Answer: D
Explanation:

Options 1, 2 and 3 are incorrectly matched:
1. Pallikaranai marshland Tamil Nadu
● The Pallikaranai Marsh is one of the last remaining
natural wetlands of Chennai city.
● Designated as Ramsar site in India.
● It is locally known by the generic Tamil name

‘kazhuveli’ which means a flood plain or water-
logged area.

● On its eastern periphery, the Marsh is flanked by the
Buckingham Canal.
● Pallikaranai Marsh is a part of the vast Bay of Bengal
Large Marine Ecosystem. It is one of the few natural coastal aquatic habitats that qualify as a
wetland in India. The seasonal dynamics in water volume, spread and chemistry, both
historical and current, have rendered the Pallikaranai Marsh a biodiversity-rich South Indian
wetland.
● The Site is threatened by invasive and non-native species, household sewage, urban
wastewater and droughts.

 Answer: B
Explanation:

Recently, COP28 President (from UAE) has urged the oil and gas industry to phase out methane
emissions by 2030. Methane is the second most abundant GHG after CO2. It is 86 times more
powerful than CO2 over a period of 20 years. Over a period of 100 years, the Global warming potential
of methane is about 25 times higher than that of CO2.
It is a short-lived climate pollutant that has a lifespan of about 12-13 years, after which it gets
decomposed to Carbon Dioxide.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The methane emissions from waste sector, energy sector and industrial
process/product use clubbed together amount to 26% of total methane emissions, while the
agricultural sector alone emits about 74% of methane into the atmosphere.

Natural Sources of Methane-
• Wetlands
• Microorganisms from water-logged soils
• Decaying organic matter, landfills
• Hydro dams and reservoirs
• Melting Arctic Sea and soil (source of methane gas hydrates)
• Wildfires
Anthropogenic sources-
• Burning of fossil fuels
• Waste
• Agriculture (paddy fields)
• Livestock (methanogens in digestive tract of ruminants)
Statement 2 is correct: Methane is a main precursor of tropospheric ozone which is a powerful GHG
and air pollutant that leads to formation of photochemical smog on warm sunny days. Oxidation of
methane contributes to the formation of bad ozone.

Answer: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Cancun (Mexico) Conference of UNFCCC (COP16 in 2010) led to
establishment of Green Climate Fund (not Adaptation Fund). The general concept for GCF was first
proposed at the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the UNFCCC in Copenhagen, Denmark (COP 15).

THE PT QUEST 2024 LUKMAAN IAS
● It is designed as an operating entity of the Convention’s financial mechanism and is
headquartered in Incheon, Republic of Korea.
● It is governed by a 24 Board member Board, representing countries, and receives guidance
from the Conference of the Parties to the Convention (COP).
● The Fund pays particular attention to the needs of societies that are highly vulnerable to the
effects of climate change, in particular Least Developed Countries (LDCs), Small Island
Developing States (SIDS), and African States.
Adaptation Fund was established in 2001 to finance concrete adaptation projects and programmes
in developing country Parties to the Kyoto Protocol that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse
effects of climate change.
● The Adaptation Fund serves the Paris Agreement under the CMA with respect to all Paris
Agreement matters, effective 1 January 2019 and with this, it no longer serves as financing
mechanism for Kyoto Protocol now. The Parties had decided that once the share of proceeds
becomes available under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, the Adaptation Fund shall no longer
serve the Kyoto Protocol.
● The Adaptation Fund is supervised and managed by the Adaptation Fund Board (AFB). The
AFB is composed of 16 members and 16 alternates and meets at least twice a year.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Loss and Damage Fund was created at the 27th Conference of Parties
(COP27, Sharm-el-Sheikh, Egypt) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), focusing on particularly vulnerable countries hit hard by floods, droughts and other climate
disasters. For the first time, countries recognized the need for finance to respond to loss and damage
associated with the catastrophic effects of climate change and agreed to the establishing of a fund
and the necessary funding arrangements.
However, the decisions regarding its funding and operationalisation would be taken at the upcoming
UNFCCC COP28 (Dubai, UAE).

Answer: C
Explanation:

The International Whaling Commission (IWC) was set up under the International Convention for the
Regulation of Whaling which was signed in Washington D.C. on 2nd December 1946. The preamble to
the Convention states that its purpose is to provide for the proper conservation of whale stocks and
thus make possible the orderly development of the whaling industry.
• Statement 1 is correct: The IWC is responsible for setting catch limits for commercial whaling
(with the exceptions of Norway and Iceland, see below). The Commission receives advice on
sustainability from its Scientific Committee before deciding catch limits, which are then set
out in a document called the Schedule to the International Convention for the Regulation of
Whaling.
• An integral part of the Convention is its legally binding ‘Schedule.’ The Schedule sets out
specific measures that the IWC has collectively decided are necessary in order to regulate
whaling and conserve whale stocks.
• These measures include catch limits (which may be zero as it the case for commercial whaling)
by species and area, designating specified areas as whale sanctuaries, protection of calves
and females accompanied by calves, and restrictions on hunting methods.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Special permit whaling (for scientific purposes) is not regulated by
the Commission but by national governments, although none currently undertake this type
of whaling.
• The legal framework of the IWC is the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling
which recognises three different types of whaling: commercial, aboriginal subsistence and

THE PT QUEST 2024 LUKMAAN IAS
special permit (also known as scientific) whaling. It regulates only commercial whaling and
aboriginal subsistence whaling.
• Following considerable debate, a commercial whaling moratorium was adopted in 1982 and
came into full force in 1986. The Commission continues to regulate Aboriginal Subsistence
Whaling, which is conducted by indigenous communities, often in remote parts of the world.

Answer: C
Explanation:

Fungi are eukaryotic organisms which include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, moulds, and
mushrooms. Historically, fungi were included in the plant kingdom; however, because fungi lack
chlorophyll and are distinguished by unique structural and physiological features (i.e., components of
the cell wall and cell membrane), they have been separated from plants.
• Statement 1 is correct: Lichen represent the symbiotic relationship between blue-green
algae (cyanobacteria) and fungi. The Lichen are a huge group of composite organisms.
(Composite organisms are simply organisms that are made up of two or more independent
organisms.)
• Lichens are made up of an alga or cyanobacterium partner (called the photobiont), and a
fungus partner (called the mycobiont). The mycobiont provides the lichen with minerals
(structure), water, and shelter, while the photobiont provides the lichen with nutrients
through photosynthesis.
• Statement 2 is correct: Mycoremediation is a method of bioremediation using fungi to
decontaminate contaminated areas. The white-rot fungi are much effective in degrading a
wide range of organic molecules due to their release of extra-cellular lignin-modifying
enzymes, with a low substrate-specificity, so they can act upon various molecules that are
broadly similar to lignin.
• The white-rot fungus ‘Phanerochaete chrysosporium’ is an ideal model for bioremediation by
fungi, since it is more efficient than other fungi or microorganisms in degrading toxic or
insoluble materials. It presents simultaneous oxidative and reductive mechanisms which
permit its use in many different situations, regarding the type of contamination, its degree,
and the nature of the site itself.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: There are some fungi such as mushroom which look like plants, but
they cannot carry out photosynthesis. Since fungi lack chlorophyll, they are not capable of
making their own food through photosynthesis. Also, they can not ingest food like animals
do. Instead, they feed by absorption of nutrients from the environment around them. They
possess hyphae which secrete digestive enzymes. These enzymes help in breaking down the
substrate, making it easier for the fungus to absorb nutrients which the substrate contains.
• Statement 4 is correct: Fungi are among the primary decomposers in many environments
such as forests. Most of the fungi are saprophytes, feeding on dead and decaying material.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Accommodating transactions:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Accommodating transactions are also termed as the ‘below the line’
items. It implies those economic transactions carried out with the purpose of meeting the gap
in autonomous transactions. They are determined by the net consequences of the
autonomous items, that is, whether the BoP is in surplus or deficit.
● Statement 2 is correct: The official reserve transactions are seen as the accommodating item
in the BoP .
● Statement 3 is correct: Accommodating transactions compensate for the surplus or deficit
brought about by autonomous transactions. It seeks to bring equality between the payments
and receipts of foreign exchange.
● These transactions are carried out for maintaining the balance in the Balance of Payment
Account. These transactions fall in the capital account only.
● These transactions happen in the Government sector only.
Autonomous transaction:
● International economic transactions are called autonomous when transactions are made
independently of the state of the BoP (for instance due to profit motive).
● Autonomous transactions will include imports and exports (current account transactions) and
also lending or borrowing of loans (cross border) or payment or receipt of interests thereon.

 Answer: C

Explanation:
● Sir Thomas Gresham lived from 1519 to 1579 and wrote about the value and minting of coins
while working as a financier.
● It states that, in a fixed exchange rate system, “bad money drives out good”.
● It comes into play when the exchange rate between two currencies is fixed by the government
at a certain ratio that is different from market exchange rate.
Or
● When the price of a currency in terms of another currency is arbitrarily fixed by lawmakers, it
leads to a shortage in the supply of the currency that is undervalued, while there is at the
same time an over-supply of the currency that is overvalued.
● The law observes that legally overvalued currency will drive legally undervalued currency out
of circulation.

3. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) was launched in April , 2020. PLI offers a production
linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in various
sectors.
● The scheme shall extend an incentive of 4% to 6% on incremental sales (over base year) of
goods manufactured in India and covered under target segments, to eligible companies, for a
period of five (5) years subsequent to the base year as defined.
● The Scheme is open for applications for a period of 4 months initially which may be extended.
Support under the Scheme shall be provided for a period of five (5) years subsequent to the
base year

4. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Tax Base: Tax base is defined as the total value of the financial streams or assets on which
tax can be imposed by the government. For example, in case of income tax, the tax base is
all the income that can be taxed by the government (taxable income). If the minimum
amount/threshold of the income on which tax is imposed is lowered, this will automatically
increase (widen) the tax base; if it is raised, the tax base will be narrowed. In case of service
tax, tax base is the value of services on which service tax is imposed. For example, if CCD sells
tea/coffee worth Rs. 10 crore and of course it collects service tax/GST on 10 crores, so tax
base will be Rs. 10 crores. In case of property tax, tax base is the value of property on which
property tax is imposed. Because the size of the tax base influences the taxable revenues that
are available to a government, the size and growth of the tax base is crucial to the planning
efforts of any government.
● Tax Buoyancy: Tax buoyancy is an indicator to measure efficiency and responsiveness of
revenue mobilization in response to growth in the GDP or National Income. It is measured
as a ratio of growth in Tax Revenue to the growth in nominal GDP (i.e., ratio of percentage
change in tax revenue to percentage change in nominal GDP). Tax buoyancy greater than one
is good for the economy.
● Tax Elasticity: The tax elasticity measures the responsiveness of tax revenue to changes in tax
rate and is defined as the ratio of percentage change in tax revenue to percentage change in
tax rate.

5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● A direct tax is a tax that a person or organization pays directly to the entity that imposed it.
Examples include income tax, real property tax, personal property tax, and taxes on assets, all
of which are paid by an individual taxpayer directly to the government.
● List of direct tax:

THE PT QUEST 2024 LUKMAAN IAS

o Income Tax
o Corporate Tax
o Securities Transaction Tax
o Capital Gains Tax
o Gift Tax
o Wealth Tax
o Land revenue
o Property tax
o Dividend distribution tax
o Equalization levy
● Indirect tax is the tax levied on the consumption of goods and services. It is not directly levied
on the income of a person. Instead, he/she has to pay the tax along with the price of goods or
services bought by the seller.
● List of indirect tax:
o Sales Tax
o Value Added Tax (VAT)
o Goods & Services Tax (GST)
o Luxury tax
o Stamp duty
o Custom Duty

Answer: B
Explanation:

‘Suyurghals’ is the practice of granting revenue producing lands to scholars, theologians and
others by the Mughal emperors which is tax free.
It was an Mongolian tradition. The suyurghals holder was free from any administrative or
judicial interference from the central government. There was no compulsory obligation to
provide for military contingents.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mughals in India proudly traced their ancestry to both Chingiz
and Timur. In Babur Nama, emperor Babur talked of Chingiz, an ancestor of his mother and
Timur, his paternal ancestor.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Mughals adopted the Timurid ‘appanage system’ or the
principle of heritable division of territory. It means the entire empire will be divided amongst
all the sons. Primoginature is the system in which the eldest son acquires the throne.

 Answer: A
Explanation:
During the reign of Vijaynagara’s greatest ruler Krishnadeva Raya (1509-29), the power of the
Bahmanis declined, leading to the emergence of five kingdoms:
● the Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar;
● the Adil Shahis of Bijapur;
● the Imad Shahis of Berar,
● the Qutb Shahis of Golconda and
● the Barid Shahis of Bidar

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Nimbarka (12th century), a Telegu Brahman, propounded the
idea of Dvaitadvaita (bheda-bheda; dualistic-nondualism),against Shankara’s philosophy of
maya (illusion).
Statement 2 is correct: Nimbarka emphasizes that the Supreme soul (God) and individual
soul and the inanimate world are both ‘identical’ (monism) and at the same time were
‘distinct’ (dualism). ‘They are identical in the sense that the individual soul and the
inanimate world are entirely dependent on God and have no independent existence’. Thus
Nimbarka’s philosophy is both ‘monistic and pluralistic’.

Answer: C
Explanation:

The land south of the river Narmada was called by the Aryan settlers as Dakshinapatha and
included the Dandakaranya which was so named from the vast forest that stretched
southwards from the Tapti to the Godavari. During the early centuries of the common era
Mahārāshtra consisted of three distinct portions, viz. the first, Vidarbha or Berar; the
second, Asmaka or the Godavari basin (later known as Seuna Desh); and the third Kuntala,
that is the valley of the river Krishnā. It also embraced the western coastal region known as
Aparänta or Konkan, stretching from Daman in the north to Goa or even Karwar in the
south.