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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the Nyaya School of Philosophy, consider the following statements:
    1. It believes in the process of logical reasoning to obtain salvation.
    2. It only accepted perception and inference as sources of valid knowledge.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: It believes in the process of logical reasoning to obtain salvation, as the name of the school implies. It is considered as a technique of logical thinking. According to Nyaya Philosophy, nothing is acceptable unless it is in accordance with reason and experience (scientific approach).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaisheshika school of philosophy only accepted perception and inference as sources of valid knowledge. Nyaya accepts four kinds of Pramā (valid presentation): (1) perception, (2) inference, (3) comparison or analogy, (4) word or testimony. Nyāya defends a form of direct realism and a theory of substances (dravya).
    Additional information:
    Nyaya School of Philosophy
    ● Nyaya school is one of the six astika schools of Indian Philosophy. This school’s most significant contributions to Indian philosophy were the systematic development of the theory of logic, methodology, etc.
    ● They regard life, death, and redemption as enigmas that can be deciphered via rational and analytical reasoning.
    ● Gautama, who is also known as the author of the Nyaya Sutra, is said to have developed this school of thought.
    Vaisheshika school of philosophy
    ● The reality according to this philosophy has many bases or categories which are substance, attribute, action, genus, distinct quality and inherence.
    ● Vaisheshika thinkers believe that all objects of the universe are composed of five elements–earth, water, air, fire and ether.
    ● They believe that God is the guiding principle. The living beings were rewarded or punished according to the law of karma, based on actions of merit and demerit.
    ● The Vaisheshika and Nyaya schools eventually merged because of their closely related metaphysical theories (Vaisheshika only accepted perception and inference as sources of valid knowledge).

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: It believes in the process of logical reasoning to obtain salvation, as the name of the school implies. It is considered as a technique of logical thinking. According to Nyaya Philosophy, nothing is acceptable unless it is in accordance with reason and experience (scientific approach).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Vaisheshika school of philosophy only accepted perception and inference as sources of valid knowledge. Nyaya accepts four kinds of Pramā (valid presentation): (1) perception, (2) inference, (3) comparison or analogy, (4) word or testimony. Nyāya defends a form of direct realism and a theory of substances (dravya).
    Additional information:
    Nyaya School of Philosophy
    ● Nyaya school is one of the six astika schools of Indian Philosophy. This school’s most significant contributions to Indian philosophy were the systematic development of the theory of logic, methodology, etc.
    ● They regard life, death, and redemption as enigmas that can be deciphered via rational and analytical reasoning.
    ● Gautama, who is also known as the author of the Nyaya Sutra, is said to have developed this school of thought.
    Vaisheshika school of philosophy
    ● The reality according to this philosophy has many bases or categories which are substance, attribute, action, genus, distinct quality and inherence.
    ● Vaisheshika thinkers believe that all objects of the universe are composed of five elements–earth, water, air, fire and ether.
    ● They believe that God is the guiding principle. The living beings were rewarded or punished according to the law of karma, based on actions of merit and demerit.
    ● The Vaisheshika and Nyaya schools eventually merged because of their closely related metaphysical theories (Vaisheshika only accepted perception and inference as sources of valid knowledge).

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Home Rule Movement was India’s response to the First World War.
    Statement II: Indian people faced hardships caused by high taxation and rise in prices of goods during the first world war.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Home Rule Movement was India’s response to the First World War.
    Statement 2 is correct: Indian people faced hardships caused by high taxation and rise in prices of goods during the first world war.
    There were several factors that contributed to the formation of the Home Rule Movement. One of them was consequences of world war. The war, which was fought between the major imperialist powers of the time and was backed by open propaganda against each other, exposed the myth of white superiority. The world war led Indian people to feel the burden of war time miseries caused by high taxation and a rise in prices.
    Additional information:
    Tilak and Annie Besant were ready to assume the leadership, and the movement started with great vigour. Two Indian Home Rule Leagues were organised on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. The League campaign aimed to convey to the common man the message of home rule as self-government.
    Objectives of Home Rule Movement:
    ● To achieve self-government in India.
    ● To promote political education and discussion to set up agitation for self-government.
    ● To build confidence among Indians to speak against the government’s suppression.
    ● To demand a larger political representation for Indians from the British government.
    ● To revive political activity in India while maintaining the principles of the Congress Party.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Home Rule Movement was India’s response to the First World War.
    Statement 2 is correct: Indian people faced hardships caused by high taxation and rise in prices of goods during the first world war.
    There were several factors that contributed to the formation of the Home Rule Movement. One of them was consequences of world war. The war, which was fought between the major imperialist powers of the time and was backed by open propaganda against each other, exposed the myth of white superiority. The world war led Indian people to feel the burden of war time miseries caused by high taxation and a rise in prices.
    Additional information:
    Tilak and Annie Besant were ready to assume the leadership, and the movement started with great vigour. Two Indian Home Rule Leagues were organised on the lines of the Irish Home Rule Leagues and they represented the emergence of a new trend of aggressive politics. The League campaign aimed to convey to the common man the message of home rule as self-government.
    Objectives of Home Rule Movement:
    ● To achieve self-government in India.
    ● To promote political education and discussion to set up agitation for self-government.
    ● To build confidence among Indians to speak against the government’s suppression.
    ● To demand a larger political representation for Indians from the British government.
    ● To revive political activity in India while maintaining the principles of the Congress Party.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. In the context of administration of Bahmani kingdom, consider the following statements:
    1. During the rule of Bahamani kingdom, nobility was divided into “Khanzada” and ‘’Afaqis’’.
    2. For administrative purposes, the Bahamani kingdom was divided into four “Taraf,” or provinces headed by Amirs.
    3. Bahmani rulers were influenced by the “Iqtadari System” of administration from the Delhi Sultanate.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    • Statement 1 is incorrect: In the early decades of the foundation of the Bahmani Kingdom, feuds arose among the nobility and the nobles were divided into “Deccanies” and “Afaqis”. The struggle between the Afaqis and Deccanis had a destabilizing effect on the Bahmani Sultanate’s political structure. Succession disputes and conflicts over the throne were often exacerbated by the internal divisions, leading to periods of political instability.
    • Statement 2 is incorrect: For administrative purposes, the Bahamani kingdom was divided into four “Taraf,” or provinces headed by Tarafdars or Subedars not Amirs.
    • Statement 3 is correct: Bahmani rulers were influenced by the “Iqtadari System” for administration adopted from the Delhi Sultanate.
    Additional information:
    ● The Bahmani Kingdom was a Muslim dynasty in southern India during the medieval period in Indian history.
    ● The founder of the Bahmani kingdom was Alauddin Hassan Gangu Bahaman Shah. He rebelled against Muhammad Bin Tughlaq in 1347.
    ● Bahmani Kingdom’s capital city was Gulbarga in present-day Karnataka. This Bahmani kingdom was ruled by 14 sultans. Among them, Alauddin Bahman Shah, Muhammad Shah I, and Firoz Shah were important rulers.
    ● The power of the Bahmani kingdom reached its peak during the reign of Muhammad Shah III. The borders of the Bahmani kingdom extend from Goa to Bombay in the west and from Krishna to Kakinada in the east.
    ● The Bahmani dynasty was the first to unite the Deccan part of the Indian subcontinent with their kingdom. The Bahmani kingdom served as a cultural bridge between the northern and southern regions of the Indian subcontinent.
    ● Dakhini Urdu was a popular language widely propagated from the Bahmani kingdom and Dakhini poetry also flourished during that time and is still performed in Hyderabad today.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    • Statement 1 is incorrect: In the early decades of the foundation of the Bahmani Kingdom, feuds arose among the nobility and the nobles were divided into “Deccanies” and “Afaqis”. The struggle between the Afaqis and Deccanis had a destabilizing effect on the Bahmani Sultanate’s political structure. Succession disputes and conflicts over the throne were often exacerbated by the internal divisions, leading to periods of political instability.
    • Statement 2 is incorrect: For administrative purposes, the Bahamani kingdom was divided into four “Taraf,” or provinces headed by Tarafdars or Subedars not Amirs.
    • Statement 3 is correct: Bahmani rulers were influenced by the “Iqtadari System” for administration adopted from the Delhi Sultanate.
    Additional information:
    ● The Bahmani Kingdom was a Muslim dynasty in southern India during the medieval period in Indian history.
    ● The founder of the Bahmani kingdom was Alauddin Hassan Gangu Bahaman Shah. He rebelled against Muhammad Bin Tughlaq in 1347.
    ● Bahmani Kingdom’s capital city was Gulbarga in present-day Karnataka. This Bahmani kingdom was ruled by 14 sultans. Among them, Alauddin Bahman Shah, Muhammad Shah I, and Firoz Shah were important rulers.
    ● The power of the Bahmani kingdom reached its peak during the reign of Muhammad Shah III. The borders of the Bahmani kingdom extend from Goa to Bombay in the west and from Krishna to Kakinada in the east.
    ● The Bahmani dynasty was the first to unite the Deccan part of the Indian subcontinent with their kingdom. The Bahmani kingdom served as a cultural bridge between the northern and southern regions of the Indian subcontinent.
    ● Dakhini Urdu was a popular language widely propagated from the Bahmani kingdom and Dakhini poetry also flourished during that time and is still performed in Hyderabad today.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. In the context of ancient India, the terms ‘Nishaka’ and ‘Satmana’ refer to:

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    ● Satamana and Nishka were gold coins which were used for trading during vedic period.
    ● The unit value of goods was a gold bar called “nishka” weighing three hundred and twenty ratis, which was also the weight of a satamana.
    Additional information:
    ● The Coinage of India began anywhere between early 1st millennium BCE to the 6th century BCE, and consisted mainly of copper and silver coins in its initial stage. The coins of this period were Karshapanas or Pana.
    ● A variety of earliest Indian coins, however, unlike those circulated in West Asia, were stamped bars of metal, suggesting that the innovation of stamped currency was added to a pre-existing form of token currency which had already been present in the Janapadas and Mahajanapada kingdoms of the Early historic India.
    ● The kingdoms that minted their own coins included Gandhara, Kuntala, Kuru, Magadha, Panchala, Shakya, Surasena, Surashtra and Vidarbha etc.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    ● Satamana and Nishka were gold coins which were used for trading during vedic period.
    ● The unit value of goods was a gold bar called “nishka” weighing three hundred and twenty ratis, which was also the weight of a satamana.
    Additional information:
    ● The Coinage of India began anywhere between early 1st millennium BCE to the 6th century BCE, and consisted mainly of copper and silver coins in its initial stage. The coins of this period were Karshapanas or Pana.
    ● A variety of earliest Indian coins, however, unlike those circulated in West Asia, were stamped bars of metal, suggesting that the innovation of stamped currency was added to a pre-existing form of token currency which had already been present in the Janapadas and Mahajanapada kingdoms of the Early historic India.
    ● The kingdoms that minted their own coins included Gandhara, Kuntala, Kuru, Magadha, Panchala, Shakya, Surasena, Surashtra and Vidarbha etc.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following:
    Festivals/Fairs – Associated States
    1. Nabakalebar Festival – Odisha
    2. Tyagaraja Aradhana – Karnataka
    3. Sarhul – Rajasthan
    4. Saga Dawa – Sikkim
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Given below is the correctly matched pairs:
    Festivals/Fairs – Associated states
    1) Nabakalebar festival – Odisha
    2) Tyagaraja Aradhana – Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
    3) Sarhul – Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal
    4) Saga Dawa – Sikkim
    Additional information:
    Nabakalebar festival
    ● Nabakalebar festival is observed at Shri Jagannath temple, Puri (Odisha) at a pre-defined time (after every 8 to 19 years) according to the Hindu calendar.
    ● Nabakalebar means new body, i.e. the idols of Lord Jaganath, Balabhadra, Subhadra and Sudarshan are replaced with new idols. The new idols are made from the log (daru) of 04 separate neem trees which are selected as per set criteria and after a rigorous search.
    ● From the daru or log of the selected neem trees, the idols are carved and are replaced during the Adhik Masa (intercalary month).
    ● Lakhs and Lakhs of pilgrims attend to worship the selected neem tree and the ceremony of replacement of idols.
    Tyagaraja Aradhana
    ● It is held annually to commemorate the ‘Samadhi’ day of the famous Telugu Saint and composer Tyagaraja.
    ● It is held in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, primarily at Thiruvaiyaru (where he attained Samadhi).
    ● The festival is attended by leading exponents of Carnatic music who come to pay their tribute to the saint.
    ● Saint Tyagaraja along with Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri, comprise the Trinity of Carnatic music.
    Sarhul
    ● Sarhul marks the beginning of the New Year for the tribals of Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal.
    ● It is mainly celebrated by the Munda, Oraon and Ho tribes.
    ● Sarhul literally means ‘Worship of Sal’. It is celebrated in the spring season, i.e. in the month of Phalgun according to the Hindu calendar.
    ● Tribals hold nature in great reverence and Mother Earth is worshipped during the festival.
    ● Sarhul is celebrated for several days during which the main traditional dance Sarhul is performed. It is related to religion called “Sarnaism
    Saga Dawa (Triple Blessed Festival)
    ● It is mostly celebrated in the Buddhist communities living in the State of Sikkim. It is celebrated on the full moon day that falls in the middle of the Tibetan lunar month called the Saga Dawa.
    ● This day is considered to be a very auspicious day for the Tibetan community. This falls between May and June and this month is called Saga Dawa or the ‘Month of merits’.
    ● The festival is celebrated to commemorate the birth, enlightenment and death (parinirvana) of Buddha. Most people make a pilgrimage to the monasteries and offer incense sticks, Dhog and water. People also circumambulate the Gompas of the monastery and chant mantras, recite the religious texts and turn the prayer wheels.
    ● Throughout the month of Saga Dawa, the community of Buddhists has to follow three teachings of Buddhism: generosity (dana), morality (sila), and meditation or good feelings (bhavana).

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Given below is the correctly matched pairs:
    Festivals/Fairs – Associated states
    1) Nabakalebar festival – Odisha
    2) Tyagaraja Aradhana – Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
    3) Sarhul – Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal
    4) Saga Dawa – Sikkim
    Additional information:
    Nabakalebar festival
    ● Nabakalebar festival is observed at Shri Jagannath temple, Puri (Odisha) at a pre-defined time (after every 8 to 19 years) according to the Hindu calendar.
    ● Nabakalebar means new body, i.e. the idols of Lord Jaganath, Balabhadra, Subhadra and Sudarshan are replaced with new idols. The new idols are made from the log (daru) of 04 separate neem trees which are selected as per set criteria and after a rigorous search.
    ● From the daru or log of the selected neem trees, the idols are carved and are replaced during the Adhik Masa (intercalary month).
    ● Lakhs and Lakhs of pilgrims attend to worship the selected neem tree and the ceremony of replacement of idols.
    Tyagaraja Aradhana
    ● It is held annually to commemorate the ‘Samadhi’ day of the famous Telugu Saint and composer Tyagaraja.
    ● It is held in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, primarily at Thiruvaiyaru (where he attained Samadhi).
    ● The festival is attended by leading exponents of Carnatic music who come to pay their tribute to the saint.
    ● Saint Tyagaraja along with Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri, comprise the Trinity of Carnatic music.
    Sarhul
    ● Sarhul marks the beginning of the New Year for the tribals of Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal.
    ● It is mainly celebrated by the Munda, Oraon and Ho tribes.
    ● Sarhul literally means ‘Worship of Sal’. It is celebrated in the spring season, i.e. in the month of Phalgun according to the Hindu calendar.
    ● Tribals hold nature in great reverence and Mother Earth is worshipped during the festival.
    ● Sarhul is celebrated for several days during which the main traditional dance Sarhul is performed. It is related to religion called “Sarnaism
    Saga Dawa (Triple Blessed Festival)
    ● It is mostly celebrated in the Buddhist communities living in the State of Sikkim. It is celebrated on the full moon day that falls in the middle of the Tibetan lunar month called the Saga Dawa.
    ● This day is considered to be a very auspicious day for the Tibetan community. This falls between May and June and this month is called Saga Dawa or the ‘Month of merits’.
    ● The festival is celebrated to commemorate the birth, enlightenment and death (parinirvana) of Buddha. Most people make a pilgrimage to the monasteries and offer incense sticks, Dhog and water. People also circumambulate the Gompas of the monastery and chant mantras, recite the religious texts and turn the prayer wheels.
    ● Throughout the month of Saga Dawa, the community of Buddhists has to follow three teachings of Buddhism: generosity (dana), morality (sila), and meditation or good feelings (bhavana).

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HEPATITIS BURDEN IN INDIA AND GLOBALLY

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The World Health Organization (WHO) recently released its 2024 Global Hepatitis Report, shedding light on the alarming prevalence of hepatitis infections worldwide.

EXPLANATION:

  • India, in particular, has emerged as a significant contributor to the global burden of hepatitis, with substantial implications for public health.

Hepatitis Burden in India:

  • Magnitude of Infections:
    • India accounted for 11.6% of the world’s hepatitis cases in 2022, with over 35.3 million infections reported.
    • Of these, 29.8 million cases were attributed to hepatitis B, while 5.5 million were due to hepatitis C.
  • Global Ranking:
    • Despite significant efforts, India ranked second globally after China, contributing 27.5% of the total hepatitis cases worldwide.
  • Gender and Age Distribution:
    • Men accounted for 58% of all hepatitis cases in India, with half of the burden observed among individuals aged 30–54 years.

Global Perspective:

  • Global Burden:
    • The WHO report documented a rise in estimated mortality from hepatitis, with deaths increasing from 1.1 million in 2019 to 1.3 million in 2022.
    • Hepatitis B accounted for 83% of these deaths, while hepatitis C contributed to 17%.
  • Leading Cause of Liver Disease:
    • Hepatitis is identified as the second leading infectious cause of death globally, following tuberculosis.
    • Chronic hepatitis B and C infections are particularly concerning, as they can lead to liver cirrhosis, liver cancer, and hepatitis-related deaths.
  • Variants and Transmission:
    • The report highlights five main strains of the hepatitis virus, each differing in transmission modes, severity, and geographical distribution.
    • Hepatitis B and C, in particular, lead to chronic diseases for millions worldwide.

Challenges and Opportunities:

  • Diagnostic and Treatment Gaps:
    • Despite progress, only a fraction of individuals living with chronic hepatitis B and C infections have been diagnosed and received appropriate care.
    • Efforts are needed to improve diagnosis rates and ensure timely treatment.
  • Immunization Efforts:
    • Immunization and safe injection practices have led to a decline in new hepatitis infections globally.
    • However, challenges persist in ensuring universal access to vaccinations, particularly in regions like Africa.
  • Injection Drug Use:
    • Injecting drug use and unsafe medical injections remain significant contributors to hepatitis C transmission globally.
    • Pakistan, in particular, stands out, accounting for a substantial portion of new infections attributed to unsafe medical practices.

Hepatitis:

  • Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver that is caused by a variety of infectious viruses and noninfectious agents leading to a range of health problems, some of which can be fatal.
  • There are five main strains of the hepatitis virus, referred to as types A, B, C, D and E.
  • While they all cause liver disease, they differ in important ways including modes of transmission, severity of the illness, geographical distribution and prevention methods.
  • In particular, types B and C lead to chronic disease in hundreds of millions of people and together are the most common cause of liver cirrhosis, liver cancer and viral hepatitis-related deaths.
  • An estimated 354 million people worldwide live with hepatitis B or C, and for most, testing and treatment remain beyond reach.

Symptoms:

  • Many people with hepatitis A, B, C, D or E exhibit only mild symptoms or no symptoms at all.
  • Each form of the virus, however, can cause more severe symptoms.
  • Symptoms of hepatitis A, B and C may include fever, malaise, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, nausea, abdominal discomfort, dark-coloured urine and jaundice (a yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes).
  • In some cases, the virus can also cause a chronic liver infection that can later develop into cirrhosis (a scarring of the liver) or liver cancer. These patients are at risk of death.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/india-had-over-11-of-global-hepatitis-burden-in-2022-with-35-3-million-cases-95514




PLASTIC WASTE CRISIS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: A recent report by the Swiss non-profit EA Earth Action has highlighted the alarming projections regarding plastic waste generation worldwide.

EXPLANATION:

  • With an anticipated 220 million tonnes of plastic waste set to be generated in 2024, the urgency to address this issue has become more pronounced than ever before.

Key Findings:

  • Rapid Rise in Plastic Waste:
    • Since 2021, there has been a steady increase of nearly 10% (7.11%) in plastic waste generation globally.
  • Top Contributors:
    • Just 12 countries are responsible for 60% of the world’s mismanaged plastic waste, with China, USA, India, Brazil, and Mexico leading the list.
  • Global Average per Person:
    • The global average plastic waste per person is expected to rise to 28 kilograms in 2024.
  • Plastic Overshoot Day:
    • Last year marked the first-ever Global Plastic Overshoot Day, signifying the point where the amount of plastic waste generated globally exceeded the world’s capacity to manage it.
    • This year, Global Plastic Overshoot Day is projected to land on September 5, 2024.
    • The report includes plastic waste from the textile industry and household waste in addition to plastic packaging waste, broadening the scope of analysis.
  • Population Impacted:
    • Nearly 50% of the world’s population has been living in areas where plastic waste generated has already surpassed the capacity to manage it since April 2024.
    • This figure is expected to rise to 66% by September 5, 2024.

Implications and Pressures:

  • Impact on Developing Countries:
    • Developing countries are particularly affected by the plastic pollution crisis, facing increasing pressures as plastic waste generation outpaces waste management capacity.
  • National Plastic Overshoot Days:
    • Each country now has its own Plastic Overshoot Day, determined by the amount of plastic waste generated and the country’s capacity to manage it. This highlights the need for tailored approaches to address the issue at a national level.
  • Call for Action:
    • Sarah Perreard, Co-CEO at EA Earth Action & Plastic Footprint Network, emphasizes the urgent need for science-driven, robust global policy to tackle the plastics crisis.
    • Merely relying on recycling and waste management capacity is insufficient to address the magnitude of the problem.

Examples of plastic pollution in Himalayan region:

  • A recent report by the Social Development for Communities (SDC) Foundation Dehradun highlights the towns in Uttarakhand are drowning in plastic waste.
  • In Assam, at the Ramsar site of Deepor Beel, Greater adjutant storks have been feasting on the plastic waste in the landfill instead of fish from the wetland.
  • In Manipur, growing pollution in rivers, that include the Nambul, has been widely reported.
  • The Himalayan Clean up (2018-21) that was conducted by the Integrated Mountain Initiative with Zero Waste Himalayas) show increasing plastic waste, especially non-recyclables, in the Indian Himalayan Region.
  • The Himalayan Clean up (2022) waste audit results showed that 92.7% of trash was plastic, with 72% of waste being non-recyclable plastic.

Steps taken:

  • Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2022: It prohibits the manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of several single-use plastic items as of July 1, 2022. It has also mandated Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) that incorporates circularity by making manufacturers of products responsible for collecting and processing their products upon the end of the products’ lifetime.
  • Project REPLAN: Project REPLAN which stands for REducing PLastic in Nature has been launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) aims to reduce consumption of plastic bags by providing a more sustainable alternative.
  • Ban on single-use plastics: India has banned the production, use, and sale of single-use plastics such as bags, cups, plates, cutlery, and straws in many states.
  • National Dashboard on Elimination of Single Use Plastic and Plastic Waste Management: India launched a nationwide awareness campaign on Single Use Plastics on World Environment Day in June 2022. A mobile app for Single Use Plastics Grievance Redressal was also launched to empower citizens to check sale/usage/manufacturing of SUP in their area and tackle the plastic menace.

State’s initiatives:

  • States across the Indian Himalayan Region have also been taking various initiatives including enacting laws to curb this menace.
  • Himachal Pradesh has a buy back policy for non-recyclable and single-use plastic waste since 2019, but there is still widespread littering of plastic waste.
  • Sikkim banned packaged mineral water use from January 2022 and has a fairly robust regulatory system, but in the absence of proper infrastructure to handle plastic waste, the State is still grappling with the issue.
  • Mizoram has been proactive on the regulatory front the Aizawl Municipal Corporation made by-laws under the PWM in 2019.
  • Tripura has made policy changes, enacted municipal by-laws and has a State-level task force to eliminate Single Use Plastic though the results are not visible.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/waste/220-million-tonnes-of-plastic-waste-will-be-created-in-2024-ea-earth-action-95521




CDP-SURAKSHA: REVOLUTIONIZING SUBSIDY DISBURSEMENT FOR HORTICULTURE FARMERS

TAG: GS 3: AGRICULTURE

THE CONTEXT: The Indian government has launched a groundbreaking digital platform called CDP-SURAKSHA to facilitate the disbursement of subsidies to horticulture farmers.

EXPLANATION:

  • This platform aims to streamline the subsidy distribution process and promote the growth of India’s horticulture sector, which significantly contributes to the agricultural gross value addition.

CDP-SURAKSHA, features and its workings:

  • The CDP-SURAKSHA is essentially a digital platform.
  • SURAKSHA stands for “System for Unified Resource Allocation, Knowledge, and Secure Horticulture Assistance.”
  • The platform will allow an instant disbursal of subsidies to farmers in their bank account by utilising the e-RUPI voucher (more on this later) from the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
  • The platform integrates various features essential for effective subsidy management, including database integration with PM-KISAN, cloud-based server space from NIC, UIDAI validation, eRUPI integration, local government directory (LGD), content management system, geotagging, and geo-fencing.
  • These components work synergistically to enhance accessibility and reliability for all stakeholders involved.

Operational Mechanism:

  • Farmers, vendors, implementing agencies (IA), and cluster development agencies (CDAs) have access to the CDP-SURAKSHA platform.
  • Farmers can place orders for planting materials through the platform and contribute their share of the cost.
  • Upon confirmation of the order, the government subsidy amount is automatically reflected, and an e-RUPI voucher is generated.

Role of e-RUPI:

  • The CDP-SURAKSHA platform uses e-RUPI vouchers from the NPCI.
  • The voucher is a one-time payment mechanism that can be redeemed without a card, digital payments app or internet banking access, at the merchants accepting e-RUPI.
  • According to the NPCI, the e-RUPI can be shared with the beneficiaries for a specific purpose or activity by organisations or government via SMS or QR code.

Comparison with Previous System:

  • In contrast to the traditional approach where farmers had to purchase planting materials and then seek subsidy reimbursement, CDP-SURAKSHA offers upfront subsidy disbursement at the time of material purchase.
  • Vendors receive payments only after farmers verify the delivery of their orders, promoting trust and efficiency in subsidy transactions.

Adoption and Onboarding:

  • While the platform is yet to be officially launched nationally, it has garnered significant traction, with approximately 8,400 farmers’ details uploaded so far.
  • Notable participants include Sahyadri Farms Private Ltd and Meghalaya Basin Management Agency (MBMA).
  • Additionally, four major banks—HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, State Bank of India (SBI), and Bank of Baroda—have been onboarded to facilitate e-RUPI voucher generation.

Cluster Development Program (CDP):

  • CDP, an integral part of the central sector scheme of the National Horticulture Board (NHB), aims to foster the holistic development of horticulture clusters across India.
  • Through the identification and promotion of specialized clusters, CDP facilitates market-led growth, infrastructure development, and private investment mobilization in the horticulture sector.
  • So far, 55 horticulture clusters have been identified, out of which 12 have been selected for the pilot.
  • These clusters are in different stages of development. Four more clusters — a floriculture cluster in West Bengal, coconut clusters in Kerala and Tamil Nadu, and white onion clusters in Gujarat — are also in the pipeline.
  • Each cluster will have an implementing agency and a cluster development agency (CDA).
  • According to the government, about 9 lakh hectares of area will be covered through all 55 clusters, covering 10 lakh farmers.
  • It is estimated that the initiative will attract private investment of Rs 8,250 crore, in addition to the government’s assistance, which is fixed according to the size of the cluster — up to Rs 25 crore for mini cluster (size up to 5,000 ha), up to Rs 50 crore for medium clusters (5,000 to 15,000), and up to Rs 100 crore for mega clusters (more than 15,000 ha).

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/cdp-suraksha-horticulture-9262824/




ISRO’S PIONEERING ACHIEVEMENT: ZERO ORBITAL DEBRIS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has achieved a remarkable milestone in space exploration by successfully conducting the PSLV-C58/XPoSat mission, leaving virtually no debris in Earth’s orbit. This achievement is significant amidst the growing concern over space debris resulting from increased satellite launches.

EXPLANATION:

  • ISRO’s innovative approach involved transforming the fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) into a unique orbital station named the PSLV Orbital Experimental Module-3 (POEM-3).
  • Instead of leaving the fourth stage to float in orbit after completing its mission, ISRO repurposed it into POEM-3, which served as an experimental platform.

POEM:

  • It has been developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) as an inexpensive space platform, POEM uses the spent fourth stage of a PSLV rocket as an orbital platform.
  • It was used for the first time in the PSLV-C53 mission in June 2022, ISRO had POEM orbit the earth as a stabilised platform to perform in-orbit scientific experiments with various payloads.

                 Image of PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM)

  • POEM is powered by solar panels mounted on the fuel tank of the rocket’s fourth stage and a lithium-ion (Li-ion) battery.
  • It has a dedicated navigation, guidance, and control (NGC) system to stabilise its altitude along with helium control thrusters.
  • The NGC system has four Sun sensors, a magnetometer, and gyroscopes, and talks to ISRO’s NavIC satellite constellation for navigation.
  • POEM also has a telecommand system to communicate with the ground station.
  • ISRO first demonstrated the reuse of the spent fourth stage of its rocket in its PSLV C-44 mission in 2019.
  • After satellites were injected in the target orbits, the fourth stage, carrying a student payload called Kalamsat-V2, was moved to a higher circular orbit of 443 km and stayed there, allowing the payload to make observations.

POEM-3’s Achievements:

  • During the PSLV C-58 mission, POEM-3 hosted nine payloads from various organizations, including VSSC, Bellatrix Aerospace Pvt Ltd, and several start-ups.
  • POEM-3 featured nine payloads: two each from VSSC and Bellatrix Aerospace Pvt Ltd, one each from the start-ups TakeMe2Space, Inspecity Space Labs Pvt Ltd., Dhruva Space, and from LBS Institute of Technology, KJ Somaiya Institute of Technology, and ISRO’s Physics Research Laboratory, Ahmedabad.
  • These payloads conducted a range of experiments while orbiting Earth, demonstrating the versatility and effectiveness of the platform.

Preparation for Re-entry:

  • After completing its experimental phase, POEM-3 underwent careful preparations for re-entry into Earth’s atmosphere.
  • ISRO tracked the module using its Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC) stations, ensuring a controlled descent to minimize any potential risks associated with debris.

Significance in Dealing with Space Debris Crisis:

  • The achievement of zero orbital debris by ISRO holds immense significance in addressing the global challenge of space debris.
  • With an increasing number of satellites in orbit, the risk of collisions and the proliferation of debris poses a threat to space assets and future space missions.
  • In 2022, four on-orbit break-up events occurred, contributing to most of the debris created that year:
    • March 2022: Intentional destruction of Russia’s Cosmos 1048 in an anti-satellite test adding 1408 fragments of debris
    • July 2022: Break-up of the upper stage of Japanese H-2A while deploying GOSAT-2 satellite adding 52 fragments of debris
    • November 2022: Accidental explosion of the upper stage of China’s Yunhai-3 adding 533 pieces of debris
    • November 2022: Break up of the Japanese H-2A upper stage for the deployment of GCOM satellite adding 30 pieces of debris
  • The rise in space debris has been exacerbated by events such as intentional destruction during anti-satellite tests and accidental break-ups of rocket stages.
  • These incidents contribute to the growing volume of debris in both low Earth orbit (LEO) and geosynchronous orbit (GEO), posing risks to operational satellites and spacecraft.
  • Space agencies worldwide are actively working on strategies to mitigate space debris.
  • Initiatives include adopting guidelines for space debris mitigation, developing technologies for debris removal, and conducting research on orbital tracking and collision avoidance.
  • Countries like China, Japan, and the United States have launched initiatives to address space debris.
  • These efforts range from deploying spacecraft for de-orbiting defunct satellites to developing advanced technologies for debris capture and removal.

ISRO’s Contribution to Space Debris Mitigation:

  • Apart from the POEM missions, ISRO has established a Space Situational Awareness Control Centre and is actively involved in research and development efforts to mitigate space debris.
  • Indian start-ups, such as Manastu Space, are also contributing to the development of technologies for satellite servicing and debris removal.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isros-zero-orbital-debris-milestone-the-space-debris-crisis-explained/article68019524.ece




ANTARCTIC ICE SHELF MELTING: UNVEILING THE ROLE OF OCEAN CURRENTS

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY

THE CONTEXT: A recent study published in Nature Communications sheds new light on the mechanisms driving the rapid melting of Antarctic ice shelves, particularly in the Amundsen Sea region of West Antarctica.

EXPLANATION:

  • It was led by an international team of researchers from the Korea Polar Research Institute, Hokkaido University, and Seoul National University delved into the complex interplay between ocean currents, ocean floor topography, and ice shelf stability.

Revisiting Prior Assumptions:

  • Contrary to previous assumptions that primarily linked ice shelf melting to wind patterns over the Southern Ocean, this study underscores the significant contribution of interactions between meandering ocean currents and the ocean floor.
  • While winds have traditionally been seen as the main driver of warm water transport towards the ice shelves, the research highlights the pivotal role played by ocean currents and their dynamics in this process.

Focus on Pine Island and Thwaites Ice Shelves:

  • The Pine Island and Thwaites ice shelves, known for their rapid changes and vulnerability to warming ocean waters, were at the forefront of the study.
  • These massive ice shelves serve as critical barriers, restraining the flow of glaciers into the ocean.
  • However, their rapid melting poses a grave threat to coastal communities worldwide due to the resultant rise in global sea levels.

The Role of Modified Circumpolar Deep Water (MCDW):

  • Central to the study is the concept of “modified Circumpolar Deep Water” (MCDW), a layer of warm water beneath the surface waters.
  • This warm water plays a crucial role in melting the ice shelves from below.
  • The research emphasizes how the intensity and trajectory of ocean currents surrounding the ice shelves govern the influx of warm water, directly influencing the rate of melting.

Thermocline Depth:

  • The researchers paid particular attention to the thermocline depth, which marks the interface between warmer deep waters and cooler surface waters.
  • Variations in thermocline depth significantly impact the flow of warm water towards the ice shelves, highlighting its importance in understanding the melting process.

Challenging Conventional Wisdom:

  • The study challenges the traditional belief that intensified westerly winds north of the Amundsen Sea primarily drive ocean currents along the shelf break, bringing warmer water towards ice shelf cavities.
  • Instead, it underscores the role of meandering ocean currents and their interaction with the ocean floor in generating upwelling velocity, which transports warm water to shallower depths and accelerates ice shelf melting.

Implications for Future Projections:

  • The findings of this study have profound implications for understanding and projecting future Antarctic ice loss.
  • By emphasizing the internal oceanic processes driving ice shelf melting, the research suggests a need to reassess the significance of wind patterns in Antarctic ice dynamics.
  • This nuanced understanding is crucial for accurate modeling and prediction of future sea level rise.

Thermocline:

  • A thermocline is the transition layer between warmer mixed water at the ocean’s surface and cooler deep water below.

  • Bodies of water are made up of layers, determined by temperature. The top surface layer is called the epipelagic zone, and is sometimes referred to as the “ocean skin” or “sunlight zone.”
  • This layer interacts with the wind and waves, which mixes the water and distributes the warmth.
  • At the base of this layer is the thermocline. A thermocline is the transition layer between the warmer mixed water at the surface and the cooler deep water below.
  • It is relatively easy to tell when you have reached the thermocline in a body of water because there is a sudden change in temperature.
  • In the thermocline, the temperature decreases rapidly from the mixed layer temperature to the much colder deep water temperature.

SOURCE: https://phys.org/news/2024-04-ocean-currents-threaten-collapse-antarctic.html




Day-624 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | POLITY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. Laws promoting the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) cannot be challenged in court simply because they restrict Fundamental Rights.
    2. When enacting laws based on the DPSP, the government cannot infringe upon the right to equality (Article 14) and freedom of expression (Article 19).

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is incorrect: In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Judicial Review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. Hence, laws which seek to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy can be questioned in courts on the ground that they violate the Fundamental rights.

    Statement 2 is correct: No law which seeks to implement the Socialist Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and 39(c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 and 19. (Not all Directive Principles).

    Incorrect

    Answer: B

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is incorrect: In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that Judicial Review is a basic feature of the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. Hence, laws which seek to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy can be questioned in courts on the ground that they violate the Fundamental rights.

    Statement 2 is correct: No law which seeks to implement the Socialist Directive Principles specified in Article 39(b) and 39(c) shall be void on the ground of contravention of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Article 14 and 19. (Not all Directive Principles).

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    Consider the following statements:

    1. National emergency grants the Parliament law making power over state subjects, overriding state legislatures.
    2. The President can suspend the enforcement of all fundamental rights during a national emergency.
    3. National emergency allows the Parliament to extend the term of the Lok Sabha, one year at a time, for an indefinite period.

    How many of the above given statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is correct: During National Emergency, the parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list. Although the legislative power of the state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the parliament.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution authorizes the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights during the national emergency.

    Statement 3 is correct: While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond its normal term of five years by law of the parliament for one year at a time, for any length of time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is correct: During National Emergency, the parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject mentioned in the state list. Although the legislative power of the state legislature is not suspended, it becomes subject to the overriding power of the parliament.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution authorizes the President to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights during the national emergency.

    Statement 3 is correct: While a proclamation of national emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond its normal term of five years by law of the parliament for one year at a time, for any length of time. However, this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    Consider the following statements about the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA):

    1. It is granted only to associations engaged in areas of cultural, economic, educational, religious, or social programs.
    2. An NGO is required to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds in any branch of the State Bank of India across the country.
    3. In case FCRA license is cancelled, an NGO is ineligible for ten years before re-applying for the license.

    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, established in 1976, aims to safeguard India’s sovereignty as a democratic republic. It achieves this by overseeing foreign donations received by both individuals and organizations. This ensures that such funds are used for legitimate purposes that align with the country’s democratic values and prevents foreign influence from potentially disrupting domestic affairs.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The FCRA regulates foreign contributions in these defined areas to ensure transparency and compliance with the law. Entities can register under multiple categories based on their programs, allowing for diverse activities. Applicants need to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds at a specified branch of State Bank of India in New Delhi.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: FCRA registration is valid for five years, and NGOs are required to apply for renewal within six months of the registration’s expiry. The government has the authority to cancel an NGO’s FCRA registration for various reasons, including violations of the Act or a lack of reasonable activity in their chosen field for two consecutive years. Once canceled, an NGO is ineligible for re-registration for three years.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, established in 1976, aims to safeguard India’s sovereignty as a democratic republic. It achieves this by overseeing foreign donations received by both individuals and organizations. This ensures that such funds are used for legitimate purposes that align with the country’s democratic values and prevents foreign influence from potentially disrupting domestic affairs.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The FCRA regulates foreign contributions in these defined areas to ensure transparency and compliance with the law. Entities can register under multiple categories based on their programs, allowing for diverse activities. Applicants need to open a bank account for the receipt of the foreign funds at a specified branch of State Bank of India in New Delhi.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: FCRA registration is valid for five years, and NGOs are required to apply for renewal within six months of the registration’s expiry. The government has the authority to cancel an NGO’s FCRA registration for various reasons, including violations of the Act or a lack of reasonable activity in their chosen field for two consecutive years. Once canceled, an NGO is ineligible for re-registration for three years.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    Consider the following statements about the judges of the Supreme Court:

    1. After ceasing to hold office, he/she cannot appear as a lawyer before any court or authority in India.
    2. There is no cooling-off period for judges after their retirement before they could join political parties or contest elections.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is correct: A retired Supreme Court judge cannot practice law in regular courts or before authorities in India. This is to uphold the dignity of the judge’s position and avoid any conflict of interest.

    Statement 2 is correct: There’s no legal bar on retired judges joining politics or contesting elections. However, some argue there should be an unofficial cooling-off period to avoid using the judge’s position for political gain.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C

    Explanation:

    Statement 1 is correct: A retired Supreme Court judge cannot practice law in regular courts or before authorities in India. This is to uphold the dignity of the judge’s position and avoid any conflict of interest.

    Statement 2 is correct: There’s no legal bar on retired judges joining politics or contesting elections. However, some argue there should be an unofficial cooling-off period to avoid using the judge’s position for political gain.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    Consider the following:

    Statement-I: Members of Parliament (MPs) can claim immunity from prosecution for bribes to cast a vote or make a speech in the House in a particular fashion.

    Statement-II: Article 105(2) of the Indian Constitution confers on MPs immunity from prosecution in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament or on any parliamentary committee.

    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: D

    Explanation:

    Article 105(2) of the Indian Constitution confers on MPs immunity from prosecution in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament or on any parliamentary committee. Similarly, Article 194(2) grants protection to MLAs.

    In a judgment delivered in March 2024 (Sita Soren V. Union of India), the seven judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) cannot claim any immunity from prosecution for accepting bribes to cast a vote or make a speech in the House in a particular fashion. The Bench overruled the 3:2 Constitution Bench decision held in P.V Narasimha Rao v State (1998).

    Incorrect

    Answer: D

    Explanation:

    Article 105(2) of the Indian Constitution confers on MPs immunity from prosecution in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament or on any parliamentary committee. Similarly, Article 194(2) grants protection to MLAs.

    In a judgment delivered in March 2024 (Sita Soren V. Union of India), the seven judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) cannot claim any immunity from prosecution for accepting bribes to cast a vote or make a speech in the House in a particular fashion. The Bench overruled the 3:2 Constitution Bench decision held in P.V Narasimha Rao v State (1998).

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PROTECTING CANDIDATES’ RIGHT TO PRIVACY: SUPREME COURT’S VERDICT

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The recent judgment by the Supreme Court emphasizes the right to privacy for election candidates, stating that they are not obligated to disclose every detail of their personal life and possessions to voters.

EXPLANATION:

  • This landmark ruling provides clarity on the scope of disclosure requirements under the Representation of People Act, 1951, and underscores the importance of balancing transparency with individual privacy rights.

Background

  • The case stemmed from a petition filed by Arunachal Pradesh MLA, challenging the voiding of his election to the 44-Tezu Assembly Constituency for allegedly failing to declare three vehicles as assets in his affidavit.
  • The High Court had ruled against the MLA, leading to an appeal before the Supreme Court.

Key Points of the Judgment

  • Right to Privacy:
    • The Supreme Court affirmed that candidates have a right to privacy from voters and are not required to disclose personal details that are irrelevant to their candidature or of no concern to the electorate.
    • This includes possessions such as clothing, shoes, and furniture, unless they significantly impact the candidate’s lifestyle or reflect upon their candidature.
  • Interpretation of the Law:
    • The judgment clarified that non-disclosure of certain assets does not amount to a “corrupt practice” under Section 123 of the Representation of People Act, 1951, or a defect of a substantial nature under Section 36(4) of the same Act.
    • Each case must be evaluated based on its unique circumstances to determine the significance of the non-disclosed assets.
  • Asset Disclosure Requirement:
    • While candidates are expected to disclose assets of substantial value, such as expensive watches, the non-disclosure of low-value items or assets that have been sold in the past may not constitute a defect.
    • The Court emphasized the need for a nuanced approach in assessing the relevance of asset disclosure to the electoral process.
  • Case-Specific Ruling:
    • In the case of the MLA, the Supreme Court ruled in his favor, stating that the non-disclosure of three vehicles did not amount to an attempt to unduly influence voters or engage in corrupt practices.
    • The value of the vehicles was deemed insignificant compared to the A.P. MLA’s overall declared assets and income.

Implications and Significance

  • Protection of Privacy:
    • The judgment upholds candidates’ right to privacy and prevents unnecessary intrusion into their personal lives by voters or electoral authorities.
  • Clarity on Disclosure Requirements:
    • By providing clarity on what constitutes a substantial defect in asset disclosure, the ruling ensures that candidates are not unfairly penalized for minor omissions or irrelevant details.
  • Enhancing Voter Information:
    • While affirming the importance of transparency in the electoral process, the judgment acknowledges that voters have a right to essential information to make informed decisions, striking a balance between transparency and privacy.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/candidate-has-a-right-to-privacy-need-not-disclose-every-belonging-unless-substantial-sc/article68046109.ece/amp/




PETER HIGGS: PIONEER OF THE ‘GOD PARTICLE’ AND NOBEL LAUREATE

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The passing of Peter Higgs, the renowned physicist known for proposing the existence of the “God particle,” marks the end of an era in the world of science.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Higgs boson, often referred to as the “God particle,” is a fundamental particle in particle physics that is associated with the Higgs field.
  • Higgs’ groundbreaking work revolutionized our understanding of the universe and earned him the prestigious Nobel Prize in Physics.

Contributions to Physics

  • Peter Higgs made significant contributions to particle physics with his theory on the existence of a new particle, later named the Higgs boson.
  • In 1964, he proposed the idea of a subatomic particle that would explain how other particles acquire mass, thereby completing the equations of the standard model of particle physics.
  • Higgs’ theoretical framework addressed a fundamental puzzle in physics: how matter formed after the Big Bang.
  • His work provided insight into the mechanism by which particles gain mass, allowing for the formation of stars, planets, and ultimately, life as we know it.
  • Despite proposing the existence of the Higgs boson in 1964, it took nearly 50 years to confirm its existence experimentally.
  • In 2012, scientists at CERN announced the discovery of the Higgs boson using the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), a monumental achievement that validated Higgs’ theory and reshaped our understanding of particle physics.
  • Peter Higgs’ contributions to science were recognized with the awarding of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2013, shared with Francois Englert, who independently proposed a similar theory.
  • His legacy extends beyond accolades, inspiring generations of scientists and enriching our knowledge of the universe.
  • The confirmation of the Higgs boson in 2012 was a deeply emotional moment for Peter Higgs, reflecting the culmination of decades of research and speculation.
  • His humility and modesty endeared him to colleagues and admirers alike, despite the global recognition his work received.
  • Higgs was known to reject the popular term “God particle” for his discovery, preferring a more scientific and nuanced understanding of his contribution to particle physics.
  • His aversion to sensationalism and dedication to scientific rigor underscored his commitment to the pursuit of knowledge.

SOURCE: https://www.voanews.com/a/peter-higgs-physicist-who-proposed-the-existence-of-the-god-particle-dies-at-94/7563910.html




GOVERNMENT’s INITIATIVE FOR GREEN HYDROGEN IN THE TRANSPORT SECTOR

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The Indian government’s release of guidelines for pilot projects utilizing green hydrogen in the transport sector marks a significant milestone in the nation’s pursuit of sustainable energy solutions.

EXPLANATION:

  • This initiative, under the National Green Hydrogen Mission, underscores a commitment to reducing carbon emissions and fostering innovation in the transportation industry.
  • The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) has issued guidelines for conducting pilot projects aimed at utilizing green hydrogen in transportation.
  • These projects, supported by a total budgetary outlay of INR 496 crores until the financial year 2025-26, seek to establish a robust green hydrogen ecosystem in the transport sector.

Objectives of the Initiative

  • Exploring Sustainable Alternatives:
    • The initiative aims to explore cleaner alternatives to fossil fuels by promoting the use of green hydrogen in vehicles.
  • Carbon Emission Reduction:
    • By replacing conventional fuels with green hydrogen and its derivatives, the initiative seeks to reduce carbon emissions in the transport sector, contributing to India’s climate goals.
  • Technology Development:
    • The pilot projects will focus on developing technologies for utilizing green hydrogen as a fuel in buses, trucks, and 4-wheelers, employing both fuel cell-based and internal combustion engine-based propulsion technologies.
  • Infrastructure Development:
    • Emphasis will be placed on infrastructure development, including the establishment of hydrogen refueling stations, to support the widespread adoption of green hydrogen-powered vehicles.
  • Innovation Support:
    • The initiative will support innovative approaches to reducing carbon emissions, such as blending methanol/ethanol based on green hydrogen and other synthetic fuels derived from it in automobile fuels.

Implementation Framework

  • Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission, the MNRE will oversee the implementation of pilot projects in collaboration with the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and Scheme Implementing Agencies (SIAs) nominated for this purpose.
  • These projects will serve as a testing ground for green hydrogen technologies and pave the way for their commercial deployment.

Financial Outlay and Long-term Vision

  • With a significant budgetary allocation of INR 496 crores until FY 2025-26, the initiative aims to catalyze the establishment of a sustainable green hydrogen ecosystem in the transport sector.
  • Furthermore, the National Green Hydrogen Mission, launched with an outlay of INR 19,744 crores up to FY 2029-30, reflects India’s long-term commitment to achieving self-reliance through clean energy.

Anticipated Impact and Future Prospects

  • As the production cost of green hydrogen continues to decline, its utilization in transportation is expected to witness a significant surge.
  • This initiative is poised to drive innovation, create employment opportunities, and contribute to India’s transition towards a greener and more sustainable future.

National Green Hydrogen Mission:

  • It is a program to incentivise the commercial production of green hydrogen and make India a net exporter of the fuel.
  • The Mission will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen.
  • Its sub schemes are:
    • Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT): It will fund the domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and produce green hydrogen.
    • Green Hydrogen Hubs: States and regions capable of supporting large scale production and/or utilization of hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
  • Its comes under the Nodal Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
  • It aims at developing green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum, alongside adding renewable energy capacity of about 125 GW (gigawatt) in India by 2030.
  • It aims to entail over Rs 8 lakh crore of total investments and is expected to generate six lakh jobs.
  • It will also lead to a cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports by over Rs 1 lakh crore and an abatement of nearly 50 MT of annual greenhouse gas emissions.

SOURCE: https://www.energetica-india.net/news/government-releases-guidelines-for-pilot-projects-utilizing-green-hydrogen-in-transport-sector




IMPACT OF EL NIÑO ON WEST ANTARCTIC ICE SHELVES

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY

THE CONTEXT: Heat from El Niño can warm oceans off West Antarctica – and melt floating ice shelves from below.

EXPLANATION:

  • Recent studies using satellite data have revealed that West Antarctic ice shelves experience a paradoxical phenomenon during El Niño events.
  • While they gain height due to increased snowfall at the surface, they also lose mass as warm water melts the ice from below.
  • This underscores the complex interplay between atmospheric and oceanic processes in shaping Antarctic climate dynamics.
  • The dynamics of climate change are complex and multifaceted, with natural climate drivers like the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) playing a significant role in influencing regional weather patterns and global climate trends.
  • In the context of Antarctica, the effects of El Niño on West Antarctic ice shelves have garnered attention due to their implications for sea level rise and the stability of the Antarctic ice sheet.
  • West Antarctic ice shelves, floating extensions of the continent-sized glacier, are crucial components of the Antarctic ice sheet.
  • These ice shelves play a critical role in regulating sea level by stabilizing the flow of ice from the continent into the ocean.
  • However, they are vulnerable to melting from below when ocean temperatures rise, contributing to global sea level rise.

During El Niño, weaker winds along the coasts push less cold Antarctic surface waters towards the continent, allowing warmer Circumpolar Deep Water to flow to the base of the ice shelves. During La Niña, stronger winds drive a wedge of cold water up towards the continent, reducing the inflow of warm water.

Impact of El Niño on Antarctic Climate

  • El Niño and its counterpart La Niña are phases of the ENSO cycle that influence weather patterns and ocean temperatures across the Pacific region and beyond.
  • While Australians are familiar with the local effects of El Niño and La Niña, these climate drivers also have far-reaching impacts, including on Antarctica.

Mechanism of Influence

  • During El Niño, convective thunderstorms in the Pacific Ocean generate atmospheric waves that propagate eastward and eventually reach Antarctica.
  • These waves weaken the easterly winds off West Antarctica, allowing warm water from deeper ocean layers to flow onto the continental shelf and beneath the ice shelves.
  • This influx of relatively warm water leads to increased melting of the ice shelves from below.

Challenges in Understanding

  • Despite advancements in satellite observations and modeling techniques, several key questions remain unanswered.
  • The precise mechanisms by which warm water reaches the base of ice shelves during El Niño events and the corresponding effects during La Niña phases are still being investigated.
  • Additionally, the interaction of ENSO with other climate drivers further complicates the analysis of Antarctic climate variability.

Modeling Approaches

  • To better understand the influence of El Niño on West Antarctic ice shelves, researchers employ high-resolution global ocean circulation models that incorporate ENSO anomalies.
  • By simulating the effects of El Niño and La Niña on ocean currents and temperatures around Antarctica, scientists can elucidate the underlying mechanisms driving ice shelf melting.

During El Niño, high pressure anomalies in the Amundsen Sea (positive sea level pressure, SLP) weaken coastal easterly winds off West Antarctica, while La Niña brings the reverse.

Implications for the Future

  • As climate projections indicate a trend towards more frequent and intense El Niño events, the warming of West Antarctic waters is expected to intensify.
  • This heightened melting of ice shelves not only accelerates sea level rise but also raises concerns about the stability of the Antarctic ice sheet.
  • Continued research is essential for accurately predicting and mitigating the consequences of these changes.

EL-NINO:

  • El Niño is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific, as opposed to La Niña, which is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperatures in the Equatorial Pacific.
  • El Niño is an oscillation of the ocean-atmosphere system in the tropical Pacific having important consequences for weather around the globe.
  • Among these consequences are increased rainfall across the southern tier of the US and in Peru, which has caused destructive flooding, and drought in the West Pacific, sometimes associated with devastating brush fires in Australia.
  • Observations of conditions in the tropical Pacific are considered essential for the prediction of short term (a few months to 1 year) climate variations.

SOURCE: https://theconversation.com/heat-from-el-nino-can-warm-oceans-off-west-antarctica-and-melt-floating-ice-shelves-from-below-226233




CARBON COLONIALISM IN AFRICA

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: ‘Carbon colonialism’ in Africa meets resistance as companies seek to sell carbon credits from conservation projects that often upend local livelihoods—or worse.

EXPLANATION:

  • In Africa, particularly in countries like Liberia, Kenya, Tanzania, and Zambia, companies such as Blue Carbon have struck deals with governments to purchase land for conservation purposes.
  • These agreements aim to preserve forests, which are crucial for mitigating climate change.
  • However, they often lack transparency and fail to involve local communities in decision-making processes, leading to widespread resistance and allegations of human rights abuses.

Carbon colonialism:

  • The term “carbon colonialism” refers to the exploitation of carbon offsetting mechanisms in ways that disproportionately affect Indigenous and local communities in Africa.
  • It often leads to the upending of livelihoods and exacerbating social and environmental injustices.
  • This phenomenon has gained attention in recent years as companies seek to profit from conservation projects by selling carbon credits while disregarding the rights and well-being of affected communities.

Case Studies and Impacts

  • Liberia:
    • Indigenous communities like Neezuin in Liberia are facing threats to their land as the government enters agreements with companies like Blue Carbon without consulting them.
    • The lack of legal frameworks regarding carbon credits further exacerbates their vulnerability, leaving them without adequate protections.
  • Kenya:
    • Similar issues arise in Kenya, where Indigenous populations have been evicted to make way for carbon credit projects, leading to conflicts and compromising their livelihoods and food security.
    • The lack of consent and transparency in these projects has drawn criticism from rights groups.
  • Zimbabwe:
    • Blue Carbon’s presence in Zimbabwe also raises concerns, as the company plans to develop projects covering a significant portion of the country’s land.
    • The opacity surrounding these agreements adds to the uncertainty about their potential impacts on local communities.

Carbon offsetting:

  • Carbon offsets work like a game of Monopoly, except instead of money, companies deal in carbon emissions. A company gets “carbon credits” for investment in offset projects, tokens which represent an amount of carbon dioxide which would have been funnelled out of the atmosphere due to these initiatives.
  • Each credit is equal to a metric ton of CO2, which would have caused global warming. These credits allow companies to continue emitting carbon in one place (say, aeroplane travel), with the promise their offsets are reducing emissions elsewhere (in distant rainforests).
  • The voluntary carbon-offset market is expected to grow from $2 billion in 2020 to around $250 billion by 2050,
  • The United Nations in 2008 formalised this idea by setting up the Reducing Emissions From Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+), believing that the incentives from offsetting will help nations achieve climate goals.
  • There are also blind spots built into the offset system. The voluntary carbon offset market is self-regulated: there are middlemen in the form of organisations like REDD+ that connect credit buyers and sellers. There are “certification” standards set by companies like Verra which allow companies to create and register their carbon-offsetting projects (the Gold Standard is considered among the most rigorous credit programs).
  • Offset programs work only when they remove or reduce carbon emissions that wouldn’t have been eliminated otherwise, what is called “additionality”. Proving additionality is a structural challenge, for it is hard to track the genuine progress of activities on the ground.

Critiques of Carbon Offsetting

  • Effectiveness:
    • The effectiveness of carbon offsetting itself is debated, with concerns about the concept of “additionality.”
    • Projects may claim to reduce carbon emissions, but in many cases, these reductions may have occurred naturally or through existing conservation efforts, rendering the credits generated questionable.
  • Environmental Impact:
    • There are doubts about the long-term environmental impact of carbon offset projects, as forests may release stored carbon back into the atmosphere over time due to natural processes or human activities like logging.
  • Social Consequences:
    • The pursuit of carbon offsetting projects may inadvertently contribute to further deforestation and displacement, as affected communities seek alternative means of livelihood, perpetuating a cycle of environmental degradation and social injustice.

Challenges and Responses

  • Legal Frameworks:
    • The absence of clear legal frameworks governing carbon credits in many African countries leaves Indigenous and local communities vulnerable to exploitation.
    • Governments must prioritize the development of regulations that protect the rights and interests of these communities.
  • Transparency and Consent:
    • Companies like Blue Carbon must engage in transparent and inclusive processes that involve meaningful consultation with affected communities before undertaking conservation projects.
    • Prior, informed consent should be a fundamental principle guiding these initiatives.
  • International Oversight:
    • International organizations like the United Nations have a role to play in ensuring that carbon offsetting initiatives adhere to principles of equity, justice, and sustainability.
    • Efforts to establish global standards for carbon markets should prioritize the interests of marginalized communities.

SOURCE: https://fortune.com/2024/04/07/environment-carbon-colonialism-africa/




A BATTLE TO SAVE LADAKH AND ALL OF HUMANITY

THE CONTEXT:  Sonam Wangchuk, a renowned climate activist and Ramon Magsaysay Award winner, launched a 21-day climate fast on March 6, 2024, in Ladakh to demand constitutional safeguards and protection for the region’s fragile ecosystem from the rapid infrastructure development taking place there. The Himalayan region often called the Third Pole, is home to around 15,000 glaciers that play a crucial role in the hydrological process but are at risk due to global warming and climate change.

ISSUES:

  • Climate Change and Environmental Impact: Climate change has damaging effects on the Himalayan region, including floods, drought, landslides, and releasing greenhouse gases and pollutants. The melting of Himalayan glaciers, which are crucial for the hydrological process of major rivers, poses a significant risk due to global warming.
  • Indigenous Livelihoods: Most Ladakh comprises indigenous tribes that lead pastoral lives and depend on farming and animal rearing. Environmental changes and infrastructure developments threaten their traditional ways of living and livelihoods.
  • Rapid Infrastructure Development: Following Ladakh’s designation as a Union Territory, there has been a surge in infrastructure projects, such as bridges, roads, tunnels, and solar energy projects. Despite the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) being launched under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) to assess the Himalayas’ vulnerability, numerous mega infrastructure projects have been rapidly undertaken in Ladakh without proper risk assessment and safety measures, threatening the region’s delicate ecosystem.
  • Governmental Oversight: Why are government bodies rapidly sanctioning and executing projects without heeding past disaster warnings and learning from them. It suggests a lack of due diligence in risk assessment and safety measures for these projects.
  • Past Disasters as Warnings: Several past disasters in the Himalayan region, such as the Kedarnath flash floods and the Joshimath and Silkyara tunnel incidents, resulted in loss of life and livelihoods. These events serve as warnings about the potential consequences of unchecked development.
  • Ignoring Expert Advice: Expert committees have made recommendations, such as limiting the number of pilgrims to Himalayan shrines and avoiding hydroelectric projects in sensitive zones, which have been largely ignored, leading to increased vulnerability to disasters.
  • Human Cost of Development: The human cost of environmental destruction is often borne by the most vulnerable, including poor migrant workers and residents. At the same time, those sanctioning and executing the projects are not held accountable.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strengthening Environmental Governance: Enforce stringent environmental regulations for infrastructure projects, including mandatory ecological impact assessments (EIAs) that consider the cumulative impact of projects on the ecosystem. Establish independent monitoring bodies to ensure compliance with environmental regulations and the implementation of mitigation measures.
  • Promoting Sustainable Development: Prioritize using green technologies and materials in construction to minimize ecological footprints. Infrastructure designs should incorporate disaster resilience and environmental sensitivity. Based on carrying capacity studies, large-scale infrastructure projects in ecologically sensitive and disaster-prone areas, particularly in the para-glacial zones, are restricted.
  • Climate Change Mitigation and Adaptation: Enhance the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) by integrating local climate action plans that address the region’s specific vulnerabilities. Encourage using solar, wind, and small hydroelectric power sources within the area to reduce dependence on large hydroelectric projects that pose ecological risks.
  • Community Engagement and Empowerment: To safeguard their rights and livelihoods and ensure the participation of indigenous tribes and local communities in the planning and implementation of development projects. Invest in education and training programs for local communities to engage in sustainable agriculture, eco-tourism, and conservation efforts.
  • Research and Knowledge Sharing: Foster research on Himalayan ecology, climate change impacts, and sustainable development solutions. This includes supporting institutions like the International Center for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD). Encourage data sharing and joint initiatives among Himalayan countries to address transboundary environmental and climate challenges.
  • Disaster Risk Reduction: Develop and deploy advanced early warning systems for floods, landslides, and other climate-induced disasters to minimize human and material losses. Build local capacities for disaster response and recovery, including training community-based disaster response teams.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Himalayan region’s unique ecological and cultural landscape requires a balanced approach that harmonizes development needs with environmental conservation. By implementing the above recommendations, it is possible to safeguard the Himalayas for future generations while ensuring the well-being and prosperity of its current inhabitants. This comprehensive solution framework calls for the collective action of governments, international bodies, civil society, and local communities to address the multifaceted challenges facing the Himalayan region.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1 Dam failures are always catastrophic, especially downstream, resulting in a colossal loss of life and property. Analyze the various causes of dam failures. Give two examples of large dam failures. 2023

Q.2 Concerning National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) guidelines, discuss the measures to be adopted to mitigate the impact of the recent incidents of cloudbursts in many places of Uttarakhand. 2016

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Critically evaluate the role of government agencies and policies, such as the National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE), in addressing the challenges of climate change and sustainable development in the Himalayas.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-battle-to-save-ladakh-and-all-of-humanity/article68054632.ece




WHY ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS ARE KEY TO INDO-PACIFIC SECURITY.

THE CONTEXT: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, historically significant due to their use as a penal colony by the British following the 1857 War of Independence, have evolved into a strategic asset for India. Their geographical location and the historical context of near loss to foreign powers underscore their importance. The liberation of these islands during World War II by the INA and subsequent developments highlights their strategic significance.

ISSUES:

  • Historical Context and Strategic Neglect: Initially, after the 1857 War of Independence, the British established a penal colony in the A&N islands, which later became known as Kalapani. Post-independence, the islands suffered from benign neglect by New Delhi until a Chinese submarine was reportedly sighted in 1962, prompting the establishment of a naval garrison.
  • Japanese Occupation and INA’s Role: During World War II, the islands were occupied by the Japanese and were symbolically liberated by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose and the Indian National Army (INA) in 1943. However, the British reoccupied the islands after the Japanese surrender in 1945.
  • Post-Independence Security Concerns: Post-independence, there were moments when the sovereignty over the islands was questioned or threatened, notably during the 1965 India-Pakistan hostilities and the post-Kargil War period. These instances underscored the islands’ strategic vulnerability.
  • Establishment of Andaman Nicobar Command (ANC): In response to security reviews and the strategic importance of the islands, the ANC was established in 2001 as India’s first joint/unified operational comman Despite its success, the model has not been widely replicated in the Indian military.
  • Geographical Significance and Threats: The unique geography of the A&N islands, located near critical maritime routes and neighboring countries, presents both strategic opportunities and vulnerabilities. The possibility of surreptitious occupation by neighboring states and the frequent transits of Chinese naval vessels highlight the need for robust security measures.
  • Security Infrastructure and Maritime Domain Awareness: The ANC must maintain comprehensive maritime domain awareness and be equipped with adequate defensive and offensive capabilities to deter intrusions and manage threats, including from state and non-state actors.
  • Strategic Importance in the Indo-Pacific Region: The A&N islands are crucial for monitoring and controlling the flow of maritime traffic through the Strait of Malacca, a critical choke point for global trade and oil shipments. This strategic position offers India the potential to project power and foster cooperation with like-minded partners in the Indo-Pacific region.
  • Future Strategy and Regional Cooperation: The reported security infrastructure upgrades are part of a broader strategy to transform the A&N islands into a maritime bastion. This strategy aims not only to enhance India’s defensive capabilities but also to enable it to play a more significant role in regional maritime cooperation, including disaster relief, anti-piracy efforts, and ensuring peace and tranquility in the Indo-Pacific.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strengthening the Andaman Nicobar Command (ANC): The ANC should be further strengthened with advanced defensive and offensive capabilities, including anti-submarine warfare assets to counter the presence of Chinese naval forces. This includes deploying additional surface ships, submarines, and maritime patrol aircraft with modern sensors and weapons. Rapid-reaction forces should be enhanced with amphibious and airlift capabilities to ensure swift deployment and mobility across the archipelago.
  • Networked Maritime Domain Awareness: Implement a comprehensive maritime domain awareness system by integrating radars, satellites, unmanned vehicles, and aircraft to monitor and secure the vast maritime zone around the A&N Islands.
  • Diplomatic Engagement and Regional Cooperation: India should actively engage with like-minded countries to foster cooperation and ensure maritime security in the Indo-Pacific. This includes conducting joint naval exercises, sharing intelligence, and collaborating on marine surveillance.
  • Port Blair as a Regional Hub: Transform Port Blair into a regional hub for navies, focusing on interoperability in disaster relief, medical aid, anti-piracy operations, and search and rescue missions. This initiative would not only enhance regional maritime security but also build goodwill among neighboring countries.
  • Strategic Infrastructure Upgradation: Accelerate the development of strategic infrastructure on the A&N Islands, including upgrading naval bases, airfields, and surveillance facilities. This would enhance India’s ability to project power and monitor strategic sea lanes.
  • Addressing the “Malacca Dilemma”: The Great Nicobar Island’s strategic location should be utilized to monitor and, if necessary, control the western entrance/exit of the Malacca Strait. This positioning should be leveraged to ensure the security of one of the world’s busiest sea lanes, addressing concerns about the “Malacca Dilemma.

THE CONCLUSION:

Recent efforts to upgrade security infrastructure in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are crucial for enhancing India’s strategic posture in the Indo-Pacific region. These islands not only serve as a vital point for monitoring key maritime routes but also offer opportunities for India to project power and foster regional cooperation. The focus on these islands aligns with broader strategic objectives to ensure peace and stability in the region.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives taken to improve maritime security. 2022

Q.2 In 2012, the longitudinal marking of the high-risk areas for piracy was moved from 65° East to 78° east in the Arabian Sea by the International Maritime Organisation. What impact does this have on India’s maritime security concerns? 2014

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Examine the strategic significance of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the context of India’s maritime security and the challenges in maintaining sovereignty over these islands.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/andaman-nicobar-islands-indo-pacific-security-9264661/




THE RISE OF THE INDIAN MIDDLE CLASS

THE CONTEXT: India is the world’s fastest-growing large economy, with a rapidly expanding middle class driving economic and political change. India’s middle-class growth has outpaced the global average and has unique characteristics like being the youngest, driving domestic consumption, and benefiting from a service-driven growth model. The rise of India’s middle class is more inclusive, with growth occurring in both urban and rural areas, leading to reduced spatial inequalities.

ISSUES:

  • The rapid growth and expansion of India’s middle class: The Indian middle class is the fastest-growing significant segment of the population, growing at 6.3% annually between 1995 and 2021. The middle class is expected to grow from 31% of the population in 2020-21 to 61% by 2046-47, reaching over 1 billion people. This growth is driving economic and political change in India.
  • Unique features of the Indian middle class: It is the youngest globally, which translates to greater economic and political dynamism. It is a driving force behind the rising domestic market, with increased purchases of homes, cars, appliances, and digital goods.
  • Differences in the growth drivers of the middle class in India vs. China: Unlike China’s focus on manufacturing exports, India’s middle-class growth is driven by a service revolution, particularly in IT and business process outsourcing. Technological advancements have propelled India’s middle class into the global technology landscape.
  • Inclusive and spatially dispersed growth of the Indian middle class: The middle class has grown in urban and rural areas, improving resource allocation and reducing regional disparities. It has expanded rapidly in India’s lagging regions like Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
  • Concerns about the “middle-income trap”: There are fears that India’s growth may face a middle-income trap, as experienced by other developing countries. To avoid this, India needs to focus on structural reforms, improving productivity, and adopting an innovation-driven growth strategy focusing on education.
  • The potential political and social impact of the rising middle class: The middle class is expected to bolster political influence and reduce social conflicts, making India more liberal and egalitarian. The middle class is becoming more conscious of quality of life and environmental issues, which could shape political discourse.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Education and Skill Development: To avoid the middle-income trap, India must prioritize education. This includes improving the quality of public education, increasing access to higher education, and promoting vocational training to match the skill demands of the economy. Encourage private sector participation in education through public-private partnerships, which can bring additional resources and expertise. Implement nationwide skill development programs that are aligned with industry needs to ensure that the workforce is equipped for the jobs of the future.
  • Addressing the Middle-Income Trap: Diversify the economy to reduce reliance on a few sectors and to spread risk. Improve global competitiveness by upgrading infrastructure, reducing red tape, and fostering a conducive environment for business.
  • Political and Social Reforms: Encourage the middle class to participate in the political process and advocate for reforms that improve quality of life and address environmental concerns. Implement inclusive growth policies to reduce disparities between different segments of society.
  • Environmental Sustainability: Address environmental concerns by implementing stricter pollution controls, investing in renewable energy, and promoting sustainable practices. Increase public awareness about environmental issues and involve the middle class in policymaking through community engagement programs.
  • Innovation and Technology: Foster a culture of innovation by investing in research and development, offering startup tax incentives, and creating innovation hubs and incubators. Continue to invest in digital infrastructure to support the IT and business process outsourcing sectors, as well as to encourage the growth of new technology-driven industries. Strengthen intellectual property rights to protect innovators and attract foreign investment.

THE CONCLUSION:

The rise of India’s middle class is poised to bolster their political influence, reduce social and political divisions, and make India more liberal and egalitarian. However, India faces the risk of falling into a middle-income trap, which it can avoid by focusing on education, innovation, and productivity-enhancing structural reforms. The growing middle class, with its increasing emphasis on quality of life and environmental issues, has the potential to shape the political discourse and future direction of India’s development.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 Account for the failure of the manufacturing sector to achieve the goal of labor-intensive exports rather than capital-intensive exports. Suggest measures for more labor-intensive rather than capital-intensive exports. 2017

Q.2 Economic growth in the recent past has been led by increased labor productivity. Explain this statement. Suggest a growth pattern that will create more jobs without compromising labor productivity. 2022

Q.3 Most of the unemployment in India is structural. Examine the methodology adopted to compute unemployment in the country and suggest improvements. 2023

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 India’s structural transformation is taking place at a much faster pace than that of developed countries, enabled by the growth of the middle class.” Examine the factors contributing to this rapid structural transformation and its implications for inclusive development.

SOURCE:

https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/the-rise-of-the-indian-middle-class-2970296




A DISTINCT RIGHT: ON CLIMATE CHANGE AND SPECIES PROTECTION

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court of India has recognized the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change as a distinct fundamental right. This builds on the court’s previous recognition of the right to a clean environment as part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. The court has explained how climate change impacts various human rights, including the right to life, equality, and the rights of indigenous communities.

ISSUES:

  • Recognition of Environmental Rights as Fundamental Rights: The Supreme Court of India’s recognition of the right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change as a distinct fundamental right underlines the evolving understanding of environmental rights. This legal advancement builds upon the Court’s earlier recognition of the right to live in a clean environment as part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. It signifies a judicial acknowledgment of the severe impacts of climate change on human rights and the necessity of treating environmental protection and climate change mitigation as inseparable from the right to life and equality.
  • Impact of Climate Change on Vulnerable Communities: The Court’s reasoning highlights how climate change exacerbates inequalities, particularly affecting poorer and under-served communities. The adverse effects of climate change, such as food shortages, water scarcity, and the spread of diseases, disproportionately impact these communities, thereby violating their right to equality. This aspect underscores the need for climate action that is not only effective but also equitable, ensuring that the most vulnerable are protected.
  • Conflict Between Environmental Conservation and Renewable Energy Development: The case illustrates a specific conflict between the goals of protecting biodiversity and promoting renewable energy sources. The need to protect the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard from collisions with power transmission lines for solar energy projects in Rajasthan and Gujarat presents a dilemma. This situation highlights the challenges in balancing the imperatives of reducing carbon emissions and preserving biodiversity, especially when renewable energy infrastructure poses risks to wildlife.
  • Technical and Economic Challenges in Implementing Environmental Protections: The Union Ministries’ plea to modify the Court’s order due to the technical difficulties and high costs associated with converting overhead power lines to underground lines in certain areas points to the practical challenges in environmental conservation efforts. These challenges include the feasibility and economic implications of implementing measures that protect biodiversity while advancing renewable energy projects.
  • Need for Expert Input and Sustainable Solutions: The Court’s decision to involve an expert committee to determine the extent of underground and overground power lines reflects the recognition that resolving such complex issues requires specialized knowledge and a balanced approach. It underscores the importance of seeking sustainable solutions that harmonize environmental conservation with the development of renewable energy, ensuring that efforts to combat climate change do not come at the expense of biodiversity.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Protecting and Restoring High-Carbon Ecosystems: Conservation International’s focus on avoiding emissions by conserving high-carbon ecosystems like peatlands, mangroves, and old-growth forests is a critical strategy. This approach should be scaled globally, with countries incorporating the protection of these ecosystems into their national climate action commitments. Secure international funding and technical support for countries to map and protect their high-carbon ecosystems. Develop and enforce legal frameworks that prevent deforestation and degradation of these areas.
  • Enhancing Carbon Sinks through Reforestation and Agroforestry: The World Resources Institute highlights sustainable agroforestry as a method that integrates trees with crops and livestock, sequestering carbon while improving biodiversity and agricultural productivity. Through incentives, encourage farmers’ and landowners’ adoption of agroforestry practices. Support research and development in agroforestry techniques suited to different ecological zones and socio-economic contexts.
  • Equitable Emission Reductions and Support for Developing Countries: The Stern Review’s emphasis on the cost-effectiveness of mitigating climate change compared to the costs of inaction underscores the importance of equitable emission reduction efforts. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) under the Kyoto Protocol provides a model for supporting emission reductions in developing countries. Strengthen international mechanisms like the CDM to provide financial and technical support to developing countries. Adopt fair emission allocation principles, such as “equal per capita entitlements,” to ensure equitable contributions to global mitigation efforts.
  • Investing in Natural Climate Solutions and Ecosystem Restoration: Conservation International’s initiative to remove over one gigaton of CO2 through restoration and sustainable management of natural ecosystems by 2025 demonstrates the potential of natural climate solutions. Increase global investment in natural climate solutions, leveraging public-private partnerships. Develop international guidelines and standards for ecosystem restoration projects to ensure their effectiveness and sustainability.
  • Promoting Integrated Climate Mitigation and Adaptation Strategies: The World Resources Institute’s identification of strategies that achieve climate mitigation and adaptation simultaneously, such as protecting coastal wetlands and expanding sustainable urban public transportation, offers a holistic approach to climate action. Encourage the integration of mitigation and adaptation in national and local climate policies. Support cross-sectoral planning and investment in projects that reduce emissions and improve resilience to climate impacts.
  • Fostering Global Cooperation and Knowledge Sharing: Strengthen international climate agreements and forums for sharing best practices and innovations in climate action. Facilitate technology transfer and capacity building among countries to enable the adoption of effective mitigation and adaptation strategies.

THE CONCLUSION:

The court’s emphasis on climate change came in a case that pitted the concern over the deaths of the Great Indian Bustard due to solar power transmission lines against India’s international obligation to meet its emission reduction and increase its energy capacity through non-fossil fuel sources. The court has now asked an expert committee to decide on the extent of underground and overground lines, as the goal of reducing the country’s carbon footprint and the need to protect a critically endangered species are at odds with each other. The sooner a solution is found, the better.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 Do you think India will meet 50 percent of its energy needs from renewable energy by 2030? Justify your answer. How will shifting subsidies from fossil fuels to renewables help achieve the above objective? Explain 2022

Q.2 Vulnerability is an essential element for defining disaster impacts and its threat to people. How and in what ways can vulnerability to disasters be characterized? Discuss different types of vulnerability in catastrophes. 2019

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 The Supreme Court of India has advanced the case for a healthy environment and sustainable development by recognizing the right to be free of the adverse effects of climate change as a distinct fundamental right. Discuss the critical aspects of the Supreme Court’s ruling and its implications for India’s climate change policies and commitments.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/a-distinct-right-the-hindu-editorial-on-climate-change-and-species-protection/article68047064.ece