Day-616 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Thin coal seams endowed with low-sulphur coal makes rat-hole mining a viable option in the Northeastern India.
    2. Rat-hole mining in Meghalaya has enhanced the pH levels in the Kopili river.
    3. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) imposed a ban on rat-hole mining in 2014.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Rat-hole mining involves digging of very small tunnels, usually only 3-4 feet deep, in which workers, more often children, enter and extract coal. It is practiced in the Northeastern States of India because the coal seams are thin and the coal quality is bad: having high sulphur content. These factors make open mining an unfeasible option in such regions.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Since rat-hole mining is illegal, it is practiced behind closed doors. The water in the Kopili River (flows through Meghalaya and Assam) has turned acidic (i.e. the pH levels in the river have dropped). The entire roadsides in and around mining areas are for piling of coal. This is a major source of air, water and soil pollution.
    Statement 3 is correct: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has banned rat-hole mining in 2014, and retained the ban in 2015. The ban was on grounds of the practice being unscientific and unsafe for workers.

    Incorrect

    Answer. A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Rat-hole mining involves digging of very small tunnels, usually only 3-4 feet deep, in which workers, more often children, enter and extract coal. It is practiced in the Northeastern States of India because the coal seams are thin and the coal quality is bad: having high sulphur content. These factors make open mining an unfeasible option in such regions.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Since rat-hole mining is illegal, it is practiced behind closed doors. The water in the Kopili River (flows through Meghalaya and Assam) has turned acidic (i.e. the pH levels in the river have dropped). The entire roadsides in and around mining areas are for piling of coal. This is a major source of air, water and soil pollution.
    Statement 3 is correct: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has banned rat-hole mining in 2014, and retained the ban in 2015. The ban was on grounds of the practice being unscientific and unsafe for workers.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following pairs:
    Space Missions – Purpose
    1. Artemis – Creating a permanent base on Moon
    2. XRISM – Demonstration of precise lunar landing
    3. Euclid – Exploration of Dark Universe
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Pair 1 is correctly matched: Artemis programme is a series of missions planned by NASA with an aim to establish a permanent base on the Moon. The lunar base will eventually be utilised as a launching pad for various manned Mars missions in future.
    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is the SLIM mission, which is a small-scale exploration lander designed for pinpoint landings on the Moon’s surface. Both the missions (XRISM and SLIM) have been initiated by the Japanese Space Agency (JAXA). The X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM) is an X-ray space telescope mission to provide breakthroughs in the study of structure formation of the universe and outflows from galaxy nuclei.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Euclid mission is a space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe. It is a mission by the European Space Agency (ESA). Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Pair 1 is correctly matched: Artemis programme is a series of missions planned by NASA with an aim to establish a permanent base on the Moon. The lunar base will eventually be utilised as a launching pad for various manned Mars missions in future.
    Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is the SLIM mission, which is a small-scale exploration lander designed for pinpoint landings on the Moon’s surface. Both the missions (XRISM and SLIM) have been initiated by the Japanese Space Agency (JAXA). The X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM) is an X-ray space telescope mission to provide breakthroughs in the study of structure formation of the universe and outflows from galaxy nuclei.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched: Euclid mission is a space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe. It is a mission by the European Space Agency (ESA). Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to different types of vitamins, consider the following statements:
    1. Vitamin B plays a pivotal role in the synthesis of collagen, which is essential for maintaining healthy skin.
    2. Vitamin H, also known as biotin, is essential for hair growth.
    3. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Vitamin C which helps in the synthesis of collagen. Collagen is the primary building block of body’s skin, muscles, bones, tendons and ligaments, and other connective tissues. It’s also found in our organs, blood vessels and intestinal lining.
    Statement 2 is correct: Biotin is also known as Vitamin H. It is a water-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the growth of hair. Along with this it also helps in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and amino acids. It was initially called “H” from the German word “Haar und Haut,” meaning hair and skin.
    Statement 3 is correct: Basking in the sun isn’t just for relaxation; it triggers the skin to produce a vital vitamin known as Vitamin D. The sun’s energy turns a chemical in the skin into vitamin D3, which is carried to the liver and then to kidneys to transform it to active vitamin D.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Vitamin C which helps in the synthesis of collagen. Collagen is the primary building block of body’s skin, muscles, bones, tendons and ligaments, and other connective tissues. It’s also found in our organs, blood vessels and intestinal lining.
    Statement 2 is correct: Biotin is also known as Vitamin H. It is a water-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the growth of hair. Along with this it also helps in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and amino acids. It was initially called “H” from the German word “Haar und Haut,” meaning hair and skin.
    Statement 3 is correct: Basking in the sun isn’t just for relaxation; it triggers the skin to produce a vital vitamin known as Vitamin D. The sun’s energy turns a chemical in the skin into vitamin D3, which is carried to the liver and then to kidneys to transform it to active vitamin D.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    1. Cores are the hardware-based processing units within a Central Processing Unit (CPU).
    2. Threads are the software-based instructions that can be processed by a CPU.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is correct: A core is a physical component of the CPU that can execute instructions. Thus, it is a hardware-based processing unit within a CPU. A CPU performance will depend upon the number of cores on the machine and the speed at which the individual cores can execute instructions.
    Statement 2 is correct: Thread is a single sequential flow of control in a program that allows multiple activities within a single process. Thus, it is the software-based instruction. In other words, a single thread is like one command that runs at a time.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is correct: A core is a physical component of the CPU that can execute instructions. Thus, it is a hardware-based processing unit within a CPU. A CPU performance will depend upon the number of cores on the machine and the speed at which the individual cores can execute instructions.
    Statement 2 is correct: Thread is a single sequential flow of control in a program that allows multiple activities within a single process. Thus, it is the software-based instruction. In other words, a single thread is like one command that runs at a time.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Machine Learning models are suitable for solving simple problems, while Deep Learning models are used to solve complex problems.
    2. Machine Learning is a subset of Deep Learning.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Machine Learning and Deep Learning are the two main concepts of Data Science and the subsets of Artificial Intelligence.
    Machine Learning allows the computers to learn from the experiences by its own, use statistical methods to improve the performance and predict the output without being explicitly programmed.
    Deep Learning is inspired by the functionality of human brain cells, which are called neurons, and leads to the concept of artificial neural networks. It is also called a deep neural network or deep neural learning.
    ● Statement 1 is CORRECT: Machine Learning algorithm is data driven. It follows a structured format for solving problems and thus is mainly employed for simpler tasks like predicting customer choice on e-commerce site. But, Deep Learning mimics complex neural schemas of human brain. It is adept at solving complex problems which require parallel processing.
    ● Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Deep Learning is a subset of Machine Learning. Deep Learning is a special case of machine learning in which each step is checked in a more elaborated manner.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Machine Learning and Deep Learning are the two main concepts of Data Science and the subsets of Artificial Intelligence.
    Machine Learning allows the computers to learn from the experiences by its own, use statistical methods to improve the performance and predict the output without being explicitly programmed.
    Deep Learning is inspired by the functionality of human brain cells, which are called neurons, and leads to the concept of artificial neural networks. It is also called a deep neural network or deep neural learning.
    ● Statement 1 is CORRECT: Machine Learning algorithm is data driven. It follows a structured format for solving problems and thus is mainly employed for simpler tasks like predicting customer choice on e-commerce site. But, Deep Learning mimics complex neural schemas of human brain. It is adept at solving complex problems which require parallel processing.
    ● Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Deep Learning is a subset of Machine Learning. Deep Learning is a special case of machine learning in which each step is checked in a more elaborated manner.

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CORAL ISLANDS AND CLIMATE CHANGE

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Coral islands, such as India’s Lakshadweep, face significant threats due to climate change, primarily caused by global warming.

EXPLANATION:

  • The extraction and burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, and other anthropogenic activities contribute to rising temperatures, ocean acidification, and extreme weather events, leading to the destruction of coral reefs.

Corals and Coral Bleaching

  • Coral reefs are vital ecosystems built by coral polyps, which have a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae algae.
  • When water temperatures rise, corals expel these algae, leading to bleaching—a phenomenon where corals lose their vibrant colors and eventually die.
  • Ocean acidification exacerbates bleaching by reducing calcium mineral availability for coral exoskeletons.

Types of coral reefs in India:

  • Fringing reefs
    • Fringing reefs evolve and develop near the continent and remain close to the coastline. These reefs are separated from the coastline by small, shallow lagoons. They are the most commonly found reefs in the world.
  • Barrier reefs
    • Barrier reefs are found offshore on the continental shelf. They usually run parallel to the coastline at some distance. A deep and wide lagoon is located between the coastline and the barrier reef.
  • Atolls
    • Atolls are formed on mid-oceanic ridges. They are shaped circularly or elliptically and are surrounded by seas on all four sides and have shallow waters in the center called a lagoon.
  • All the three major reef types occur in India. The mainland coast of India has two widely separated areas containing reefs: the Gulf of Kachchh in the northwest, which has some of the most northerly reefs in the world, and Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar in the southeast.
  • In addition to these, there are patches of reef growth on the West Coast, for example, coral reefs at Malvan.
  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have fringing reefs around many islands, and a long barrier reef (329 km) on the west coast.
  • Little is known about these reefs, which may be the most diverse and pristine reefs in India. The Lakshadweep also has extensive reefs but these are also poorly explored.

Impact of Climate Change on Coral Reefs

  • Global warming has resulted in widespread coral bleaching events, causing significant damage to coral reefs worldwide.
  • The loss of coral reefs has severe repercussions for coastal communities, including those inhabiting coral islands like Lakshadweep, who rely on these ecosystems for livelihoods and protection from rising sea levels.

The Role of Sound in Coral Recovery

  • Recent research suggests that sound may play a crucial role in coral reef recovery.
  • Scientists conducted a study in the Virgin Islands, where they observed that healthy reef sounds attracted coral polyps, leading to increased settlement rates on degraded reefs.
  • By using underwater speaker systems to replay healthy reef sounds, researchers saw a positive impact on coral settlement rates, indicating a potential avenue for coral restoration efforts.

Challenges and Considerations

  • While the study offers promising results, it is essential to acknowledge its limitations and potential challenges.
  • Scaling up this approach for large-scale coral reef restoration requires further research and testing.
  • Factors such as sound volume, frequency, and other environmental parameters need to be carefully considered to ensure the success of coral settlement initiatives.
  • Additionally, unforeseen complications may arise during implementation, underscoring the need for continued scientific inquiry and adaptive management strategies.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/can-good-sounds-save-coral-islands-from-bleaching/article67987110.ece/amp/



CHALLENGES FACED BY SUNDARBANS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Sundarbans are facing multifaceted challenges, ranging from environmental degradation to socio-economic disparities. However, through nature-based solutions, sustainable development initiatives, and inclusive policies, there is hope for preserving this invaluable ecosystem and improving the livelihoods of its inhabitants.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Sundarbans is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and Ramsar site.
  • It is a vast mangrove forest delta spread across India and Bangladesh.
  • Sundarbans is situated in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna (GBM) delta and depends on the tidal rivers and mangroves.
  • The rivers are mostly saline as they disconnect from the ‘parent river’.
  • The scarcity of freshwater is the burning issue in the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve.
  • It provides shelter for 84 species of flora, including 26 mangrove species, 453 species of fauna, 120 species of fish, 290 species of birds, 42 species of mammals, 35 reptiles and eight amphibian species.
  • More than 12 million people — 4.5 million in India and 7.5 million in Bangladesh — live in this estuarine ecosystem.
  • Its ecological significance extends to its role as a habitat for millions of people who depend on its resources for sustenance.

Challenges Facing the Sundarbans Ecosystem

  • Freshwater Scarcity:
    • The Sundarbans face freshwater scarcity due to the saline nature of tidal rivers and reduced flow from upstream, posing a significant challenge to the ecosystem’s health.
  • Environmental Pollution:
    • Pollution, including microplastic contamination from nearby rivers, chemical pollutants from industrial sources like Mongla Port and India’s Leather Estate, and hydrocarbon contamination, threatens the delicate balance of the Sundarbans ecosystem.
  • Human-Wildlife Conflicts and Exploitation:
    • Issues such as conflicts between humans and animals, trafficking, hunting, and unsustainable exploitation of forest resources exacerbate the challenges faced by the Sundarbans and its inhabitants.
  • Climate Change Impacts:
    • Rising temperatures, changing sea levels, coastal erosion, and extreme weather events attributed to climate change pose significant threats to the Sundarbans’ stability and biodiversity.
  • Urbanization and Land Encroachment:
    • Coastal erosion and sea-level rise have led to the encroachment of lands by saline waters, displacing communities and forcing migration to urban areas, putting further pressure on resources.

Nature-Based Solutions for Sundarbans

  • Promoting Sustainable Agriculture: Encouraging the cultivation of salt-tolerant crop varieties and promoting organic farming practices can mitigate the impact of freshwater scarcity and enhance agricultural productivity.
  • Economic Diversification and Livelihood Enhancement: Establishing agro-based enterprises, promoting medicinal plant cultivation, and supporting women-led self-help groups can create alternative livelihood opportunities and reduce dependency on fragile ecosystems.
  • Wastewater Treatment and Ecosystem Restoration: Utilizing indigenous aquatic plants, mangrove seedlings, and beneficial bacteria for wastewater treatment and pond ecosystem restoration can improve water quality and support aquatic biodiversity.
  • Clean Energy Initiatives: Implementing solar and bio-energy policies can provide sustainable energy solutions, reducing dependence on fossil fuels and mitigating environmental degradation.
  • Gender-Inclusive Development: Prioritizing women’s participation in development initiatives and ensuring their representation in decision-making processes can foster inclusive and sustainable development in the Sundarbans.
  • Healthcare Infrastructure and Disaster Preparedness: Establishing well-equipped healthcare facilities and disaster preparedness policies are essential for safeguarding the health and safety of Sundarbans inhabitants in the face of climate-related risks and natural disasters.
  • Cultural Preservation and Tourism Development: Promoting the unique culture and cuisine of the Sundarbans can attract tourism, contributing to economic growth while ensuring the preservation of local traditions and heritage.

World heritage site and UNESCO:

  • A World Heritage site is a landmark or area with legal protection by an international convention administered by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO).
  • World Heritage sites are designated by UNESCO for having cultural, historical, scientific or other forms of significance.
  • The sites are judged to contain “cultural and natural heritage around the world considered being of outstanding value to humanity.”
  • The concept of World Heritage emerged after WWII amid concerns over the widespread destruction of cultural sites and nature.
  • Efforts to remedy this led to the drafting of the 1972 Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage, commonly known as the World Heritage Convention.
  • It established the framework to preserve the world’s outstanding heritage.

Ramsar Sites:

  • Any wetland site which has been listed under the Ramsar Convention that aims to conserve it and promote sustainable use of its natural resources is called a Ramsar Site.
  • Ramsar Convention is known as the Convention of Wetlands.
  • It was established in 1971 by UNESCO and came into force in 1975.
  • India is a party to the Ramsar Convention. India signed under it on 1st February 1982.
  • The Ramsar Convention works closely with six organizations known as International Organization Partners(IOPs). These are:
    • Birdlife International
    • International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
    • International Water Management Institute (IWMI)
    • Wetlands International
    • World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
    • International Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT)

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/nature-based-solutions-can-help-sundarbans-survive-95230



IIT GUWAHATI’s BREAKTHROUGH IN SWINE FEVER VACCINE TECHNOLOGY TRANSFER

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati has achieved a significant milestone by successfully transferring technology for the production of India’s first recombinant virus-based vaccine for classical swine fever.

EXPLANATION:

  • This breakthrough represents a pivotal development in combating the highly contagious disease affecting pigs and wild boars.
  • IIT Guwahati has facilitated the transfer of pioneering vaccine technology to BioMed Pvt Ltd, a manufacturing company specializing in high-quality vaccines.
  • This transfer enables commercial production of the vaccine, offering a swift and cost-effective solution for pig vaccination.
  • The vaccine developed at IIT Guwahati utilizes a recombinant virus-based platform, which is a novel approach in India for combating classical swine fever.
  • This method represents a significant advancement in vaccine technology, ensuring effective protection against the disease.
  • The development of this vaccine is the result of collaborative efforts between researchers from the Department of Biosciences and Bioengineering at IIT Guwahati and Assam Agricultural University in Guwahati.
  • The collaboration underscores the importance of interdisciplinary cooperation in scientific breakthroughs.
  • The successful transfer of vaccine technology to a leading company in the veterinary vaccine sector marks a remarkable achievement.
  • It demonstrates the potential for academia-industry collaboration in addressing pressing health challenges and translating research into practical solutions.

Swine Fever:

  • Classical swine fever is a highly infectious and often fatal viral disease of swine.
  • Swine infected with classical swine fever virus usually develop fever, hemorrhages, lethargy, yellowish diarrhea, vomiting, and purple skin discoloration of the ears, lower abdomen, and legs.
  • Neurological signs, reproductive failures, and abortion may also be observed.
  • Diagnostic tests for the disease include RT-qPCR assay, virus isolation, immunofluorescence assay, and detection of antibodies by serological tests such as ELISA and virus neutralization.
  • Swine fever poses a significant threat in various states across India, particularly in the northeastern states, Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, Gujarat, and Kerala.
  • The availability of an indigenous vaccine holds promise for controlling the spread of the disease and safeguarding the livestock industry.

Innovative Methodology:

  • The vaccine development process involves harnessing a reverse genetic platform, a method widely used for developing vaccines against influenza.
  • This innovative approach leverages the Newcastle disease virus (NDV) as a carrier for essential proteins of the classical swine fever virus, ensuring efficient immunity development.
  • Reverse genetics offers several advantages, including speed and cost-effectiveness, in vaccine development.
  • By utilizing NDV as a carrier, researchers can expedite the vaccine production process while maintaining affordability, crucial for widespread adoption and implementation.

Future Prospects and Regulatory Process:

  • Currently, the vaccine is undergoing the process of filing test and analysis licenses. Once approved, it will be ready for commercial distribution, marking a significant step forward in disease prevention and control strategies for the livestock industry.

SOURCE: https://www.livemint.com/science/news/iit-guwahati-completes-technology-transfer-for-first-ever-india-made-swine-fever-vaccine/amp-11711462237772.html



PROFESSOR JAYANT MURTHY: A DISTINGUISHED INDIAN ASTROPHYSICIST

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Professor Jayant Murthy is a renowned Indian astrophysicist known for his significant contributions to space missions, ultraviolet astronomy, and the study of the interstellar medium.

EXPLANATION:

  • An asteroid was named after Professor Jayant Murthy by the International Astronomical Union (IAU)’s Working Group.
  • Previously cataloged as 2005 EX296, the asteroid is now officially designated as (215884) Jayantmurthy.
  • The asteroid (215884) Jayantmurthy was discovered by MW Buie in 2005 at the Kitt Peak National Observatory in Arizona, USA.
  • It orbits the Sun between Mars and Jupiter, completing a full orbit every 3.3 years.

Contributions of Professor Murthy:

  • NASA’s New Horizons Mission:
    • Professor Murthy played a crucial role in NASA’s New Horizons Science Team.
    • The New Horizons mission, NASA’s first venture in the New Frontiers programme, was launched in 2006.
    • The mission gained global attention with its historic flyby of Pluto in 2015, providing unprecedented views and data of the dwarf planet and its moons.
    • Its objective is to conduct a detailed study of the surface features, geological structures, and morphology of Pluto and its moons. This includes mapping the surface composition of Pluto and Charon.
    • The mission reshaped our understanding of distant celestial objects by expanding the boundaries of space exploration.
  • Contributions to Understanding Cosmic Phenomena:
    • Professor Murthy’s work on studying ultraviolet background radiation far out in the Solar System has been instrumental in advancing our understanding of cosmic phenomena.
    • His observations, free from interference from the Sun and interplanetary medium, have provided valuable insights.
  • Recognition and Gratitude:
    • Expressing his gratitude for the honor of having an asteroid named after him, Professor Murthy highlighted his involvement in the New Horizons team led by Dr. Alan Stern.
    • He expressed his thrill at the recognition of his contributions to the mission.
  • Retirement and Continued Impact:
    • In 2021, Professor Murthy retired from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) but continues to serve as an Honorary Professor.
    • He previously served as the acting Director of IIA from July 2018 to October 2019.
  • Global Impact of Research:
    • The naming of the asteroid after Professor Murthy signifies the global impact of his research and contributions to the field of astrophysics.
    • His work has earned recognition not only within India but also internationally.

Asteroid:

  • Asteroids, sometimes called minor planets, are rocky, airless remnants left over from the early formation of our solar system about 4.6 billion years ago.
  • The current known asteroid count is at least 1,351,400.
  • Most of this ancient space rubble can be found orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter within the main asteroid belt.
  • Asteroids range in size from Vesta – the largest at about 329 miles (530 kilometers) in diameter – to bodies that are less than 33 feet (10 meters) across.
  • The total mass of all the asteroids combined is less than that of Earth’s Moon.

International Astronomical Union:

  • The International Astronomical Union (IAU) was founded in 1919.
  • Its headquarters is in Paris, France.
  • Its mission is to promote and safeguard the science of astronomy in all its aspects, including research, communication, education and development, through international cooperation.
  • Its Individual and Junior Members — structured in Divisions, Commissions, and Working Groups — are professional astronomers from all over the world, at the Ph.D. level and beyond, active in professional research and education in astronomy.
  • The IAU has 12753 Individual and Junior Members in 110 countries worldwide.
  • Of those countries 85 are National Members. In addition, the IAU collaborates with various scientific organizations all over the world.

SOURCE: https://www.livemint.com/science/news/indian-prof-jayant-murthy-honored-with-asteroid-name-jayantmurthy-who-is-he/amp-11711104093086.html



TRANSITION FROM MINIMUM WAGE TO LIVING WAGE IN INDIA BY 2025

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: India is poised to shift from its traditional minimum wage system to a more comprehensive living wage system by 2025.

EXPLANATION:

  • This transition signifies a significant departure from the existing framework and aims to address the challenges faced by millions of workers in the country.
  • To facilitate this transition, the Indian government is seeking technical support from the International Labour Organisation (ILO).
  • The assistance is intended to develop a robust framework for estimating and implementing the living wage system effectively.
  • The move aligns with the recent endorsement of the living wage concept by the ILO.
  • This endorsement, achieved during a Meeting of Experts on wage policies in February, underscores the global recognition of the importance of ensuring fair wages for workers worldwide.
  • The primary objective behind this transition is to accelerate efforts to lift millions of Indian workers out of poverty and ensure their overall well-being.
  • This shift is particularly crucial given the large proportion of the workforce employed in the unorganised sector, estimated to be around 90%.

Challenges with Minimum Wage System:

  • Despite the existence of minimum wage regulations, challenges persist, including wage payment discrepancies and stagnation in the national wage floor since 2017.
  • These issues underscore the limitations of the current system in ensuring adequate compensation for workers across various sectors and regions.

Code on Wages (2019):

  • India’s commitment to wage reform is evidenced by the passing of the Code on Wages in 2019.
  • This legislation proposes a universal wage floor that will apply uniformly across all states once implemented, addressing the disparities and inconsistencies prevalent in the current wage structure.

Utilizing ILO Assistance for Capacity Building:

  • India’s decision to seek assistance from the ILO for capacity building and systemic data collection reflects its commitment to effectively implement the living wage system.
  • By leveraging international expertise and best practices, India aims to streamline the transition process and achieve tangible outcomes.

Definition of Living Wage:

  • A living wage is defined as the wage level necessary to afford a decent standard of living for workers and their families, taking into account the country’s socio-economic conditions.
  • It is calculated based on the cost of essential goods and services required to maintain a reasonable quality of life.
  • India’s transition to a living wage system aligns with its broader commitment to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by 2030. In particular, it contributes to the goal of promoting decent work and economic growth, emphasizing the importance of equitable remuneration for all workers.

Economic Capacity and Growth Implications:

  • India’s robust economic growth, evidenced by a growth rate of 8.4%, suggests the country’s capacity to support higher wages.
  • By implementing living wages, India aims to not only improve the standard of living for its workers but also stimulate economic growth through increased consumer spending and reduced income inequality.

International Labour Organization (ILO):

  • The only tripartite U.N. agency, since 1919 the ILO brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 Member States, to set labour standards, develop policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
  • It was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I, to reflect the belief that universal and lasting peace can be accomplished only if it is based on social justice.
  • The Constitution of the ILO was drafted in early 1919 by the Labour Commission
  • It became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
  • Its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland
  • Its founding mission is “social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace”.
  • It promotes internationally recognized human and labour rights.
  • It received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.

SOURCE: https://www.livemint.com/economy/india-to-shift-from-minimum-wage-to-living-wage-system-by-2025-know-what-it-means-for-the-country/amp-11711504784820.html



Day-615 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Regenerative agriculture emphasizes on revitalising the soil health and biodiversity.
    Statement II: Intensive farming releases carbon dioxide (CO2) into the atmosphere.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer. A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The key to regenerative agriculture is that it not only “does no harm” to the land but actually improves it, using technologies that regenerate and revitalize the soil and the environment. Regenerative agriculture leads to healthy soil, capable of producing high quality, nutrient dense food while simultaneously improving, rather than degrading land, and ultimately leading to productive farms and healthy communities and economies. It is dynamic and holistic, incorporating permaculture and organic farming practices, including conservation tillage, cover crops, crop rotation, composting, mobile animal shelters and pasture cropping, to increase food production, farmers’ income and especially, topsoil.
    Statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1: When land is degraded due to intensive farming, soil carbon can be released into the atmosphere along with nitrous oxide, making land degradation one of the biggest contributors to climate change. An estimated two-thirds of all terrestrial carbon stored in soils and vegetation have been lost since the 19th century through land degradation.

    Incorrect

    Answer. A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The key to regenerative agriculture is that it not only “does no harm” to the land but actually improves it, using technologies that regenerate and revitalize the soil and the environment. Regenerative agriculture leads to healthy soil, capable of producing high quality, nutrient dense food while simultaneously improving, rather than degrading land, and ultimately leading to productive farms and healthy communities and economies. It is dynamic and holistic, incorporating permaculture and organic farming practices, including conservation tillage, cover crops, crop rotation, composting, mobile animal shelters and pasture cropping, to increase food production, farmers’ income and especially, topsoil.
    Statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1: When land is degraded due to intensive farming, soil carbon can be released into the atmosphere along with nitrous oxide, making land degradation one of the biggest contributors to climate change. An estimated two-thirds of all terrestrial carbon stored in soils and vegetation have been lost since the 19th century through land degradation.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. With reference to the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, consider the following statements:
    1. It led to the establishment of ‘Animal Welfare Board of India’.
    2. It does not allow the dehorning of cattle by its owner.
    3. It legalises the clinical trials on animals in the country.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on animal welfare which was established in 1962 by the central government under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 60 years. It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
    Headquarters of AWBI are located in Ballabhgarh, Haryana (since 2018). Previously, it was based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
    Statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct: According to the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960-
    Experiments involving operations on animals for the purpose of advancement by new discovery of physiological knowledge or of knowledge which will be useful for saving or for prolonging life or alleviating suffering or for combating any disease, whether of human beings, animals or plants, shall not be unlawful. Thus, clinical trials on animals for medicinal advancements are allowed. (Chapter IV deals with experimentation on animals).
    The penalties and prohibitions under the said Act do not apply in the following cases:
    ● the dehorning of cattle, or the castration or branding or nose-roping of any animal, in the prescribed manner; or
    ● the destruction of stray dogs in lethal chambers or [by such other methods as may be prescribed]; or
    ● the extermination or destruction of any animal under the authority of any law for the time being in force; or
    ● any matter dealt with in Chapter IV.
    Therefore, the above-mentioned activities are permitted under the Act.

    Incorrect

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on animal welfare which was established in 1962 by the central government under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 60 years. It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
    Headquarters of AWBI are located in Ballabhgarh, Haryana (since 2018). Previously, it was based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
    Statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct: According to the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960-
    Experiments involving operations on animals for the purpose of advancement by new discovery of physiological knowledge or of knowledge which will be useful for saving or for prolonging life or alleviating suffering or for combating any disease, whether of human beings, animals or plants, shall not be unlawful. Thus, clinical trials on animals for medicinal advancements are allowed. (Chapter IV deals with experimentation on animals).
    The penalties and prohibitions under the said Act do not apply in the following cases:
    ● the dehorning of cattle, or the castration or branding or nose-roping of any animal, in the prescribed manner; or
    ● the destruction of stray dogs in lethal chambers or [by such other methods as may be prescribed]; or
    ● the extermination or destruction of any animal under the authority of any law for the time being in force; or
    ● any matter dealt with in Chapter IV.
    Therefore, the above-mentioned activities are permitted under the Act.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements about ‘Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs)’:
    1. They are clearly defined under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    2. Wastelands and grasslands are part of the ONEs.
    3. They play a crucial role in carbon sequestration.
    4. They are facing a growing threat from renewable energy.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs)’ is not mentioned or defined in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. A clear definition of ONEs is lacking in India.
    Statement 2 is correct: Across the world, open natural ecosystems (also called ONEs) include cold and hot deserts, rock outcrops, boulder and rubble fields, wetlands and marshes, and diverse grasslands and savanna ecosystems. By some estimates, they occupy about two-thirds of land on Earth. Nearly 70% of the areas with open natural ecosystems overlap with those the government calls ‘wastelands’. This included ravines, grasslands, shrublands, waterlogged and marshy areas, pastures and even coastal areas.
    Statement 3 is correct: Grasslands, part of open natural ecosystems, sequester 146 tonnes of carbon per hectare per year and support 500 million livestock and over 20 nomadic tribes in India.
    Statement 4 is correct: Land-use change such as intensive agriculture, afforestation drives and renewable energy projects threaten open natural ecosystems (ONEs).

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs)’ is not mentioned or defined in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. A clear definition of ONEs is lacking in India.
    Statement 2 is correct: Across the world, open natural ecosystems (also called ONEs) include cold and hot deserts, rock outcrops, boulder and rubble fields, wetlands and marshes, and diverse grasslands and savanna ecosystems. By some estimates, they occupy about two-thirds of land on Earth. Nearly 70% of the areas with open natural ecosystems overlap with those the government calls ‘wastelands’. This included ravines, grasslands, shrublands, waterlogged and marshy areas, pastures and even coastal areas.
    Statement 3 is correct: Grasslands, part of open natural ecosystems, sequester 146 tonnes of carbon per hectare per year and support 500 million livestock and over 20 nomadic tribes in India.
    Statement 4 is correct: Land-use change such as intensive agriculture, afforestation drives and renewable energy projects threaten open natural ecosystems (ONEs).

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    1. Ethylene-vinyl acetate (EVA) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC) are commonly used in the footwear industry.
    2. The recycled plastic bottles and rubber tyres can make the footwear industry more eco-friendly.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer. D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The dominance of petrochemical-based plastics in the footwear segment is a major challenge in approaching footwear with circularity. The main byproducts of petrochemicals used in shoes for soles are polyurethane (PU), ethylene-vinyl acetate (EVA) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC), all known for value, durability and resistance. Be it EVA or PVC, these are non-biodegradable toxic materials, which after disintegration produce harmful material that goes into the soil.
    Statement 2 is correct: In recent years, footwear made of vegan material, recycled plastic bottles or upcycled rubber tyres with cork soles, has introduced a new vocabulary for footwear design among conscious fashion-goers.

    Incorrect

    Answer. D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The dominance of petrochemical-based plastics in the footwear segment is a major challenge in approaching footwear with circularity. The main byproducts of petrochemicals used in shoes for soles are polyurethane (PU), ethylene-vinyl acetate (EVA) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC), all known for value, durability and resistance. Be it EVA or PVC, these are non-biodegradable toxic materials, which after disintegration produce harmful material that goes into the soil.
    Statement 2 is correct: In recent years, footwear made of vegan material, recycled plastic bottles or upcycled rubber tyres with cork soles, has introduced a new vocabulary for footwear design among conscious fashion-goers.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules of 2010, consider the following statements:
    1. It is compulsory for the state governments to identify, demarcate and officially designate all wetlands across the state within a stipulated period of two years.
    2. These rules led to the establishment of Wetland Authority at national and state levels for the conservation and management of wetlands.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules of 2010, enacted under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, make it compulsory for the state government to identify, demarcate and officially designate all wetlands across the state within a stipulated period of two years.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules amended in 2017 shifted the emphasis of wetland management from a central authority to state-level bodies. These rules provided for the establishment of National Wetland Authority and State Wetland Authorities to ensure more effective conservation and management of wetlands in the state.

    Incorrect

    Answer. A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules of 2010, enacted under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, make it compulsory for the state government to identify, demarcate and officially designate all wetlands across the state within a stipulated period of two years.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules amended in 2017 shifted the emphasis of wetland management from a central authority to state-level bodies. These rules provided for the establishment of National Wetland Authority and State Wetland Authorities to ensure more effective conservation and management of wetlands in the state.

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STOP THE WAR: ON THE U.N. SECURITY COUNCIL’S CALL FOR A GAZA CEASEFIRE

THE CONTEXT: The resolution, known as Resolution 2728, was tabled by the UN Security Council’s 10 non-permanent members (E-10) and was adopted recently. The resolution came five and half months after Israel’s assault on Gaza began, in which thousands of Palestinians have been killed and more than 90% of the enclave’s population displaced and facing hunger crisis.

KEY PROVISIONS OF RESOLUTION 2728

  • The United States, which has vetoed every U.N. resolution earlier that called for an immediate ceasefire in Gaza did not vote in favour this time. This signals a change in the USA administration’s policy towards the war.
  • All other members of the UNSC, including Britain voted for the resolution.

PROVISIONS OF RESOLUTION 2728:

Resolution 2728 includes several key provisions aimed at ending the violence and addressing the humanitarian crisis in Gaza:

  • Immediate ceasefire during the month of Ramadan
  • Immediate and unconditional release of hostages
  • Urgent need to expand the flow of aid into Gaza
  • The resolution emphasizes the importance of ensuring humanitarian access to Gaza to alleviate the suffering of the Palestinian population.

ISRAEL STANCE:

  • Israel responded in anger by cancelling a planned visit Prime Minister’s close cabinet aides to Washington but this indicates Israel’s weakness.
  • Israeli leaders have repeatedly said in recent weeks that an invasion of Rafah, the southernmost town where some 1.4 million Palestinians have been attacked was unavoidable.

Background:

  • The latest war was triggered by Hamas’s October 7, 2023 cross-border attack where at least 1,200 Israelis were killed. But what Israel did in subsequent months was to punish the entire population of Gaza for what Hamas did turned international public opinion against it.
  • After months-long fighting, Israel has turned much of Gaza into rubble, but has neither destroyed Hamas nor rescued hostages.
  • The prolonged war has made Prime Minister immensely unpopular and his coalition partners are at war with one another.
  • The war has also increased Israel’s isolation, with tensions rising in its ties even with its close partners, including the U.S. If Israel continues the war with no clear end in sight, it will only worsen the domestic and international challenges.

BROADER ISSUES:

  • Regional Instability: The conflict in Gaza has contributed to regional instability and heightened tensions. It has the potential to spill over into neighbouring countries and rise in existing regional conflicts
  • Humanitarian Crisis: The conflict has led to a humanitarian crisis in Gaza, with casualties, displacement, and infrastructure damage. The international community has been called upon to address the immediate humanitarian needs of the Palestinian population.
  • Displacement and Destruction: Both sides harbour mutual suspicions and apprehensions of violence, such as missile strikes from Gaza and Israeli defence actions. Outside political agendas and preconceptions can occasionally intensify tensions.
  • Financial inequalities: Economic restrictions and imbalances lead to escalation of tensions and provoke more disputes.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Israel stand: Israel must adhere to the UNSC resolution for a ceasefire by making an objective assessment of the situation. The October 7 attack itself was a massive intelligence and security failure for which Israeli Prime Minister should take responsibility. Israel should take the message from the UNSC seriously to stop the war, allow urgent humanitarian assistance into Gaza and continue talks with Hamas through international mediators for both the release of all hostages and the withdrawal of his troops from the enclave.
  • Collective efforts: The ongoing conflict has escalated geopolitical tensions. Achieving a peaceful resolution of the issue requires collective efforts from the international community. A balanced approach is crucial, not only for fostering favourable relations with Arab countries but also for maintaining a constructive engagement with
  • India’s approach: India’s role in multilateral organizations requires efforts in cooperation with all related parties to achieve security and stability in the Middle East and West Asia. India should use multilateral forums to act as a mediator to resolve the Israel-Palestine issue.
  • Abraham accords: The recent normalization agreements between Israel and the UAE, Bahrain, Sudan, and Morocco, known as the Abraham Accords, are the steps in the right direction. All regional powers should envisage peace between the two countries on line of Abraham Accords.

THE CONCLUSION:

The adoption of the UN Security Council resolution is only the first step in the process of achieving a lasting ceasefire and peace in Gaza. The UN, member states, and parties to the conflict must now work together to implement the resolution’s provision and create conditions conducive to a negotiated settlement.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 “India’s relations with Israel have, of late, acquired a depth and diversity, which cannot be rolled back.” Discuss. (2018)

Q.2 ‘Too little cash, too much politics, leave UNESCO fighting for life.’ Discuss the statement in the light of the US’ withdrawal and its accusation of the cultural body as being ‘anti-Israel bias’.(2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 The recent adoption of resolution for immediate ceasefire in Gaza by UN Security Council reflects its balanced approach to international conflicts and underscores its commitment to principles of diplomacy and negotiated resolution to complex global issues. Comment.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/stop-the-war-on-the-un-security-council-call-for-a-gaza-ceasefire/article67994664.ece



AAP TRAP: ON ARVIND KEJRIWAL’S ARREST

THE CONTEXT: Recently, Delhi Chief Minister and Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) leader Arvind Kejriwal’s arrest by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) raises disturbing questions about the direction of India’s democracy and federalism. This arrest is a reminder of the dangers of misusing enforcement agencies.

WHAT IS THE ISSUE?

  • Delhi Excise policy case: The Delhi Excise policy case, in which CM has been arrested, was registered by the CBI in August 2022, based on which the ED launched its money laundering probe. Several other AAP leaders are in jail under the case.
  • Against rule of law: If the ED had evidence of corruption, it should have taken the case to trial on a war footing. Keeping the accused in jail, while investigators continue their expedition is against rule of law.
  • Impairing democracy: When the accused are political opponents of the ruling party, the arrests is being seen as selective enforcement of the law impairing public confidence in democracy itself.
  • Issue with Supreme court: The Supreme Court of India had earlier asked the ED to provide an unbroken chain of evidence showing that ill-gotten money had flowed from the liquor lobby to Mr. Sisodia. The Court had remarked that the competence of the ED lay in bringing to the fore uninterrupted proof linking an accused with the crime proceeds. Later, the Court went on to deny bail to Mr. Sisodia.
  • Misuse of central agencies: It is found that democratic politics of this country can be brought to a standstill by central agencies, even as the Court and the Election Commission of India continue to consider all this as routine law enforcement. Also, this is not the first time a central agency has gone after a constitutional functionary as Hemant Soren resigned as Chief Minister of Jharkhand before his arrest by the ED.
  • Political Propaganda: The pretext that the law is taking its course will not be convincing to any reasonable mind. It is not a coincidence that central agencies are arresting only Opposition leaders on charges of corruption. The political intent of the arrest of a key leader of the Opposition, and a serving Chief Minister in the run-up to the general election is controversial.

DELHI EXCISE POLICY 2021-22

  • It is also known as the new liquor policy and was implemented on November 17, 2021.
  • It changed how liquor was sold in the city with the government withdrawing from the business and allowing only private operators to run liquor shops to improve customer experience and stop black marketing.
  • However, after the whole controversy around the new excise policy, Delhi reverted to the old excise regime.

Allegations made in the report

  • Before the implementation, the policy had first to be examined by the Chief Secretary (CS) of Delhi. The CS allegedly found procedural lapses and irregularities in the new policy.
  • In the report, Delhi Deputy CM Sisodia, who heads the excise department, was accused of making changes to the excise policy without the approval of the L-G.
  • This report was referred to the CBI, and which led to the arrest of the then Delhi Dy CM Manish Sisodia.
  • Two cases, one by CBI and one on alleged money laundering being investigated by ED, have been registered in relation to the excise policy.
  • The ED told a court that the alleged proceeds of crime amounted to more than Rs 292 crore, and that it was necessary to establish the modus operandi.
  • It also alleged that AAP leaders received kickbacks to the tune of Rs 100 crore from a group of individuals identified as the South Group.

ENFORCEMENT DIRECTORATE (ED)

  • ED is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of offences of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws. It is a non-statutory body under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

The statutory functions of the agency include enforcement of following Acts:

  • The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA): ED has been given the responsibility to enforce the provisions of the PMLA. It conducts investigation to trace the assets derived from proceeds of crime and ensures prosecution of the offenders and confiscation of the property by the Special court.
  • The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA):The ED has been entrusted with the responsibility of investigating suspected violations of foreign exchange laws and regulations. Additionally, it has the authority to adjudicate cases and impose penalties on those found to have contravened these laws.
  • The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): Under this law, the agency is mandated to seize the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have fled from India to evade arrest.
  • Sponsoring agency under COFEPOSA: Under the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA), the ED is empowered to sponsor cases of preventive detention regarding contraventions of FEMA.

WHAT ARE THE ISSUES RELATED TO ED?

  • Misuse of Power: The office of ED has a lot of power and discretion in investigating economic crimes like money laundering, and they don’t need permission from the government to prosecute politicians or government officials. However, this power has been misused, as even minor crimes have been brought under the purview
  • Lack of Transparency: There is also a lack of transparency in how the ED selects cases to investigate, and they have been known to target opposition parties.
  • Malign reputation: Convictions in cases by the ED are minimal but media trials have already ruined the accused’s reputation.
  • Political Bias: There have been allegations that political figures who have switched to the ruling party have been given favorable treatment by the ED. These allegations have raised concerns about potential political bias and lack of independence in the ED’s actions.

THE WAY FORWARD

  • Transparency and Accountability: The central agencies need to be more transparent in its operations and accountable to the public. Regular reporting on its activities and proactive communication can help address concerns and build trust. Fighting corruption requires reforming investigations and ensuring transparency and fairness in the adjudication process.
  • Strengthening Institutional Frameworks: Robust legal frameworks and independent oversight mechanisms are essential to prevent misuse of the ED and uphold its impartiality. The agency can be made an autonomous body to enhance its independence and improve the ED’s image as a reputed agency against economic offenses in our country.
  • Collaborative Approach: Fostering a spirit of cooperation and dialogue between the Centre and states is crucial to addressing concerns about federal overreach and building trust in the system.
  • Judicial Intervention: The judiciary can play a crucial role in upholding federalism and ensuring due process in ED investigations. Clear guidelines and principles established by the courts can help prevent misuse of the agency.
  • Expert Committee Formation: An expert committee comprising legal, constitutional, and administrative experts can be formed to provide recommendations on resolving the issue. This committee should thoroughly analyze the legal and administrative aspects and propose practical solutions that uphold democratic principles.
  • Respect for Constitutional Principles: Throughout the resolution process, it is vital for all stakeholders to demonstrate a commitment for upholding constitutional principles, including democratic governance, separation of powers, and the rights of elected representatives.

THE CONCLUSION:

The recent ED-state tussle and arrest of chief minister of Delhi is a complex issue to deal with. However, there is a need to maintain the delicate balance of power between the central government and the elected government of Delhi. Respecting the constitutional framework will provide a solid foundation for resolving the issue in a fair and transparent manner.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 Discuss how emerging technologies and globalisation contribute to money laundering. Elaborate measures to tackle the problem of money laundering both at national and international levels. (2021)

Q.2 Resorting to ordinances has always raised concern on violation of the spirit of separation of powers doctrine. While noting the rationales justifying the power to promulgate ordinances, analyze whether the decision of the Supreme Court on the issue have further facilitated resorting to this power. Should the power to promulgate the ordinances be repealed? (2015)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Enforcement Directorate (ED) has been criticized for  targeting political opponents of the government. How can the agency effectively investigate financial crimes across states while respecting the constitutional provisions?

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/aap-trap-on-arvind-kejriwals-arrest-and-democracy/article67981526.ece



HOW WE, THE CITIZENS, MUST SEE THIS ELECTION

THE CONTEXT: India’s general elections, involving 969 million voters, have begun and will span 80 days. The world is watching India’s democracy, which has been both uplifting and contentious in the past decade. Consensus-based processes have weakened, leading to a breakdown of dialogue between the ruling party and the opposition. Nonetheless, India’s democracy remains strong and defies theoretical perspectives.

ISSUES:

  • The Essence of Pluralism in Indian Democracy: Pluralism and tolerance define Indian civilization and form the foundation of its democracy. India’s strength lies in its diversity, which includes multiple languages, religions, and cultures. Unfortunately, the selfish interests of some individuals threaten to undermine this fabric. It is crucial to preserve our pluralistic heritage and stand firm against any compromise.
  • Addressing the Normative Deficit in Constitutional Framework: India’s constitution recognizes group-specific rights but lacks normative fraternity. Leaders must respond to the challenges of secularism and religious pluralism to maintain goodwill among communities.
  • Socioeconomic Deprivation and Intersectional Oppression: India’s growth towards global power must be accompanied by a sense of responsibility. Intersectional oppression affects people across class, caste, gender, and religion, leading to deep-seated deprivation. A new social contract is needed, where the state plays a pivotal role in income distribution and risk management to ensure progress benefits everyone.
  • The Imperative for Scientific Temper: A modern and progressive society requires scientific temper, open-mindedness to new knowledge, critical thinking, and discarding superstitions. Education liberates society from oppression and injustice, but we must overcome unscientific thought patterns that still influence significant populations.
  • Electoral Democracy as a Reflection of Public Will: India’s democratic elections are characterized by high voter turnout, frequent changes in incumbents, and robust political competition. Upholding the values of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity is crucial. The general elections allow citizens to shape their country’s future, reinforcing India’s reputation as a progressive and pluralistic society.
  • The Role of Education in Shaping Democracy: Education is crucial in shaping a democratic society. It fosters individual and community agency, which is fundamental for freedom of choice. The democratization of knowledge is necessary to overcome the barriers of unscientific thought and superstition that impede societal progress.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Fostering Inclusivity and Tolerance: India must actively foster an environment of inclusivity and tolerance to preserve its precious heritage of pluralism. Educational institutions should emphasize the importance of diversity and civic engagement programs can bridge divides. Celebrating diversity and encouraging open dialogue can strengthen India’s democracy and promote mutual understanding among different groups.
  • Strengthening Constitutional Values: India’s Constitution has a normative deficit, particularly in terms of fraternity. We need to reinforce values of fraternity, equality, and justice through legal reforms, public awareness campaigns, and engaging civil society organizations. Together, we can ensure that the constitutional framework is a living embodiment of India’s democratic ethos.
  • Addressing Socioeconomic Disparities: India needs a multifaceted approach to combat socioeconomic deprivation and intersectional oppression, including policy reforms, social welfare programs, and inclusive economic development strategies. Land reforms, increased access to quality education and healthcare, and targeted economic policies can reduce inequalities. Public-private partnerships can provide opportunities for marginalized communities. Prioritizing social justice and equitable growth will help India become more inclusive.
  • Promoting Scientific Temper and Rational Thought: To advance scientific temper, education reform, public awareness, and critical thinking skills are crucial. Prioritizing scientific literacy and critical thinking from an early age is essential. Media and public awareness campaigns can also promote rationality and evidence-based decision-making. Cultivating a society that values scientific temper can lead India towards progress and innovation.
  • Enhancing Electoral Participation and Representation: To strengthen India’s electoral democracy, we need increased voter participation and representation. Voter education campaigns can inspire higher turnout, while electoral reforms can guarantee fair representation of all segments of society. By fostering an engaged and informed electorate, we can ensure that our political system remains responsive to the needs and aspirations of its citizens.
  • Leveraging Education for Democratic Engagement: Education promotes democratic engagement. Programs that emphasize civic responsibility, democratic values, and active participation can empower citizens to shape society. Critical thinking skills and debate platforms prepare students for democracy. India can build a stronger democracy by investing in education for an informed, responsible, and active citizenry.

THE CONCLUSION:

India’s democracy excels in voter turnout, incumbents’ turnover, and political contestation. The upcoming general elections are a chance to carefully choose leaders for a just, fair, and constitutional society. Every citizen’s small effort can contribute to a more inclusive and modern India. Let’s approach the elections with positivity and shape a brighter future for the country.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) The Indian party system is passing through a phase of transition which looks to be full of contradictions and paradoxes.” Discuss. 2016

Q.2) Are tolerance, assimilation, and pluralism the key elements in the making of an Indian form of secularism? Justify your answer. 2022

Q.3) It is believed that adherence to ethics in human actions would ensure in smooth functioning of an organization/system If so, what does ethics seek to promote in human life? How do ethical values assist in the resolution of conflicts faced by him in his day-to-day functioning? 2022

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) Analyze the challenges faced by India’s democracy in preserving pluralism, fostering equitable growth, and transitioning to a modern, rational society. Suggest measures to address these challenges.

SOURCE:

https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/how-we-the-citizens-must-see-this-election-2949221



WORLD EARTH HOUR DAY

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: World Earth Hour Day is celebrated annually on the last Saturday in March, initiated by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) as a global movement to raise awareness about environmental issues.

EXPLANATION:

  • Earth Hour is the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF)’s annual initiative that began in 2007
  • During Earth Hour, individuals and communities are encouraged to turn off non-essential lights for 60 minutes from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time.
  • The primary objective of Earth Hour is to highlight the importance of environmental conservation and sustainability.
  • By symbolically switching off lights, participants demonstrate their commitment to reducing energy consumption and combating climate change.
  • Earth Hour serves as a reminder of our collective responsibility to protect the planet and inspire positive action towards a more sustainable future.
  • Earth Hour aims to increase awareness and spark global conversations on protecting nature, tackling the climate crisis, and working together to shape a brighter future for humans.

18th Edition:

  • The upcoming Earth Hour in 2024 marks the 18th edition of the event, themed as the ‘Biggest Hour for Earth.’
  • It aims to mobilize a larger audience and promote greater engagement with environmental issues, particularly among individuals who may not be fully aware of the environmental crisis.

Role of WWF:

  • The World Wildlife Fund (WWF) plays a crucial role in organizing and promoting Earth Hour globally.
  • WWF India is actively involved in coordinating Earth Hour activities within the country, including the release of an Earth Day anthem composed by Shantanu Moitra and sung by Papon, urging people to conserve nature.

Celebrity Endorsements:

  • Earth Hour receives support from various personalities and influencers, such as popular baker and cookbook author Shivesh Bhatia and renowned fashion designer Rahul Mishra.
  • Their participation in turning off non-essential lights during Earth Hour helps amplify the message and encourage broader participation in the global environmental movement.

Global Participation:

  • Earth Hour is observed in over 190 countries and territories worldwide, with millions of individuals and organizations participating each year.
  • The event symbolizes unity and solidarity in addressing environmental challenges on a global scale.

Impact and Outreach:

  • Earth Hour goes beyond a mere symbolic gesture; it serves as a catalyst for action and mobilizes communities to adopt sustainable practices beyond the designated hour.
  • The event inspires individuals, businesses, and governments to commit to reducing carbon emissions, conserving energy, and protecting biodiversity.

Previous Observances in India:

  • In previous years, Earth Hour was observed across various cities in India, including Mumbai, Kolkata, and New Delhi. Public places and landmarks, such as Rashtrapati Bhavan and Akshardham temple, participated by turning off lights for an hour.
  • This collective action underscores India’s commitment to environmental conservation and sustainability.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/world-earth-hour-day-on-march-23-2024-wwf-india/article67983348.ece



INDIA’s INTEREST IN AFRICAN MINERALS AND OFFSHORE BLOCKS AUCTION

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY, GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: India is actively seeking critical minerals, including cobalt, from African countries such as Zambia, Namibia, Congo, Ghana, and Mozambique.

EXPLANATION:

  • These minerals, such as lithium and cobalt, are essential for various industries, particularly technology and manufacturing sectors.
  • While India looks towards Africa for cobalt and other critical minerals, it continues to engage with Australia for lithium blocks.
  • This dual approach reflects India’s strategy to diversify its sources of critical minerals and secure a stable supply chain.
  • Ten offshore blocks are slated to be put on sale, with the auction scheduled to take place after the elections.
  • This indicates a proactive approach by the Indian government to tap into offshore mineral resources.
  • The result of the first round of auction for critical minerals will be announced within ten days.
  • Additionally, the lithium block in Jammu and Kashmir, which received only two bids in the first round, will be auctioned in the third tranche.
  • This demonstrates the government’s commitment to optimizing the auction process and maximizing participation.
  • The government recently launched the third tranche of auction for critical and strategic minerals, with seven blocks up for sale.
  • These blocks are being auctioned under specific rules outlined in the Mineral (Auction) Rules 2015, indicating regulatory clarity and transparency in the auction process.
  • So far, the Indian government has initiated the auction of 38 critical and strategic mineral blocks, reflecting its determination to harness domestic and international mineral resources effectively.
  • This underscores India’s strategic focus on securing a sustainable supply of essential minerals to fuel its economic growth and industrial development.

Critical Minerals:

  • Critical minerals are those minerals that are essential for economic development and national security, the lack of availability of these minerals or concentration of extraction or processing in a few geographical locations may lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and even disruption of supplies.
  • Rare earth elements and other critical minerals, found abundantly in Africa, have drawn widespread attention amid calls issued by multilateral bodies, including the United Nations and its affiliates, to switch to emission-free sources of energy.
  • Reducing the carbon footprint is seen as essential to slow down the pace of global warming.

The following critical minerals are in focus to build a decarbonised energy infrastructure:

  • Rare earth elements: They are used in offshore wind turbine generators and electric vehicle motors.
  • Lithium, cobalt, and high-purity nickel: They are used in energy storage technologies.
  • Platinum group metals: They are used in catalysts for automotive, chemical, fuel cell, and green hydrogen products.
  • Gallium and germanium: They are used in developing semiconductors.

Some of the most critical minerals found in Africa include:

  • Cobalt: The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is the world’s leading producer of cobalt, which is a key component of lithium-ion batteries.
  • Lithium: Lithium is used in electric vehicle batteries and is becoming increasingly in demand. Africa has significant lithium reserves in countries like Zimbabwe, Namibia, and Mali.
  • Copper: Copper is a vital mineral for electrical wiring and is also used in renewable energy technologies. Africa has large copper reserves in countries like Zambia, the DRC, and South Africa.
  • Graphite: Graphite is used in lithium-ion batteries and is also a key component of solar panels. Africa has significant graphite reserves in countries like Mozambique, Madagascar, and Tanzania.
  • Rare earth elements: Rare earth elements are used in a wide variety of products, including electric vehicles, wind turbines, and consumer electronics. Africa has significant rare earth element reserves in countries like Burundi, Madagascar, and South Africa.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION PLEASE REFER TO THE CA MONTHLY MAGAZINE OF MARCH.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/india-looking-to-africa-for-critical-minerals-mines-secretary-vl-kantha-rao-9228304/



NGT ACTION ON NETRAVATI WATERFRONT PROMENADE DEVELOPMENT PROJECT

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY, GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Netravati Waterfront Promenade Development Project in Mangaluru has come under scrutiny due to alleged violations of Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) norms and environmental regulations.

EXPLANATION:

Concerns Raised by NECF:

  • The local chapter of the National Environmental Conservation Foundation (NECF) raised concerns about the project’s adverse effects on the environment and the livelihoods of local communities.
  • This includes violations of CRZ norms, destruction of mangroves, and lack of clearances for heavy earthwork.

NGT Intervention:

  • Recognizing the seriousness of the environmental and social issues associated with the project, the NGT has directed the formation of a joint committee to submit a detailed report.
  • This committee is tasked with assessing the project’s environmental impact, adherence to CRZ regulations, and measures taken for stakeholder rehabilitation.

Alleged Violations:

  • The NECF alleges that the project promoters violated environmental norms by undertaking heavy earthwork without proper permissions and clearances.
  • They point to actions such as destroying mangroves, filling soil in the intertidal zone, and creating artificial embankments without conducting an environmental impact assessment (EIA).

Lack of Clearances and Feedback:

  • There have been numerous letters from environmental activists highlighting the violations to authorities such as the Deputy Commissioner, MSCL, CRZ authorities, forest department, and pollution control board.
  • Despite numerous letters there has been no feedback or action from the district administration or regulatory bodies.

Demands for Halt and Joint Inquiry:

  • NECF and other environmental organizations demand an immediate halt to the project due to violations of CRZ-2011 norms and conditional CRZ clearance granted by KSCZMA.
  • They call for a joint inquiry involving MSCL, CRZ officers, forest departments, pollution control board officers, and NECF members to investigate the violations.

Focus on Environmental Protection:

  • The appeal made to the state minister for Forest and Environment emphasizes the importance of protecting the Netravati River, which serves as a lifeline for the coastal district.
  • They argue that taxpayer money should not be wasted on projects without proper planning, sketches, public hearings, or EIAs, especially when it poses risks to the environment and local livelihoods.

Netravati Waterfront Promenade Development Project:

  • The Netravati Waterfront Promenade Development Project in Mangaluru is being undertaken by the Mangaluru Smart City Limited (MSCL), a special-purpose vehicle created under the Smart City Mission.
  • The project aims to transform a 5km stretch along the Netravati river into an active recreational and commercial hub, featuring gardens, parks, pedestrian-friendly walkways, a bicycle track, boardwalks, a nature park, and adventure sports facilities to promote tourism.
  • The project includes the development of gardens, parks, a biodiversity park, a bird-watching area near the Netravati railway bridge, and a pathway.
  • However, stakeholders have raised concerns about transparency and clarity regarding the project, with delays in obtaining clearances affecting its progress.
  • The project cost is estimated at around ₹60 crore for the promenade development component.

Netravati river:

  • The Netravati River flows through Mangaluru. The river has its origins at Gangamoola and flows through the Mangalore city after which it joins the Kumaradhara River and flows into the Arabian Sea.
  • The river flows through the Dharamsthala which is a famous pilgrimage.
  • The origin of the river lies in the Western Ghats in Banagrabalike forest valley in the Karnataka state.
  • Netravati River is also known as the Bantwal River.

National Green Tribunal (NGT):

  • It is a specialised body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010) for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
  • With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
  • NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
  • The NGT has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/netravati-riverfront-project-ngt-takes-cognisance-of-crz-environmental-norm-violation-allegations-seeks-report-95189



HEPATITIS B AWARENESS AND VACCINATION STUDY IN INDIA

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Hepatitis B is a significant public health concern in India, as highlighted by a study conducted by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital, New Delhi.

EXPLANATION:

  • Despite its potential to cause severe liver diseases such as cirrhosis and liver cancer, public knowledge and awareness regarding the disease remain inadequate.

Highlights of the Study:

  • The study revealed that only 25% of respondents had sufficient knowledge about Hepatitis B, including its transmission methods, effects on the liver, and the importance of vaccination.
  • This lack of awareness underscores the need for targeted information campaigns to address misconceptions and educational gaps surrounding the disease.
  • Globally, Hepatitis B infection affects around 296 million people annually, leading to approximately 887,000 deaths due to complications.
  • In India, where socio-demographic indices are lower, infection rates remain high despite the availability of an effective vaccine for over three decades.
  • The prevalence of Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positivity, indicating HBV infection, ranges from 2% to 8% in India.
  • Recent meta-analyses suggest an overall prevalence of 3.70%, translating to about 37 million HBV carriers in the country.
  • These statistics highlight the urgent need for increased awareness and vaccination efforts.

Study Methodology:

  • The study conducted by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital involved a cross-sectional survey of over 3,500 participants to assess their knowledge and vaccination practices related to Hepatitis B.
  • The survey evaluated four critical domains:
    • cause and spread of the disease,
    • affected organs and consequences,
    • available treatments, and
    • vaccination information.

Vaccination Coverage and Disparities:

  • Alarmingly, only 22.7% of participants had completed the full Hepatitis B vaccination course.
  • The study also identified disparities in vaccination uptake influenced by factors such as gender, education levels, and urban-rural divide.
  • These disparities underscore the importance of ensuring accessibility to vaccination initiatives for all segments of the population.

Recommendations and Public Health Interventions:

  • The need for targeted public health interventions to improve awareness and vaccination coverage has been emphasized.
  • Educational campaigns should particularly focus on vulnerable populations, including women, older individuals, those with lower education levels, and rural residents.
  • The importance of completing the full vaccination schedule for adequate efficacy has been stressed.
  • It is common for individuals to miss the last dose of vaccination, which can compromise protection against Hepatitis B.

Hepatitis:

  • Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver that is caused by a variety of infectious viruses and noninfectious agents leading to a range of health problems, some of which can be fatal.
  • There are five main strains of the hepatitis virus, referred to as types A, B, C, D and E.
  • While they all cause liver disease, they differ in important ways including modes of transmission, severity of the illness, geographical distribution and prevention methods.
  • In particular, types B and C lead to chronic disease in hundreds of millions of people and together are the most common cause of liver cirrhosis, liver cancer and viral hepatitis-related deaths.
  • An estimated 354 million people worldwide live with hepatitis B or C, and for most, testing and treatment remain beyond reach.
  • Hepatitis B is a liver infection caused by the hepatitis B virus.
  • Some people with hepatitis B are sick for only a few weeks (known as “acute” infection), but for others, the disease progresses to a serious, lifelong illness known as chronic hepatitis B.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/hepatitis-b-is-a-public-health-concern-in-india-but-very-few-know-about-its-transmission-effects-vaccination-95201



SURVEY OF BHOJSHALA COMPLEX IN MADHYA PRADESH

TAG: GS 1: ANCIENT HISTORY

THE CONTEXT: The Bhojshala/Kamal Maula Mosque complex, situated in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, has been a subject of contention between Hindus and Muslims due to its historical and religious significance.

EXPLANATION:

  • Hindus believe it to be a temple of Goddess Vagdevi (Saraswati), while Muslims regard it as Kamal Maula Mosque.
  • The Madhya Pradesh High Court issued a directive on March 11, instructing the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to conduct a ‘scientific survey’ of the Bhojshala complex within six weeks.
  • The ASI initiated the survey on March 22, forming a 15-member team accompanied by local police and district administration officials.
  • Despite the sensitive nature of the site, arrangements were made to ensure security during the survey.
  • The Muslim community continued their Friday prayers at the site amidst tight security arrangements.
  • Additionally, the customary practices of Hindu worship on Tuesdays and Muslim prayers on Fridays were assured to continue undisturbed by the local authorities.
  • The ASI utilized modern technologies such as GPS and carbon-dating equipment for the survey, as directed by the High Court.
  • These technologies are crucial for scientific assessments of historical sites, aiding in accurate data collection and analysis.

Legal Challenges and Supreme Court Petition:

  • While the survey was underway, a Special Leave Petition (SLP) was filed by the Muslim community in the Supreme Court challenging the High Court order.
  • However, due to scheduling, the SLP was not taken up for an urgent hearing and was listed for April 1.
  • There were concerns raised regarding the absence of authorized Muslim representatives during the survey.
  • ‘Shahar Qazi’ Waqar Sadiq highlighted historical records and court responses affirming the site’s identity as a mosque.
  • He referred to ASI reports from 1902 and 1903, which documented the site as a mosque, and cited previous court proceedings supporting this claim.

Historical Context and Legal Precedents:

  • Sadiq pointed out historical documentation and court responses dating back to 1998, which acknowledged the site as Kamal Moula Mosque.
  • He referred to a reply filed during Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s tenure as Prime Minister, asserting the mosque’s existence and the mystery surrounding Bhojshala’s identity.
  • Despite setbacks in the Supreme Court, legal representatives expressed determination to pursue the matter.
  • Lawyer stated that since the Supreme Court did not hear the case, the survey would continue according to the High Court’s directive.

Bhojshala Temple-Kamal Maula Mosque Complex:

  • The Bhojshala Temple-Kamal Maula Mosque complex was originally a temple of goddess Sarasvati built by Parawara King Bhoja in 11th Century AD.
  • The mosque is built using structural members of the temple. The monument also retains some slabs inscribed with Sanskrit and Prakrit literary works.
  • Noted as a great patron of art and literature, King Bhoja is said to have established a school, now known as Bhojashala.
  • The controversy revolves around the original status of the site as a temple.
  • The petitioner cites an ASI report claiming that the original Bhojshala and Vagdevi temples were demolished to build a mosque. A survey was requested to determine the actual history of the site.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/asi-starts-court-ordered-survey-of-disputed-bhojshala-complex-in-madhya-pradesh/article67981751.ece#:~:text=The%20high%20court%2C%20on%20March,calls%20it%20Kamal%20Maula%20Mosque.



CAN KEJRIWAL CONTINUE TO BE CM WHILE IN CUSTODY?

THE CONTEXT: After the recent arrest of Delhi Chief Minister, questions are being asked about whether he can continue to occupy a public office that demands a high degree of morality. Aam Aadmi Party leaders have insisted that he will remain the Chief Minister.

ARGUMENTS IN SUPPORT

  • Arvind Kejriwal has not tendered his resignation from the post of Chief Minister. The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) said he will continue as the chief minister of Delhi and will run the government from jail.
  • As per the rules, he loses the position only in these scenarios
  1. if he loses the majority in the House
  2. his party tells him to step down, he resigns from the position
  3. if the President intervenes.
  • Section 8 of the Representation of the People Act 1951 only bars due to disqualification and in this case, that is not the issue.
  • A decade ago, the Law Commission recommended disqualification of an MP or an MLA if charges were framed against them in any such case. But these recommendations were never accepted by the government or put in place.
  • They also hold the view that President’s Rule does not apply in this case because there is no breakdown of the constitutional machinery.

WHAT DOES LAW SAY?

  • As per the Constitution, the President of India and governors of states and Union territories are exempt from civil and criminal proceedings until his/her term ends, as per the law.
  • Article 361 of the Constitution says that the President of India and Governors of states are not answerable to any court of law for “any act done in discharge of their official duties”.
    However, this does not extend to the prime minister or chief minister of a state.
  • Also, there is no law that stops a chief minister from running the administration of a state from behind bars.
  • As per Representation of the People Act, 1951, an MLA or MP is only disqualified when convicted. As of now, CM of Delhi has not been convicted that means he can technically and legally continue in office. Section 8, Clause 3 of the Representation of the People Act deals with disqualification of a lawmaker and says a person convicted for an offence and sentenced to two years or above shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction. It says the lawmaker shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years after his release.
  • Also, there is no specific provision in the law that a chief minister had to necessarily resign and pass on the baton to somebody if he or she was arrested.

WHAT ARE CHALLENGES FROM GOVERNING BEHIND BARS?

  • Though there is no law that stops Delhi CM from continuing to run the Delhi government from jail but it is difficult to do so in reality.
  • There are many practical and even constitutional problems to running a state administration from prison.
  • As per jail manual, there is no precedent to a chief minister working from jail. As per the current jail rules, an inmate can meet family, friends, or associates only twice a week. In such a situation, it will be difficult for him to govern.
  • The jail manual lays down specifically that an undertrial is allowed meetings only twice a week. Conducting Cabinet meetings and maintaining secrecy of government files would be difficult if carried to the Tihar Central Jail.
  • Undwrtrials are allowed only specific documents, including court applications and vakalatnamas.
  • There are also constitutional ramifications of these actions. A chief minister governing from jail indicates a “failure of constitutional machinery in state” which could be used to argue for the imposition of President’s Rule.
  • Article 239 AB gives powers to lieutenant governors to recommend to the President of India to suspend the operation of Article 239 AA.
  • Thus, the LG could recommend the imposition of President’s Rule if he believes that there is a breakdown of constitutional machinery in Delhi.

JUDGEMENTS: BY THE MADRAS HIGH COURT IN S. RAMACHANDRAN VERSUS V. SENTHIL BALAJI

  • The judgement referred to arguments made in court on whether a Minister must forfeit his right to occupy a public office that demands a high degree of morality if he is accused of a “financial scandal”.
  • A former Tamil Nadu Electricity Minister, was arrested by the ED on money-laundering charges but he continued to be a state minister without portfolio while he was in judicial custody.
  • The Madras High Court judgment highlighted discussions by lawyers in court about the practical difficulties of being a Minister while in custody. For example, a Minister sitting in prison cannot ask the Secretary of the State to get the files concerning any of the departments without breaching the oath of office.
  • The arguments referred to a 2014 Constitution Bench judgment of the Supreme Court in Manoj Narula versus Union of India, which had held that

1. The basic norm for holding a public office was constitutional morality, that is, to avoid acting in a manner contradictory to the rule of law.

2. The second norm was good governance. It was argued in the Madras High Court that “the government has to rise above narrow private interests or parochial political outlook and aim at doing good for the larger public interest”.

3. The third was constitutional trust, that is, to uphold the high degree of morality attached to a public office.

  • The High Court concluded that as minister did not “completely suffer a disqualification as a Member of Legislative Assembly under the Representation of People Act, 1951”. However, the High Court had agreed that citizens expect that persons in power had high standards of moral conduct. Political compulsion cannot outweigh the public morality, requirements of good/clean governance and constitutional morality.

THE CONCLUSION:

Addressing the concerns of federal overreach, political misuse, and ensuring fair investigations requires a multi-pronged approach involving legal reforms, institutional strengthening, and a commitment to transparency and accountability. The practical difficulties can be sorted if L-G exercises powers under the Prison Act to declare any facility as ‘prison’. Judgments in the Supreme Court and High Courts have previously concluded that constitutional morality, good governance, and constitutional trust are the basic norms for holding a public office.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/can-kejriwal-can-continue-to-be-cm-while-in-custody-lessons-from-the-senthil-balaji-case/article67981688.ece