical fertilizers. Fertigation helps in
i) lessening the pollution of water bodies by arresting the leaching or surface run-off of the nutrients such as N and K out of agricultural fields, and
ii) saving of water, nutrients, energy, labour and time.
Statement 2 is correct- Fertigation is a technique of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip system where timing, amounts and concentrations of fertilizers applied are easily controlled. Fertigation ensures saving in fertilizer (30- 50%), due to “better fertilizer use efficiency” and “reduction in leaching”.

Answer. D
Explanation- Short-lived climate pollutants are powerful climate forcers that remain in the atmosphere for a much shorter period of time than carbon dioxide (CO2), yet their potential to warm the atmosphere can be many times greater. Certain short-lived climate pollutants are also dangerous air pollutants that have harmful effects for people, ecosystems and agricultural productivity.
The short-lived climate pollutants black carbon, methane, tropospheric ozone, and hydrofluorocarbons are the most important contributors to the man-made global greenhouse effect after carbon dioxide, responsible for up to 45% of current global warming.
BLACK CARBON
Commonly known as soot, it is a component of fine particulate air pollution (PM2.5).
It is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels, a process which also creates carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds.
Black carbon warms the atmosphere because it is very effective at absorbing light.Black carbon has a warming impact up to 1,500 times stronger than CO2 per unit of mass.
The average atmospheric lifetime of black carbon particles is 4-12 days.
Household energy accounts for nearly half of global black carbon emissions globally.
METHANE
The world’s second-largest contributor to global warming after carbon dioxide and a key ingredient in ground-level ozone pollution.
It has an atmospheric lifetime of around 12 years.
Methane has a warming impact 86 times stronger than CO2 per unit of mass over a 20 year period. Over a 100-year period methane is 28 times stronger.
The main methane emitting sectors are:
● Agriculture (40%), including from livestock rearing, animal manure, and rice production.
● Fossil fuels (35%), including through leakage from natural gas and oil production and distribution systems, and coal mines.
● Waste (20%), from food and other organic materials left in landfills, open dumps, and wastewater.
HFCs
They are a group of synthetic gases primarily used for cooling and refrigeration.
The most abundant HFC warms the planet 3,790 times as much as CO2 over a 20-year period.
HFCs have an average lifespan of 15 years in the atmosphere.
All HFCs are human-made for use in refrigeration and cooling equipment.
HFCs were introduced to replace ozone depleting substances and the growing demand for cooling. Under the Kigali amendment to Montreal Protocol (which entered into force on 1 January 2019, has been ratified by more than 140 countries), countries commit to cut the production and consumption of HFCs by more than 80% over the next 30 years to avoid more than 70 billion metric tonnes of CO2 equivalent emissions by 2050.
OZONE
Ground-level ozone is a short-lived climate pollutant that remains in the atmosphere for only hours to weeks.
It does not have any direct emissions sources, rather it is a compound formed by the interaction of sunlight with volatile organic compounds (VOCs) – including methane – and nitrogen oxides (NOX) emitted largely by human activities.
Ozone absorbs radiation, acting as a strong greenhouse gas and altering evaporation, cloud formation, and atmospheric circulation.

Answer. C
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is the international legal instrument for “the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources” that has been ratified by 196 nations. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) convened the Ad Hoc Working Group of Experts on Biological Diversity in November 1988 to explore the need for an. international convention on biological diversity.
By February 1991, the Ad Hoc Working Group had become known as the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee. Its work culminated on 22 May 1992 with the Nairobi Conference for the Adoption of the Agreed Text of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The CBD was opened for signature on 5 June 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (the Rio “Earth Summit”).
It entered into force on 29 December 1993, which was 90 days after the 30th ratification.
Statement 2 is correct- The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (SCBD) is based in Montreal, Canada. Its main function is to assist governments in the implementation of the CBD and its programmes of work, to organize meetings, draft documents, and coordinate with other international organizations and collect and spread information.
Statement 3 is correct- India hosted the UNCBD COP 11 in the year 2012 at Hyderabad. This has been the only instance when India has so far, hosted the COP to UNCBD.
COP15 at Montreal, Canada was held in December 2022 which culminated in adoption of a new action plan, the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
The CBD’s governing body is the Conference of the Parties (COP). This ultimate authority of all governments (or Parties) that have ratified the treaty meets every two years to review progress, set priorities and commit to work plans.

Answer. D
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- Grazing food chain governs the transfer of energy in an aquatic ecosystem. Sunlight energy serves as the primary source of energy in the Grazing Food Chain. In an aquatic ecosystem, the phytoplankton make use of sunlight and carry our photosynthesis. The zooplanktons then feed on these phytoplankton. The zooplanktons constitute the food for fish which are then eaten by other aquatic animals.

Statement 2 is incorrect- In a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. Note that both detritus food chain and grazing food chain contribute in case of terrestrial ecosystem. The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter. It is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria. They meet their energy and nutrient requirements by degrading dead organic matter or detritus. These are also known as saprotrophs (sapro: to decompose). Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that breakdown dead and waste materials into simple, inorganic materials, which are subsequently absorbed by them.
Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels: some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals, and in a natural ecosystem, some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are omnivores. These natural interconnection of food chains make it a food web.

Answer. D
Explanation- Yokkaichi asthma is a disease that occurred in the city of Yokkaichi in Japan during 1960s. the burning of petroleum and crude oil released large quantities of sulphur dioxide that caused sever smog, resulting into severe cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic bronchitis, pulmonary emphysema (breaking of sensitive lung tissues), and bronchial asthma among the local inhabitants.
Additional information:
As per the WHO air quality guidelines (World Health Organization 2021), the recommended 24-hour average SO2 concentration should not be more than 40 µg/m3 for protecting human health.
India is considered the largest SO2 emitter in the world, according to a 2019 analysis by Greenpeace. The Indo-Gangetic Plains, central and eastern India are the hotspots of SO2 pollution as these regions house a cluster of thermal power plants, petroleum refineries, steel manufacturing units, and cement industries.
Coal-based thermal power plants (51%) and manufacturing and construction industries (29%) are India’s major sources of SO2 released from human actions. Biomass burning, chemical and fertiliser industries, and the petroleum industry also contribute to SO2 pollution.
Sulphur dioxide concentration is higher in winter and lower in pre-monsoon.

Answer. B
Explanation-
Statement 1 is correct- Coral polyps are tiny, soft-bodied organisms related to sea anemones and jellyfish. At their base is a hard, protective limestone skeleton called a calicle, which forms the structure of coral reefs. Reefs begin when a polyp attaches itself to a rock on the sea floor, then divides, or buds, into thousands of clones. The polyp calicles connect to one another, creating a colony that acts as a single organism. As colonies grow over hundreds and thousands of years, they join with other colonies and become reefs.
Statement 2 is incorrect- Because of strict environmental restrictions, coral reefs generally are confined to tropical and sub-tropical waters. Reef-building corals cannot tolerate water temperatures below 64° Fahrenheit (18° Celsius). Many grow optimally in water temperatures between 73° and 84° Fahrenheit (23°–29°Celsius), but some can tolerate temperatures as high as 104° Fahrenheit (40° Celsius) for short periods.
Most reef-building corals also require very saline (salty) water ranging from 32 to 42 parts per thousand. The water must also be clear so that a maximum amount of light penetrates it.

Statement 3 is correct- The rising acidity of the oceans (due to increase in absorption of CO2 by sea surface water from atmosphere) threatens coral reefs by making it harder for corals to build their skeletons. A 20 percent increase above current carbon dioxide levels (nearly 400 ppm), which could occur within the next two decades, could significantly reduce the ability of corals to build their skeletons and some could become functionally extinct within this timeframe.
Additional information-
Coral reefs teem with life, covering less than 1% of the ocean floor, but supporting about 25% of all marine creatures. The corals are high in terms of ecosystem productivity. Therefore, they are called as ‘Rainforests of the Ocean’.
Coral polyps are actually translucent animals.
While corals get most of their nutrients from the byproducts of the algae’s photosynthesis, they also have barbed, venomous tentacles they can stick out, usually at night, to grab zooplankton and even small fish.
Symbiotic relationship- Most reef-building corals contain photosynthetic algae, called zooxanthellae, which live in their tissues. The coral provides the algae with a protected environment and compounds they need for photosynthesis. In return, the algae produce oxygen and help the coral to remove wastes. Most importantly, zooxanthellae supply the coral with food and colour. The algae need light in order to produce food via photosynthesis.
Coral bleaching refers to the discolouration of the corals and their deteriorating health due to expulsion of zooxanthellae under conditions of stress.

Answer. A
Explanation- The given pairs 2 and 3 are incorrectly matched. Pair 1 is correctly matched.
BASEL CONVENTION
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was adopted in 1989 and it came into force in 1992.
It is the most comprehensive global environmental agreement on hazardous wastes and other wastes.
With 175 Parties (as at 31 March 2011), it has nearly universal membership.
The Convention covers toxic, poisonous, explosive, corrosive, flammable, ecotoxic and infectious wastes.
Parties also have an obligation to minimize the quantities that are transported, to treat and dispose of wastes as close as possible to their place of generation and to prevent or minimize the generation of wastes at source.
ROTTERDAM CONVETNION
The Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade is a multilateral treaty to promote shared responsibilities in relation to importation of hazardous chemicals.
The convention promotes open exchange of information and calls on exporters of hazardous chemicals to use proper labeling, include directions on safe handling, and inform purchasers of any known restrictions or bans.
Signatory Nations can decide whether to allow or ban the importation of chemicals listed in the treaty, and exporting countries are obliged to make sure that producers within their jurisdiction comply.
The Prior Informed Consent Regulation administers the Import and export of certain hazardous chemicals and places obligations on companies who wish to export these chemicals to non-EU countries.
STOCKHOLM CONVENTION
The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of humans and wildlife, and have adverse effects to human health or to the environment.
It was adopted in 2001 and entered into force in 2004.
The Convention is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme and is based in Geneva, Switzerland.
The National Implementation Plan (NIP) and the National Reports submitted by the Parties to the Stockholm Convention are key data sources for evaluating the effectiveness of the Convention.

Answer. C
Explanation- Options 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
King vulture is not found in India (They live between southern Mexico and northern Argentina, preferring tropical lowland forests).
9 vulture species are found in India which include:
● Oriental white-backed vulture,
● Long-billed vulture,
● Slender-billed vulture,
● Himalayan vulture,
● Red-headed vulture,
● Egyptian vulture,
● Bearded vulture,
● Cinereous vulture, and
● Eurasian Griffon vulture.

RED-HEADED VULTURE (Critically Endangered)
● Also known as the King Vulture or Black Vulture or Pondicherry vulture.
● Distribution: wide range across the Indian subcontinent and in South-East Asia(from India to Singapore); primarily in northern parts of India.
● Habitat: Inhabits dry forests and semi-arid areas. Also found in the foothills and river valleys. Usually found up to an altitude of 3000 m from the sea level.
● Behaviour: shy and solitary compared to other vultures.
● Conservation status: Schedule I, Wildlife Protection Act 1972

WHITE-RUMPED VULTURE (Critically Endangered)
Distribution: Medium-sized dark vulture commonly found in the India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and southern Vietnam.
● Extinct in Southern China and Malaysia where it was earlier found.
● Habitat: temperate areas, mostly in plains and occasionally in hilly regions. Often found in cities, towns and vil­lages, near human habitations.
● Uniqueness: feed mostly on the ground, but roost and nest in trees and cliffs.
● Conservation status: Schedule I, wildlife Protection Act 1972

EGYPTIAN VULTURE (Endangered)
● Also called the white scavenger vulture or pharaoh’s chicken. It is a small Old World vulture.
● Distribution: widely distributed from the Iberian Peninsula and North Africa to India. They are naturally found in the southern Europe, Asia, and northern Africa. Isolated populations live in Cape Verde and the Canary Islands.
● Egyptian vultures generally inhabit arid open areas such as steppe, desert, cereal fields, and pastures, but need rocky sites for nesting. They are often found near where humans live.
● Diet: Feed mainly on carrion but are opportunistic and will prey on small mammals, birds, and reptiles. They also feed on the eggs of other birds, breaking larger ones by tossing a large pebble onto them.
● Behaviour: Birds that breed in the temperate regions migrate south in winter while tropical populations are relatively sedentary. Egyptian vultures are diurnal birds. They hunt by sight only, not smell.
● Conservation status: Schedule I, Wildlife Protection Act 1972

Answer. D
Explanation-
Statement 1 is incorrect- Since its inception in 2005, the annual Champions of the Earth award has been awarded to trailblazers at the forefront of efforts to protect our natural world. It is the UN’s highest environmental honour. It is awarded by the UNEP.
Statement 2 is incorrect-Every year, the UN celebrates individuals, groups and institutions through Champions of the Earth award. The Champions of the Earth has so far (as of October 2023) recognized 116 laureates, ranging from world leaders to technology inventors. They include 27 world leaders, 70 individuals and 19 groups or organizations.
Statement 3 is incorrect- Champions of the Earth are celebrated in four categories:
● Policy leadership – individuals or organizations in the public sector leading global or national action for the environment. They shape dialogue, lead commitments and act for the good of the planet.
● Inspiration and action – individuals or organizations taking bold steps to inspire positive change to protect our world. They lead by example, challenge behavior and inspire millions.
● Entrepreneurial vision – individuals or organizations challenging the status quo to build a cleaner future. They build systems, create new technology and spearhead a groundbreaking vision.
● Science and innovation– individuals or organizations who push the boundaries of technology for profound environmental benefit. They invent possibilities for a more sustainable world.

Answer. C
Explanation-
Statements 1 and 2 are correct- The Central Government, by a notification dated 20.2.2009, as set up ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority’ (NGRBA) as an empowered planning, financing, monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganga River, in exercise of the powers conferred under the Environment (Protection) Act,1986.
The Prime Minister is ex-officio Chairperson of the Authority, and it has as its members, the Union Ministers Concerned and the Chief Ministers of states through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others. The objective of the Authority is to ensure effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the river Ganga by adopting a holistic approach with the river basin as the unit of planning.
Statement 3 is incorrect- It is a financing, planning, implementing, monitoring and coordinating authority for the Ganges River, functioning under the Jal Shakti ministry of India. In July 2014, the NGRBA has been transferred from the Ministry of Environment and Forests to the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation (now called the Jal Shakti Ministry).
The Union government issued a notification in September 2016 (River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management) Authorities Order) which stated its decision taken to replace NGRBA with a new body named “National Council for River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection and Management)”. The new body will act as an authority replacing the existing National Ganga River Basin Authority for overall responsibility for superintendence of pollution prevention and rejuvenation of river Ganga Basin.
Statement 4 is correct- The NGRBA would be responsible for addressing the problem of pollution in Ganga in a holistic and comprehensive manner. This will include water quality, minimum ecological flows, sustainable access and other issues relevant to river ecology and management. The NGRBA would draw upon professional expertise within and outside the Government for advice on techno-economic issues. The technical and administrative support to NGRBA shall be provided by the Ministry of Environment & for advice on techno-economic issues.