LOK SABHA PASSES BILLS FOR WOMEN’S QUOTA IN J&K AND PUDUCHERRY ASSEMBLIES

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Lok Sabha approved two bills on December 12 to extend the constitutional provisions granting 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State legislatures to the Union Territories of Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir.

EXPLANATION:

  • The bills aim to implement the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act in these regions to ensure gender representation in legislative bodies.

Debate Context and Dominance of Article 370 Verdict

  • Despite the focus on the women’s reservation bills, the parliamentary discussion was largely influenced by the recent Supreme Court verdict regarding the abrogation of Article 370.
  • The debate’s trajectory was steered towards this verdict, drawing attention away from the core topic of the bills.

Content of the Bills

  • Minister of State for Home presented the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Second Amendment) Bill and the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill in the Lok Sabha.
  • The Bills aimed to modify the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, and the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963, respectively, to facilitate women’s reservations in the legislative assemblies of Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry.

Parliamentary Debates and Perspectives

  • The importance of women’s representation has been emphasized.
  • However, linking the debate timing to the recent Supreme Court verdict on Article 370, echoing the disappointment of parties from Jammu and Kashmir.
  • The absence of MLAs in Jammu and Kashmir for the past six years has been highlighted, questioning the governance structure in the Union Territory.
  • Historical obligations and promises during Jammu and Kashmir’s accession to India has been referenced, expressing concerns over the unresolved issues post the Article 370 abrogation.

Implementation and Future Steps

  • The implementation of the women’s reservation law faces delays as it awaits the next census (anticipated in late 2024) and subsequent delimitation exercises in 2026 to determine the specific constituencies reserved for women.
  • The women’s quota in the Lok Sabha and Assemblies will be in effect for 15 years, with provisions for Parliament to extend the benefit period subsequently.

Conclusion

  • Despite the bills’ passage aimed at enhancing gender representation in legislatures, the parliamentary debate was diverted towards the broader context of governance and unresolved issues following the abrogation of Article 370.
  • The bills are a step forward for gender inclusion in the political landscape of Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry, although broader governance concerns dominated the discussion.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ls-clears-bills-for-womens-quota-in-jk-puducherry-assemblies/article67631129.ece



FOOD SECURITY AND NUTRITION IN INDIA: FAO REPORT ANALYSIS

TAG: GS 3: AGRICULTURE

THE CONTEXT: Recently the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations released the “Regional Overview of Food Security and Nutrition 2023: Statistics and Trends” report.

EXPLANATION:

  • The report highlighted concerning statistics related to the affordability of healthy diets, malnutrition, and stunted growth in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.

Affordability of Healthy Diet

  • In 2021, 74.1% of Indians were unable to afford a healthy diet, showing a slight improvement from 2020’s 76.2%.
  • Pakistan and Bangladesh faced similar challenges, with 82.2% and 66.1% of their populations respectively encountering difficulties in accessing healthy food.
  • Rising food costs, when not matched by increased income, exacerbate the challenge of affordability, leading to more people unable to access nutritious meals.

Impact of COVID-19 and “5Fs” Crisis

  • The report highlighted the lingering effects of the COVID-19 pandemic and the “5Fs” crisis (Food, Feed, Fuel, Fertilisers, and Finance) in the region.
  • The region still suffers from the aftermath of these crises, with Asia-Pacific accounting for half of the world’s severe food insecurity, affecting more women than men.

Nutrition and Health

  • The region continues to struggle with undernourishment, with 370.7 million undernourished individuals, representing half of the global total.
  • Stunting, wasting, overweight issues among children under 5 years, and anaemia among women of reproductive age remain significant concerns.

Undernourishment and Food Insecurity

  • 6% of India’s population faces undernourishment, impacting health, nutrition, as well as economic and social well-being.
  • Southern Asia registers higher prevalence rates for severe food insecurity compared to other subregions, with Southern Asia also showing higher percentages for moderate or severe food insecurity since 2015.

Childhood Malnutrition

  • 7% of Indian children under five suffer from stunted growth, largely attributed to factors such as poor maternal health, inadequate infant feeding practices, and persistent infections.
  • India records the highest rate of wasting among children under five in the region at 18.7%, surpassing the WHO’s global nutrition target of less than 5%.

Maternal Health and Anaemia

  • Anaemia affects 53% of women aged 15 to 49 in India, posing health risks for both women and their offspring during pregnancy and childbirth.

Other Health Concerns

  • Obesity among adults stands at 1.6%, and the prevalence of low birthweight in India is notable at 27.4%.

Breastfeeding and Nutrition Improvements

  • India has shown improvement in exclusive breastfeeding rates among infants (0–5 months) at 63.7%, higher than the global prevalence of 47.7%.
  • However, India faces challenges with high rates of low birthweight in the region, alongside Bangladesh and Nepal.

Conclusion

  • The FAO report underlines critical challenges in achieving nutritional goals, emphasizing the need for comprehensive strategies to address affordability, food security, and malnutrition issues in India and the broader region.
  • The statistics highlight the urgency for targeted interventions and policies to improve access to healthy diets and mitigate the detrimental effects of malnutrition on public health and well-being.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/741-of-indians-unable-to-afford-a-healthy-diet-fao-report/article67631605.ece



SUPREME COURT UPHOLDS ABROGATION OF ARTICLE 370

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously affirmed the President’s authority to abrogate Article 370 in August 2019, leading to the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories, thereby nullifying its special privileges.

EXPLANATION:

  • Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud led the five-judge Bench that validated the President’s power to unilaterally issue a notification to nullify Article 370 if “special circumstances warrant a special solution.”
  • The court emphasized that it could not contest the President’s decision regarding the cessation of the special circumstances that initially led to the establishment of Article 370.

Historical Integration of Jammu and Kashmir

  • The court acknowledged the 70-year-long collaborative effort between the Centre and Jammu and Kashmir for the integration process.
  • The aim was to align the rights and obligations outlined in the Indian Constitution with those of the people of Jammu and Kashmir, making them applicable in the entirety.

Redundancy of Jammu and Kashmir Constitution

  • The Supreme Court declared the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution “redundant” and “inoperative,” emphasizing that the Indian Constitution stands as a comprehensive code for constitutional governance.

Restoration of Statehood and Elections

  • The Centre assured the restoration of Statehood to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir at the earliest.
  • The Election Commission of India was directed to conduct Jammu and Kashmir Assembly elections by September 30, 2024.

Validity of Reorganization and President’s Rule

  • The court did not find it necessary to examine the legality of reorganizing Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories.
  • It upheld the creation of the Union Territory of Ladakh from the state.
  • The timing of the abrogation following the dissolution of the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislative Assembly and the subsequent imposition of President’s rule did not deter the court’s decision.
  • Even if the court had ruled against the Proclamation issued under Article 356, it stated that no material relief could be provided as President’s Rule was revoked on October 31, 2019.

Understanding Article 370’s Temporariness

  • The court clarified that Article 370 was a “temporary provision” established during a time of internal conflict and war to facilitate Jammu and Kashmir’s accession to the Union.
  • It underscored that only the Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir’s power to recommend abrogation ceased to exist with its dissolution in 1957.
  • However, the President’s authority under Article 370(3) remained intact.
  • Chief Justice highlighted that the State of Jammu and Kashmir did not possess “internal sovereignty” distinct from other states in the country.
  • The special privileges and separate Constitution were considered aspects of asymmetric federalism rather than sovereignty.

Conclusion

  • The Supreme Court’s verdict validates the abrogation of Article 370, emphasizing its temporary nature and underscoring the constitutional integration of Jammu and Kashmir into the Union.
  • The ruling provides clarity on the President’s power, the historical context, and the state’s constitutional status while reiterating the primacy of the Indian Constitution in governing the entire nation.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-upholds-abrogation-of-article-370-says-move-was-part-of-70-year-old-exercise-to-integrate-jk-to-the-union/article67626914.ece



INNOVATIVE ALGAE-ASSISTED CARBON CAPTURE TECHNOLOGY

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Researchers at IIT Jodhpur have developed a groundbreaking method that combines algae-assisted microbial fuel cells to capture carbon dioxide, treat wastewater, and generate power simultaneously.

EXPLANATION:

  • This technology represents a promising alternative to traditional carbon capture and sequestration (CCS) methods, offering multiple benefits in environmental remediation and energy production.

ALGAE-ASSISTED CARBON CAPTURE PROCESS

  • Absorption of CO2 from Flue Gas
    • The process initiates by cooling the flue gas from thermal power stations and industrial plants using a heat exchanger.
    • The cooled flue gas is then directed to a sieve-plate absorption column, where sodium carbonate supplemented wastewater absorbs CO2, producing flue-gas-derived bicarbonates (FGDBs).
  • Utilization in Algae-Assisted Microbial Fuel Cells (MFC)
    • FGDBs are utilized in plastic bag photobioreactors (PBRs) combined with algae-assisted microbial fuel cells.
    • This novel integration facilitates biochemical CO2 sequestration while simultaneously generating power and promoting algae biomass growth.

ADVANTAGES OVER CONVENTIONAL METHODS

  • Efficiency of CO2 Fixation
    • Compared to the conventional method of bubbling flue gases into algal ponds, the indirect biochemical route adopted by IIT Jodhpur proves more efficient.
    • It converts CO2 into carbonates, enhancing the solubility of inorganic carbon in water, thereby fostering increased carbon retention in the water.
  • Closed Systems and Wastewater Usage
    • The use of closed systems like PBRs is highlighted as preferable to open ponds, as they prevent decomposition of bicarbonates into CO2 and maintain pH levels.
    • Additionally, the technology utilizes wastewater, utilizing a thermo-tolerant algal strain (Chlorella vulgaris) capable of thriving in such conditions.

POWER GENERATION AND SCALING CHALLENGES

  • Algae in Microbial Fuel Cells
    • The integration of algae into microbial fuel cells generates electricity.
    • This bio-electrochemical process harnesses the metabolic activity of microorganisms breaking down organic matter in wastewater, releasing electrons that produce electric current.
  • Scalability and Limitations
    • While theoretically, all available flue gas can be used to grow algae, scalability presents challenges.
    • A tonne per day of CO2 capture demands a substantial algae culture area, limiting the practical scale of operation.
    • Moreover, only a small fraction of algae is used for power generation, leaving the majority available for bioenergy purposes.

FUTURE PROSPECTS AND DEVELOPMENT

  • Further Refinement and Research
    • Technology requires refinement and further research.
    • Developmental avenues include enhancing microbial consortia or genetically engineered strains, comprehensive mass balance studies, determination of feed flow rates, and retention times for efficient CO2 capture.
  • Device Optimization
    • Enhancements to the device itself could involve integrating specialized gas diffusing devices (spargers) for a stable gas supply, ensuring sustained algal growth.

CONCLUSION

  • IIT Jodhpur’s innovative algae-assisted microbial fuel cell technology showcases a promising approach to address multiple environmental challenges simultaneously.
  • While requiring further development and refinement, its potential to capture CO2, treat wastewater, and generate power represents a significant step towards sustainable and efficient energy solutions.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/business-tech/carbon-capture-by-algae-assisted-microbial-fuel-cell-shows-promise/article67624539.ece



COP28 RENEWABLE ENERGY TARGETS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The renewable energy pledge, signed by 118 countries during the COP28 climate summit, aims to triple the world’s green energy capacity to 11,000 GW by 2030.

EXPLANATION:

  • This initiative is crucial in reducing reliance on fossil fuels for energy generation.
  • The objective is to limit the global average temperature increase, striving to stay below the 2-degree Celsius temperature rise since pre-industrial times, in alignment with the 2015 Paris Agreement goals.

Goals and Implications

  • The pledge requires countries to double the global average annual rate of energy efficiency improvements from about 2% to over 4% each year until 2030.
  • This ambitious target signifies a collective effort by world governments to mitigate the rise in emissions and shift away from fossil fuel dependency.
  • The intention is to contribute to curbing the temperature rise and ideally achieve the more ambitious 1.5-degree Celsius goal set in the Paris Agreement.

Unbinding Nature of the Pledge

  • It’s essential to note that while this pledge is a significant indicator of global leaders’ intentions to tackle emissions, it is not legally binding and is not officially part of the COP28 calendar.
  • However, it signals a strong commitment to combatting global emissions.

ROLE OF RENEWABLE ENERGY IN CLIMATE MITIGATION

  • Renewable Energy’s Growing Dominance
    • The International Energy Agency (IEA) forecasts that between 2022 and 2027, renewables will constitute over 90% of global electricity capacity expansion.
    • Countries like China, the EU, the US, and India are key drivers behind this acceleration, implementing policies, regulatory reforms, and market changes to address the energy crisis.
  • Transitioning Away from Fossil Fuels
    • Solar, wind, hydropower, and biofuels are recognized as the primary future energy sources, even in developing nations.
    • The ambitious aim to triple renewable energy by 2050 is expected to significantly diminish reliance on fossil fuels for energy generation.
  • Global Efforts and India’s Role
    • Various countries are actively increasing their renewable energy capacity.
    • India, for instance, is the world’s third-largest renewable energy producer and aims to fulfill 50% of its electricity demands from renewables by 2030, with a net-zero emissions target by 2070.
    • However, challenges such as rising costs, labor constraints, and supply chain issues are impeding renewable energy projects globally.

GLOBAL ENERGY TRANSITION CHALLENGES

  • Expanding Renewables Beyond Electricity
    • While the electricity sector is experiencing substantial growth in renewables, accounting for only a fifth of global energy consumption, integrating renewable sources into transportation and heating remains a critical challenge in the overall energy transition.
  • Hurdles in Renewable Deployment
    • Despite the enthusiasm for renewable energy, deployment faces obstacles like rising costs, labor shortages, and supply chain disruptions.
    • These challenges have resulted in delays and cancellations of projects, causing substantial financial losses for leading developers worldwide.

GEOPOLITICAL CONSIDERATIONS AND STANDPOINTS

  • Initiatives and Opposition
    • The pledge spearheaded by the EU, US, and UAE received support from several countries but faced opposition from major coal-dependent nations like India and China.
    • These countries expressed concerns about the initiative’s stance on phasing down coal and halting investments in new coal-fired power plants.
  • India’s Position
    • India, while initially staying away from the initiative due to its implications on coal, had previously supported a G20 commitment to triple global renewable energy capacity by 2030.
    • This reflects the complexity of balancing energy transition goals with existing economic dependencies on coal.

CONCLUSION

  • The renewable energy pledge at COP28 represents a significant commitment by numerous countries to accelerate the global shift towards renewable energy sources.
  • Despite challenges and diverging perspectives, this initiative highlights the urgent need for collaborative efforts to mitigate climate change by transitioning away from fossil fuels.
  • However, the practical implementation and overcoming of geopolitical differences pose significant challenges on the road to achieving these ambitious targets.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/cop28-tripling-renewable-energy-target-9062282/



BYPASSING OF ENVIRONMENTAL NORMS IN THE CHARDHAM MAHAMARG VIKAS PARIYOJANA

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

  • THE CONTEXT: The Chardham Mahamarg Vikas Pariyojana, focusing on infrastructure development for the Kailas-Mansarovar yatra, recently came under scrutiny due to revelations of bypassing necessary environmental impact assessments (EIA).

EXPLANATION:

  • Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways, acknowledged that the environmental impact assessment norms were bypassed for civil works comprising the improvement of existing national highways in the Tanakpur to Pithoragarh section, totalling 825 kilometers.
  • Project Division:
    • The project was fragmented into 53 parts, each less than 100 kilometers, effectively avoiding the requirement for environmental impact assessments, a strategy disclosed by Gadkari.

Lack of EIA and Supreme Court Directives

  • Requirement for EIA:
    • The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) guidelines state that projects involving highway expansion beyond 100 kilometers or extensive land acquisition demand prior environmental clearances.
    • However, due to the subdivision of the project, the need for EIA was circumvented.
  • Supreme Court Intervention:
    • The Supreme Court, on the application by the Union Ministry of Defence, allowed the widening of three strategically significant National Highways under the Chardham Pariyojana.
    • The court mandated a 10-meter-wide pavement for these highways.

Committees and Oversight for Environmental Assessment

  • Constitution of High-Powered Committee (HPC):
    • MoEFCC established an HPC with representatives from various institutes to analyze the cumulative and individual impact of the Chardham Projects on the Himalayan valleys.
    • The committee aims to issue directives for conducting EIA or Rapid EIA as needed.
  • Oversight Committee by Supreme Court:
    • An “Oversight Committee” was set up by the Supreme Court to ensure the implementation of recommendations from the HPC’s report.
    • This committee oversees the compliance of its suggestions in the remaining segments of the Chardham Pariyojana.

Chardham Mahamarg Vikas Pariyojana (Char Dham Highway Development Project):

  • Prime Minister laid the foundation stone of the ambitious Chardham Mahamarg Vikas Pariyojna on 27th December 2016 at Parade Ground in Dehradun.
  • The project aims at improving the connectivity to the Char Dham pilgrimage centres in the Himalayas, making journey to these centres safer, faster and more convenient.
  • The Chardham project includes developing 900 km of national highways in Uttarakhand at a total cost of Rs. 12000 crores.
  • Work for 17 projects worth Rs 3000 crores have already been sanctioned and tendered.
  • The entire length of the highways will be two-laned with paved shoulder and with a minimum width of 10 metres.
  • There will be tunnels, bypasses, bridges, subways and viaducts to prevent traffic bottlenecks.
  • A team of experts have been engaged to identify zones prone to landslides, and environment friendly techniques are being incorporated in the design to make these zones safer.
  • Wayside amenities and public facilities will be constructed all along the Chardham route, including parking spaces and helipad for emergency evacuation.

Conclusion: Environmental Compliance and Continuing Scrutiny

  • The revelation of bypassing EIA norms in the Chardham Mahamarg Vikas Pariyojayana has raised concerns regarding environmental compliance in crucial infrastructure projects.
  • The intervention of the Supreme Court and the formation of committees signify ongoing efforts to rectify this issue and ensure environmental sustainability in the project’s execution.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/government-admits-to-have-bypassed-environment-impact-assessments-for-chardham-project-93268



PM VISHWAKARMA SCHEME

TAG: GS 2: SOCIAL JUSTICE

THE CONTEXT: The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched by the Centre on September 17, has received over 21 lakh applications in two and a half months, data from the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) show.

EXPLANATION:

  • The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, initiated by the Centre, aims to support artisans and craftspeople by providing skill-upgradation training.
  • Launched on September 17, the scheme garnered a significant response, receiving over 21 lakh applications within a span of two and a half months.

Application Statistics and Regional Participation

  • Regional Distribution:
    • Karnataka led with 6.28 lakh applications, followed by West Bengal (4.04 lakh), Assam (1.83 lakh), Uttar Pradesh (1.53 lakh), and Andhra Pradesh (1.21 lakh).
    • Conversely, 15 states including Haryana, Kerala, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and northeastern states have fewer than 10,000 applications each.
  • Top Trades:
    • Tailors accounted for 43% (9.13 lakh) of the applications, followed by masons (4.72 lakh), carpenters (1.86 lakh), and contributions from basket-makers, barbers, and armourers.

FEATURES OF THE SCHEME:

  • The scheme will be fully funded by the central government.
  • Under the scheme, beneficiaries will also be provided Rs 15,000 each as toolkit incentives through e-vouchers or e-RUPI.
  • It will be a purpose-specific voucher issued by banks on behalf of the central government. This means the voucher can be utilized only for the purpose of purchase of toolkits.
  • The minimum age of the beneficiary should be 18 years on the date of registration.
  • The name of the scheme is kept in honour of the divine builder and craftsman lord Vishwakarma. The PM Vishwakarma scheme is a central sector scheme.
  • The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) will handle the scheme.
  • It would be open to traditional artists and crafters from 2023-24 to 2027-28.

Objectives and Framework of the Scheme

  • Skill Development:
    • The scheme provides formal training to modernize traditional skills amid evolving economic landscapes.
    • It encompasses 18 trades and crafts, offering financial assistance and avenues for market linkage.
  • Vetting Process:
    • Applications are undergoing vetting at village, district, and state levels to ensure scrutiny and credibility.
  • Training and Stipends:
    • Successful candidates will undergo basic training for 5-7 days and advanced training for 15 days, receiving a stipend of ₹500 per day.
    • Training includes exposure to modern tools, technologies, design elements, and digital and financial skills.

Implementation and Future Targets

  • Training Programs:
    • The Ministry conducted a five-day training program for 41 master trainers across ten states.
    • These trainers will educate candidates in various trades.
  • Master Trainer’s Perspective:
    • Master trainers are focusing on masonry and are upgrading local skills by incorporating modern techniques like ‘cross line laser level’ for levelling and aligning floors, ensuring knowledge transfer during training sessions.
  • Incentives and Financial Support:
    • Upon completion of training, artisans will receive a tool kit incentive of ₹15,000 for purchasing modern tools and collateral-free loans at a lower interest rate (around 8%) up to ₹1 lakh, with an additional ₹2 lakh for establishing their businesses.

Importance of Digital and Financial Skills

  • Enhancing Financial Literacy:
    • The scheme aims to improve digital and financial skills among traditional artisans to ensure proper income tracking, aligning with the country’s economic growth goals.
  • The Vishwakarma Scheme stands as a comprehensive effort to empower artisans and craftspeople by bridging the gap between traditional skills and modern demands while facilitating their economic progress.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/2115-lakh-applications-received-under-pm-vishwakarma-scheme-says-skill-ministry/article67624765.ece



75TH ANNIVERSARY OF THE UNIVERSAL DECLARATION OF HUMAN RIGHTS

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: Seventy-five years ago, the UN General Assembly approved the Universal Declaration of Human Rights at a meeting in Paris – laying one of the foundation stones of the international order that emerged following the horrors of World War II.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), adopted by the UN General Assembly on December 10, 1948, stands as a pivotal document in the realm of international human rights.
  • Consisting of a concise preamble and 30 articles, the UDHR articulates fundamental rights and freedoms.

Foundational Principles and Key Rights

  • The UDHR underscores the inherent dignity and equality of all individuals (Article 1).
  • It asserts the entitlement of everyone to the rights and freedoms enumerated without discrimination based on various factors (Article 2).
  • It safeguards crucial liberties such as the right to life, liberty, and security of person (Article 3), prohibits slavery and torture (Articles 4 and 5), and ensures equality before the law and fair trials (Articles 7-11).
  • Additionally, the UDHR guarantees the rights to seek asylum, freedom of religion, opinion, expression, assembly, and education, emphasizing the universal nature of these rights.

Historical Context and Drafting Process

  • Amid the aftermath of World War II and the Holocaust, global leaders sought to prevent future atrocities by establishing a roadmap for securing individual rights universally.
  • The drafting committee, led by Eleanor Roosevelt, comprised members from various countries and finalized the UDHR after contributions from over 50 UN member countries.

Legal Status and Global Influence

  • While not a legally binding treaty by itself, the UDHR’s principles have significantly influenced many nations’ laws and served as the bedrock of international human rights law.
  • Its impact is evident in over 70 human rights treaties at both global and regional levels, guiding legal frameworks worldwide.

Contemporary Challenges and Relevance

  • As the UDHR commemorates its 75th anniversary, the world faces numerous human rights challenges amidst conflicts, crises, and violations across different regions.
  • Criticisms of the document include misuse for political agendas and selective observance by various governments.

Continuing Significance and Reflection

  • Despite criticisms and challenges, the UDHR remains a foundational document, inspiring movements against discrimination, apartheid, and oppression globally.
  • It stands as a testament to the possibility of a unified global vision for human rights and serves as a reminder of the imperatives of equality and dignity for all individuals.
  • N. Human Rights Chief emphasizes the relevance of the UDHR and underscores the importance of honouring its successes and learning from its failures, asserting that human rights are intrinsic to every human being.

Conclusion

  • The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, a product of the post-WWII global order, holds immense significance in guiding and shaping human rights law and advocacy worldwide.
  • Despite challenges and criticisms, its enduring legacy underscores the vital importance of respecting and safeguarding the fundamental rights and dignity of every individual.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/universal-declaration-of-human-rights-marking-75th-anniversary-9061964/



EU’S HISTORIC ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE LEGISLATION

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The European Union (EU) recently reached a landmark provisional agreement on comprehensive laws to regulate the use of Artificial Intelligence (AI).

EXPLANATION:

  • This groundbreaking legislation positions the EU as the first continent to establish clear regulations governing AI technologies.
  • The proposed AI Act is anticipated to undergo a vote in the European Parliament and is slated for implementation by 2025.

Significance of EU’s Framework in the Global AI Landscape

  • Amidst the ongoing pursuits of the US, UK, and China to establish their AI regulatory frameworks, the EU’s legislation assumes considerable significance.
  • It encompasses several safeguards regulating AI use, including guidelines for law enforcement adoption and provisions empowering consumers to file complaints regarding potential violations.

Key Components of the EU AI Legislation

  • Safeguards and Restrictions:
    • The legislation features stringent restrictions on facial recognition technology and the use of AI for manipulating human behaviour.
    • Moreover, governments can only deploy real-time biometric surveillance in public areas during severe threats like terrorist activities.
  • Risk-Based Classification:
    • AI applications are categorized broadly into four risk classes.
    • High-risk applications like AI in self-driving cars are allowed but subject to certification and open disclosure of underlying techniques.
    • Medium-risk applications, such as AI chatbots, require detailed documentation and transparency for user interactions.
  • Empowerment for EU’s Tech Leadership:
    • European Commissioner views the legislation as a platform for EU startups and researchers to lead the global AI race.
    • It emphasizes trust-building through technology that prioritizes people’s safety and rights.

EU vs. US Approaches to AI Regulation

  • EU’s Regulatory Leadership:
    • Over the past decade, the EU has been at the forefront of tech regulation with laws like GDPR, DSA, and DMA, focusing on privacy, curbing tech dominance, and protecting users.
    • The AI legislation further solidifies its stance on safeguarding individual rights.
  • US Initiatives:
    • While the US has not passed significant tech-related legislations, recent moves like the White House Executive Order on AI and the proposed AI Bill of Rights showcase efforts to provide a regulatory framework.
    • However, these actions come after a prolonged absence of major tech regulations.

Global Impact and Diverse Approaches to AI Policy

  • Diverse Responses to Generative AI:
    • Policymakers globally are scrutinizing generative AI tools, addressing concerns related to privacy, bias, and intellectual property rights.
    • The responses vary across regions, with the EU taking a stringent stance based on the nature of AI use cases, while the UK adopts a more innovation-friendly approach.
    • The US and China also offer their distinct regulations on AI.
  • India’s Approach:
    • India aims to develop its sovereign AI infrastructure, emphasizing Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) models.
    • This approach focuses on leveraging technology for governance solutions, targeting sectors like healthcare, agriculture, and language translation to drive economic development.

Conclusion: Global Perspectives on AI Regulation

  • The EU’s groundbreaking AI legislation sets a precedent in regulating AI technologies, emphasizing safeguards, risk-based classification, and consumer empowerment.
  • Amidst varying approaches worldwide, from stringent regulations to innovation-friendly policies, the global AI landscape is witnessing a pivotal moment as nations navigate the complex challenges and opportunities presented by AI advancements.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/eu-worlds-first-law-regulating-ai-9062105/



ETHANOL BLENDING PROGRAMME: IMPACT OF RECENT DIRECTIVES

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY, GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution directed all mills and distilleries not to use sugarcane juice/syrup for making any ethanol “with immediate effect”.

EXPLANATION:

  • This directive is a setback for companies that had invested in facilities to produce ethanol directly from cane juice/syrup, affecting their operations.
  • The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) aimed to reduce dependence on imported fossil fuels by blending ethanol extracted from agricultural resources into petrol.
  • This initiative has seen notable success, with ethanol blending in petrol rising significantly from 1.6% in 2013-14 to 11.8% in 2022-23.

Feedstock Diversification and Differential Pricing

  • The increase in ethanol production was fuelled by diversification in feedstocks.
  • Previously reliant on sugarcane-based feedstocks, the program expanded to include B-heavy molasses, concentrated sugarcane juice, surplus rice from FCI stocks, damaged food grains, and maize.
  • Differential pricing policies, introduced by the government, incentivized ethanol production from alternative feedstocks by offering higher prices for ethanol produced from sources other than C-heavy molasses.

Impact on Supply and Blending Targets

  • The directive has implications for the supply of ethanol to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs), affecting their ability to meet blending targets.
  • OMCs received offers for ethanol supply for 2023-24, with a significant portion (135 crore litres) coming from ethanol produced from sugarcane juice/syrup.
  • The restriction could lead to stranded capacities and impact the achievement of blending targets, set at 15%.

Shift in Feedstock and Pricing Policy

  • Industry experts anticipate a shift in ethanol production from a reliance on sugarcane-based feedstocks to greater utilization of grains due to the government’s supportive pricing policies.
  • These policies have encouraged diversification and reduced dependence on a single feedstock or crop for ethanol production.

Concerns Over Sugar Supply

  • The directive limiting sugarcane juice/syrup for ethanol production is tied to concerns over sugar supply.
  • The sugar year ended with low stocks, and uncertainties over production for the current year further compound the situation.
  • Anticipated declines in sugar production in key states like Maharashtra and Karnataka due to inadequate rainfall and low reservoir levels add to the apprehension.

Government Prioritization: Food Over Fuel

  • The recent directives, coupled with the ban on sugar exports, signal the government’s prioritization of domestic food supply over ethanol production.
  • This stance underscores a preference for ensuring adequate food availability for consumers over prioritizing fuel production.

ETHANOL BLENDING PROGRAMME:

  • Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme was launched in January, 2003 with a target of blending 5% ethanol with petrol by 2010.
  • The target was subsequently revised to 10% by 2022 and 20% by 2030.
  • The programme sought to promote the use of alternative and environment friendly fuels and to reduce import dependency for energy requirements.

Conclusion

  • The recent restrictions on using sugarcane juice/syrup for ethanol production have significant ramifications for the ethanol blending program in India.
  • They not only impact the supply of ethanol but also highlight the government’s prioritization of food security over fuel production, reflecting concerns over sugar stocks and production uncertainties in the agricultural sector.
  • The industry may see a shift towards alternative feedstocks and pricing strategies to navigate these challenges in achieving ethanol blending targets set by the government.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/food-versus-fuel-whats-happening-with-centres-ethanol-blending-scheme-9062757/



PRINCIPLED SHIFT: ON INDIA’S STAND ON GAZA

THE CONTEXT: Two months after Israel’s bombardment of Gaza residents in retaliation for the terror attacks by Hamas, India joined the global call to stop the bombing. It voted in favour of a resolution at the UN General Assembly (UNGA) along with 152 other nations.

BACKGROUND:

  • The United Nations Secretary-General invoked Article 99 of the UN Charter, urging the UN Security Council to act on the war in Gaza.
  • Article 99 allows the secretary-general to “bring to the attention of the Security Council any matter which in his opinion may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security”.

UN RESOLUTION:

  • The 193-member UN General Assembly overwhelmingly adopted the draft resolution ‘Protection of civilians and upholding legal and humanitarian obligations’.
  • It was initiated by Egypt, at an Emergency Special Session of UNGA with 153 nations voting in favour, 10 against and 23 abstentions. .
  • Those voting against included Austria, Israel and the US while Germany, Hungary, Italy, Ukraine and the UK were among those who abstained.
  • The resolution demanded
  1. An immediate humanitarian ceasefire in Gaza
  2. An observance of international humanitarian law
  3. The unconditional release of all hostages by ensuring humanitarian access
  • The 193-member United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) expressed grave concern over the catastrophic humanitarian situation in the Gaza Strip and the suffering of the Palestinian civilian population.
  • While the UNGA does not have the power to enforce its resolutions as the UNSC does, it carries the sentiment of the global community against the Israeli bombardment of Gaza that has rendered more than a million people homeless.

INDIA’S STAND:

  • India’s vote was a shift from its previous vote at the UNGA resolution on October 27, when India had decided to abstain from voting for a resolution that called for a ceasefire.
  • The government explained this to be a matter of principle, as part of India’s “zero-tolerance” approach towards terrorism, as the earlier resolution did not contain an “explicit condemnation” of the October 7 attacks.
  • However, while the UNGA resolution passed recently bears no direct mention of the terror attacks, India has voted in favour.
  • Although the government has yet to detail the rationale, there could be several reasons:
  1. High casualty: There is high casualty with 18,000 dead and the highest such toll of nearly 90 journalists.
  2. Hostages: More than 80% of the entire population is homeless. More than 100 Israeli hostages remain in Hamas custody.
  3. Indiscriminate use of missiles: Israeli defence forces have gone far beyond their original mandate of eliminating Hamas capacity and freeing the hostages and led to forced occupation of more territory. Even the U.S., Israel’s biggest ally, estimates that nearly half of the 29,000 air-to-ground munitions deployed by Israel thus far are “unguided” or indiscriminate missiles.
  4. Global opinion: Global opinion, including Indian public opinion, has moved from sympathy with Israel, to horror at the unfolding aftermath. India could not have been immune to entreaties by Palestine and the Gulf States to take a relook at its vote.

IMPLICATIONS:

  • It may be too early to see India’s UNGA vote as a reversal of its earlier position and a reversion to its original position in the conflict, where it has traditionally called for peace.
  • Much will depend on the role India chooses for itself in ensuring the ceasefire is effected and holds, given that Israel has already rejected the UNGA

WAY FORWARD:

  • India’s Principled Stand: India should reiterate its support for a negotiated two-state solution to the Israel-Palestine issue and call for diplomacy and dialogue to resolve the conflict.
  • Balanced Approach: India has always shown a balanced approach and it should continue doing this. For example, even with closer ties to Israel, India continued supporting Palestine. India’s External Affairs Ministry voiced support for direct negotiations towards a sovereign Palestinian state, showing a balance in its stance.
  • More vocal position: India must take a more vocal position on Gaza with Israel. India will need to mobilise its diplomatic skills and goodwill with the main actors to negotiate in the coming times.
  • India role for peace in west Asia: India’s role in multilateral organizations requires constant efforts in cooperation with all related parties to achieve security and stability in the Middle East and West Asia”.

THE CONCLUSION:

India’s recent vote in UN General Assembly reflects its balanced approach to international conflicts.  It underscores India’s commitment to principles of diplomacy and its focus on a negotiated resolution to complex global issues.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 “India’s relations with Israel have, of late, acquired a depth and diversity, which cannot be rolled back.” Discuss. (2018)

Q.2 ‘Too little cash, too much politics, leave UNESCO fighting for life.’ Discuss the statement in the light of the US’ withdrawal and its accusation of the cultural body as being ‘anti-Israel bias’.(2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 India is currently facing dilemma with respect to ongoing Israel Palestine conflict. Suggest the diplomatic and political efforts that can help India protect its geopolitical interests.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/principled-shift-the-hindu-editorial-on-indias-stand-on-gaza/article67638569.ece



ARTICLE 370 JUDGMENT IS A CASE OF CONSTITUTIONAL MONISM

THE CONTEXT: More than four years after the abrogation of Article 370, the Supreme Court of India, recently, unanimously upheld the actions of the Indian government. While much of the discourse around the judgment has focused on the question of statehood, the special status of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) was at the heart of the matter as well.

SPECIAL STATUS OF ARTICLE 370:

  • Basic Principles committee’s report, based on which the State Constitution was drafted, stated: ‘The sovereignty of the State resides in the people thereof and shall except in regard to matters specifically entrusted to the Union be exercised on their behalf by the various organs of the State.
  • The State’s legislature will have powers to make laws for the State in respect of all matters falling within the sphere of its residuary sovereignty’.

ANALYSING THE SC JUDGEMENT:

  • To arrive at its conclusions, the Court employs a historical, textual, and structural interpretation of the Constitution of India, and all three approaches are deeply informed by constitutional monism.
  • There are the sites where the Court employs a monist reading of the Constitution, and it sets a dangerous precedent for federalism in India.

Federalism and constitutional sovereignty

  • Union Constitution as sole bearer of sovereignty: The monism that is reflected in the judgment imagines the Union Constitution as the sole bearer of internal and external sovereignty. Unlike this, Article 370 laid down an elaborate framework for the distribution of powers and authority between the Union and the State governments.
  • Non recognition of shared sovereignty: By focusing more on the particular concept of sovereignty ‘which requires no subordination to another body’, the Court ends up refusing to recognise the shared sovereignty model of Article 370. Sovereignty in federal constitutions is not a binary concept but it encompasses various dimensions and exists along a spectrum of degrees.

The contingency of the presidential power

  • Unbridled power of constituent assembly: Another site where the Court’s monism operates is in its reading of Clause 3 of Article 370. The Court rejects the argument that Article 370 had gained permanence after the dissolution of the Constituent Assembly. It stated that it is premised on the understanding that the constitutional body had unbridled power to alter the constitutional integration of the State with the Union’. In a constitutional democracy, no body or institution has unbridled powers. Further, Clause 3 of Article 370 is primarily concerned with the relationship of two powers and not just the status or the relationship of the power-bearing entities.
  • Presidential power to abrogate Article 370: The proviso to Clause 3 makes it clear that the presidential power to abrogate Article 370 was contingent on the recommendation of the Constituent Assembly. As it is in the nature of the presidential powers under Clause 3 to be contingent on the Constituent Assembly, this limitation does not die with the dissolution of the Assembly. The relation of powers here does not mean that the President becomes ‘subordinate’ to the Constituent Assembly but that power as a federal arrangement has been distributed across multiple axes under Article 370.  President’s limitless power to abrogate Article 370 makes State’s Constitution inoperative .It led to application of the Indian Constitution to the State of Jammu and Kashmir which severely affects the federalism and constitutional democracy.

STATE’S VIEWS

  • Non binding nature of state’s view: The judgment’s monism imagines popular sovereignty as a monolith where since the views of an individual state for the purposes of reorganisation are not binding on There are many sites within the Constitution where a recommendatory power is vested in a body. Merely because that power may not be binding does not mean that the power can be taken over by another body or that power need not be exercised.
  • Unequal nature of states: The inevitable conclusion that one arrives at is that the popular sovereignty of a State’s people vis-à-vis the State becomes subordinate to the popular sovereignty of the entire nation vis-à-vis the Union as well as the States. This is particularly worrying in the context of J&K where the threshold for reorganising the State was historically much higher compared to the other States.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Court by relying on a monist reading of the Constitution has not only upheld the abrogation of Article 370 but has also put its stamp on the approval of the silencing of the voice of the people of the former State of J&K. At the same time, misuse of the President’s rule to bring irrevocable changes to the states like bifurcation of the state without consulting the state legislative assemblies undermines federal principles.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss The future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. (2016)

Q.2 The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-islaami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over- ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 What is constitutional monism? Examine the Supreme Court’s judgment on the abrogation of Art 370 in the context of the principle of  constitutional monism which seems to affect federalism and constitutional democracy in India.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/article-370-judgment-is-a-case-of-constitutional-monism/article67635313.ece



WELCOME DIRECTION: ON THE SUPREME COURT’S DEADLINE TO CONDUCT ELECTIONS IN J&K

THE CONTEXT: The SC upheld the decision to abrogate the special status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370. At the same time, the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court expressly directed that the Election Commission of India (ECI) must conduct elections to the Legislative Assembly of J&K by September 30, 2024.

STATUS OF ELECTIONS IN J&K

  • J&K remains among India’s most conflict-prone regions due to historical reasons related to integration of the erstwhile princely State into the Indian Union and later due to accumulated grievances over the conduct of democratic processes.
  • Even when periodic and regular elections were conducted during the height of the militancy, participation was limited in many parts of the Valley, denoting the dissatisfaction with the political system.
  • However, since the early-mid 2000s when electoral participation improved, and J&K’s citizens began to partake in the democratic process to get their concerns addressed.
  • Then again due to agitations and protests by separatists over security policies and later due to steps taken by union government led to the current situation.
  • In the last five and a half years, local government elections have been held with varying levels of participation indicating that the citizens in the state have been against the measures that have been implemented since 2018.
  • It is welcome step that the Court has set a deadline to conduct the long-delayed elections in J&K, which has been under spells of Governor’s Rule and President’s Rule since 2018 and without a Legislative Assembly.

ISSUES:

  • Delayed statehood: There is long standing demand of statehood that is being delayed unnecessarily. Even the recent SC judgment does not press the government to restore statehood to the bifurcated Union Territory. It could have directed the Union government to restore statehood by a specified date, as there remains no reason for the continuance of J&K as a Union Territory.
  • Democratic process: Jammu and Kashmir has not seen legislative elections for nine years. The last Assembly election took place in 2014, and the last elected administration fell in June 2018. The delay in holding Assembly elections in Jammu and Kashmir has raised questions about the democratic process in the region. Despite assurances that the administration is ready whenever the Election Commission of India (ECI) decides, the recent announcement of a committee to look into simultaneous State and Union elections suggests that elections are unlikely to happen soon.
  • Representation: The recommendations of the Delimitation Commission raised concerns about equal representation, affecting the democratic principle of equal representation. Further complicating matters were changes in residency rules that allowed a significant number of new voters to be added to the existing voter pool. The expansion of reserved seats and the inclusion of more groups in the Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes categories could exacerbate competition within these categories. This led to concerns about the denial of democratic rights and constitutional obligations.
  • Increasing militancy: Despite steps taken for maintaining peace in the state, political instability, separatism and Pakistan-sponsored terrorism continue to surround the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Early conduction of election: By conducting speedy assembly election, it is believed that elected representatives could address issues such as unemployment and land rights more effectively. Holding an Assembly election at the earliest could bring stability in the region.
  • Deadline for statehood: As with elections, the Supreme Court should have given a deadline for restoration of statehood too. Restoration of statehood is an important measure as this guarantees a degree of federal autonomy to the province. It allows the elected government to be able to better address the concerns of the electorate than depend on the representatives of the Union government.
  • Trust and confidence building: It is crucial to address the concerns and expectations of the people of Jammu and Kashmir. Delaying the democratic process undermines the region’s confidence in the political system. To build trust and stability, it is essential to ensure that free and fair election while giving representative of the diverse population.
  • Outreach programme: Government can mitigate the challenges arising out of action on article 370 by launching a comprehensive outreach programme to all Kashmiris.
  • International image: India’s unique selling proposition as a leader in the Global South can only be achieved if it sets precedent for conduct of formal democratic process in the country. It can be done by conflict resolution in places such as Kashmir.

THE CONCLUSION:

The delay in holding Assembly elections has led to widespread discontent in the region. People are concerned about the shrinking number of their representatives and the potential impact of new reservations on political dynamics.  It is time for the restoration of popular government as well as Statehood in J&K and elections should be held at earliest and for that strong political will is required.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss The future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. (2016)

Q.2 The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-islaami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q) The abrogation of Article 370 was the culmination of a “gradual and collaborative exercise” spread over the past 70 years between the Centre and the State to integrate Jammu and Kashmir with the Union. Critically discuss the statement in the light of the SC verdict upholding the abrogation of Art 370.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/welcome-direction-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-supreme-courts-deadline-to-conduct-elections-in-jk/article67631471.ece



OMINOUSLY ANTI-FEDERAL: ON THE SUPREME COURT’S JUDGMENT ON ARTICLE 370 AND J&K’S SPECIAL STATUS

THE CONTEXT: The SC has upheld the government’s decision to abrogate Article 370, which conferred special status on the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir and said steps should be taken to conduct elections in the assembly by September 30, 2024. However, it has received criticism and opposition termed the “manner” in which the abrogation of Article 370 took place as “unconstitutional.”

REASONS FOR ABROGATION:

Temporary Provision: Article 370 is titled “Temporary provisions with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”. This suggests it wasn’t meant to be permanent.

Uniformity: Removal can lead to the uniform application of Indian laws to Jammu & Kashmir, integrating it fully with India.

Development & Growth: It was believed that removal can boost the region’s development, as it would get equal attention and opportunities like other states.

Limited Integration: It was argued that Article 370 has hindered the full integration of Jammu and Kashmir with the rest of India. They believe that the provision has perpetuated a sense of separatism and prevented the region from fully embracing its Indian identity.

ISSUES RAISED BY OPPOSITION:

Federal interest: In upholding the removal of Jammu and Kashmir’s special status, the Supreme Court of India has imperilled the rights of States. It represents not merely judicial deference, but a retreat from the Court’s known positions on federalism, democratic norms and the sanctity of legal processes. The most potent attack on federal principles is the Court’s conclusion that Parliament, while a State is under President’s Rule, can do any act, legislative or otherwise on behalf of the State legislature. This alarming interpretation undermines the basic feature of the Constitution as enunciated by the Court itself and may have grave implications for the rights of States.

Violating constitutional provisions:  Article 370, whether it was temporary or not, is a provision of the Indian Constitution. As per, Article 368 any provision of the Constitution has to be amended by the Parliament with a requisite majority. But abrogation was not done in accordance with that is termed as invalid.

Undermined historical context: The Instrument of Accession was like a treaty between two sovereign countries that had decided to work together. The SC verdict fails to appreciate historical context and undermines constitutional procedure by striping Kashmir of its special status and bring it on a par with other States.

Did not consult elected representative: The government seems to have acted in a mala fide manner by imposing President’s Rule for the intended abrogation of special status without the need to involve any elected representative from J&K. As, in the reorganisation of the state, the Presidential order also requires the concurrence of the government of the state. However, since Jammu & Kashmir is currently under Governor’s rule, the Governor’s concurrence is deemed to be the government’s concurrence.

THE WAY FORWARD:

Preserving Regional Identity: One of the primary rationales behind Article 370 was to respect and preserve the unique identity, history, and culture of the state of Jammu and Kashmir. There should be adequate steps by the union government to address the same.

Upholding Democratic Principles: Article 370 exemplifies India’s commitment to democratic principles by respecting the choice of the people of Jammu and Kashmir to have their own constitution and laws. There is a need to uphold democratic principles emphasizing the importance of a government accountable to the people it serves.

Safeguarding Federal principles: The state is an integral part of India with unique privileges and autonomy. There is a need to safeguard and enhance the autonomy and rights of the state the face of increasing centralization and interference from the Centre.

Addressing Historical Context: The inclusion of Article 370 was a response to the specific historical context of Jammu and Kashmir’s accession to India after independence in 1947. The provision was a result of negotiations between the leaders of the state and the Indian government to address the concerns and aspirations of the people of Jammu and Kashmir. This historical context should be kept in mind when taking any step that is irreversible in nature.

THE CONCLUSION:

The recent SC verdict though rightly upheld Indian sovereignty over J&K,  undermines federalism and democratic processes to a frightening degree. There is a need for holistic approach for a successful transition, combining economic growth, inclusive governance ensuring a brighter future for the region while upholding its sovereignty and integrity.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 To what extent is Article 370 of the Indian Constitution, bearing marginal note “Temporary provision with respect to the State of Jammu and Kashmir”, temporary? Discuss The future prospects of this provision in the context of Indian polity. (2016)

Q.2 The banning of ‘Jamaat-e-islaami’ in Jammu and Kashmir brought into focus the role of over-ground workers (OGWs) in assisting terrorist organizations. Examine the role played by OGWs in assisting terrorist organizations in insurgency affected areas. Discuss measures to neutralize the influence of OGWs. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 With the verdict on Article 370 petitions, the Supreme Court (SC) has drawn to a close a historical legal battle that has recast Jammu and Kashmir’s constitutional relationship with the Union of India. Comment.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/ominously-anti-federal-on-the-supreme-courts-judgement-on-article-370-and-jks-special-status/article67628150.ece



Day-553 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GEOGRAPHY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to temperature inversion, consider the following statements:
    1. In temperature inversion, temperature decreases with increase in elevation.
    2. Temperature inversion at surface level promotes instability in lower layers of atmosphere.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    ● Normal lapse rate (NLR): When temperature decreases with increase in elevation, it is called NLR. But sometimes, the situation is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature i.e. increase in temperature with increase in elevation.
    ● Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless.
    Normal conditions required:
    ● A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.
    ● The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above.
    ● Example – over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.
    ● Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere.
    ● Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season.
    ● This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth.
    Additional Information
    Temperature inversion on hilly regions:
    ● The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage.
    ● Cold air at the hills and mountains, produced during night, flows under the influence of gravity.
    ● Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage.
    ● It protects plants from frost damages.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    ● Normal lapse rate (NLR): When temperature decreases with increase in elevation, it is called NLR. But sometimes, the situation is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature i.e. increase in temperature with increase in elevation.
    ● Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless.
    Normal conditions required:
    ● A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.
    ● The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above.
    ● Example – over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.
    ● Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere.
    ● Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season.
    ● This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth.
    Additional Information
    Temperature inversion on hilly regions:
    ● The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage.
    ● Cold air at the hills and mountains, produced during night, flows under the influence of gravity.
    ● Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage.
    ● It protects plants from frost damages.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: The North Sea records higher salinity despite being located at higher latitude.
    Statement II: Ocean currents are major determinants of salinity of oceans/seas.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Both the Statements are correct and Statement II is correct explanation of Statement I:
    ● The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift. While, Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters in large quantity.
    Horizontal Distribution of Salinity:
    • The horizontal distribution of salinity in oceans and seas is influence by several factors.
    These include:
    ● The proximity to major river mouths, where freshwater input can lower salinity levels. Example – Salinity is very low in Black Sea due to enormous fresh water influx by rivers.
    ● Evaporation rates, which can increase salinity. Example – The Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to high evaporation.
    ● Ocean currents also play a role in distributing salinity horizontally, as they transport water masses with different salinity levels across different regions.
    Other factors may be:
    ● Precipitation
    ● Influx of river water
    ● Atmospheric pressure and wind direction
    ● Global warming

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Both the Statements are correct and Statement II is correct explanation of Statement I:
    ● The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift. While, Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters in large quantity.
    Horizontal Distribution of Salinity:
    • The horizontal distribution of salinity in oceans and seas is influence by several factors.
    These include:
    ● The proximity to major river mouths, where freshwater input can lower salinity levels. Example – Salinity is very low in Black Sea due to enormous fresh water influx by rivers.
    ● Evaporation rates, which can increase salinity. Example – The Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to high evaporation.
    ● Ocean currents also play a role in distributing salinity horizontally, as they transport water masses with different salinity levels across different regions.
    Other factors may be:
    ● Precipitation
    ● Influx of river water
    ● Atmospheric pressure and wind direction
    ● Global warming

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following pairs:
    Cropping Seasons – Crops
    1. Kharif Season – Gram
    2. Rabi Season – Cotton
    3. Zaid Season – Cucumber
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is not correctly matched:
    ● There are three distinct crop seasons in the northern and interior parts of the country, namely Kharif, Rabi and Zaid.
    ● The Kharif season largely coincides with Southwest Monsoon under which the cultivation of tropical crops, such as rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra, and tur is possible.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched:
    ● The rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-April.
    ● The low-temperature conditions during this season facilitate the cultivation of temperate and subtropical crops such as wheat, gram, and mustard.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched:
    ● Zaid is a short duration summer cropping season beginning after harvesting of rabi crops.
    ● The cultivation of watermelons, cucumbers, vegetables and fodder crops during this season is done on irrigated lands.
    However, this type of distinction in the cropping season does not exist in the southern parts of the country. Here, the temperature is high enough to grow tropical crops during any period in the year provided the soil moisture is available. Therefore, in this region same crops can be grown thrice in an agricultural year provided there is sufficient soil moisture.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is not correctly matched:
    ● There are three distinct crop seasons in the northern and interior parts of the country, namely Kharif, Rabi and Zaid.
    ● The Kharif season largely coincides with Southwest Monsoon under which the cultivation of tropical crops, such as rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra, and tur is possible.
    Pair 2 is not correctly matched:
    ● The rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-April.
    ● The low-temperature conditions during this season facilitate the cultivation of temperate and subtropical crops such as wheat, gram, and mustard.
    Pair 3 is correctly matched:
    ● Zaid is a short duration summer cropping season beginning after harvesting of rabi crops.
    ● The cultivation of watermelons, cucumbers, vegetables and fodder crops during this season is done on irrigated lands.
    However, this type of distinction in the cropping season does not exist in the southern parts of the country. Here, the temperature is high enough to grow tropical crops during any period in the year provided the soil moisture is available. Therefore, in this region same crops can be grown thrice in an agricultural year provided there is sufficient soil moisture.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. According to the Koeppen’s scheme of classification of Indian climatic regions, ‘As’ type of climatic region refers to:

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    ● Koeppen’s scheme of classification of Indian climatic regions divided India into 8 major climatic regions.
    ● Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu has been categorised as a ‘Monsoon with dry summer’ climatic region i.e. ‘As’ type of climate.
    ● Major climatic region according to Koeppen’s climatic classification in India are as given in the table below:

    Additional Information
    ● A climatic region has a homogeneous climatic condition which is the result of a combination of factors. Temperature and rainfall are two important elements which are considered to be decisive in all the schemes of climatic classification. The classification of climate, however, is a complex exercise. There are different schemes of classification of climate.
    ● Major climatic types of India are based on Koeppen’s scheme.
    Koeppen’s scheme
    ● Koeppen based his scheme of Climatic classification on monthly values of temperature and precipitation.
    ● He identified five major climatic types, namely:
    I. Tropical climates, where mean monthly temperature throughout the year is over 18°C.
    II. Dry climates, where precipitation is very low in comparison to temperature, and hence, dry. If dryness is less, it is semi-arid (S); if it is more, the climate is arid (W).
    III. Warm temperate climates, where mean temperature of the coldest month is between 18°C and minus 3°C.
    IV. Cool temperate climates, where mean temperature of the warmest month is over 10°C, and mean temperature of the coldest month is under minus 3°C.
    V. Ice climates, where mean temperature of the warmest month is under 10°C.
    ● Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic types as given above.
    ● Each type is further sub-divided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall and temperature.
    ● He used S for semi-arid and W for arid and the following small letters to define sub-types:
    ⮚ f (sufficient precipitation)
    ⮚ m (rainforest despite a dry monsoon season)
    ⮚ w (dryseason in winter)
    ⮚ h (dry and hot)
    ⮚ c (less than four months with mean temperature over 10°C)
    ⮚ g (Gangetic plain).
    ● Accordingly, India can be divided into nine climatic regions (including steppe climate – Bshw).
    ● India’s climatic regions are shown in the following map.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    ● Koeppen’s scheme of classification of Indian climatic regions divided India into 8 major climatic regions.
    ● Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu has been categorised as a ‘Monsoon with dry summer’ climatic region i.e. ‘As’ type of climate.
    ● Major climatic region according to Koeppen’s climatic classification in India are as given in the table below:

    Additional Information
    ● A climatic region has a homogeneous climatic condition which is the result of a combination of factors. Temperature and rainfall are two important elements which are considered to be decisive in all the schemes of climatic classification. The classification of climate, however, is a complex exercise. There are different schemes of classification of climate.
    ● Major climatic types of India are based on Koeppen’s scheme.
    Koeppen’s scheme
    ● Koeppen based his scheme of Climatic classification on monthly values of temperature and precipitation.
    ● He identified five major climatic types, namely:
    I. Tropical climates, where mean monthly temperature throughout the year is over 18°C.
    II. Dry climates, where precipitation is very low in comparison to temperature, and hence, dry. If dryness is less, it is semi-arid (S); if it is more, the climate is arid (W).
    III. Warm temperate climates, where mean temperature of the coldest month is between 18°C and minus 3°C.
    IV. Cool temperate climates, where mean temperature of the warmest month is over 10°C, and mean temperature of the coldest month is under minus 3°C.
    V. Ice climates, where mean temperature of the warmest month is under 10°C.
    ● Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic types as given above.
    ● Each type is further sub-divided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall and temperature.
    ● He used S for semi-arid and W for arid and the following small letters to define sub-types:
    ⮚ f (sufficient precipitation)
    ⮚ m (rainforest despite a dry monsoon season)
    ⮚ w (dryseason in winter)
    ⮚ h (dry and hot)
    ⮚ c (less than four months with mean temperature over 10°C)
    ⮚ g (Gangetic plain).
    ● Accordingly, India can be divided into nine climatic regions (including steppe climate – Bshw).
    ● India’s climatic regions are shown in the following map.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to the various types of droughts, consider the following statements:
    1. Meteorological drought is a situation when the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a consequence of ecological distress; damages are induced in the ecosystem.
    2. Ecological drought is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
    3. Agricultural drought, also known as soil moisture drought, is characterised by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures.
    4. Hydrological drought is a situation when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    ● Meteorological drought: It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● Ecological drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.
    Statement 3 is correct:
    ● Agricultural drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the drought-prone category.
    Statement 4 is correct:
    ● Hydrological drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    ● Meteorological drought: It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● Ecological drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem.
    Statement 3 is correct:
    ● Agricultural drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the drought-prone category.
    Statement 4 is correct:
    ● Hydrological drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish.

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CLIMATE CHANGE PERFORMANCE INDEX 2024

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: As per an annual report published on the sidelines of the ongoing COP28 at Dubai recently, India has been effectively ranked fourth in climate performance 2024.

EXPLANATION:

  • India secured the seventh rank in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) for 2022, exhibiting an improvement from its eighth position last year.
  • Despite this, India effectively stands fourth as no country occupies the top three ranks in the ‘very high’ performance category.
  • The report was released during COP28 in Dubai, highlighting India’s score of 70.25% in climate performance, a notable increase from its 67.35% score the previous year.

Top Performing Countries and India’s Position

  • Denmark retained the top position in the index with a score of 75.59%, followed by Estonia and the Philippines in the second and third positions, respectively. India closely followed, securing the fourth position in the rankings. However, it is imperative to note that most developed countries witnessed a decline in their performance compared to the previous year.

Global Trends and Concerns Highlighted in the Report

  • Global Emissions and Targets:
    • The report emphasizes the urgency for countries to peak their emissions by 2025 and halve their emissions by 2030 in comparison to 2020 levels to maintain the 1.5°C goal set in the Paris Agreement.
    • Despite this urgency, global greenhouse gas emissions increased in 2022, and atmospheric CO2 levels are now 50% higher than pre-industrial levels.
  • Lack of Improvement in Global Performance:
    • An analysis showed that out of 64 assessed countries, 37 countries regressed in their performance from the previous year, and the positions of five countries remained unchanged.
    • This stagnation in progress toward reducing emissions is a significant concern outlined in the report.

Parameters Considered in Assessing Climate Performance

  • The CCPI evaluates countries based on four key categories, each contributing to a percentage of the overall ranking:
    • Greenhouse Gas Emissions (40%):
      • India ranked ninth in this category, attributed to its lower per capita energy use.
    • Renewable Energy (20%):
      • India ranked 37th, signalling a slight decline in performance from the preceding year, despite remaining within the ‘high’ performance category.
    • Energy Use (20%):
      • India ranked tenth due to its low per capita benchmark, contributing to a favorable assessment in this category.
    • Climate Policy (20%):
      • India also ranked tenth in Climate Policy, indicating moderate progress in policy initiatives for climate change mitigation.

India’s Energy Landscape and Coal Dependence

  • Renewable Energy Progress:
    • While India shows a positive trend in renewable energy, the report highlights this progress as slow, leading to its 37th rank in the category.
  • Challenges with Coal Usage:
    • India’s heavy reliance on coal to meet its escalating energy demands remains a significant concern.
    • The report underscores that despite efforts to meet its Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) through promoting renewable energy, the reliance on coal and fossil fuels leads to substantial greenhouse gas emissions and severe air pollution, particularly in urban areas.

Comparative Analysis with BASIC Group (Brazil, South Africa, India, and China) and Developed Nations

  • Performance of BASIC Countries:
    • Apart from India, other BASIC countries like China, Brazil, and South Africa showcase varying performances.
    • China retained its position from the previous year, while Brazil improved significantly by 15 positions.
    • South Africa experienced a slight decline in rank.
  • Challenges for Developed Nations:
    • Developed countries like Italy, United Kingdom, France, Japan, and the United States witnessed a decline in their rankings, reflecting challenges in meeting climate goals and reducing emissions.

Conclusion and Concerns for Future Climate Action

  • The CCPI report highlights India’s commendable performance in certain parameters but emphasizes the need for accelerated progress in renewable energy, reduced reliance on coal, and more robust climate policy measures.
  • Globally, the report underlines the stagnation in climate performance and the urgency for countries, especially developed nations, to ramp up efforts to mitigate climate change and achieve emission reduction targets.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/cop28-india-had-fourth-best-ranking-in-climate-performance-among-countries-during-2022-says-report-93276



PRIVATE MEMBER’S BILL

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: Recently, a private member’s Bill has been introduced in the Rajya Sabha aiming to amend the Constitution concerning the Governor’s role.

EXPLANATION:

  • The primary goal of the Bill is to provide State Assemblies with the authority to recall Governors and enhance accountability and legitimacy within the Governor’s office.

Proposed Amendments and Electoral Process

  • Election Process:
    • The Bill suggests altering the method of Governor selection by proposing that Governors be elected by an electoral college comprising members from Legislative Assemblies, Gram Panchayats, Municipalities, and Corporations via proportional representation and secret ballot.
  • Fixed Term and Removal Process:
    • It proposes a fixed five-year term for Governors from the date of assuming office and outlines a process for Governors to resign by writing to the Speaker of State Assemblies.
    • Additionally, it suggests a removal process through a resolution passed by a two-thirds majority of the State Legislative Assembly.

Debate Highlights and Opinions

  • Support from Opposition:
    • Members of the Opposition generally supported the Bill, citing the regular conflicts between Governors and State governments.
    • They advocated for Parliament’s intervention to safeguard the federal rights of States and criticized instances of Governors delaying assent to Bills, violating constitutional provisions.
  • Concerns and Opposition Stance:
    • Some members expressed reservations about the Bill.
    • Some argued that the Governor’s office carries official responsibility, not accountability.
    • it was highlighted that the importance of the Governor is in maintaining the federal structure of the Constitution.
    • The Governor’s role as a bridge between the Centre and the States has been emphasized.

Criticism of Governor’s Role and Central Influence

  • Issues Raised:
    • Members highlighted concerns about Governors allegedly functioning as political agents of the ruling party at the Centre, influencing decisions, and causing conflicts with elected State governments.
  • Accusations of Central Influence:
    • Some MPs criticized the Governor’s office as a mechanism of colonialism, suggesting that Governors are guided by directives from central authorities, undermining their impartiality.

CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS RELATED TO THE GOVERNOR

  • Article 153 says that there shall be a Governor for each State. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States.
  • A Governor is appointed by the President and is a nominee of the Central Government.
  • It is stated that the Governor has a dual role.
  • He is the constitutional head of the state, bound by the advice of his Council of Ministers (CoM).
  • He functions as a vital link between the Union Government and the State Government.
  • Articles 157 and 158 specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. A governor must:
  • Be a citizen of India.
  • Be at least 35 years of age.
  • Not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature.
  • Not hold any office of profit.
  • Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, etc. (Article 161).
  • There is a CoM with the CM at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except some conditions for discretion. (Article 163).
  • The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers (Article 164).
  • Governor assents, withholds assent, or reserves the bill for the consideration of the President passed by the Legislative Assembly (Article 200).
  • Governors may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances (Article 213).
  • Governor’s role:
  • The Governor holds a constitutional position and is expected to perform specific functions, including granting assent to bills passed by the state legislature and ensuring the proper functioning of state administration.
  • The Governor’s actions are perceived as a hindrance to these responsibilities.

Conclusion and Divergent Views

  • The debate over the private member’s Bill underscores the divergence in opinions regarding the role, selection, accountability, and influence of Governors in Indian states.
  • While some advocate for enhanced accountability through State Assembly oversight, others emphasize the Governor’s role in maintaining the federal structure and bridging the gap between the Centre and States.
  • The discussions in the Rajya Sabha reveal a spectrum of views on the proposed amendments and the contentious nature of Governor-State government relations within India’s federal structure.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/agri-business/food-ministry-revises-wheat-stock-limits-to-rein-in-prices-hoarding/article67618881.ece



REVISED WHEAT STOCK LIMITS: MEASURES TO CONTROL PRICES AND HOARDING

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The recent revision of wheat stock limits by the Centre comes in response to unchanged soaring prices of wheat and wheat flour across various parts of the country.

EXPLANATION:

  • The move aims to regulate stockpiling activities, curb hoarding, and ensure adequate food security.

Revised Stock Limits for Different Entities

  • Traders and Wholesalers:
    • The revised stock limit for traders and wholesalers has been reduced from 2000 metric tonnes (MT) to 1000 MT, thereby aiming to restrict excessive accumulation.
  • Retailers:
    • Each retail outlet is now permitted to stock five MT, reduced from the previous limit of 10 MT.
    • Whereas big chain retailers can store 5 MT per outlet and 1000 MT collectively at their depots, as opposed to the earlier limits of 10 MT and 2000 MT, respectively.
  • Processors:
    • The new limit for processors is 70% of their monthly installed capacity multiplied by the remaining months of 2023-24.
    • This replaces the earlier limit, which was 75% of the annual installed capacity or the quantity equivalent to the monthly installed capacity multiplied by the remaining months of 2023-24, whichever was lesser till the current date.

Government’s Rationale and Regulatory Measures

  • Food Security and Preventing Hoarding:
    • The Centre emphasizes that these revisions aim to manage overall food security and prevent hoarding and speculative practices within the wheat market.
  • Legislation and Enforcement:
    • The decisions fall under the Removal of Licensing Requirements, Stock Limits, and Movement Restrictions on Specified Foodstuffs (Amendment) Order, 2023.
    • Entities involved in wheat stocking are directed to register on the government’s wheat stock limit portal and update their stock positions weekly.
    • Failure to comply or violations may face punitive action under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955, with a 30-day window to conform to the prescribed limits.

Monitoring and Market Interventions

  • Enforcement and Monitoring:
    • The government assures close monitoring by officials at both central and state levels to ensure compliance with these stock limits and to prevent any artificial scarcity of wheat in the country.
  • Increased Supplies in Open Market:
    • Immediate steps include an increase in supplies in the open market from 3 lakh MT to 4 lakh MT, aimed at enhancing wheat availability.
  • Targeted Sales:
    • Identifying areas with higher prices, central cooperative organizations such as NAFED, NCCF, and Kendriya Bhandar are engaged in targeted sales to address the immediate market demands and stabilize prices in those regions.

Conclusion

  • The government’s decision to revise wheat stock limits intends to strike a balance between ensuring adequate availability of wheat in the market while discouraging hoarding practices that contribute to price escalation.
  • By implementing stringent regulations, monitoring mechanisms, and increasing open market supplies, the Centre aims to stabilize prices and maintain sufficient wheat stocks to safeguard food security in the country.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/agri-business/food-ministry-revises-wheat-stock-limits-to-rein-in-prices-hoarding/article67618881.ece



UNDERSTANDING RECENT EARTHQUAKE ACTIVITY

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Recent seismic activity in parts of north India and Nepal has been attributed to the activation of the Almora fault, according to Earth Sciences Minister.

EXPLANATION:

Background Seismicity and Recent Spike

  • Consistent Background Seismicity:
    • The Earth Sciences Minister highlighted the steady level of background seismic activity, denoting usual earthquake occurrences, in the regions under scrutiny.
  • Recent Spike in Earthquakes:
    • Despite the consistent background seismicity, certain areas in north India and Nepal experienced a surge in seismic events, particularly attributed to the activation of the Almora fault.

Role of Almora Fault in Earthquake Occurrences

  • Triggering Significant Earthquakes:
    • The Almora fault, a critical geological structure in the western Himalayas, has played a pivotal role in recent seismic activity.
  • Key Mainshocks and Their Magnitudes:
    • Notable earthquakes were reported on January 24 (5.8 magnitude), October 3 (6.2 magnitude), and November 3 (6.4 magnitude), all linked to the Almora fault.
  • Geological Significance:
    • The fault line lies adjacent to active faults within the Himalayan region, where the Indian plate subducts under the Eurasian Plate, resulting in frequent seismic occurrences.

Impact and Concerns

  • Geographical Impact:
    • The seismic events had a wide-reaching impact, with tremors felt across a significant area.
    • For instance, the January 24 quake centered in Nepal was felt strongly in Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, and Uttarakhand.
  • Safety and Preparedness Concerns:
    • The recent activation of the Almora fault has raised concerns regarding regional safety measures and preparedness for potential earthquakes.

Mitigation Efforts and Safety Measures

  • Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) Initiatives:
    • The BIS’s has played an important role in releasing the Seismic Zoning Map of India, categorizing regions into different risk zones (II to V) and offering guidelines for constructing earthquake-resistant structures.
  • National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Interventions:
    • The NDMA is actively implementing precautionary measures, including earthquake drills, awareness campaigns, and incident management strategies to enhance preparedness and response capabilities in seismic zones.

Lessons and Continued Vigilance

  • Aftermath and Aftershocks:
    • The aftermath of the earthquakes, especially the powerful November 3 quake registering a magnitude of 6.4, was marked by more than 382 aftershocks.
    • It emphasized the necessity for continued vigilance and adherence to safety protocols in seismically active regions.
  • Regional Safety and Ongoing Concerns:
    • The recent seismic events underscore the ongoing concern for regional safety and the need for sustained efforts in earthquake preparedness and risk reduction strategies.

Conclusion

  • The statement by Earth Sciences Minister highlighted the increased seismic activity in specific regions attributed to the activation of the Almora fault.
  • By emphasizing the significance of geological structures like the Almora fault and the subsequent impact on safety, the minister underscores the importance of proactive measures, guidelines, and initiatives aimed at mitigating the risks associated with earthquakes and enhancing preparedness in earthquake-prone areas.

SOURCE: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/what-led-to-frequent-earthquakes-this-year-earth-sciences-minister-answers-2473074-2023-12-07



DARK MATTER AND SELF-INTERACTING DARK MATTER (SIDM) THEORY

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Dark matter remains one of the most enigmatic components of the universe, constituting a substantial portion (around 85%) of its mass. However, its elusive nature—being nonluminous and undetectable via traditional means—has made it a challenging puzzle for astrophysicists and cosmologists.

The Dark Matter Conundrum

  • Nature of Dark Matter:
    • Unlike normal matter, dark matter doesn’t interact via electromagnetic forces, making it invisible to telescopes and difficult to directly observe.
  • The Cold Dark Matter Theory (CDM):
    • Prevailing theories, such as the CDM paradigm, suggest that dark matter particles are collisionless, influencing cosmic structure formation through gravitational effects.

Puzzles in Astrophysics

  • High-Density Dark Matter Halo in Massive Elliptical Galaxies:
    • Observations of strong gravitational lensing revealed a high-density dark matter halo, challenging the expectations set by the CDM theory.
  • Ultra-Diffuse Galaxies with Extremely Low Densities:
    • Conversely, ultra-diffuse galaxies exhibit remarkably low luminosity and dispersed distributions, posing another challenge to the CDM theory.

Introducing SIDM as a Solution

  • Self-Interacting Dark Matter (SIDM) Theory:
    • SIDM proposes that dark matter particles interact through a dark force, allowing for self-collisions, particularly near the center of galaxies.
  • Research Led by Hai-Bo Yu:
    • A team led by Professor Hai-Bo Yu from the University of California, Riverside, conducted a study exploring SIDM’s potential to address these astrophysical puzzles.

Simulations and Findings

  • High-Resolution Simulations:
    • The research team conducted high-resolution simulations of cosmic structure formation incorporating strong dark matter self-interactions.
  • Heat Transfer and Halo Density:
    • SIDM simulations revealed that self-interactions lead to heat transfer within halos, diversifying their central densities compared to their CDM counterparts.
  • Reconciling Opposite Extremes:
    • SIDM’s ability to explain both high-density halos and ultra-diffuse galaxies challenges the limitations of the CDM paradigm.

Implications and Future Prospects

  • Challenges to CDM Paradigm:
    • The puzzles presented by observations of different galactic structures pose challenges for the traditional CDM theory.
  • SIDM as a Compelling Candidate:
    • SIDM emerges as a compelling candidate to reconcile these extremes, presenting a more intricate and dynamic view of dark matter.
  • Encouraging Further Studies:
    • The team hopes their work encourages more investigations in this area, particularly leveraging upcoming astronomical observatories’ data, such as the James Webb Space Telescope and the Rubin Observatory.
  • Significance of Observational Probes and Simulations:
    • This study underscores the significance of utilizing astrophysical observations and sophisticated simulations to understand dark matter’s properties and behaviour.

Conclusion

  • The study by Hai-Bo Yu and collaborators sheds light on the potential of SIDM to address the discrepancies observed in the distribution and density of dark matter within different galactic structures.
  • By challenging the prevailing CDM paradigm, this research paves the way for a deeper understanding of dark matter’s complexities, urging further exploration and investigation in this intriguing field.

SOURCE: https://phys.org/news/2023-12-dark-theory-puzzles-astrophysics.html



Day-551 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GENERAL SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGICAL DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the birth control pills, consider the following mechanisms:
    1. Stopping or reducing ovulation
    2. Thinning of the cervical mucus
    3. Thickening of uterus lining
    Birth control pills can target how many of the above mechanisms to prevent pregnancy in females?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    The birth control pill is a type of oral contraception that uses hormones to prevent pregnancy. The hormones in birth control pills prevent pregnancy by blocking conception when sperm fertilizes an egg. They also cause changes in the uterus so that it can’t support a pregnancy. Oral contraceptive pills are either combined estrogen-progesterone (also called combined oral contraceptive pill- COC) or progesterone-only pill (POP).
    ● Mechanism 1 is correct: One of the mechanisms targeted by oral contraceptives is to stop ovulation. Ovulation is the release of eggs from the ovaries of females. Thus, there is no egg for fertilization which prevents pregnancy.
    ● Mechanism 2 is incorrect: Thickening of cervical mucus is another mechanism. This creates a barrier that prevents sperm from entering the uterus and eventually reaching the egg.
    ● Mechanism 3 is incorrect: Thinning of uterus lining is also achieved through oral contraceptive pills. This prevents fertilized eggs from getting attached and growing into a fetus.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    The birth control pill is a type of oral contraception that uses hormones to prevent pregnancy. The hormones in birth control pills prevent pregnancy by blocking conception when sperm fertilizes an egg. They also cause changes in the uterus so that it can’t support a pregnancy. Oral contraceptive pills are either combined estrogen-progesterone (also called combined oral contraceptive pill- COC) or progesterone-only pill (POP).
    ● Mechanism 1 is correct: One of the mechanisms targeted by oral contraceptives is to stop ovulation. Ovulation is the release of eggs from the ovaries of females. Thus, there is no egg for fertilization which prevents pregnancy.
    ● Mechanism 2 is incorrect: Thickening of cervical mucus is another mechanism. This creates a barrier that prevents sperm from entering the uterus and eventually reaching the egg.
    ● Mechanism 3 is incorrect: Thinning of uterus lining is also achieved through oral contraceptive pills. This prevents fertilized eggs from getting attached and growing into a fetus.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. With reference to the Worldcoin project, consider the following statements:
    1. It aims to create one of the world’s largest cryptocurrency networks for digital finance.
    2. Fingerprint scan will be used for authentication and signup purposes on the network.
    3. It will be open to everyone regardless of his/her country.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    A project called Worldcoin has been launched by OpenAI, an Artificial Intelligence company. The project claims to be building the world’s largest identity and financial public network.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: The project aims to introduce Worldcoin token as a new cryptocurrency that offers a new and unique method for identification to reduce the risk of fraud. Worldcoin token (WLD) can be used as a medium of purchases and transfers globally using digital assets and traditional currencies.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Iris scan (eye) is essential to sign up to the network. It will be done through a ball-like object called an ‘orb’. Once the orb’s iris scan verifies the person is a real human, it creates a World ID for them. The biometric data would help differentiate between humans and Artificial Intelligence systems and prevent duplication of IDs from the same person. It can then be used as an ID in a variety of everyday applications – such as a cryptocurrency wallet – without revealing the user’s identity.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The Worldcoin protocol is intended to be the world’s largest identity and financial public network, open to everyone regardless of their country, background, or economic status.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    A project called Worldcoin has been launched by OpenAI, an Artificial Intelligence company. The project claims to be building the world’s largest identity and financial public network.
    ● Statement 1 is correct: The project aims to introduce Worldcoin token as a new cryptocurrency that offers a new and unique method for identification to reduce the risk of fraud. Worldcoin token (WLD) can be used as a medium of purchases and transfers globally using digital assets and traditional currencies.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Iris scan (eye) is essential to sign up to the network. It will be done through a ball-like object called an ‘orb’. Once the orb’s iris scan verifies the person is a real human, it creates a World ID for them. The biometric data would help differentiate between humans and Artificial Intelligence systems and prevent duplication of IDs from the same person. It can then be used as an ID in a variety of everyday applications – such as a cryptocurrency wallet – without revealing the user’s identity.
    ● Statement 3 is correct: The Worldcoin protocol is intended to be the world’s largest identity and financial public network, open to everyone regardless of their country, background, or economic status.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to the ‘Formation water’, consider the following statements:
    1. It appears during the mining of coal from underground.
    2. It has a very high salt content.
    3. It cannot be treated by any means.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Formation water is water that appears during the drilling process for oil and gas extraction. It is very dense and viscous.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: The Formation water consists of oily components, brine solutions, and solvents that are used during various phases in the oil industry. It has a high salt content which includes sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium salts.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: There are ways and means to treat formation water. It depends on the usage of the treated product water.
    Treatment of the formation water
    The process can be summed up in four stages:
    1. Separation: removing crude, oil and other contaminants in the water that can clog filters downstream.
    2. Suspended Solid Removal: eliminating small size particles remaining.
    3. Dissolved solid removal: using low- and high-pressure membranes.
    4. Conditioning: depending on the quality of the water it may be a post treatment station for disinfection or activated carbon filtration.
    More about formation water
    ● If formation water is released without treatment, it can lead to the degradation of water quality, posing a significant threat to aquatic life.
    ● The toxins in formation water can also bio-magnify into the human food chain, if fish and other aquatic products, harvested from the affected area, are consumed.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Formation water is water that appears during the drilling process for oil and gas extraction. It is very dense and viscous.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: The Formation water consists of oily components, brine solutions, and solvents that are used during various phases in the oil industry. It has a high salt content which includes sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium salts.
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: There are ways and means to treat formation water. It depends on the usage of the treated product water.
    Treatment of the formation water
    The process can be summed up in four stages:
    1. Separation: removing crude, oil and other contaminants in the water that can clog filters downstream.
    2. Suspended Solid Removal: eliminating small size particles remaining.
    3. Dissolved solid removal: using low- and high-pressure membranes.
    4. Conditioning: depending on the quality of the water it may be a post treatment station for disinfection or activated carbon filtration.
    More about formation water
    ● If formation water is released without treatment, it can lead to the degradation of water quality, posing a significant threat to aquatic life.
    ● The toxins in formation water can also bio-magnify into the human food chain, if fish and other aquatic products, harvested from the affected area, are consumed.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. The ‘Turing Test’ is related to which of the following scientific developments?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    ● The Turing Test is used in artificial intelligence (AI) for determining whether a computer is capable of thinking like a human being. The test is named after Alan Turing, the founder of the Turing Test and an English computer scientist, cryptanalyst, mathematician, and theoretical biologist.
    ● The original Turing Test requires three terminals, each of which is physically separated from the other two. One terminal is operated by a computer, while the other two are operated by humans.
    ● During the test, one of the human being functions as the questioner, while the second human and the computer function as respondents. The questioner interrogates the respondents within a specific subject area, using a specified format and context. After a preset length of time or number of questions, the questioner is then asked to decide which respondent was human and which was a computer.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    ● The Turing Test is used in artificial intelligence (AI) for determining whether a computer is capable of thinking like a human being. The test is named after Alan Turing, the founder of the Turing Test and an English computer scientist, cryptanalyst, mathematician, and theoretical biologist.
    ● The original Turing Test requires three terminals, each of which is physically separated from the other two. One terminal is operated by a computer, while the other two are operated by humans.
    ● During the test, one of the human being functions as the questioner, while the second human and the computer function as respondents. The questioner interrogates the respondents within a specific subject area, using a specified format and context. After a preset length of time or number of questions, the questioner is then asked to decide which respondent was human and which was a computer.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Meissner Effect is related to which of the following technologies?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    ● Meissner effect is the expulsion of a magnetic field from the interior of a material that is in the process of becoming a superconductor.

    ● A super conductor loses its resistance to the flow of electrical currents when cooled below a certain temperature called the critical temperature. It is close to absolute zero or zero kelvin.
    ● The Meissner Effect is used in magnetic levitation, which means a body is suspended with no support except a magnetic field. Modern high-speed bullet trains use the phenomenon of magnetic levitation.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    ● Meissner effect is the expulsion of a magnetic field from the interior of a material that is in the process of becoming a superconductor.

    ● A super conductor loses its resistance to the flow of electrical currents when cooled below a certain temperature called the critical temperature. It is close to absolute zero or zero kelvin.
    ● The Meissner Effect is used in magnetic levitation, which means a body is suspended with no support except a magnetic field. Modern high-speed bullet trains use the phenomenon of magnetic levitation.

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UNDRR AND WMO REPORT ON EARLY WARNING SYSTEMS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Recently, a joint report by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) and the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) revealed a significant global deficiency in multi-hazard early warning systems.

EXPLANATION:

  • Despite progress in mitigating impacts from extreme weather and climate-related crises, half of the world’s countries lack adequate systems for early warnings.

State of Early Warning Systems Worldwide

  • The report, released during the UN Climate Meeting (COP28) in Dubai, highlights Africa’s commendable efforts in doubling the coverage of early warning systems.
  • However, the continent still falls below the global average.
  • Notably, less than half of the Least Developed Countries and a mere 40% of Small Island Developing States possess multi-hazard early warning systems.
  • In Arab States, there is a glaring deficiency in risk knowledge crucial for underpinning effective early warning systems.

UN Secretary-General’s Address and Case Studies

  • At a high-level event in Dubai, UN Secretary-General presented the “2023 Global Status of Multi-Hazard Early Warning Systems” report to ministers and stakeholders.
  • The report emphasizes India’s inadequacies in disaster risk knowledge, management, warning dissemination, and communication.
  • However, it acknowledges the country’s preparedness, response capabilities, and detection and forecasting abilities.
  • The report cites the flooding in Bangladesh in 2020 and the impact of Cyclone Amphan in India and West Bengal in 2019.
  • It attributes mitigated impacts to improved forecasting and the activation of Early Action Protocols.

Progress and Challenges of Early Warnings for All Initiative

  • The report evaluates the progress of the Early Warnings for All Initiative, designed to encompass global coverage by 2027.
  • Six additional countries have implemented early warning systems, bringing the total to 101, a doubling since 2015.
  • UN Secretary-General emphasizes the initiative’s potential to safeguard vulnerable communities and calls for increased support, aiming to double efforts in 2024.

International Support and Funding for Early Warning Systems

  • During the report launch, Denmark, Sweden, and France pledged substantial financial support – 6 million Euros, 5 million Euros, and 8 million Euros respectively – toward strengthening early warning systems.
  • This funding aims to build on the foundation laid since the initiative’s inception.
  • Major Multilateral Development Banks and the Green Climate Fund also committed to scaling up investments in early warning systems.
  • Additionally, countries like Maldives, Laos, and Ethiopia have formulated national action plans and coordination structures.
  • Benin has improved communication strategies targeting high-risk communities.
  • Fiji has fortified its flash flood warning to protect its entire population of nearly 1 million people.

Conclusion: Collaborative Efforts for Enhanced Early Warning Systems

  • The report underscores the critical need for improved multi-hazard early warning systems globally.
  • It highlights progress made, challenges faced, and the essential role of international cooperation and financial support.
  • The commitment of nations and international organizations to fortify these systems is vital in safeguarding vulnerable communities and reducing the impacts of climate-related crises.
  • The report signals a path forward for collaborative efforts to achieve comprehensive and effective early warning systems across the globe.

SOURCE: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/half-the-countries-in-world-lack-adequate-multi-hazard-early-warning-systems-report-101701629213134.html



GRAPH NETWORKS FOR MATERIALS EXPLORATION (GNoME)

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Google DeepMind’s recent breakthrough involves an AI tool called Graph Networks for Materials Exploration (GNoME), revolutionizing materials science by predicting structures for over 2 million new materials.

EXPLANATION:

  • This innovation holds vast potential for transformative applications across various industries, including renewable energy, semiconductor design, battery research, and computing efficiency.

Significance of the Breakthrough: Expanding the Horizon of Stable Materials

  • The introduction of GNoME marks a monumental leap, exponentially increasing the pool of ‘stable materials’ available to humanity.
  • This includes inorganic crystals vital for contemporary technology applications like computer chips and batteries.
  • The stability of these materials is pivotal as unstable ones might undergo decomposition, rendering them unusable.
  • DeepMind’s AI prediction has curated a list of 381,000 out of the 2.2 million crystal structures projected to be the most stable.
  • This advancement holds immense significance in various technological domains.
  • For instance, in the pursuit of solid electrolytes to replace liquid ones in Li-ion batteries or the quest for new compounds akin to graphene for revolutionizing electronics and superconductors.

Revolutionizing Material Discovery: AI as a Catalyst

  • Traditionally, the discovery of stable materials involved laborious trial-and-error experimentation or synthesizing elements, an expensive and time-consuming process.
  • Human-driven experimentation has led to the identification of around 28,000 stable materials in the Inorganic Crystal Structures Database.
  • GNoME, however, has rapidly escalated this process by utilizing filters to pinpoint materials that meet specific criteria for synthesis and potential application.
  • This AI model operates through a state-of-the-art graph neural network (GNN) design, interpreting input data resembling atomic connections in the form of a graph.
  • Trained via ‘active learning,’ GNoME evolves from a small, specialized dataset to identify patterns unseen in the original data, aiding in the discovery of new materials.

The Mechanics Behind GNoME’s Functionality

  • GNoME employs two main pipelines:
    • a structural pipeline generating candidates akin to known crystals and
    • a compositional pipeline following a randomized approach based on chemical formulas.
  • These outputs undergo evaluation using established Density Functional Theory (DFT) calculations, which assess material stability.
  • The results inform subsequent rounds of active learning, enhancing GNoME’s precision in predicting material stability from 50% to approximately 80%.
  • DeepMind claims that their research, which has made 380,000 stable predictions publicly available, is equivalent to 800 years of traditional knowledge accumulation in material science.
  • The model was trained initially on crystal structure data from the Materials Project, a collaborative initiative to compute properties of inorganic materials and offer the data freely to researchers.

Conclusion: Transformative Implications for Material Science

  • DeepMind’s GNoME represents a paradigm shift in materials science, leveraging AI to accelerate the discovery and prediction of stable materials.
  • By streamlining the identification of materials with specific properties, this breakthrough holds the promise of catalyzing advancements across multiple industries, paving the way for innovative technologies, renewable energy solutions, enhanced computing efficiency, and revolutionary battery designs.
  • This AI-driven approach has unlocked new avenues for researchers, potentially reshaping the landscape of material discovery and innovation in the foreseeable future.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/google-deepminds-ai-breakthrough-chip-battery-development-9057935/