PRUDENCE PREVAILS: ON KEEPING MONETARY POLICY DISINFLATIONARY

THE CONTEXT: The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to keep the repo rate unchanged at 6.5% for the sixth consecutive meeting. The MPC’s decision is influenced by uncertainties in food prices, which continue to affect the headline inflation trajectory. The recent trends in retail inflation and the potential impact of food price gains on inflation expectations are also highlighted.

ISSUES:

  • Monetary Policy and Inflation Control: The RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee has kept the repo rate unchanged at 6.5% for the sixth consecutive meeting. The committee is committed to maintaining a monetary policy to reduce inflation and stabilize prices.
  • Food Prices and Inflation: Food prices greatly impact inflation. In December, retail inflation was 5.69% due to uncertainties. The Consumer Food Price Index rose 9.53%, much higher than October’s 6.61%.
  • Inflation Projections and Policy Response: The MPC has predicted that retail inflation in the first quarter of the year will be around 5%. To meet the target of 4%, policymakers must keep up their efforts to control price increases.
  • Economic Growth and Consumption: Despite inflation, the economy remains strong. However, high inflation could negatively impact growth by reducing consumption.
  • Food Prices as Core of India’s Inflation: Food prices can sometimes increase in a way that affects inflation similarly to other basic goods. This can lead to people expecting more price increases, undermining the goal of stabilizing prices.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Monetary Policy Measures: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can employ various monetary policy tools to control inflation. These include adjusting the Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, and Bank Rate and employing Open Market Operations, Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), and Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). However, it’s important to note that while these measures can help manage inflation, they are not a complete solution and have limitations.
  • Investment in Infrastructure: Road infrastructure can foster efficient and stable food markets, which can help stabilize food prices.
  • Crop Diversification: Diversifying the types of crops grown can help stabilize the yield of the crops in the system, which can help control food prices.
  • Improving Supply Chain Management: Short-term food inflation is often caused by limited yield or poor supply chain management. Therefore, improving supply chain management can help control food inflation.
  • Providing Targeted and Flexible Food Safety Nets: This can ensure access to healthy diets and national food security, particularly for the most vulnerable groups.
  • Addressing Long-Term Threats to Food Production: These include water scarcity, soil degradation, the environmental impacts of climate change, and competition for productive land due to urban expansion.
  • Regulating Biofuels: Biofuels add stress to the weak supply and demand equilibrium of world food market commodities, so regulating them could help reduce food price volatility.
  • Strengthening the Supply Side: It is necessary to strengthen the supply side rather than concentrate only on the demand side. The RBI can lay certain regulations to direct funds for improvement in supply.

THE CONCLUSION:

The MPC’s decision reflects its commitment to ensuring that inflation aligns with the target of 4%, particularly in the face of volatile food prices. However, the article suggests that policymakers must remain steadfast in their resolve to slow price gains towards the target or risk dampening consumption and undermining growth momentum. There is a need for a balanced approach to manage inflation while supporting economic growth.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q. Do you agree that steady GDP growth and low inflation have left the Indian economy in good shape? Give reasons in support of your arguments. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q. Discuss the impact of keeping the repo rate unchanged on the various sectors of the economy, considering the current inflationary trends and the need for economic growth.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/prudence-prevails-on-keeping-monetary-policy-disinflationary/article67828996.ece




ROAD MAP FOR FISCAL CONSOLIDATION

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the interim Budget or ‘vote on account’ for 2024-25 was presented by Finance Minister. The budget refrained from making any changes to tax rates either for direct taxes or indirect taxes but highlights increased capital expenditures and fiscal consolidation.

HIGHLIGHTS IN THE BUDGET:

  • Capital Expenditure: One important feature of the Budgets presented in recent years is an increase in capital expenditures of the Central government. The interim Budget has maintained this trend and has provided for an increase of 11.1% in capital expenditures when a comparison is made with the 2023-24 Budget Estimates. This aims to stimulate investment climate, potentially catalysing private sector participation and underscores the government’s commitment to infrastructure development.
  • Growth Rates Analysis: While the interim budget indicates an 11.1% increase in capital expenditures compared to the 2023-24 Budget Estimates, the growth rate is lower than initially planned. This lower growth rate aligns with the real GDP growth of 7.3% in 2023-24.
  • Potential Impact on GDP Growth: The projected 17% growth in capital expenditure for 2024-25 suggests the potential for achieving a 7% real GDP growth. It can be achieved if private sector investment momentum is sustained and state governments maintain their capital expenditure growth, supported by government initiatives such as interest-free loans.
  • Tax buoyancy: The buoyancy of tax revenue, coupled with nominal GDP growth estimates, provides flexibility for future expenditure adjustments or deficit reductions. The buoyancy of tax revenue comes to 1.33, if the base is taken as Budget Estimates of the present year and using nominal GDP growth for 2023-24 as per the National Statistics Organisation’s (NSO) first advance estimates.
  • Fiscal Planning: The budget showcases prudent fiscal planning and the emphasis on fiscal correction and consolidation reflects a cautious approach to economic management.
  • Fiscal Deficit Reduction: A significant aspect of the budget is the projected reduction in the fiscal deficit. The fiscal deficit for 2024-25 is forecasted to decrease to 5.1% of GDP reflecting a decrease of a 0.7 percentage point from the previous year.
  • Long-term Fiscal Objectives: The budget discussion revolves around the desired fiscal deficit targets, particularly aiming for 3% of GDP for the Central government and not exceeding 6% of GDP when combined with State governments. The rationale behind these targets is intricately linked to household savings, net inflows from abroad, and the imperative to manage debt-GDP ratios effectively.
  • Debt-GDP Ratio: The government proposes a debt-GDP ratio target of 40% for the Centre by 2028-29 which a strategic vision for sustainable fiscal management over the long term. This would be feasible as the government has extended the interest-free loan facility for the State governments. The lower fiscal deficit might also facilitate a lowering of interest rates later during the year.
  • Capital formation: Though, capital expenditures of the government are not identical with gross fixed capital formation. However, it contributes to increasing capital formation. It is worth noting that the capital expenditures of the Central government in 2024-25 as a proportion of GDP are budgeted to increase marginally from 3.2% in 2023-24 to 3.4% in 2024-25.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Continued Government Investment: In developing economies, growth is driven by investment. Therefore, for the continued growth of the economy, there is a need for an sustained investment rate which can be improved only by the government raising its own investment. It could act as a catalyst for private investment.
  • Ensuring Economic Stability: These targets are rooted in the goal of ensuring economic stability by maintaining sufficient household savings, curbing inflationary pressures, and fostering sustainable economic growth.
  • Setting timelines: The timeline for achieving the targets highlighted in budget must be carefully delineated to mitigate inflationary pressures for ensuring sustainable economic growth.
  • Coordination: Achieving these targets necessitate continuous coordination and implementation, considering the dynamic nature of economic conditions amidst evolving global and domestic factors.

THE CONCLUSION:

The recent interim Budget lays a foundation for sustainable fiscal management, emphasizing on capital expenditure enhancement and fiscal consolidation. However, achieving long-term fiscal sustainability requires concerted efforts, including aligning fiscal policies with economic realities and establishing clear targets for deficit reduction.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 What are the reasons for introducing the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003? Discuss its salient features and their effectiveness critically. (2013)

Q.2 Public expenditure management was a challenge to India’s government in the context of budget-making during the post-liberalization period. Clarify it. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Highlight the challenges in achieving long-term fiscal sustainability in the country, considering the dynamic economic conditions amidst evolving global and domestic factors.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/road-map-for-fiscal-consolidation/article67821293.ece




TOWARDS UNIFORMITY: ON THE UCC ADOPTED BY THE UTTARAKHAND ASSEMBLY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the Uniform Civil Code adopted by the Uttarakhand Assembly aims to consolidate the laws relating to marriage, divorce and succession among all communities. The Uttarakhand has become the first state since pre-Independence Goa to adopt a uniform code for civil matters.

WHAT IS UNIFORM CIVIL CODE?

  • Uniform civil code in India is the proposal to replace the personal laws based on the scriptures and customs of each major religious with a common set governing every citizen.
  • These laws are distinguished from public law and cover marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption and maintenance.
  • It aims to establish a uniform legal framework for all citizens, regardless of their religion.
  • Article 44 in the DPSP in Part IV of the Constitution, which states that “the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India”.
  • Thus, Constitution explicitly states that the state can only “endeavour” to achieve a common code among its citizens, rather than enforce it.

BACKGROUND: DIVERGENT OPINIONS

  • When the Constitution makers made the adoption of a UCC one of the directive principles, opinion was divided on whether a UCC will undermine minority rights or promote equal status for women in all religions.
  • R. Ambedkar felt the UCC, if enacted, should be voluntary in the initial stages.
  • The previous Law Commission had said a UCC is neither desirable nor necessary, and, instead, suggested that each body of personal law be reformed to eliminate discrimination or regressive practices.
  • However, the 22nd Law Commission has revived the idea and has started gathering views from the public.

ISSUES:

  • Fundamental rights: The implementation of the UCC violates the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution, including Article 25 (freedom to profess and practice one’s religion) and Article 29 (right to have a distinct culture). It also contradicts the provisions granted to states like Nagaland and Mizoram.
  • Infringe upon minorities right: Major concerns have been raised that its enforcement may infringe upon the rights and distinct practices of minority communities in the state.
  • Privacy and rights of individuals: The provisions in Uttarakhand UCC is violative of the Constitution as it aims to formalise live-in relationships through registration. This unwanted incursion into citizens’ personal life is worsened by the prescription of a three-month prison term for non-registration. It will expose citizens to intrusive inquiries, social hostility and pointless deprivation of liberty. It is violative of both rights and privacy of the individuals.
  • Erode tolerance and fabric of society: Uniform nation does not necessarily imply a unified nation, it is being believed that the UCC will erode the boundaries of tolerance, despite being non-cognizable.
  • Absence of consensus: It is quite obvious that there will be a lack of consensus because it is ultimately the difference of beliefs and ideology that affect a person’s morality. This factor can again make the take of UCC implementation difficult.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Moderate the personal laws: The personal laws of different religions have unique issues and loopholes mainly due to their inclination towards the patriarchal concept of society. There is a need to bring moderation and balance in the personal laws of the country.
  • National integration: Whatever laws and legislation that will be adopted should reflect India’s multiculturalism and preserve its diversity. This will ensure national integration as unity is more important than uniformity.
  • Secularism: There is a need to treat every individual equally and for that steps need to be taken to maintain a fair principle of secularity.
  • Consultation with Stakeholders: There is a need to make a broader consultation with all the major stakeholders, including religious leaders, legal experts in the process of developing UCC.

THE CONCLUSION:

Though, the implementation of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) has the potential to enhance both secularism and national integrity in India. However, any decision regarding implementing such decision should include different perspectives and needs of different groups.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 Discuss the possible factors that inhibit India from enacting a uniform civil code for its citizens as provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy. (2015)

Q.2 Communalism arises either due to power struggle or relative deprivation. Argue by giving suitable illustrations. (2018)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Explain the concept of Uniform Civil Code. What are the challenges in its implementation and how can it affect the rights of the citizens?

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/towards-uniformity-on-the-ucc-adopted-by-the-uttarakhand-assembly/article67825238.ece




PROTESTS BY KARNATAKA AND KERALA: GRAND BARGAIN 2.0

THE CONTEXT: Indian states ruled by opposition parties are protesting the central government’s distribution of tax revenues and imposition of borrowing limits, raising concerns about fiscal federalism principles.

ISSUES:

  • Tax Devolution and Revenue Sharing: Karnataka’s Chief Minister protested the Centre’s alleged discrimination in the devolution of tax revenues. The reduction of Karnataka’s share in the divisible tax pool from 4.713 to 3.647 percent between the 14th and 15th Finance Commission awards is a point of contention. This has financial implications for the state, potentially affecting its ability to fund various programs and meet its expenditure needs.
  • Borrowing Limits: Kerala’s Chief Minister has moved the Supreme Court against the Centre’s imposing limits on the state’s borrowing powers. The Centre’s actions are seen as encroaching on the state’s fiscal sovereignty, potentially leading to a financial crisis for Kerala by limiting its ability to manage its budget and fund development projects.
  • Off-Budget Borrowing: Karnataka and Kerala have engaged in fiscally questionable practices. Kerala has sought to circumvent its net borrowing ceiling by resorting to off-budget loans raised by state-owned entities. This can lead to understating the state’s debt and deficit figures, potentially masking the true extent of its financial liabilities.
  • Fiscal Irresponsibility: The ruling Congress in Karnataka has been criticized for its fiscal irresponsibility, particularly for announcing five assembly poll “guarantee” schemes costing the state exchequer an additional Rs 52,000 crore per year. This could exacerbate the state’s financial strain and impact its fiscal sustainability.
  • GST and Fiscal Sovereignty: Implementing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) has replaced major sources of revenue for the states, such as the value-added tax. Although the states accepted this loss of fiscal sovereignty through a consensus-building process, there are concerns about the adequacy of compensation for potential revenue losses under the new tax regime.
  • Political Implications: The timing of the protests by Karnataka and Kerala, ahead of Lok Sabha elections, and the fact that both states are opposition-ruled suggests a political dimension to these financial disputes. This could lead to politicizing fiscal federalism issues, potentially affecting the cooperative relationship between the Centre and the states.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • GST COUNCIL 2.0: There is a need for a new grand bargain between the Centre and the states to address the issues of tax devolution and resource transfers. This would involve clear and transparent rules for distributing the Centre’s tax proceeds and grants-in-aid.
  • Fiscal Equalization: Commissions must move towards fiscal equalization to address the vertical fiscal imbalance. This would require a sense of direction to achieve a more balanced distribution of financial resources between the Centre and the states.
  • Transparent Rules for Resource Transfers: The next Finance Commission should frame clear and transparent rules for distributing the Centre’s tax proceeds and grants-in-aid. This would help ensure fairness and equity in the distribution of financial resources.
  • Adherence to Fiscal Responsibility: States should strictly adhere to deficit targets and borrowing limits, while the Centre must desist from levying non-sharable cesses and surcharges on taxes. Addressing Fiscal Irresponsibility: States must exercise fiscal responsibility and avoid fiscally irresponsible actions, such as announcing costly guarantee schemes without adequate financial planning.
  • Public Support and Effective Implementation: While guarantee schemes may enjoy popular support, ensuring their effective implementation and assessing their impact on public finances is essential. Public opinion and effectiveness assessments should inform the design and implementation of such schemes.
  • Cooperative Approach: Both the Centre and the states need to adopt a cooperative approach to address the genuine concerns about fiscal federalism. This would involve constructive dialogue, consensus-building, and a willingness to find mutually acceptable solutions to the financial issues raised.

THE CONCLUSION:

The states demand fairer, clearer, and more transparent fiscal rules that govern tax devolution and borrowing practices, coupled with a collective call for responsible financial governance and equitable treatment by the Centre to maintain the federal balance.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1) Explain the significance of the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act. To what extent does it reflect the accommodative spirit of federalism? (2023)

Q.2) How have the recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission of India enabled the States to improve their fiscal position? (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) Examine the issues related to vertical and horizontal imbalances in tax devolution in the Indian federation, considering recent events involving state protests and the Centre’s fiscal policies. Critically analyze the role of Finance Commissions and the potential impact of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) on fiscal federalism.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/uttarakhand-uniform-civil-code-young-people-sexuality-9151154/




THE SEVERE EROSION OF FISCAL FEDERALISM

THE CONTEXT: The debate surrounding Kerala’s protest of the Centre’s imposition of a Net Borrowing Ceiling (NBC) underscores a growing concern over the erosion of fiscal federalism in India. This brings into the limelight the conflict between the constitutional autonomy of states to manage their finances and the Centre’s regulatory mechanisms intended to ensure fiscal discipline and transparency.

THE ISSUES:

  • Net Borrowing Ceiling (NBC): The NBC is a limit set by the Centre on the total amount that states can borrow from all sources, including open market operations and loans from state-owned enterprises. Specific to Kerala, the NBC now includes debts incurred by the Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund Board (KIIFB), which funds infrastructure projects through extra-budgetary routes. Including KIIFB’s debts under the NBC restricts Kerala’s financial autonomy, directly impacting its ability to fund welfare schemes and pensions.
  • Constitutional Limits and Fiscal Federalism: Article 293(3) requires states to seek the Centre’s permission to borrow if they have any outstanding federal loans. The imposition of the NBC by the Centre is under this article, which Kerala contends is a violation. Kerala’s legal stance to move to the Supreme Court suggests that the Centre’s decision infringes on the state’s constitutional rights to manage its public debt (Entry 43, State List) and public accounts (Article 266(2)).
  • State Fiscal Responsibility and Transparency: Kerala Fiscal Responsibility Act, 2003 mandates reducing the fiscal deficit to 3% of Kerala’s Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) by 2025-26. Kerala’s fiscal deficit has been reported at 2.44% and the revenue deficit at 0.88% of the GSDP, indicating a responsible fiscal approach compared to the Centre’s fiscal deficit, pegged at 5.8% for 2023-24.
  • Impact on Governance and Welfare Implications: The restricted borrowing capacity directly impacts the state’s social obligations, such as funding pensions and welfare programs essential for balanced socio-economic development. The KIIFB’s innovative financial strategy for infrastructure development in Kerala is a model of how state autonomy can be effectively utilized for the public good, which NBC hinders.
  • Assessment of Federal Dynamics: The shift in Federal Structure by transitioning from cooperative federalism towards a more ‘annihilative federalism,’ where the Centre’s stringent controls over state finances limit the states’ operational independence. Examination of this shift in India’s federal structure reflects on the long-term implications on centre-state relations and the principle of subsidiarity.
  • Borrowing Restrictions: The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes be shared with the states. However, the Centre’s decision to include off-budget borrowings done by states while deciding their borrowing limits led to a sharp decrease in such borrowings. This has been seen as a restriction on states’ ability to borrow and manage their finances, with Kerala particularly affected due to the inclusion of the debt of KIIFB in the NBC.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Seek Judicial Clarification: Given that Kerala has moved the Supreme Court on the matter, one solution is a judicial review of the constitutional validity of the NBC with respect to Article 293(3) and Article 266(2). The Court’s interpretation could resolve disputes regarding the constitutional limits of the Centre’s authority over state borrowing.
  • Review of 15th Finance Commission Recommendations: The issues stemming from interpreting the 15th Finance Commission’s recommendations could be re-examined. States can engage with the Finance Commission or the Union Finance Ministry to advocate their concerns and seek a more nuanced approach that doesn’t infringe on states’ fiscal autonomy while upholding fiscal sustainability.
  • Legislative Action: Parliament could consider enacting legislation or amending existing laws (subject to constitutional limits) to clarify the scope of central oversight on state borrowings. This should respect the balance of fiscal federalism and be designed after extensive consultations with states.
  • Strengthen Cooperative Federalism: Regular high-level meetings between the Centre and States, through forums like the GST Council or a specially convened fiscal policy council, could help facilitate dialogue. These meetings would aim to negotiate borrowing limits and ensure that states have enough financial leeway to meet their obligations.
  • Promote Fiscal Responsibility at the State Level: States can take proactive steps to strengthen their fiscal management, as Kerala has done through the Kerala Fiscal Responsibility Act. By setting clear deficit targets and budget management practices, states can demonstrate their commitment to fiscal prudence, potentially increasing their negotiating power with the Centre.
  • Build a Consensus on Public Account Handling: The issue of including public account withdrawals within the NBC could be addressed by building a broader consensus among all states, which can then be presented to the Centre in a united front to exclude such transactions from the borrowing limits.
  • Economic Reforms and Growth Promotion: Widening the tax base through economic reforms, boosting the investment climate, and promoting growth in the state’s own-source revenue can be sustainable ways of ensuring sufficient funds for state spending without reliance on borrowings.

THE CONCLUSION:

Kerala’s challenge against the Centre’s Net Borrowing Ceiling (NBC) imposition highlights a significant constitutional dispute over fiscal federalism and state autonomy in financial management. The state argues that the Centre’s restrictions on borrowing, including debts of state-owned enterprises and public account balances, infringe upon its constitutional rights. This legal battle underscores the tension between central oversight and state fiscal independence, potentially reshaping the dynamics of federal-state financial relations in India.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1 Though the federal principle is dominant in our Constitution and that principle is one of its basic features, but it is equally true that federalism under the Indian Constitution leans in favour of a strong Centre, a feature that militates against the concept of strong federalism. Discuss. (2014)

Q.2 The concept of cooperative federalism has been increasingly emphasized in recent years. Highlight the drawbacks in the existing structure and the extent to which cooperative federalism would answer the shortcomings. (2015)

Q.3 How far do you think cooperation, competition, and confrontation have shaped the nature of federation in India? Cite some recent examples to validate your answer. (2020)

Q.4 Public expenditure management was a challenge to India’s government in the context of budget-making during the post-liberalization period. Clarify it. (2019)

Q.5 What are the reasons for introducing the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003? Discuss its salient features and their effectiveness critically. (2013)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Critically examine the contention between the State of Kerala and the Centre over the imposition of a Net Borrowing Ceiling (NBC) concerning Article 293(3) of the Indian Constitution. Analyze the implications of such a ceiling on fiscal federalism and state autonomy, along with its potential impact on state welfare schemes and infrastructure projects.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-severe-erosion-of-fiscal-federalism/article67818283.ece




UNIFORM CUT AND PASTE? A QUICK APPRAISAL OF UTTARAKHAND’S UNIFORM CIVIL CODE BILL

THE CONTEXT: Recently, Uttarakhand state Assembly proposed the draft bill Uniform Civil Code (UCC), exploring its implications for India’s diverse social fabric and privacy, particularly about live-in relationships, and examines legislative attempts to balance gender justice with cultural diversity. The discourse reflects historical instances where legal homogenization resulted in negative outcomes, underscoring the need for a nuanced approach to the UCC.

ISSUES:

  • Lack of a Working Draft: Initially, no working draft was available for discussion, leading to uncertainties about the government’s proposal. Without a working draft, discussions on the matter are somewhat speculative.
  • Concerns Over Uniformity vs. Diversity: UCC might undermine India’s cultural and religious diversity by imposing a homogenized set of laws reminiscent of the British era’s policies that fueled partition. UCC could aim to homogenize the legal system at the expense of cultural nuances, citing the historical example of the Shariat Act of 1937 and its contribution to homogenizing Muslim personal laws, which arguably fueled separatist narratives.
  • Provisions of the UCC Draft: The draft seems to largely incorporate provisions from the Special Marriage Act, 1954, and the Indian Succession Act, 1956, with some strategic tweaks, such as making religious conversion a ground for divorce.
  • Live-In Relationship Regulations: The draft UCC includes controversial provisions for live-in relationships, such as mandatory registration and the possibility of criminal charges for non-compliance. This raises concerns about privacy and the potential for abuse.
  • Definition of ‘Resident’: The UCC’s definition of a resident is broad and could apply the code to individuals who have never lived in Uttarakhand or are temporarily employed there, which could lead to legal complexities. This could include people working for the state or central government within or outside the state, even if they don’t live there.
  • Criminalizing Unregistered Live-in Relationships: Making it an offense to be in an unregistered live-in relationship for more than a month appears excessive and punitive, especially in a society where such arrangements might be sought as a step before formal marriage. The requirement that the registrar notify the parents and the police station for partners under 21 years of age could infringe on the autonomy and privacy of young adults.
  • Lack of Clarity in Registration Refusal and Appeal: The draft does not explain the consequences of a refusal to register a live-in relationship, nor does it provide a clear appeals process for such a decision. The system, as proposed, could be open to misuse, resulting in harassment and privacy breaches, particularly for inter-faith and inter-caste couples who face social resistance.
  • Conflicting Age Provisions within the UCC: The draft seems to have conflicting provisions regarding the marriageable age and the age at which the state must be notified about live-in relationships.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Political Consensus and Opposition from Religious Groups: Building political consensus and engaging in constructive dialogue with religious groups to address their concerns can help the smooth implementation of the UCC.
  • Inclusion of Tribal Communities: The exemption of tribal communities from the UCC in Uttarakhand has sparked debate. Finding a balanced approach that respects the unique practices of tribal communities while working towards a more uniform legal framework for all citizens is essential.
  • Gender Justice and Equality: One of the primary objectives of the UCC is to ensure gender justice and equality. Any provisions or amendments should be carefully crafted to uphold these principles.
  • Maintenance of Women and Legitimacy of Children: Positive provisions related to maintenance rights for women and the legitimacy of children from live-in relationships should be retained while ensuring that they are implemented practically and non-intrusively.
  • Inclusive Approach: The implementation of UCC should be an inclusive process, considering the concerns and perspectives of all stakeholders, including religious and cultural communities, legal experts, and civil society organizations.
  • Privacy and Personal Freedoms: Addressing privacy and personal freedoms concerns, especially in live-in relationships, requires carefully reviewing the provisions to ensure they are not overly intrusive or punitive.
  • Clarifying Applicability: The term ‘resident’ should be clearly defined to prevent the overextension of the UCC’s jurisdiction and ensure it applies appropriately to those it is intended to govern.
  • Reconciliation of Age Provisions: All age-related provisions within the UCC should be consistent with each other and existing national laws to avoid legal confusion and conflict.
  • Training and Sensitization: Impart training to registration officers, police, and other relevant authorities to handle sensitive matters related to the UCC, respecting individuals’ dignity and rights.

THE CONCLUSION:

The draft UCC, while aiming for equality and legal simplicity, overreaches in privacy and personal autonomy, demanding meticulous revision for practical enforcement without infringing on individual rights. It is vital to promote gender justice and legal uniformity while fostering and respecting the inherent diversity that defines the ethos of India.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1) Discuss the possible factors that inhibit India from enacting a uniform civil code for its citizens as provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy. (2015)

Q.2) Given the diversities among tribal communities in India, in which specific contexts should they be considered as a single category?(2022)

Q.3) Communalism arises either due to power struggle or relative deprivation. Argue by giving suitable illustrations.(2018)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) India’s quest for enacting a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) has been a subject of debate since the country’s independence. Analyze the potential implications of implementing a UCC on the diverse fabric of Indian society, especially in light of the proposed draft by the State of Uttarakhand.

SOURCE:

https://www.barandbench.com/columns/uniform-cut-and-paste-quick-appraisal-uttarakhand-uniform-civil-code-bill




REVIVAL OF OLIVE RIDLEY TURTLES IN MANGALURU BEACHES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The recent resurgence of Olive Ridley turtles on the beaches of Mangaluru, Karnataka, after a hiatus of 29 years, is a significant environmental milestone.

EXPLANATION:

  • The return of these turtles, categorized as Schedule 1 animals under the Wildlife Act of 1972, underscores positive changes in the beach ecosystem.
  • The successful nesting on Tannirbhavi and Sasihithlu beaches on February 5, 2024, is attributed to concerted conservation efforts, including beach cleaning, night patrolling, and protective measures.

Environmental Factors Leading to the Hiatus:

  • The absence of nesting sites since 1985 was linked to environmental factors such as increased salinity and beach pollution due to human activities.
  • The recent resurgence indicates a positive shift, potentially due to reduced pollution and limited human interference, making these beaches suitable habitats for the sensitive Olive Ridley turtles.

Conservation Activities and Local Involvement:

  • The nesting sites are under vigilant protection through a ‘clipper movement’ involving barricading and constant patrolling by both forest officials and local fisherfolk.
  • The involvement of the community, including youth from nearby fishing villages, showcases a collaborative effort to protect the eggs from natural predators like dogs, birds, and jackals.

Conservation Challenges and Measures:

  • The forest minister of Karnataka emphasizes the need for incentives and awareness among fisherfolk assisting in conservation.
  • The conservation efforts extend beyond protection, with the forest department ensuring a 40-day guarding period for the nesting sites until the hatchlings safely reach the sea.

Olive Ridley Turtles: Sensitivity and Importance:

  • Olive Ridley turtles, equivalent in conservation importance to tigers and elephants, are extremely sensitive to human activity.
  • Their choice to nest in uninhabited parts of Tannirbhavi and Sasihithlu highlights the need for undisturbed environments for successful nesting.

Ecosystem Impact and Conservation Significance:

  • Experts from the Karnataka Veterinary, Animal, Fisheries and Animal Sciences University emphasize the ecological significance of Olive Ridley turtles.
  • They feed on jellyfish, known for their ability to control fish populations and pose threats to fisherfolk.
  • The return of nesting in southern Karnataka prompts further research into the reasons behind this migration from established sites like Kundapur and Byndoor.

Decline in Olive Ridley Population:

  • The Olive Ridley turtles are classified as endangered in the IUCN Red List, facing threats such as degradation of nesting beaches, directed harvest, and by-catch in fisheries.
  • Despite increased conservation efforts, there has been a 50% reduction in population size since the 1960s, necessitating ongoing protection.

Global Context and Conservation Challenges:

  • While the numbers arriving on Karnataka beaches may not surpass those at Gahirmatha beach in Odisha, the revival in southern Karnataka signifies a positive trend.
  • Conservationists raise concerns about the lack of regulatory measures on the western front compared to the eastern coast, where more stringent regulations are in place.

Why Conserve Olive Ridley Turtles:

  • Conservation specialists stress the importance of protecting Olive Ridley turtles globally, given their status as the most exploited sea turtle species.
  • The 50% reduction in population size since the 1960s underlines the urgency of conservation efforts to ensure the natural progression of hatchlings into the sea and prevent poaching.

Olive Ridley turtles:

  • The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
  • They are found to be inhabiting the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.
  • They are carnivores and feed mainly on jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs, and a variety of fish and their eggs.
  • The males and females grow to the same size.
  • These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
  • The coast of Orissa in India is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive-ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica.
  • The species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list.
  • They lie in Scheduled 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
  • They are in Appendix I of the CITES.

Conclusion:

  • The return of Olive Ridley turtles to Mangaluru beaches marks a significant environmental achievement.
  • It reflects the success of conservation measures, local involvement, and a shift towards cleaner and less human-impacted beach environments.
  • The ongoing protection of nesting sites and collaboration between communities, government, and conservationists demonstrate a collective commitment to preserving these endangered marine species.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/olive-ridley-turtles-are-back-on-mangaluru-beaches–94345




GLOBAL CLEAN-WATER SCARCITY: NITROGEN POLLUTION’S ALARMING IMPACT

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: A recent report, published on February 6, 2024, in Nature Communications, sheds light on the impending water crisis, exacerbated by nitrogen pollution in rivers.

EXPLANATION:

  • The study introduces the term “clean-water scarcity” to encompass both water quantity and quality concerns.
  • The findings reveal a more alarming scenario than previously estimated, with the number of sub-basins facing water scarcity anticipated to triple by 2050.
  • We will explore the key aspects of the report, emphasizing the global impact, the role of nitrogen pollution, and the urgent need for mitigation strategies.

Global Clean-Water Scarcity Scenario:

  • The study’s comprehensive assessment introduces the concept of “clean-water scarcity,” considering both water quantity and quality.
  • The global impact reveals that an additional 40 million square kilometers of river basin area and three billion more people may face water scarcity in 2050 than previously estimated.

Nitrogen Pollution’s Role:

  • Nitrogen pollution in rivers emerges as a significant contributor to clean-water scarcity.
  • The worst-case scenario projects sewage as the dominant source of nitrogen pollution due to rapid urbanization and inadequate wastewater treatment infrastructure.
  • In India and Africa, for instance, sewage is expected to surpass agriculture as the primary source of nitrogen pollution.

Projection for 2050:

  • Comparing clean-water scarcity assessments to traditional quantity-based assessments, the number of sub-basins facing severe scarcity is projected to potentially triple by 2050.
  • The global area and population affected by severe water scarcity may more than double, indicating a critical escalation of the crisis.

Water Scarcity and Quality Linkage:

  • In 2010, traditional quantity-based assessments identified 984 sub-basins as water scarce, while assessments incorporating quality factors revealed 2,517 sub-basins facing scarcity.
  • By 2050, this number is expected to increase to 3,061 sub-basins in the worst-case scenario, indicating the pivotal role of water pollution, especially nitrogen pollution, in exacerbating water scarcity.

Clean-Water Scarcity Hotspots:

  • Future clean-water scarcity hotspots are identified in China, India, Europe, North America, and potentially Central Africa.
  • Each region presents unique challenges requiring targeted solutions.
  • Urgent attention is needed to address water quality in future water management policies, aligning with Sustainable Development Goals (SDG).

Urgency for Mitigation Strategies:

  • Mitigation strategies must prioritize addressing water pollution, particularly nitrogen pollution.
  • The study emphasizes the urgency of proactive measures to control nitrogen pollution as a challenging yet imperative aspect of future water management strategies.
  • This aligns with the global commitment to SDG 6, focusing on clean water and sanitation.

India’s Concerns and SDG Deviation:

  • In India, the State of India’s Environment Report 2023 indicates a concerning deviation from SDG 6 in 15 states.
  • The impact of climate change scenarios further accentuates the need for robust and immediate measures, emphasizing the critical linkage between water quality and scarcity.

Conclusion:

  • The study underscores the looming global water crisis, with nitrogen pollution playing a pivotal role in exacerbating clean-water scarcity.
  • Urgent, targeted, and comprehensive mitigation strategies are imperative to address water quality concerns and align with global sustainability goals.
  • As the world faces this complex challenge, proactive measures become paramount to secure a sustainable and resilient water future.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/clean-water-crisis-nitrogen-pollution-to-triple-scarcity-in-river-sub-basins-worldwide-94356




WHITE PAPER ON THE INDIAN ECONOMY

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The presentation of a white paper on the Indian economy by Finance Minister has ignited a comparison between the economic performances of the UPA governments (2004-05 to 2013-14) and the NDA governments (2014-15 to 2023-24).

EXPLANATION:

  • We will delve into the objectives, content, and implications of the white paper, shedding light on the government’s perspective on economic governance.

Understanding a White Paper:

  • A white paper traditionally provides information on a specific issue, aiming to create awareness and propose solutions.
  • In this instance, the document is unique as it compares the economic records of two different governments over a decade, making it more of a retrospective analysis than a conventional white paper.

Timing and Objectives:

  • Timing of Presentation:
    • The white paper is presented at the conclusion of 10 years, offering a retrospective evaluation.
    • The government refrained from a negative portrayal earlier to instill confidence in investors and prioritize optimism during its initial years.
  • Objectives:
    • Informing about Past Challenges: One objective is to inform stakeholders about the economic, fiscal, and governance challenges inherited by the NDA government in 2014.
    • Showcasing Reforms and Policies: The paper details the policies and measures implemented by the NDA to rejuvenate the economy since 2014.
    • Encouraging Informed Debate: Aiming for a wider, more informed debate on national interest and fiscal responsibility over political expediency.
    • Aligning with National Development Goals: Reflecting the commitment to national development, aligning with Prime Minister Narendra vision for the country.

Key Content and Claims:

  • The 58-page white paper is structured into three main parts, each addressing different aspects of the economic landscape:
    • Macroeconomic Situation (UPA Rule): Highlights from this section include accusations of the UPA inheriting a healthy economy but neglecting reforms, causing economic stagnation and policy misadventures.
    • Corruption Scams under UPA: Part two outlines various corruption scandals during the UPA era, emphasizing how these issues impacted the economy negatively.
    • NDA’s Economic Turnaround: The final part focuses on the steps taken by the NDA to revitalize the economy, citing improvements in inflation rates and the success of key schemes during their governance.

Selective Use of Data:

  • UPA Era Critique: The white paper accuses the UPA of abandoning reforms, undermining macroeconomic foundations, and misadventures in policy and scams.
  • NDA Achievements: The document claims improvements under the NDA, citing lower average headline inflation and successful implementation of schemes.

Critique and Missing Elements:

  • Incomplete Economic Picture:
    • While the white paper highlights certain achievements of the NDA, it fails to acknowledge issues such as unemployment, the absence of formal poverty measures, and the delay in conducting the decadal Census.
  • Omission of Economic Indicators:
    • Surprisingly, the document lacks essential economic indicators like a chart on GDP growth over the period, limiting the comprehensiveness of the analysis.

Conclusion:

  • The white paper on the Indian economy serves as a tool for the government to present its version of economic performance over the past two decades.
  • However, critics argue that the selective use of data and the omission of key economic indicators raise questions about the document’s objectivity and completeness.
  • As the nation navigates complex economic challenges, a nuanced and transparent analysis becomes imperative for informed decision-making and public discourse.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/what-the-white-paper-on-economy-says-and-doesnt-9151991/




EMPOWERING FISHERIES SECTOR: CABINET APPROVES PRADHAN MANTRI MATSYA KISAN SAMRIDHI SAH-YOJANA

TAG: GS 3: AGRICULTURE

THE CONTEXT: In a significant move to boost the micro and small enterprises in the fisheries sector, the Union Cabinet has given its nod to the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-MKSSY).

EXPLANATION:

  • This sub-scheme, falling under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana, is set to infuse an estimated investment of ₹6,000 crore over the next four years.
  • The decision reflects the government’s commitment to the growth and development of the fisheries industry.

Extension of Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF):

  • Simultaneously, the Cabinet also approved the extension of the Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF) for an additional three years, extending up to 2025-26.
  • The FIDF, with an approved fund size of ₹7,522.48 crore and a budgetary support of ₹939.48 crore, has already sanctioned 121 fisheries infrastructure projects with a total investment cost of ₹5,588.63 crore.
  • This extension aims to bolster the development of critical infrastructure such as fishing harbours, fish landing centres, ice plants, cold storage, and fish transport facilities.

Financial Implications and Investment Sources:

  • The PM-MKSSY sub-scheme will operate on a 50-50 financial model, with 50% of the funding sourced from public finance, including external financing from entities like the World Bank and the Agence Française de Développement (AFD).
  • The remaining 50% is anticipated to be generated from the private sector, showcasing a collaborative effort to drive growth in the fisheries sector.
  • The expected investment of ₹6,000 crore over the next four years underlines the government’s commitment to fostering a robust and sustainable fisheries industry.

Implementation Timeline and Target Beneficiaries:

  • The PM-MKSSY is scheduled for implementation from 2023-24 to 2026-27, covering all States and union territories.
  • The beneficiaries of this sub-scheme encompass fishers, aquaculture farmers, fish workers, and fish vendors.
  • Its overarching goals include the gradual formalization of the fisheries sector and improved access to institutional credit.

Key Objectives and Outcomes:

  • Formalization of Fisheries Sector:
    • The PM-MKSSY aims to drive the formalization of the fisheries sector, bringing it under the institutional credit framework.
  • Job Creation and Business Growth:
    • The scheme is projected to create 1.7 lakh new jobs, with a particular emphasis on employing 75,000 women.
    • Additionally, it envisions the generation of 5.4 lakh continued employment opportunities in the micro and small enterprises value chain.
  • Support for Micro-Enterprises and Fisheries Cooperatives:
    • The initiative is expected to benefit 6.4 lakh micro-enterprises and 5,500 fisheries cooperatives, providing them with access to institutional credit.

Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana

  • Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) is an initiative for the fisheries sector launched by the Government of India in September 2020.
  • It brings about ecologically healthy, economically viable, and socially inclusive development of India’s fisheries sector.
  • The PMMSY scheme has been implemented by the Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying, Government of India, since September 2020.
  • The PMMSY scheme aims to bring about the Blue Revolution in India through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector, with an estimated investment of Rs. 20050 crores for holistic fisheries development, including fisher welfare.
  • The PMMSY scheme is being implemented in all the states and union territories for a period of five years from the financial year 2020-21 to the financial year 2024-25.
  • PMMSY aims to eliminate critical gaps in the value chain of fisheries, such as
    • Fish production
    • productivity, and quality
    • Technology
    • Post-harvest infrastructural facilities, and

Conclusion:

  • The Cabinet’s approval of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana and the extension of the Fisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund reflects a strategic and comprehensive approach towards strengthening the fisheries sector.
  • This move is poised to not only enhance the infrastructure but also generate employment, foster business growth, and elevate the overall economic contribution of the fisheries industry.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-approves-new-scheme-for-msmes-in-fisheries-sector/article67826665.ece/amp/




MONKEY FEVER (KYASANUR FOREST DISEASE)

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: As per the latest reports, Karnataka has seen 49 positive cases, leading to two fatalities – an 18-year-old girl and a 79-year-old man. This highlights the seriousness of the disease and the need for understanding its symptoms.

EXPLANATION:

  • Monkey Fever scientifically known as Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD).
  • It is a viral infection transmitted through ticks.
  • It was originating in India’s Kyasanur Forest in 1957.
  • The disease has spread to regions such as Maharashtra, Goa, and Kerala.
  • While monkeys are the primary victims, humans can also contract the virus through contact with infected ticks.
  • Monkey Fever exhibits a range of symptoms, making early diagnosis challenging.
  • Initial signs include fever, headache, muscle soreness, and fatigue, resembling other illnesses like dengue and chikungunya.

However, unique warning signs include:

  • Rash: Red or purple spots on the trunk and limbs, often accompanied by itchiness or pain.
  • Swollen Lymph Nodes: Inflammation and tenderness in neck, armpits, or groin, indicating an immune response.
  • Comprehensive List of Symptoms:
    • Fever
    • Chills
    • Headache
    • Severe exhaustion
    • Nausea and vomiting
    • Stomach pain
    • Diarrhea
    • Meningitis
    • Confusion
    • Hemorrhagic signs (nose bleeds, bleeding gums)
  • In severe cases, Monkey Fever can progress to life-threatening symptoms like bleeding and organ failure, especially in older individuals or those with compromised immunity.

Diagnosis, Prevention, and Management:

Diagnosis:

  • Due to symptom similarities with other diseases, diagnosis can be challenging.
  • Timely medical consultation is crucial, especially when unique signs like rash and swollen lymph nodes are present.

Prevention:

  • Prevention plays a pivotal role. Residents or visitors to Monkey Fever-prone areas should:
    • Avoid tick-infested locations.
    • Limit contact with monkeys.
    • Wear full-length clothing.
    • Use bug repellents.

Management Tips:

  • Immediate medical attention is necessary for suspicious symptoms.
  • Personal hygiene and adherence to preventive measures significantly reduce the risk of Monkey Fever.

Conclusion:

  • Monkey Fever, although primarily affecting monkeys, poses a substantial threat to human health.
  • Recognizing the symptoms, understanding preventive measures, and seeking prompt medical care are crucial aspects of managing this viral infection.
  • Public awareness and adherence to hygiene practices are essential in minimizing the risk of Monkey Fever in affected regions.

SOURCE: https://www.thehealthsite.com/diseases-conditions/monkey-fever-symptoms-top-7-warning-signs-that-says-you-are-infected-with-kyasanur-forest-disease-virus-1060795/




WSDP Bulletin (09/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. India suspends Free Movement Regime with Myanmar READ MORE

2. ‘Bail is rule, jail an exception’ does not apply in terror cases: Supreme Court READ MORE

3. El Niño On the Decline, La Niña On the Horizons! Here’s How the Pacific Twins Could Impact India This Year READ MORE

4. RBI pegs FY25 growth at 7%, inflation at 4.5% READ MORE

5. With CRISPR poised to revolutionise therapy, a pause to consider ethical issues READ MORE

6. Monkey Fever Symptoms: Top 7 Warning Signs That Say You Are Infected With Kyasanur Forest Disease Virus READ MORE

7. Rajya Sabha passes Bill to amend Water Act to decriminalise minor offences READ MORE

8. Cabinet approves new scheme for MSMEs in fisheries sector READ MORE  

9. Clean water crisis: Nitrogen pollution to triple scarcity in river sub-basins worldwide READ MORE

10. Olive Ridley turtles are back on Mangaluru beaches! READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Charting a path for the population committee READ MORE

2. Privilege equality over uniformity READ MORE

3. Pitfalls for tourists: HP must warn visitors of deadly spots READ MORE

4. Deep Seabed Mining in the Arctic READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Towards uniformity: On the UCC adopted by the Uttarakhand Assembly READ MORE

2. Should coaching be restricted to those above 16 years? READ MORE

3. What makes government schemes and missions work READ MORE

4. Good leaders are a credit to the police: Vital to ensure that unsuitable officers are not elevated to high positions by those in power READ MORE

5. NGOs have a major role to improve development indicators READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. The role of caste and gender in determining science education in India READ MORE

2. Establishing meaningful educational priorities READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Ditch the ‘rules-based international order’ READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. What the white paper on economy says — and doesn’t READ MORE

2. MPC keeps it tight, for now READ MORE

3. RBI’s battles with inflation READ MORE

4. Interim Budget shows fiscal discipline and prudence READ MORE

5. Solar scheme offers free electricity and economic empowerment READ MORE

6. International CRAs: Anything but fair READ MORE

7. The rising inequality READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Policies and politics are vital for air pollution mitigation READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Can open new doors READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Cybersecurity concerns amidst rising cyber threats READ MORE 

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Need to tread warily: Human trials of a brain-reading chip have elicited hope, but the concerns must be addressed READ MORE

2. To see life as an infinite gamble READ MORE

3. What a pleasure! READ MORE

4. Supreme Court’s ‘murder of democracy’ remarks on Chandigarh mayor polls give ammo to Oppn READ MORE

5. To link or delink neural connections READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. NGOs have significantly influenced participative governance, contributing to the formulation of landmark laws but they are facing significant challenges that hindering their effectiveness. Examine.

2. NGOs act as catalysts for change, addressing gaps in transformation, supporting marginalised groups, delivering essential services, and persuading better policy decisions. Comment.

3. A UCC is neither desirable nor necessary, and, instead, each body of personal law be reformed to eliminate discrimination or regressive practices. How far do you agree view this view?

4. The concept of justice should not be lost in the search for uniformity, and it should be no more than an incidental consequence of equality. Comment.

5. Community connect, respect for the federal principle, civil society partnerships and women-led development are necessary conditions for a more inclusive India. Comment.

6. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana’ represents a significant step towards sustainable energy adoption, promising not only free electricity but economic empowerment. Discuss.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • It’s the responsibility of the police to maintain the government’s prestige and protect the honour of the citizens.
  • When the Constitution makers made the adoption of a UCC one of the directive principles, opinion was divided on whether a UCC will undermine minority rights or promote equal status for women in all religions.
  • A UCC is neither desirable nor necessary, and, instead, each body of personal law be reformed to eliminate discrimination or regressive practices.
  • The concept of justice should not be lost in the search for uniformity, which should be no more than an incidental consequence of equality.
  • The population committee needs to adopt an interdisciplinary approach if it is to tackle issues that affect family planning, maternal and child health, education, employment, and socio-economic development in India.
  • Community connect, respect for the federal principle, civil society partnerships and women-led development are necessary conditions for a more inclusive India.
  • STEM education is crucial for technological progress, and students with a knack for these subjects should have the opportunity to pursue them. However, there are socio-economic, gender, and racial disparities in pursuing STEM majors and careers.
  • The government is mandated by the law and the Constitution to provide a safe, secure environment to the people who have elected it.
  • It is not necessary to look down upon technology as inferior to science. As a matter of fact, it is technological breakthroughs like the telescope and microscope that have opened up hidden universes and enabled scientific discoveries.
  • The intricate balance between practical demands of commercial relevance and scholarly aspirations within management education reflects the ever-changing nature of academia.
  • The Finance Minister has not only demonstrated fiscal restraint and prudence in the election year but also balanced the Interim Budget in favour of common man.
  • The ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana’ represents a significant step towards sustainable energy adoption, promising not only free electricity but also economic empowerment.
  • Collaborative efforts among NGOs, Government bodies and other stakeholders are vital for building a more inclusive, equitable and developed society.
  • NGOs act as catalysts for change, addressing gaps in transformation, supporting marginalised groups, delivering essential services, and persuading better policy decisions.
  • By embracing community-driven approaches, NGOs can access local resources and gain increased support from the people they serve.
  • Despite their significant contributions, NGOs grapple with challenges such as limited funding, operational hurdles, and the need for sustainable models. Overcoming these challenges requires resilience and innovation as NGOs seek creative solutions to address the evolving needs of the communities they serve.
  • The absence of data on women workers is a serious omission, as women in India have historically constituted approximately half the male workforce in the cultivation of crops.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Knowledge has become fundamental to economic development and technological advancement.
  • The greatest resource of all economic development is the mind.

50-WORD TALK

  • EC’s decision to give NCP name and symbol to Ajit Pawar faction was unsurprising. Its arguments for relying solely on legislative strength are convoluted. Assembly Speaker, a BJP leader, sits on MLAs’ disqualification petitions and EC uses their strength to rule in favour of BJP’s ally. It’s politics, not justice.
  • Karnataka has joined Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana in protesting Centre’s tax devolution policies. The timing works since 16th Finance Commission’s deliberations have just started. But such concerted criticism is another sign of worsening Centre-State relations. If the Centre is serious about fiscal federalism, it needs to rebuild states’ trust.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



Day-590 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMICS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. In the context of economics, which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘liquidity trap’?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    A liquidity trap is a situation where interest rates in the economy are at very low levels and savings rates are too high. In this situation, monetary policy has no effect on interest rate or the level of income.
    ● Interest rate can be considered as an opportunity cost or ‘price’ of holding money balance. If the supply of money in the economy increases and people purchase bonds with this extra money, demand for bonds will go up, bond prices will rise and rate of interest will decline.
    ● However, if the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds.
    ● In that case, everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy, it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. Hence, monetary policy will be ineffective here.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    A liquidity trap is a situation where interest rates in the economy are at very low levels and savings rates are too high. In this situation, monetary policy has no effect on interest rate or the level of income.
    ● Interest rate can be considered as an opportunity cost or ‘price’ of holding money balance. If the supply of money in the economy increases and people purchase bonds with this extra money, demand for bonds will go up, bond prices will rise and rate of interest will decline.
    ● However, if the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds.
    ● In that case, everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy, it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. Hence, monetary policy will be ineffective here.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements about Ways and Means Advances:
    1. These are long-term advances provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to the Central government and State governments.
    2. Interest rate on the advances is charged at the existing reverse repo rate.
    3. The limits for extending credit are mutually decided by the Central government and the RBI.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives short-term loan facilities to the central and state governments to bridge a temporary mismatch in their cash flows, as laid down in terms of Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934.
    The WMA mechanism to the Centre was re-introduced on April 1, 1997 after a period of four decades when the system of ad hoc treasury bills was abolished.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if required. But it must return the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate.
    ● If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (interest rate on overdrafts is 2 percentage points more than the repo rate).
    Statement 3 is correct: The limits for Ways and Means Advances are decided by the Central government and the RBI mutually and revised periodically.
    ● As the evidence reveals, there is no defined process in the fixation of WMA limits. Sometimes it is quarterly, and at other times it is half-yearly.
    ● The RBI Annual Report stated that the WMA limits were fixed quarterly and half yearly in 2017-18 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹25,000 crore). Similarly, there were quarterly and half yearly limits for 2018-19 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹35,000 crore). However, this was reversed in 2019-20 with half-yearly estimates.
    ● For the second half of the financial year 2023-24 (October 2023 to March 2024), the limit for the Centre has been set at ₹50,000 crore.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives short-term loan facilities to the central and state governments to bridge a temporary mismatch in their cash flows, as laid down in terms of Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934.
    The WMA mechanism to the Centre was re-introduced on April 1, 1997 after a period of four decades when the system of ad hoc treasury bills was abolished.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if required. But it must return the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate.
    ● If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (interest rate on overdrafts is 2 percentage points more than the repo rate).
    Statement 3 is correct: The limits for Ways and Means Advances are decided by the Central government and the RBI mutually and revised periodically.
    ● As the evidence reveals, there is no defined process in the fixation of WMA limits. Sometimes it is quarterly, and at other times it is half-yearly.
    ● The RBI Annual Report stated that the WMA limits were fixed quarterly and half yearly in 2017-18 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹25,000 crore). Similarly, there were quarterly and half yearly limits for 2018-19 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹35,000 crore). However, this was reversed in 2019-20 with half-yearly estimates.
    ● For the second half of the financial year 2023-24 (October 2023 to March 2024), the limit for the Centre has been set at ₹50,000 crore.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) carry inherent risks of excess leverage.
    Statement-II: The Reserve Bank of India has not prescribed prudential norms for NBFCs.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Statement I is correct: A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
    ● Given the nature of their operations, NBFCs also carry inherent risks, including excess leverage (indebtedness) and concentrations risks.
    ● On an average, NBFCs in India have a higher debt-to-equity ratio compared to banks. This indicates a greater reliance on borrowed funds, potentially amplifying their vulnerability to economic downturns and rising interest rates.
    ● A significant portion of NBFC loans are concentrated in specific sectors like real estate, infrastructure, and microfinance. These sectors are inherently cyclical and susceptible to adverse shocks, which could impact the stability of NBFCs with high exposure.
    ● They are regarded as shadow banks by the Financial Stability Board.
    Statement II is incorrect: The RBI has prescribed prudential norms for all the NBFCs. Prudential norms refer to the set of laws and rules designed to minimise the risks banks/financial entities assume.
    ● NBFCs were brought under the regulation of the Reserve Bank in 1964 by inserting Chapter III B in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    ● In more recent years, regulatory measures have been motivated by the objectives of financial stability, financial inclusion and harnessing of specialised domain expertise.
    ● The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment) Act, 1997 made it obligatory for NBFCs to apply to the central bank for a certificate of registration (CoR).
    ● Based on deposit mobilisation, NBFCs are classified into two major categories: NBFCs-D (deposit taking) and NBFCs-ND (non-deposit taking).
    ● A conscious policy was pursued to discourage acceptance of deposits by NBFCs so that only banks accept public deposits. Hence, no new license has been given to NBFCs-D after 1997.
    ● NBFCs-ND were sub-divided into two categories in 2006 — Systemically Important Non- Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND-SI) and other Non-Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) based on asset size.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Statement I is correct: A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
    ● Given the nature of their operations, NBFCs also carry inherent risks, including excess leverage (indebtedness) and concentrations risks.
    ● On an average, NBFCs in India have a higher debt-to-equity ratio compared to banks. This indicates a greater reliance on borrowed funds, potentially amplifying their vulnerability to economic downturns and rising interest rates.
    ● A significant portion of NBFC loans are concentrated in specific sectors like real estate, infrastructure, and microfinance. These sectors are inherently cyclical and susceptible to adverse shocks, which could impact the stability of NBFCs with high exposure.
    ● They are regarded as shadow banks by the Financial Stability Board.
    Statement II is incorrect: The RBI has prescribed prudential norms for all the NBFCs. Prudential norms refer to the set of laws and rules designed to minimise the risks banks/financial entities assume.
    ● NBFCs were brought under the regulation of the Reserve Bank in 1964 by inserting Chapter III B in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    ● In more recent years, regulatory measures have been motivated by the objectives of financial stability, financial inclusion and harnessing of specialised domain expertise.
    ● The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment) Act, 1997 made it obligatory for NBFCs to apply to the central bank for a certificate of registration (CoR).
    ● Based on deposit mobilisation, NBFCs are classified into two major categories: NBFCs-D (deposit taking) and NBFCs-ND (non-deposit taking).
    ● A conscious policy was pursued to discourage acceptance of deposits by NBFCs so that only banks accept public deposits. Hence, no new license has been given to NBFCs-D after 1997.
    ● NBFCs-ND were sub-divided into two categories in 2006 — Systemically Important Non- Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND-SI) and other Non-Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) based on asset size.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    1. Personal income tax
    2. Post-Office savings
    3. Disinvestment proceeds
    4. Income from spectrum sale
    How many of the above can be classified under the revenue receipts of the government?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Revenue receipts are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable, that is, they cannot be reclaimed from the government. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
    Example of tax revenues:
    ● Personal income tax
    ● Corporate tax
    ● Excise taxes
    ● Custom duties
    ● Wealth tax, gift tax
    Example of non-tax revenues:
    ● Interest receipts
    ● Dividend and profit on investments made by the government
    ● Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations
    ● Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government
    ● Spectrum sale
    Other receipts can be classified under capital receipts. These are those receipts which create liability or reduce financial assets of the government.
    Examples:
    ● Loans in the form of market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank of India, commercial banks, sale of Treasury Bills
    ● Disinvestment proceeds
    ● Receipts of small savings (Post-Office savings, National Savings Certificates).

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Revenue receipts are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable, that is, they cannot be reclaimed from the government. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
    Example of tax revenues:
    ● Personal income tax
    ● Corporate tax
    ● Excise taxes
    ● Custom duties
    ● Wealth tax, gift tax
    Example of non-tax revenues:
    ● Interest receipts
    ● Dividend and profit on investments made by the government
    ● Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations
    ● Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government
    ● Spectrum sale
    Other receipts can be classified under capital receipts. These are those receipts which create liability or reduce financial assets of the government.
    Examples:
    ● Loans in the form of market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank of India, commercial banks, sale of Treasury Bills
    ● Disinvestment proceeds
    ● Receipts of small savings (Post-Office savings, National Savings Certificates).

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to share buyback, consider the following statements:
    1. It refers to the mechanism under which a listed company buys back its own shares from the market.
    2. It increases the number of shares outstanding in the market.
    3. There is often a fall in the share prices following the buyback.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Buyback of shares means repurchasing of shares by the company that issued them. The company uses buyback as a means to return cash to shareholders and regain ownership.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Share buyback reduces the number of shareholders of the company, as the company buys back the shares. This enhances the earnings per share to shareholders in the long run.
    Earnings Per Share (EPS) = (Net Income – Preferred Dividends)/Weighted Average of Shares Outstanding
    ● Where, shares outstanding refers to the number of a company’s shares that are traded on the secondary market.
    ● Preferred dividend is the dividend payment made to the holders of preferred stock.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Following the buyback, there is often a short-term boost in share prices. The reduction in the number of outstanding shares due to the repurchase increases the earnings per share (EPS) for existing shareholders, making the stock relatively more attractive. Additionally, the buyback signals confidence from the company’s management in its future prospects, which can further instil investor confidence and drive share prices higher.
    There are two types of buybacks: tender offer and open market offer. Companies can choose either of these methods to buy back shares from their shareholders.
    Tender offer: The company makes an offer to buy back its shares at a particular price (offer price) at which the shareholders can tender, i.e., sell their shares.
    Open-market offer: The company can buy back its shares by actively buying from sellers on the exchange. The buyback period is mentioned in the buyback offer, and it can last for months.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Buyback of shares means repurchasing of shares by the company that issued them. The company uses buyback as a means to return cash to shareholders and regain ownership.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Share buyback reduces the number of shareholders of the company, as the company buys back the shares. This enhances the earnings per share to shareholders in the long run.
    Earnings Per Share (EPS) = (Net Income – Preferred Dividends)/Weighted Average of Shares Outstanding
    ● Where, shares outstanding refers to the number of a company’s shares that are traded on the secondary market.
    ● Preferred dividend is the dividend payment made to the holders of preferred stock.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Following the buyback, there is often a short-term boost in share prices. The reduction in the number of outstanding shares due to the repurchase increases the earnings per share (EPS) for existing shareholders, making the stock relatively more attractive. Additionally, the buyback signals confidence from the company’s management in its future prospects, which can further instil investor confidence and drive share prices higher.
    There are two types of buybacks: tender offer and open market offer. Companies can choose either of these methods to buy back shares from their shareholders.
    Tender offer: The company makes an offer to buy back its shares at a particular price (offer price) at which the shareholders can tender, i.e., sell their shares.
    Open-market offer: The company can buy back its shares by actively buying from sellers on the exchange. The buyback period is mentioned in the buyback offer, and it can last for months.

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INDIA’S STRATEGIC ALLOCATION IN PORT OF DUQM: BOLSTERING MARITIME INFLUENCE

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: In a strategic move, Oman has allocated a specific zone to India within the Port of Duqm, a significant development following Sultan Haitham bin Tariq’s visit to New Delhi.

EXPLANATION:

  • This allocation holds immense geopolitical importance, enhancing India’s influence in the western and southern Indian Ocean region.

Strategic Significance for India:

  • The allocation in the Port of Duqm grants India a pivotal foothold strategically, considering its vantage point overlooking the Gulf of Oman, Indian Ocean, and Arabian Sea.
  • The move aligns with India’s maritime goals and reinforces its position as a key player in the region.

Logistical Base for Maritime Cooperation:

  • The Port of Duqm serves as a crucial logistical base for India’s maritime cooperation initiatives.
  • It provides a staging ground for the Indian Navy, allowing it to extend its role as a net security provider.
  • This is particularly crucial amidst the ongoing Red Sea crisis and security concerns in the western Indian Ocean region.

Enhancing India’s Naval Capabilities:

  • This development significantly boosts India’s naval capabilities in the region.
  • The Indian Navy’s anti-piracy operations will benefit from the proximity of the port, allowing for swift responses to maritime threats.
  • The strategic positioning of Duqm facilitates the Indian Navy in providing assistance to vessels affected by conflicts, such as those targeted by Houthi rebels in Yemen.

First Responder in Humanitarian Assistance:

  • The allocation also positions India as a first responder in humanitarian assistance and disaster relief efforts.
  • The strategic placement of the port allows for efficient and timely responses to crises, underscoring India’s commitment to regional stability and security.

Growing Footprint in the Region:

  • India’s growing footprint in the region is evident in its increased presence at the Port of Duqm.
  • This port is not only accessible to shipping lines serving Indian markets but also caters to African markets.
  • The allocation consolidates India’s economic and strategic interests in the region, fostering partnerships with nations relying on maritime trade.

Facilities at the Port of Duqm:

  • Integrated into the special economic zone at Duqm, the port boasts a ship repair yard and dry dock facility.
  • These facilities enhance India’s maritime capabilities, providing essential infrastructure for naval operations, maintenance, and repairs.

Outcome of Diplomatic Engagement:

  • The specific zone allocation is a testament to the diplomatic engagement between India and Oman, reinforcing the countries’ commitment to mutual strategic interests.
  • This move follows Sultan Haitham bin Tariq’s visit to New Delhi, indicating the positive outcomes of diplomatic dialogues.

Conclusion:

  • Oman’s allocation of a specific zone in the Port of Duqm to India marks a significant milestone in strengthening bilateral ties and advancing shared strategic objectives.
  • This development not only bolsters India’s maritime capabilities but also positions it as a key player in fostering regional security, cooperation, and economic growth.
  • The Port of Duqm emerges as a cornerstone in India’s evolving geopolitical landscape, offering a platform for sustained influence in the vital Indian Ocean region.

SOURCE: https://www.maritimegateway.com/amid-red-sea-crisis-india-gets-a-specific-zone-in-duqm-port/




REVIVING VANISHING ISLANDS: TAMIL NADU’S COASTAL RESTORATION SUCCESS STORY

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Tamil Nadu’s commitment to environmental conservation shines through its successful efforts to save Vaan Island in the Gulf of Mannar, the country’s first marine biosphere.

EXPLANATION:

  • The government’s collaboration with marine scientists has not only rescued Vaan Island but also set the stage for the restoration of another imperiled island, Kariyachalli.
  • This initiative, part of the Tamil Nadu Coastal Restoration Mission, exemplifies the state’s dedication to preserving marine biodiversity and safeguarding coastal ecosystems.

Rescuing Vaan Island:

  • Vaan Island, threatened by soil erosion from rampant coral mining and rising sea levels due to climate change, was on the brink of submersion.
  • Through a strategic intervention, over 10,000 artificial reef modules were deployed on the ocean floor.
  • These modules, meticulously designed to dissipate wave energy and encourage sediment deposition, contributed to the island’s resurgence.
  • From a diminished state, Vaan Island expanded to 3.79 hectares during low tide and 1.71 hectares during high tide in September 2023, showcasing the success of the restoration project.

Government’s Resolve for Kariyachalli:

  • Buoyed by the success of the Vaan Island restoration, the Tamil Nadu government has earmarked ₹50 crore for the restoration of Kariyachalli, the fourth island on the Thoothukudi side.
  • This proactive step is in line with the predictions that both Kariyachalli and Kasuwari Islands would sink by 2035 without intervention.
  • The groundwork has been completed, and discussions with the World Bank are underway.
  • The restoration, scheduled for the 2024-25 fiscal year, is expected to take up to three years.

Global Tender and Collaboration:

  • Similar to the Vaan Island project, global tenders will be floated for the restoration of Kariyachalli.
  • The involvement of the World Bank emphasizes the global significance of preserving these islands.
  • The collaborative approach, encompassing international agencies, reflects a shared responsibility for marine conservation.

Challenges of Coral Mining:

  • The Gulf of Mannar, hosting 21 low-lying uninhabited coral-reef islands, faced challenges from coral mining for over a century.
  • The exploitation of boulders and branching coral species for construction and industrial purposes led to severe erosion, submersion of islands, and a decline in the area of several islands.

Scientific Solutions and Artificial Reef Deployment:

  • In response to the environmental degradation, the Tamil Nadu government and scientists implemented scientific solutions.
  • The deployment of artificial reef modules, carefully designed based on bathymetry and wave dynamic studies, played a pivotal role.
  • These modules, constructed with ferro-cement and steel reinforcement, not only stabilized the island but also fostered biodiversity and enhanced fishery production.

Success Metrics and Biodiversity Enhancement:

  • The artificial reef modules, numbering 10,600, were strategically placed, resulting in increased island size and changes in bathymetry.
  • The success of the restoration is evident in the shallowing of waters around the spit, indicating exposure of more land in the future.
  • Furthermore, the artificial reef sites, protected within the Marine Park, have become havens for coral recruits, supporting over 37 species and contributing to the stabilization of the island.

Hope for Coastal Ecosystem Restoration:

  • The restoration of Vaan Island stands as a beacon of hope in the changing climatic scenario.
  • In the face of various environmental threats, this successful model offers optimism for coastal ecosystem restoration.
  • The protection of coasts, conservation of biodiversity, and support for the livelihoods of dependent fisherfolk are integral to the mission’s overarching goals.

Conclusion:

  • Tamil Nadu’s proactive measures in island restoration underscore the imperative of safeguarding marine ecosystems.
  • As the state gears up to rescue Kariyachalli, it reinforces the commitment to sustainable environmental practices, offering a blueprint for coastal restoration initiatives globally.
  • The success of Vaan Island serves as a testament to the synergy between government initiatives, scientific expertise, and international collaboration in the pursuit of ecological preservation.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tn-pioneers-a-model-for-saving-the-sinking-islands-in-the-gulf-of-mannar/article67819176.ece




WAYANAD WILDLIFE SANCTUARY: A VITAL REFUGE FOR VULTURES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: As vulture populations across the country face a worrisome decline, the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) emerges as a crucial haven for these avian species. Recent findings from the first-ever tri-State synchronised vulture survey underscore the significance of WWS, the sole protected area in Kerala nurturing vulture populations.

EXPLANATION:

  • The survey, spanning Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, revealed a total of 320 individual vultures across seven protected areas.
  • Notably, WWS accounted for 51 individual vultures, affirming its pivotal role in vulture conservation efforts.

Diverse Vulture Species in WWS:

  • Among the 320 vultures observed, the majority were white-rumped vultures (217), followed by long-billed (47), Red-headed (50), Egyptian (4), and Himalayan griffons (2).
  • The sighting of Himalayan griffons, exclusively reported in WWS, highlights the sanctuary’s unique contribution to vulture biodiversity.

Vulture Counts and Camp Sightings:

  • The survey marked a significant improvement in vulture sightings, with all 12 camps in WWS recording vulture observations.
  • In contrast, the previous survey showed vulture sightings in only nine out of the 12 camps.
  • The overall vulture count in Wayanad district rose from 46 in the last survey to 51 this time.

Camp-Specific Data:

  • Vettathgor Camp:
    • Notably, Vettathgor camp in South Wayanad Division, situated outside the sanctuary area, reported sightings of two vulture species – white-rumped and red-headed.
    • This diversity reinforces the importance of surrounding regions in supporting vulture populations.
  • Red-headed Vultures:
    • The sanctuary witnessed an increase in individual red-headed vultures, rising from seven in the previous survey to 16.
    • This surge suggests positive conservation efforts within WWS.

  • White-rumped Vultures:
    • Although the count dropped slightly from 37 to 31, the presence of 31 white-rumped vultures reaffirms the sanctuary’s status as a significant habitat for this species.

  • Long-Billed Vultures:
    • The survey recorded an increase in long-billed vulture sightings, from one in the last survey to two, signifying positive trends in their population within the sanctuary.

  • Himalayan Griffon Sightings:
    • The survey documented the sighting of two Himalayan griffon vultures, a notable addition compared to the zero sightings in the previous survey.
    • This discovery adds a layer of uniqueness to WWS in terms of vulture biodiversity.

Conservation Implications:

  • WWS’s role as a refuge for vultures holds broader implications for biodiversity conservation.
  • The sanctuary’s success in fostering diverse vulture species accentuates the need for continued conservation efforts, both within the sanctuary and in the surrounding areas.

Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS):

  • Located in Kerala, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It was established in 1973.
    • Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first from India to be included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (designated in 2012).
    • Other wildlife parks within the Reserve are: Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley.
  • Spread over 344.44 sq km, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is contiguous to the tiger reserves of Nagerhole and Bandipur of Karnataka and Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.
  • Kabini river (a tributary of Cauvery river) flows through the sanctuary.
  • The forest types include South Indian Moist Deciduous forests, West coast semi-evergreen forests and plantations of teak, eucalyptus and Grewelia.
  • Elephant, Gaur, Tiger, Panther,Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Wild boar, Sloth bear, Nilgiri langur, Bonnet macaque, Common langur, Wild dog, common otter, Malabar giant squirrel etc are the major mammals.

Conclusion:

  • The findings from the tri-State vulture survey underscore the critical role played by Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary in preserving and nurturing vulture populations.
  • As vultures face numerous threats globally, the sanctuary’s success becomes a beacon of hope, emphasizing the importance of sustained conservation measures and regional collaboration in safeguarding avian biodiversity.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wayanad-wildlife-sanctuary-offers-a-safe-haven-for-vultures/article67808122.ece




MICROPLASTICS IN NILE RIVER’S TILAPIA: A GROWING THREAT TO HUMAN HEALTH AND ECOSYSTEMS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Nile River, a vital freshwater system in Africa, is facing a concerning environmental challenge – the presence of microplastics in its iconic tilapia fish.

EXPLANATION:

  • This issue poses threats to aquatic ecosystems.
  • It also has direct implications for human health, as the fish is a staple in the diets of millions residing in the Nile basin.
  • Tilapia’ has emerged to be one of the most productive and internationally traded food fish in the world.
  • The culture of tilapia has become commercially popular in many parts of the world and fishery experts have dubbed the tilapia as “aquatic chicken” due to its quick growth and low maintenance cultivation.
  • Today, if any fish could be named a global fish, no better name can be thought of than Tilapia.

Scope of the Nile River and Pollution Concerns:

  • With around 300 million people relying on the Nile for agriculture and fishing across 11 countries, the river’s pollution is of paramount concern.
  • Like many global rivers, the Nile is grappling with plastic debris, with recent studies revealing the prevalence of microplastics, tiny particles resulting from the breakdown of larger plastic items.

Microplastics and Global Pollution Patterns:

  • Microplastics, with a significant presence in rivers worldwide, are a potent threat to biodiversity and climate.
  • As they degrade, microplastics release greenhouse gases, contributing to environmental imbalances.
  • The airborne particles can impact climate conditions, reflecting the urgent need for comprehensive global strategies to mitigate plastic pollution.

Focus on African Waters:

  • While previous studies predominantly focused on marine and coastal areas, the current research addresses the critical gap by investigating the presence of microplastics in the River Nile in Khartoum, Sudan.

Study on Nile Tilapia:

  • The study focused on Nile tilapia, a crucial freshwater fish species in Africa and a cornerstone of commercial fisheries.
  • Results from 30 freshly caught tilapia revealed alarming findings – a total of 567 microplastic particles were found in their digestive tracts.

Microplastic Characteristics:

  • The microplastics identified varied in size (ranging from 0.04mm to 4.94mm), shape (fibres, fragments, films, foams, and pellets), and colour.
  • The most common were small, fibrous, and dyed particles, aligning with the feeding habits of Nile tilapia, which consume a diverse range of organisms.

Health Risks and Environmental Impact:

  • The study underscores the potential health risks associated with microplastics. Smaller particles can carry pollutants like heavy metals, posing additional threats to both aquatic organisms and human consumers.
  • Fibrous microplastics, dominant in the Nile tilapia, may linger in the intestine, leading to potential health issues.

Pollution Sources in Khartoum:

  • The study identifies Khartoum as a hotspot for plastic pollution, with inadequate waste management contributing to the contamination of water bodies.
  • Open dumps and ineffective wastewater treatment plants further exacerbate the issue, emphasizing the need for comprehensive waste management strategies.

Call for Action and Solutions:

  • Addressing microplastic pollution in the Nile requires a multi-faceted approach.
  • Consumers must alter their plastic consumption habits, opting for sustainable alternatives.
  • Governments play a pivotal role in enforcing waste management regulations and raising public awareness.
  • Scientific advancements and innovations are crucial for understanding and mitigating the impact of microplastics on ecosystems and human health.

Conclusion:

  • The study’s findings serve as a stark warning about the pervasive issue of microplastics in the Nile River’s tilapia, demanding urgent action to safeguard both environmental sustainability and the health of the communities relying on the river for their livelihoods.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/microplastics-found-in-nile-river-s-tilapia-fish-new-study-94319




PROTECTING MAHMUDIA WETLAND: WWF’S URGENT APPEAL

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Wildlife conservation organisation World Wildlife Fund (WWF) has urged the Romanian government to classify Mahmudia wetland as a ‘national interest ecological restoration area’ to protect its natural progress and foster community prosperity.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Mahmudia wetland is situated in Romania’s Danube Delta.
  • It is facing a critical threat as agricultural leaseholders seek to revert a significant portion of the naturally restored wetlands to cropland.
  • This move poses a risk to the biodiversity, livelihoods, and climate resilience that the wetland currently provides.
  • The issue originated in June 2023 when high waters from the Danube River breached a dyke, causing flooding in Mahmudia.
  • Interestingly, this area had undergone successful restoration eight years prior with European Union funding, transforming into a flourishing wetland that significantly boosted tourism.
  • The flood, however, submerged farmland, converting it into a typical delta ecosystem.

 Mehmudia wetland

Mahmudia Region

Local Support for Wetland Preservation:

  • A survey conducted by WWF-Romania revealed that 97 percent of the local community in Mahmudia preferred the current state of the wetland over reverting it to agricultural use.
  • The wetland, a result of natural regeneration, has become integral to the community’s livelihoods and climate resilience.

Legal Challenge by Agricultural Leaseholders:

  • Despite local opposition, agricultural leaseholders obtained a court ruling favouring the reversion of the wetland to cropland.
  • This decision not only jeopardizes the natural progress of the wetland but also endangers the section that was restored with European Union funds.

WWF’s Call for National Interest Ecological Restoration Area:

  • World Wildlife Fund (WWF) has urged the Romanian government to designate Mahmudia wetland as a ‘national interest ecological restoration area.’
  • This designation would provide legal protection, allowing the government to cancel agricultural contracts and compensate leaseholders from national funds, as permitted by Romanian law.

Importance of Wetland Restoration:

  • WWF-Romania director emphasizes the centrality of restoring healthy wetlands in reversing nature loss and building resilience to climate change.
  • Losing the restored wetland in Mahmudia would not only impact local sustainable development but also hinder efforts to restore the health of Europe’s largest wetlands.

UNESCO Recognition and Precedent for Danube Delta:

  • The protection of Mahmudia wetland extends beyond local concerns; it sets an important precedent for the Danube Delta, recognized by UNESCO as Europe’s second-largest and best-preserved river delta.
  • The delta hosts over 300 bird species and 45 freshwater fish species, making its conservation vital for biodiversity and ecosystem health.

World Wildlife Fund (WWF):

  • The WWF is an international non-governmental organization dedicated to the conservation and preservation of nature and natural species.
  • WWF is the largest conservation organization in the world. It was founded on 29th April 1961 in Switzerland.
  • Presently, it is active in more than 100 countries around the world.
  • WWF aims to stop degradation of planet’s natural environment and build future in which humans live in harmony with nature.
  • Currently, its work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater, wildlife, forests, and oceans.
  • It publishes Living Planet Report every two years since 1998 and it is based on Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculation.

Conclusion:

  • The Mahmudia wetland stands at the intersection of environmental conservation, community livelihoods, and legal battles.
  • The urgency of protecting this naturally regenerated ecosystem not only addresses the immediate threat but also sets a crucial example for the broader conservation efforts in the Danube Delta and beyond.
  • The appeal by WWF underscores the delicate balance between economic interests and ecological sustainability, urging the Romanian government to prioritize the long-term well-being of both the wetland and its local inhabitants.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/wwf-demands-protection-for-naturally-restored-mahmudia-wetland-in-romania-s-danube-delta-94332




WSDP Bulletin (08/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Amid Red Sea crisis, India gets a specific zone in Duqm Port READ MORE

2. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary offers a safe haven for vultures READ MORE

3. Tamil Nadu pioneers a model for saving the sinking islands in the Gulf of Mannar  READ MORE

4. Explained: The new process for picking Election Commissioners, what led to it READ MORE

5. Kerala govt to protest against Centre at Jantar Mantar: What are its grievances over money allocation? READ MORE

6. Microplastics found in Nile River’s tilapia fish: new study READ MORE

7. WWF demands protection for naturally-restored Mahmudia wetland in Romania’s Danube Delta READ MORE

8. In breakthrough, neural network ‘explains’ how it found a new antibiotic READ MORE  

9. 390-year-old lamp post in Nalgonda dedicated to Kasi Viswanatha unravels trade links of Telangana READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Live-in fear: Uniform patriarchal code READ MORE

2. Privilege equality over uniformity READ MORE

3. Vijayanagara was the Indian Renaissance State. It contains memories of older empires READ MORE

4. The Earth’s tectonic plates made the Himalayas — and could rip them apart READ MORE

5. Deep Seabed Mining in the Arctic READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Good/Bad start: U’khand’s UCC ticks some boxes. But it also encourages moral policing & coddles a few social taboos READ MORE

2. Uniform Civil Code: Regulation of live-in relationships regressive READ MORE

3. India’s public recruitment system stuck in ‘state incapacity’ trap. Can new exam bill save it? READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. India’s universities Government school crisis: Critical to win back trust of students READ MORE

2. States have a big role in next-generation social sector reforms READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Takeaways from the great churning: No room for ambiguity on the foreign policy front as India’s credibility is at stake READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Road map for fiscal consolidation READ MORE

2. Equity concerns in banning fossil fuel extraction READ MORE

3. Blue Carbon economy READ MORE

4. RBI confident of containing inflation, maintaining growth READ MORE

5. India is scorning energy bounty that transformed China READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. How cities can factor the climate crisis in budgets READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Innovation needs free and rational minds READ MORE

2. Pioneering progress: Exploring the frontiers of AI-driven growth READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Sparks from Manipur can ignite bigger conflict in region READ MORE    

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. To see life as an infinite gamble READ MORE

2. What a pleasure! READ MORE

3. Supreme Court’s ‘murder of democracy’ remarks on Chandigarh mayor polls give ammo to Oppn READ MORE

4. To link or delink neural connections READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. The UCC is a must to ensure pan-India uniformity of civil laws while respecting religious and cultural diversity, but its nationwide implementation is a huge challenge. Comment.

2. AI is undeniably causing disruptions across the board but a shift in narrative is required to view AI as a constructive force, focusing on its potential to bring about positive changes. Discuss.

3. Budget management of the State is the discretion of the State government and it cannot be ceded to the Union executive and Parliament in the name of fiscal management. Examine the statement in the light of recent stand-off between Kerala and Center.

4. The character of India’s federalism is moving rapidly from cooperative to destructive and annihilation, and recent borrowing restrictions are an example of ‘annihilative federalism’ at play. Critically examine.

5. Climate change poses a significant threat to the country in the coming decades and to address these challenges effectively, the Republic’s current structure needs to evolve by encouraging the devolution of powers to local government bodies (LGBs). Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • It is impossible to build a multipolar world without a very relevant role of India.
  • The purpose of enacting special Acts such as the POCSO Act and making special provisions in the IT Act is to protect children from sexual exploitation and punish people involved in different forms of exploitation.
  • Any fiscal deficit of the Centre and States taken together substantially above 6% of GDP can only lead to inflation.
  • A country such as India, which is facing serious unemployment concerns, cannot afford to transit towards cleaner fuel without adequate transition support and creation of suitable economic opportunities and livelihoods for those affected.
  • Despite India’s notable progress in renewable energy systems, fossil fuel continues to dominate India’s power sector.
  • The UCC is a must to ensure pan-India uniformity of civil laws while respecting religious and cultural diversity, but its nationwide implementation is a huge challenge.
  • The Naga government and people unhappy with the fencing and abrogation of the FMR, the risk of militancy and insurgency reigniting in the North-East, either by accident or design, is higher than ever before.
  • The govt’s plan to send Indians abroad as labourers is seen as a practical acknowledgment of the constraints in the domestic economy. However, the larger issue here is an ethical one.
  • Education is the most effective tool to act as an external suggestion to bring out knowledge stored in the mind. It acts as the friction needed to fire the flint.
  • Education is the instrument through which we look at the universe, interpret it and experience the world.
  • Education institutions are the most powerful institution of society. Education is compulsory and a fundamental human right in our country.
  • Irrational, illogical, biased thinking along with authoritative oppression in the long run will one day culminate in disaster in society in the form of a threat to democracy and halt in the progress of economic growth.
  • Fiscally incentivizing blue carbon conservation and restoration programmes and fostering partnerships with stakeholders across sectors will also be crucial.
  • Fostering and leveraging international collaborations can facilitate exchange of knowledge, transfer of technology, and enhancement of capacity in conserving and managing blue carbon. Investing in and promoting blue carbon initiatives will be a pragmatic approach to expanding India’s climate action portfolio.
  • The shift towards states as accelerators of future reforms stems from a feeling that the Centre has concluded its role in easing the process of doing business.
  • AI is undeniably causing disruptions across the board. However, a shift in narrative is required to view AI as a constructive force, focusing on its potential to bring about positive changes.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Knowledge has become fundamental to economic development and technological advancement.
  • The greatest resource of all economic development is the mind.

50-WORD TALK

  • EC’s decision to give NCP name and symbol to Ajit Pawar faction was unsurprising. Its arguments for relying solely on legislative strength are convoluted. Assembly Speaker, a BJP leader, sits on MLAs’ disqualification petitions and EC uses their strength to rule in favour of BJP’s ally. It’s politics, not justice.
  • Karnataka has joined Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana in protesting Centre’s tax devolution policies. The timing works since 16th Finance Commission’s deliberations have just started. But such concerted criticism is another sign of worsening Centre-State relations. If the Centre is serious about fiscal federalism, it needs to rebuild states’ trust.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



Day-589 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the LeadIT initiative, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a joint initiative launched by India and the USA at the G-20 summit in New Delhi.
    2. It aims to reduce the net zero carbon emission from energy intensive industries by 2070.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: PM’s departure statement ahead of his recently visits to UAE for World Climate Action Summit included a mention of LeadIT initiative and Green Credit initiative.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    The LeadIT initiative was jointly launched by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    About Leadership for Industry Transition initiative/LeadIT initiative-
    · It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    · The initiative gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
    · Purpose: LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    ● Secretariat: It is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.
    ● Significance: The low carbon transition of the industrial sector will not only contribute towards the reduction in required greenhouse gas emissions.
    ● It has several co-benefits that include increasing resilience to changes in climate, enhanced energy security, innovation, socio-economic development and job creation.
    Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Denmark, Ethiopia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Republic of Korea, South Africa, Sweden, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, United States of America.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: PM’s departure statement ahead of his recently visits to UAE for World Climate Action Summit included a mention of LeadIT initiative and Green Credit initiative.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    The LeadIT initiative was jointly launched by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    About Leadership for Industry Transition initiative/LeadIT initiative-
    · It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    · The initiative gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
    · Purpose: LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    ● Secretariat: It is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.
    ● Significance: The low carbon transition of the industrial sector will not only contribute towards the reduction in required greenhouse gas emissions.
    ● It has several co-benefits that include increasing resilience to changes in climate, enhanced energy security, innovation, socio-economic development and job creation.
    Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Denmark, Ethiopia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Republic of Korea, South Africa, Sweden, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, United States of America.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) monitors the safety of air travellers.
    2. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) monitors security aircrafts as well as airports.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: Aviation regulatory bodies have imposed a total fine of ₹1.5 crore on IndiGo and ₹90 lakh on Mumbai airport following an incident where passengers occupied the airport apron and sat there following a flight diversion due to long delays after fog in Delhi in January 2024.
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The BCAS monitors security of aircraft and airports. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (India).
    About BCAS
    ● The BCAS was initially set up as a Cell in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation(DGCA) in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee constituted in the wake of the hijacking of the Indian Airlines flight on 10 September 1976.
    ● The role of the Cell was to coordinate, inspect, monitor and train personnel in Civil Aviation Security matters.
    ● The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department in April , 1987 under the
    ● Ministry of Civil Aviation as a sequel to the Kanishka Tragedy in June 1985 in which the whole aircraft was disintegrated due to an onboard bomb explosion by terrorists.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The DGCA monitors the safety of air travellers.
    About DGCA
    ● The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India to regulate civil aviation in India. It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
    ● It investigates aviation accidents and incidents.
    Other functions
    ● Registration of civil aircraft
    ● Certification of airports
    ● Licensing to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose
    ● Safety Oversight of all entities approved/ certified/ licensed under the Aircraft Rules 1937.
    ● Coordination of ICAO matters with all agencies, sending replies to State letters, and
    taking all necessary action arising out of the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) of ICAO.
    ● Granting Air Operator’s Certificates to Indian carriers and regulation of air transport services operating to/from/within/over India by Indian and foreign operators, including clearance of scheduled and non-scheduled flights of such operators
    ● Approval of institutes engaged in flying training including simulator training, AME training, air traffic services training or any other training related with aviation, with a view to ensuring a high quality of training
    ● Approval to aircraft maintenance, repair, design and manufacturing organizations and their continued oversight

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: Aviation regulatory bodies have imposed a total fine of ₹1.5 crore on IndiGo and ₹90 lakh on Mumbai airport following an incident where passengers occupied the airport apron and sat there following a flight diversion due to long delays after fog in Delhi in January 2024.
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The BCAS monitors security of aircraft and airports. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (India).
    About BCAS
    ● The BCAS was initially set up as a Cell in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation(DGCA) in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee constituted in the wake of the hijacking of the Indian Airlines flight on 10 September 1976.
    ● The role of the Cell was to coordinate, inspect, monitor and train personnel in Civil Aviation Security matters.
    ● The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department in April , 1987 under the
    ● Ministry of Civil Aviation as a sequel to the Kanishka Tragedy in June 1985 in which the whole aircraft was disintegrated due to an onboard bomb explosion by terrorists.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The DGCA monitors the safety of air travellers.
    About DGCA
    ● The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India to regulate civil aviation in India. It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
    ● It investigates aviation accidents and incidents.
    Other functions
    ● Registration of civil aircraft
    ● Certification of airports
    ● Licensing to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose
    ● Safety Oversight of all entities approved/ certified/ licensed under the Aircraft Rules 1937.
    ● Coordination of ICAO matters with all agencies, sending replies to State letters, and
    taking all necessary action arising out of the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) of ICAO.
    ● Granting Air Operator’s Certificates to Indian carriers and regulation of air transport services operating to/from/within/over India by Indian and foreign operators, including clearance of scheduled and non-scheduled flights of such operators
    ● Approval of institutes engaged in flying training including simulator training, AME training, air traffic services training or any other training related with aviation, with a view to ensuring a high quality of training
    ● Approval to aircraft maintenance, repair, design and manufacturing organizations and their continued oversight

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. The Gross Domestic Climate Risk Report, which is released by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI), measures:

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A report by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI) reveals that 1 in 12 hospitals worldwide could face shutdowns due to extreme weather events from climate change. In India, 9.6% of hospitals will be high-risk by 2100. Currently, 2,700 hospitals are at high risk, expected to increase to over 5,100 by the end of the century. Urgent action on fossil fuel emissions is needed to prevent disruption in emergency healthcare services. The report highlights the vulnerability of hospitals on coastlines and near rivers. Governments are urged to address the risk posed to critical healthcare infrastructure.
    About the Gross Domestic Climate Risk:
    The report is released by Australia-based Cross Dependency Initiative or XDI, which is a part of the climate risk group of companies quantifying the costs of climate change.
    ● The Gross Domestic Climate Risk analysis focuses on the extent of capital value at risk from extreme weather and climate change in states, provinces and other territories, represented by vulnerability and exposure of the built environment.
    ● Built environment refers to aspects of the surroundings that are built by humans to support human activity like homes and workplaces.
    ● It covers damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather and climate change such as flooding, forest fires, heat wave and sea level rise.
    ● This is the first time there has been a physical climate risk analysis focused exclusively on the built environment, comparing every state, province and territory in the world.
    ● The report is particularly significant for investors, as extensive built infrastructure generally overlaps with high levels of economic activity and capital value.

    Highlights from the report:
    ● “Gross Domestic Climate Risk” assess the physical climate risk in over 2,600 states and provinces around the world in 2050.
    ● The more built-up a state, the greater the risk.
    ● The ranking was derived using modelled projections of damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather conditions such as flooding, forest fires and sea level rise.
    ● As per the analysis, 80 percent of the top 50 most at-risk states and provinces in 2050 are in China, the US and India.
    ● After China, India has the highest number of states (nine) in the top 50, which include Bihar (22nd spot), Uttar Pradesh (25), Assam (28), Rajasthan (32), Tamil Nadu (36), Maharashtra (38), Gujarat (48), Punjab (50) and Kerala (52).Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A report by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI) reveals that 1 in 12 hospitals worldwide could face shutdowns due to extreme weather events from climate change. In India, 9.6% of hospitals will be high-risk by 2100. Currently, 2,700 hospitals are at high risk, expected to increase to over 5,100 by the end of the century. Urgent action on fossil fuel emissions is needed to prevent disruption in emergency healthcare services. The report highlights the vulnerability of hospitals on coastlines and near rivers. Governments are urged to address the risk posed to critical healthcare infrastructure.
    About the Gross Domestic Climate Risk:
    The report is released by Australia-based Cross Dependency Initiative or XDI, which is a part of the climate risk group of companies quantifying the costs of climate change.
    ● The Gross Domestic Climate Risk analysis focuses on the extent of capital value at risk from extreme weather and climate change in states, provinces and other territories, represented by vulnerability and exposure of the built environment.
    ● Built environment refers to aspects of the surroundings that are built by humans to support human activity like homes and workplaces.
    ● It covers damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather and climate change such as flooding, forest fires, heat wave and sea level rise.
    ● This is the first time there has been a physical climate risk analysis focused exclusively on the built environment, comparing every state, province and territory in the world.
    ● The report is particularly significant for investors, as extensive built infrastructure generally overlaps with high levels of economic activity and capital value.

    Highlights from the report:
    ● “Gross Domestic Climate Risk” assess the physical climate risk in over 2,600 states and provinces around the world in 2050.
    ● The more built-up a state, the greater the risk.
    ● The ranking was derived using modelled projections of damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather conditions such as flooding, forest fires and sea level rise.
    ● As per the analysis, 80 percent of the top 50 most at-risk states and provinces in 2050 are in China, the US and India.
    ● After China, India has the highest number of states (nine) in the top 50, which include Bihar (22nd spot), Uttar Pradesh (25), Assam (28), Rajasthan (32), Tamil Nadu (36), Maharashtra (38), Gujarat (48), Punjab (50) and Kerala (52).Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. In the context of BRICS, consider the following statements:
    1. The grouping was originally established in 2006 with Brazil, Russia, India and China as members.
    2. The Moscow declaration led to the establishment of the New Development Bank by the BRICS member countries.
    3. Ethiopia, Iran, and Mexico have joined BRICS as its new members.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    India congratulates UAE for joining BRICS group on this year (2024).
    Statement 1 is correct: The leaders of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) countries met for the first time in St. Petersburg, Russia, on the margins of the G8 Outreach Summit in July 2006. Shortly afterwards, in September 2006, the group was formalised as BRIC during the 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, which met on the sidelines of the General Debate of the UN Assembly in New York City.
    · BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement for establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the sixth BRICS summit -2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil, by the leaders. It is also known as the Fortaleza Declaration.
    · Besides Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as members; the NDB has been expanded to include Egypt, UAE, Bangladesh and Uruguay.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Five new full-time members have joined the BRICS grouping— Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab. It is a strong indication of the growing authority of the association and its role in international affairs.
    ● Argentina was also invited but backed out at the end of December.
    ● Now, it has become a 10-member bloc.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    India congratulates UAE for joining BRICS group on this year (2024).
    Statement 1 is correct: The leaders of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) countries met for the first time in St. Petersburg, Russia, on the margins of the G8 Outreach Summit in July 2006. Shortly afterwards, in September 2006, the group was formalised as BRIC during the 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, which met on the sidelines of the General Debate of the UN Assembly in New York City.
    · BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement for establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the sixth BRICS summit -2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil, by the leaders. It is also known as the Fortaleza Declaration.
    · Besides Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as members; the NDB has been expanded to include Egypt, UAE, Bangladesh and Uruguay.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Five new full-time members have joined the BRICS grouping— Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab. It is a strong indication of the growing authority of the association and its role in international affairs.
    ● Argentina was also invited but backed out at the end of December.
    ● Now, it has become a 10-member bloc.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements with reference to the African Union:
    1. It is a continental body consisting of the 54 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    2. It was launched as a successor to the Africa Finance Corporation.
    3. It recently became an Observer member of the G20 under the India presidency.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the African Union becomes permanent member at the inaugural session of the two-day G-20 Summit in New Delhi.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The African Union became a full member of the G-20 on September 9, 2023 under the Indian presidency. Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the inclusion of the African bloc will enhance the effectiveness of the G-20.

    ● After the European Union, the African Union is the second regional bloc to join the G20.
    ● India had hosted the India Africa Forum Summit in 2015 and has expanded its diplomatic footprint in the continent by opening new missions in the member countries of AU.
    ● Apart from supporting the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member of G-20, India has also invited Nigeria, Egypt, and Mauritius as part of the ‘Guest Countries’ at the G-20 summit.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the African Union becomes permanent member at the inaugural session of the two-day G-20 Summit in New Delhi.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The African Union became a full member of the G-20 on September 9, 2023 under the Indian presidency. Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the inclusion of the African bloc will enhance the effectiveness of the G-20.

    ● After the European Union, the African Union is the second regional bloc to join the G20.
    ● India had hosted the India Africa Forum Summit in 2015 and has expanded its diplomatic footprint in the continent by opening new missions in the member countries of AU.
    ● Apart from supporting the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member of G-20, India has also invited Nigeria, Egypt, and Mauritius as part of the ‘Guest Countries’ at the G-20 summit.

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INDIA’S CAR T-CELL THERAPY: TAKING CANCER ON

THE CONTEXT: A few months ago, India’s drug regulator Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), approved the market authorisation for NexCAR19, India’s first indigenously-developed CAR-T cell therapy. This paves the way for the commercial launch of this therapy in India, where it is expected to be available to cancer patients at a tenth of the cost abroad. Recently, a 64-year-old former army doctor has become the first patient in the country to be free of cancer cells after being administered this therapy.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS:

  • For decades, oncologists have relied on chemotherapy, radiation and surgery to treat cancer patients which the primary methods to treat the dreaded disease. In the past two decades, however, research has extended the frontiers of anti-cancer interventions.
  • Drugs have been developed to home in on the molecules cancer cells require to survive and spread. Immune system-boosting drugs have shown the ability to shrink tumours in some patients with advanced malignancy.
  • CAR T-cell therapy is among the most promising recent developments, especially because it has shown the ability to eradicate advanced leukemias and lymphomas. Most of the early research in this field was conducted in laboratories in the US, Europe and China.
  • In October, 2023, India joined this elite list after the country’s drug regulator approved a CAR T-cell therapy incubated at Tata Memorial Centre and IIT Bombay laboratories.

WHAT IS CAR-T CELL THERAPY, AND HOW DO CAR-T CELLS FIND AND DESTROY CANCER CELLS?

  • CAR-T is a revolutionary therapy that modifies immune cells, specifically T-cells, by turning them into potent cancer fighters known as CAR-T cells.
  • T-cells are special cells (white blood cells) whose primary function is cytotoxic, meaning it can kill other cells.
  • T-cells are then put back into the body, and they go after cancer cells especially in blood cancers like leukaemia and lymphomas.
  • CAR T-cell therapies are customised for each patient. The treatment is far less difficult for the patient compared to several sessions of chemotherapy.
  • Laboratory and animal studies have shown that India’s homegrown therapy has significantly fewer side effects compared to those developed in the West.

How effective and different is this from other cancer treatments like, say, chemotherapy?

  • While chemotherapy and immunotherapy may add a few months or years to a cancer patient’s life, cell-and-gene therapy is designed to cure and provide lifelong benefit.
  • It makes treatment easier with a one-time therapy unlike several sessions of chemotherapy. It is a lifeline for non-responsive cancer patients.

NEXCAR19:

  • NexCar19 is a type of CAR-T and gene therapy developed indigenously in India by ImmunoACT, which is a company incubated at IIT Bombay.
  • The therapy is designed to target cancer cells that carry the CD19 protein. This protein acts like a flag on cancer cells, which allows CAR-T cells to recognise and attach themselves to the cancer cells and start the process of elimination.
  • India is now one of the first developing countries to have its indigenous CAR-T and gene therapy platform.
  • The therapy is for people with B-cell lymphomas who didn’t respond to standard treatments like chemotherapy, leading to relapse or recurrence of the cancer.
  • Recovery typically occurs within two weeks after one cycle of the treatment. Approximately 70% of patients respond to the treatment, with variations between leukaemia and lymphoma cases. About 50% of these responsive patients achieve a complete response.

SIGNIFICANCE OF THERAPY:

  • Lower drug-related toxicities: Laboratory and animal studies have shown that it leads to significantly lower drug-related toxicities.
  • Minimal damage to neurons: It causes minimal damage to neurons and the central nervous system, a condition known as neurotoxicity. However, neurotoxicity can sometimes occur when CAR-T cells recognise the CD19 protein and enter the brain, potentially leading to life-threatening situations.
  • Minimal Cytokine Release syndromes: The therapy also results in minimal Cytokine Release Syndrome (CRS), which is characterised by inflammation and hyperinflammation in the body. Inflammation are caused due to the death of a significant number of tumour cells, as CAR-T cells are designed to target and eliminate cancer cells.

ISSUES RELATED TO THERAPY:

  • Affordability: Cancer incidence and mortality continue to rise driven by spikes in the Global South. In India, where the disease claims about 8 lakh people every year, treatment is expensive for an overwhelming section of the population. Critics argue that developing CAR T-cell therapy in India may not be as cost-effective as it will still be unaffordable for most people.
  • Accessibility: High costs and the need for specialized infrastructure for production and administration remain significant barriers to widespread adoption and accessibility.
  • Preparation: One of the issue faced by CAR T-cell therapies is its preparation that has been major hindrance to their widespread use. CAR T-cell therapy requires technical and human resources, making it challenging to administer.
  • Side Effects: The potential side-effects of CAR T-cell therapy is also significant which are associated with cytokine release syndrome and neurological symptoms.

THE CONCLUSION:

The development of indigenous CAR-T cell therapy in India marks a significant advancement in the country’s healthcare landscape. Researchers and planners must work to cut costs of the therapy to lower the cancer mortality rates in the coming decades.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 What are the research and developmental achievements in applied biotechnology? How will these achievements help to uplift the poorer sections of society? (2021)

Q.2 COVID-19 pandemic has caused unprecedented devastation worldwide. However, technological advancements are being availed readily to win over the crisis. Give an account of how technology was sought to aid the management of the pandemic. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Highlight the significance of the development of indigenous CAR-T cell therapy in India. Discuss the challenges in terms of its accessibility and affordability for cancer treatments in the country.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-indias-car-t-cell-therapy-taking-cancer-on-9149692/




“OBELISKS”: A MICROSCOPIC DISCOVERY IN HUMAN MICROBIOMES

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: A groundbreaking discovery at Stanford University has revealed the existence of microscopic entities named “obelisks” within the human mouth and gut.

EXPLANATION:

  • These obelisks, described in a preprint study, exhibit unique characteristics, blurring the lines between viruses and viroids.
  • As the scientific community delves into this intriguing world, a closer look is essential.

The Realm of Microscopic Entities

  • Viruses and Viroids:
    • Viruses, perched on the boundary of life, manipulate hosts for replication.
    • Viroids, tiny RNA fragments, lack protective shells and protein-coding capabilities but can cause diseases in plants.
  • Obelisks: A New Frontier:
    • The term “obelisks” is coined for these entities due to their rod-like shape, self-organizing abilities, and circular single-stranded RNA genome.
    • Positioned between viruses and viroids, obelisks possess genes predicting protein coding, distinguishing them from traditional viroids.

Key Characteristics of Obelisks

  • Genetic Makeup:
    • Obelisks feature a circular single-stranded RNA genome akin to viroids but lack a protein coat, resembling viruses.
    • Their genomes encode proteins, with the major protein known as “obulin,” presenting an evolutionary mystery regarding its function.
  • Abundance and Diversity:
    • Analyses from human gut and mouth microbiomes reveal nearly 30,000 distinct obelisk types, challenging previous assumptions about their scarcity.
    • Diverse niches globally house obelisks, with varying types in different body sites and donors.
  • Host Relationships:
    • Obelisks likely rely on microbial host cells, potentially bacteria or fungi, for replication.
    • The specific hosts remain unidentified, but Streptococcus sanguinis in dental plaque is a promising candidate.

Implications and Unanswered Questions

  • Potential Impact on Microbiome:
    • The effects of obelisks on the human microbiome remain uncertain—whether they act as parasites, bring benefits, or exist as neutral passengers.
    • Understanding their ecological and evolutionary significance is crucial for deciphering their potential impact on human health.
  • Research Directions:
    • Laboratory experiments on Streptococcus sanguinis offer a promising model to unravel fundamental aspects of obelisk biology.
    • Long-term implications on human health, therapeutic potential, and the broader ecological role of obelisks warrant further exploration.
  • Evolutionary Dynamics:
    • The evolutionary trajectory of obelisks, their interaction with hosts, and the role they play in microbiome dynamics are areas ripe for investigation.

Conclusion

  • The discovery of obelisks introduces a new dimension to the microscopic world, challenging conventional classifications.
  • As research unfolds, the peculiarities of obelisks and their intricate relationships with microbial hosts promise to unravel mysteries and contribute to our understanding of the intricate web of life at the smallest scales.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/health/a-new-virus-like-entity-has-just-been-discovered-obelisks-explained-94299




LOK SABHA PASSES PUBLIC EXAMINATIONS BILL: AIMING TO CURB MALPRACTICES

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Lok Sabha has approved the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, with a focus on curbing malpractices, including question paper leaks, document tampering, and network manipulation in public examinations.

EXPLANATION:

  • The bill carries provisions for stringent penalties, with Union Minister emphasizing its importance during the discussion.

Key Provisions of the Bill

  • Scope and Punishments:
    • The Bill targets officials or organizations involved in malpractices and proposes penalties, including a jail term of up to 10 years and fines exceeding Rs 1 crore.
    • Notably, students or candidates are excluded from the purview of the Bill, as clarified by Union Minister Jitendra Singh.
  • Inspiration from Indian Express Investigation:
    • During the discussion, several members referred to The Indian Express investigation report highlighting 41 instances of question paper leaks affecting over 1.4 crore candidates across 15 states in the past five years.
  • Applicability:
    • The bill is applicable to central recruitment and entrance exams conducted by:
      • the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC),
      • Staff Selection Commission (SSC),
      • Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs),
      • Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), and
      • National Testing Agency (NTA).
    • The NTA conducts exams for admission to higher educational institutions, like the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) for engineering, National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) for medical, and Common University Entrance Test (CUET) for undergraduate and post-graduate studies.
    • Apart from these designated public examination authorities, all central ministries and departments, as well as their offices for recruitment, will also come under the purview of the new law.
  • Defines unfair means
    • Section 3 of the Bill defines unfair means.
    • It proposes 20 offences and unfair means including impersonation, manipulation of answer sheets and tampering with documents.
  • Nature of offences
    • Section 9 of the bill states that all offences shall be cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable.
  • Investigation
    • The bill proposes that officers not under the rank of deputy superintendent of police or assistant commissioner of police must head up such matters.
    • The government under the bill also holds the power to send the probe to a Central agency.
    • In essence, this frees up to the police to act on its own and arrest suspects without a warrant.

Parliamentary Discussion Highlights

  • Reference to Indian Express Report:
    • One of the MP brought a copy of The Indian Express to the House, linking it to the Bill.
    • The report focused on the widespread issue of question paper leaks, bringing the magnitude of the problem to the forefront.
  • Minister’s Response:
    • The Union Minister acknowledged the pervasive nature of malpractices across states, emphasizing the need for legislation.
    • He highlighted administrative deficits in states like Rajasthan and affirmed the Bill’s relevance.
  • Addressing “Jami Jamai Vyavastha”:
    • Members referred to the entrenched system depicted in the movie “12th Fail.”
    • Union Minister clarified that the Bill is designed to combat such systemic issues.
  • Clarification on Separate Legislation:
    • Members questioned the necessity of a standalone Bill when existing provisions in the IPC and the new BNS already cover malpractices.
    • The Bill is a specific legislation with defined provisions exclusively targeting examination malpractices.

Concerns and Ministerial Responses

  • Handling Technology-Driven Malpractices:
    • Members raised concerns about addressing malpractices involving new technologies.
    • The plans to establish a committee of experts for surveillance, understanding, and updating regulations periodically has been outlined.
  • Regional Language Examinations:
    • DMK members highlighted the absence of examinations in regional languages as a potential reason for cheating.
    • The government has initiated examinations in 13 languages, including Tamil, with plans to include all 22 gradually was the response.
  • Commitment to Meritorious Students:
    • Minister Singh emphasized that the Bill aims to safeguard the interests of meritorious students, ensuring they are not adversely affected by malpractices.

Conclusion

  • The passage of the Public Examinations Bill reflects a concerted effort by the government to address the pervasive issue of malpractices in examinations.
  • The legislative measures, coupled with ongoing technological surveillance plans, underscore the commitment to ensuring the integrity of the examination system in the country.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/lok-sabha-passes-anti-cheating-bill-govt-recruitment-exams-9147103/