Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 35A was added into the Constitution through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order 1954. Article 35A empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define the State’s ‘permanent residents’ and their special rights and privileges. It was specially devised to save the State subject laws that had already been defined under the Dogra ruler Maharaja Hari Singh’s regime and notified in 1927 and 1932. Under the 1952 Delhi Agreement between Sheikh Abdullah and Jawaharlal Nehru, several provisions of the Constitution were extended to Jammu and Kashmir through the 1954 Presidential Order. Article 35A, not a part of the original Constitution, was conceived under the 1952 Delhi Agreement entered into by Jammu and Kashmir with India. In other words, it is a byproduct of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the 106th CAA, 2023 provided for 33 percent reservation to women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies including Delhi, it did not include such provisions for Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry. On December 12, 2023, the Lok Sabha passed two Bills that provide 33% reservation for women in the Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry Legislative Assemblies. The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation (Second Amendment) Act 2023 reserves one-third of all elected seats in the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly for women. The reservation for women will also apply to the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the J&K Assembly.
The reservation will be effective once the census conducted after the commencement of the Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be in place for 15 years. However, it will continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. The Constitution bars delimitation before the first census post 2026. Similarly, the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill 2023 reserves one third of all elected seats in the Puducherry Legislative Assembly for women.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The SC in Article 370 judgment has held that the Parliament has the authority to take actions, legislative or otherwise with irreversible consequences with respect to a state under Presidential rule. The court approved the power of the Parliament to make irreversible and fundamental changes to a state’s polity when it is placed under the President’s rule. The significant executive and legislative alterations concerning Jammu and Kashmir—such as the repeal of its special status, the separation of Ladakh, and its conversion into a Union territory—all transpired during the period of President’s rule.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is generally held that when Art 355 is imposed in a state, it is followed by imposition of Art 356. But in the case of Manipur, this did not happen. The Manipur CM has told an All Party meeting that Article 355 has been imposed in the state when the violence started. But despite the imposition of Art 355, 356 was not imposed in Manipur. Article 355 of the Constitution says the Centre must protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance to ensure government stability. It allows the Centre to take charge of a state’s law and order enforcement. It is considered a step towards the President’s rule, which gives full control to the President. The fact of the matter is Art 356 is not an immediate and a necessary consequence of 355 imposition.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Art 356 deals with provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States. It says that the President can impose Art 356 on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise,. He can do it when he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
Hence, the answer is A

Answer: B
Explanation:
Features of the Constitution – Countries of Influence
1. Concurrent List – Australia
2. Rule of Law – Britain
3. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency – Weimar Republic
4. Joint sitting of two houses – Australia

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is a legal principle that is used to determine the true nature or purpose of a law, in order to determine which level of government has the authority to enact it. It is a legal doctrine used to determine under which head of power, a piece of legislation falls. Literally Pith means ‘true nature’ and substance means ‘the essential part of something’ as a whole it defines the true nature of the most important part of something. The Doctrine of Pith and Substance comes into picture where the question of separation of powers of legislation arises.
The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is based on the idea that a law should be evaluated based on its substance or purpose, rather than its form or incidental effects. This means that when a court is determining the validity of a law, it will consider the law’s true purpose or subject matter, rather than any incidental effects that it may have. If a law is found to be within the constitutional authority of the enacting government, it will be upheld as valid. If it is found to be outside the constitutional authority of the enacting government, it will be struck down as invalid. In the State of Bombay and Another V. F.N. Balsara 1951, the SC upheld the Doctrine of Pith and Substance and said that it is important to ascertain the true nature and character of a legislation for the purpose of determining the List under which it falls.
Hence, option A is correct.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Art. 19. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.-
(1) All citizens shall have the right-
(a) to freedom of speech and expression
(2) Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Incitement to sedition, Anti national activity, and Threat to law and order are not reasonable grounds under Art 19(2). For contempt of court, both the Parliament and the state legislatures have power to make laws. Entry 14 in concurrent list provides for the power to make laws to states in relation to Contempt of Court excluding that of Supreme Court.
Hence, the answer is option A.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: It was a system of Government established by Robert Clive following the Treaty of Allahabad.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the system, British East India Company obtained the actual power whereas the responsibility and charge of administration was entrusted to the Nawab of Bengal.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under this dual system of governance, the British administration acquired both the functions of the Diwani and Nizamat of Bengal.
Diwani = Revenue and Civil Administration
Nizamat = Police and Criminal Administration
Diwani was acquired from the Mughal emperor and Nizamat from the Nawab of Bengal.
Additional information:
● As the diwan, the Company was authorised to collect revenues of the province, while through the right to nominate the deputy subahdar it was in a position to control the nizamat or the police and judicial powers.
● The deputy subahdar could not be removed without the consent of the Company. However, at this point of time, the Company was neither willing nor able to collect the revenue directly.
● Hence Company appointed two deputy diwans for exercising diwani functions-Mohammad Reza Khan for Bengal and Raja Sitah Roy for Bihar. Mohammad Reza Khan also functioned as deputy nizam. In this way, the whole administration of Bengal was exercised through Indian agency, although the actual authority rested with the Company.
● The dual government system held a great advantage for the British-they had power without responsibility. The Nawab and his officials were responsible for administration, but they had no power to discharge it. The Nawab was merely a puppet in the hands of the British Government of India. The Nawab of Bengal province was under their dominion and depended upon them for his very existence.

Answer: A
Explanation:
● In medieval India, the terms ‘Peshkar’ and ‘Karoris’ were used for petty revenue officials during Mughals.
● Raja Todar Mal, finance minister of Mughal emperor Akbar, is known for introducing the karori/crori system in revenue administration.
● Under this system, the entire jagir was divided into khalisan based on information provided by karori officers, who were appointed to measure land, assess crops, and collect revenue.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Given below is correctly matched pairs:
INC sessions – Presidents
1) Surat Session (1907) – Rash Behari Ghosh
2) Lahore Session (1929) – Jawahar Lal Nehru
3) Lucknow Session (1916) – Ambika Charan Mazumdar
Additional information:
● In the Surat Session (1907), the Radicals or Extremists wanted Lala Lajpat Rai or Tilak as a presidential candidate, and Moderates supported Rash Behari Ghosh to be the President. But Lala Lajpat Rai stepped down and Rash Behari Ghosh became the President.
● The Lahore Session of Congress(1929) was a significant turning point in India’s freedom struggle. The declaration of complete independence as the goal of the Congress and the authorization of a program of civil disobedience was a bold step towards the realization of the dream of Purna Swaraj.
● The Lucknow Pact was an agreement reached between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League (AIML) at a joint session of both the parties held in Lucknow in December 1916. Through the pact, the two parties agreed to allow representation to religious minorities in the provincial legislatures.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Reasons lead to rise of militant nationalism in colonial India
● Curzon’s anti-Congress stance: Curzon’s anti-Congress stance convinced many that Congress would remain a useless organization.
● Failure of ICA 1892: The Indian Council Act of 1892 was a huge failure that called the Moderates’ tactics into question.
● International influence: Japan defeats Russia in international events. The defeat of the Italian army by Ethiopians demolished the notion of Western superiority.
Additional information:
● The era of militant nationalism started from 1905 onwards till 1909. In the 1890s, a radical trend of a militant nationalist approach to political activity began to emerge, and by 1905, it had taken concrete form. As a result of this trend, a revolutionary wing emerged.
● The militant nationalists caused a break in the national movement by employing more radical methods of agitation than the earlier moderates.
● Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Aurobindo Ghosh, Bipan Chandra Pal, and Lajpat Rai were prominent leaders during this period of the national movement.
● Militant nationalism was a distinct stage in the anti-colonial struggle. It introduced new methods of political agitation, used popular symbols for mobilisation, and attempted to broaden the movement’s base.

Answer: D
Explanation:
● Lord Lytton passed the Indian Arms Act in 1878 according to which it was a criminal offence for Indians to carry arms without license.
● Charles John Canning was the statesman and governor general of India during the Indian Mutiny of 1857.
● He became the first viceroy of India in 1858.
The important events during his tenure include:
● The Mutiny of 1857, which he was able to suppress successfully
● Passing of Indian Councils Act, 1861 which introduced portfolio system in India
● Withdrawal of “Doctrine of Lapse” which was one of the main reasons of mutiny of 1858
● Introduction of Code of Criminal Procedure
● Enactment of Indian High Courts Act 1861 was enacted to create High Courts for various provinces and abolished Supreme Courts at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay and also the Sadar Adalats in Presidency towns.
● Indian Penal Code (1858)

Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Communal Award was created by the British prime minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932. Also known as the MacDonald Award, it was announced after the Round Table Conference (1930–32) and extended the separate electorate to depressed Classes (now known as the Scheduled Caste) and other minorities. Gandhi was against this idea and he undertook a fast whilst in jail in Poona.
Statement 2 is correct: Ambedkar and Gandhi made the Poona Pact which laid down reserved seats for the Depressed Classes in the provincial legislatures for which elections would be through joint electorates.
Additional information:
• The Poona Pact was an agreement between M K Gandhi and B R Ambedkar signed in the Yerwada Central Jail, Poona on September 24th, 1932 on behalf of the depressed class for the reservation of the electoral seats in the Legislature of the British Government.
• Certain seats for the provincial legislatures would be reserved for the Depressed Classes. The number of seats was based on the total strength of the Provincial Councils. The number of seats reserved for the provinces was 30 for Madras, 8 for Punjab, 14 for Bombay with Sindh, 20 for the Central Provinces, 18 for Bihar and Orissa, 30 for Bengal, 7 for Assam and 20 for the United Provinces. So, in total there were 147 reserved seats.
• For each of these seats, the members of the Depressed Classes who could vote would form an electoral college.
• This Electoral College would elect a panel of four candidates who belong to the Depressed Classes. These candidates would be elected on the basis of a single vote. Four candidates getting the highest number of votes would be elected.
• Then these four candidates would stand in the election for the assembly along with the general candidates where the general electorate would vote. The members of the Depressed Classes hence got a ‘double vote’ since they could vote under the general electorate also.
• Even in the Central Legislature, the same principle of the joint electorate and reserved seats was to be followed.
• In the Central Legislature, 19% of the seats would be reserved for the Depressed Classes.
• This system would continue for ten years unless a mutual agreement consents to terminate it earlier.
• Fair representation of the Depressed Classes would be ensured by all means.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Features of Delhi Sultanate:
Features of the Delhi Sultanate architecture:
1) Large courtyards and gardens for public gatherings
2) Fusion of Hindu and Islamic styles like lotus and bell-shaped domes
3) Use of red sandstone as a primary building material
Additional information:
• The Delhi Sultanate period is one of the most significant and interesting periods in the history of Indian architecture. This period saw a huge transformation in the architectural landscape of India, with many new monuments and buildings being constructed.
• Delhi Sultanate Architecture refers to the architectural style which rose under the Delhi sultans. It started in the 13th and continued till the 16th century. It was marked by the synthesis of Indian and Islamic architectural elements. Persian and Central Asian styles have an impact on them.
• Some other features of the Delhi Sultanate Architecture:
 Use of local materials such as sandstone and marble
 Construction of new cities, such as Jahanpanah and Firozabad
 Development of a unique Islamic style that blended elements from Persia and Central Asia with Indian influences.
 Arch and Dome’s construction was popular
 Pillars, Jalis, and Chhatris were used for decoration
 Minarets were used to call people to prayer
 Slab and Beam construction was used for roofs

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Virupaksha temple at Hampi was built by Krishnadeva Raya under Vijayanagara empire in 1509.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vijaya Vittala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical notes, is located at Hampi, the capital of the Vijayanagara empire. It is dedicated to Lord Vitthala, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Angkor Vat temple in Cambodia dedicated to Lord Vishnu was built in 1113-1150 by Suryavarman II. It was firstly a Hindu temple but later it went under Buddhist regime.
Additional information:
• Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Vijayanagara district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Sri Virupaksha.
• The temple was built by Lakkan Dandesha, a nayaka (chieftain) under the ruler Deva Raya II also known as Prauda Deva Raya of the Vijayanagara Empire.

• The Vittala Temple or Vitthala Temple in Hampi is an ancient monument that is well-known for its exceptional architecture and unmatched craftsmanship.
• It is considered to be one of the largest and the most famous structure in Hampi. The temple is located in the north eastern part of Hampi, near the banks of the Tungabhadra River. The renowned Vittala Temple dates back to the 15th century.
• It was built during the reign of King Devaraya II (1422 – 1446 A.D.), one of the rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire. Several portions of the temple were expanded and enhanced during the reign of Krishnadeva Raya (1509 – 1529 A.D.), the most famous ruler of the Vijayanagara dynasty.

• Angkor Wat is a temple complex in Cambodia, resides within the ancient Khmer capital city of Angkor.
• The Guinness World Records considers it as the largest religious structure in the world.
• Originally constructed as a Hindu temple dedicated to the god Vishnu for the Khmer Empire by King Suryavarman II during the 12th century.
• It was gradually transformed into a Buddhist temple towards the end of the century; as such, it is also described as a “Hindu-Buddhist” temple.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Barabar caves built during 3rd century BCE belonged to the period of Ashoka and his son Dasaratha.
Statement 2 is correct: The Sanchi stupa does not have mural paintings.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Ajanta caves were constructed by the Rashtrakutas and Satvahanas.
Statement 4 is correct: Pahari paintings belong to Mughal and post-Mughal periods.
Additional information:
• The Barabar Hill Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, dating from the Maurya Empire (322–185 BCE), some with Ashokan inscriptions, located in the Makhdumpur region of Jehanabad district, Bihar, India, 24 km (15 mi) north of Gaya.
• The caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect, founded by Makkhali Gosala, a contemporary of Gautama Buddha, the founder of Buddhism, and of Mahavira, the last and 24th Tirthankara of Jainism.
• The Ajivikas had many similarities with Buddhism as well as Jainism. Also present at the site are several rock-cut Buddhist and Hindu sculptures and inscriptions from later periods.

• Sanchi Stupa is a Buddhist complex, famous for its Great Stupa, on a hilltop at Sanchi Town in Raisen District of the State of Madhya Pradesh, India.
• It is located, about 23 kilometers from Raisen town, district headquarter and 46 kilometres north-east of Bhopal, capital of Madhya Pradesh.
• The Great Stupa at Sanchi is one of the oldest stone structures in India, and an important monument of Indian Architecture.
• It was originally commissioned by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka the Great in the 3rd century BCE. Its nucleus was a simple hemispherical brick structure built over the relics of the Buddha.

• The Ajanta Caves are 29 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments dating from the second century BCE to about 480 CE in the Aurangabad District of Maharashtra state in India. Ajanta Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Universally regarded as masterpieces of Buddhist religious art, the caves include paintings and rock-cut sculptures described as among the finest surviving examples of ancient Indian art, particularly expressive paintings that present emotions through gesture, pose and form.

• The Pahari school developed and flourished during 17th-19th centuries stretching from Jammu to Garhwal, in the sub-Himalayan India, through Himachal Pradesh.
• The central theme of Pahari painting is depiction of eternal love of Hindu deities Radha and Krishna.
• A distinct lyricism, spontaneous rhythm, softness, minute intricate details of composition, and intense perception and portrayal of human emotions and physical features distinguish the Pahari miniatures from the other miniature schools like Deccan, Mughal and Rajasthani-Rajput.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Given below is the correctly matched pairs:
Literature Texts – Authors
1. Rasaratna Samuccaya – Vagbhaṭa
2. Brihat Samhita – Varahamihir
3. Siddhanta Shiromani – Bhaskara II
Additional information:
• Rasaratna Samuchaya: Rasaratna Samuccaya is an Indian Sanskrit treatise on alchemy. The text is dated between 13th to 16th century CE. The text contains detailed descriptions of various complex metallurgical processes, as well as descriptions of how to set up and equip a laboratory and other topics concerning Indian alchemy.
• Brihat Samhita: Brihat-saṃhita is a 6th-century Sanskrit-language encyclopedia compiled by Varahamihira in present-day Ujjain, India. Besides the author’s area of expertise—astrology and astronomy—the work contains a wide variety of other topics. The contents of the text fall into two major categories: anga and upanga. The anga discusses divination based on planets, asterisms, and zodiac signs. The upanga discusses a wide variety of other topics, as listed above. Varahamihira does not discuss several traditional topics which he considers legendary and unscientific.
• Siddhanta Shiromani: Siddhanta Shiromani is the major treatise of Indian mathematician Bhaskara II. He wrote the Siddhanta Shiromani in 1150 when he was 36 years old. The work is composed in Sanskrit Language in 1450 verses.
1. Lilavati: It is the first volume of the Siddhanta Shiromani. It contains thirteen chapters, 278 verses, mainly arithmetic and measurement.
2. Bijaganita: It is the second volume of Siddhanta Shiromani. It is divided into six parts, contains 213 verses, and is devoted to algebra.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Paat-Mitro is a mobile application developed by the Jute Corporation of India Limited (JCI) to provide important information about the minimum support price and agronomy to jute farmers.
● The application is available in six languages.
● Other features which are made available on the app: Farmer-centric schemes like ‘Jute-ICARE’, weather forecasts, JCI’s Purchase Centres’ locations, Procurement Policies, etc.
● Farmers will also be able to track the status of their payments for the raw jute sold to JCI under MSP Operation.
● Latest technology features like Chatbot are included.

About Jute Corporation of India Limited:
It was created in 1971, with the primary objective of strengthening the jute sector by protecting the interest of the jute growers who are mostly marginal farmers.
➢ The institution comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textile.
Mission of the institution:
● Implementation of the policy of the government of India for providing minimum support price to the jute/mesta growers of the country.
● Serving as a price stabilising agency in the raw jute sector and taking the necessary measures in this respect.
● Undertaking various extension measures for implementation of different jute related projects.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
The National Security Adviser represented India at the sixth meeting of senior security officials of the Colombo Security Conclave in 2024 at Port Louis, Mauritius. Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was formed in 2011 as a trilateral maritime security group of India, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) is a group that works to ensure the security and stability of the Indian Ocean region and includes India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and the Maldives. Observers country Bangladesh, Seychelles
Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Members Objective:
o Creating a platform for closer cooperation in maritime security
o Narco-trafficking,
o Human trafficking,
o Piracy,
o Terrorism
o Shared experiences in combating internet and social media abuse
o and addressing challenges such as extremism.

India’s stance
There is a need for regional cooperation in view of Chinese influence. India will play an important role in this so that China’s crypto policy can be influenced. In view of the increasing number of security issues and uncertainties, there is a great need for cooperation in IOR. And India, along with its neighbours, must begin to accept that the IOR is evolving into a global commons area.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Recently, Washington social media users and conspiracy theorists claim that a new pyramid has been discovered in Antarctica.
Recently satellite photos related to this have surfaced. A mysterious triangular structure has been seen in the icy continent, which is being described as the world’s newest wonder.
Geographic location of the Ellsworth Mountains and their configuration
Statement 1 is correct: Mount Vinson is the highest point in Antarctica, standing at 16,050 ft (4,892 m) above sea level. It’s located in the Sentinel Range of the Ellsworth Mountains, about 1,200 km (750 mi) from the South Pole. This is a 360 km long and 48 km wide chain running in north-south direction from the Rhone Ice Shelf in the west.
Statement 2 is correct: Mount Vinson is located between the Sentinel Range and the Heritage Range. The Sentinel Range is in the north of the Ellsworth Mountains, and the Heritage Range is in the south.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is one of the most recently discovered and explored of the Seven Summits, the highest peaks of the world’s seven continents. Not for a research center.
About Seven Summits:
● The Seven Summits are defined as the highest peaks on each of the seven continents.
● A mighty goal, climbing all of these mountains is a pinnacle achievement that many mountaineers dream of.
● It’s a phenomenal feat that requires extreme fitness, commitment, determination, resilience and courage and as such, joining the ‘Seven Summiters’ club is a very exclusive privilege held by few people.
Seven Summits
● Denali. (6,194 m)
● Mont Blanc. (4,810 m)
● Elbrus. (5,642 m)
● Everest. (8,848 m)
● Kilimanjaro. (5,895 m)
● Aconcagua. (6,961 m)
● Vinson. (4,892 m)
● Kosciuszko. (2,228 m)

Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
European Commissioner Wopke Hoekstra’s recent statement at the UN Climate Summit that the main goal of the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) was to stop carbon leakage was flawed, according to research body Global Trade Research Initiative.

• Carbon leakage is a concept to quantify an increase in greenhouse gas emissions in one country as a result of an emissions reduction by a second country with stricter climate change mitigation policies. Carbon leakage is one type of spill-over effect. Spillover effects can be positive or negative; for example, emission reductions policy might lead to technological developments that aid reductions outside of the policy area. Carbon leakage is defined as “the increase in CO2 emissions outside the countries taking domestic mitigation action divided by the reduction in the emissions of these countries.”It is expressed as a percentage, and can be greater or less than 100%. There is no consensus over the magnitude of long-term leakage effects.

Hence, Option (C) is the correct answer.
Additional Information:
● CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, which is the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55 by 2030 compared to 1990 levels
● The EU has agreed to the world’s first Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), a measure aimed at preventing “carbon leakage”.
● CBAM will initially cover several specific products in some of the most carbon-intensive sectors.
● CBAM, which some argue violates international trade rules, also aims to incentivize trading partners to decarbonize.
● CBAM extends the concept of carbon pricing to imports for the first time.
● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a tariff on carbon-intensive products, such as cement or fertiliser. While CBAM’s implementation is still being worked out, we at least know the scheme’s scope.
● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms are already in place in some regions around the world, such as California, where an adjustment is applied to certain imports of electricity. A number of countries such as Canada and Japan are planning similar initiatives. In addition,
● The IMF and the OECD have recently carried out work to study how such measures could support international efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A mobile app titled ‘Report Fish Disease’ recently has been introduced to help aquaculture farmers to report diseases on their farms.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Surveillance Program for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced ‘Report Fish Disease’, a mobile app to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.It’s aim is to boost India’s aquaculture sector. It has been developed by National Informatics Center Pune.
Statement 2 is correct: Intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.

● Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
● Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
Additional Information
➢ Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMSSY)
➢ Introduced, as part of the ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ package
➢ Fishermen are provided with insurance cover, financial assistance and a facility of Kisan Credit Card as well.
➢ The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components:
➢ Central Sector Scheme (CSS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).

Answer: C
Explanation:
There are five types of speciation: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric and artificial.
Allopatric speciation occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring.
When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others.
In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment.
Parapatric speciation sometimes happens when part of an environment has been polluted. Mining activities leave waste with high amounts of metals like lead and zinc.
These metals are absorbed into the soil, preventing most plants from growing. Some grasses, such as buffalo grass, can tolerate the metals. Buffalo grass, also known as vanilla grass, is native to Europe and Asia, but is now found throughout North and South America, too. Buffalo grass has become a unique species from the grasses that grow in areas not polluted by metals.
Sympatric speciation occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another, and all members are in close proximity to one another. A new species, perhaps based on a different food source or characteristic, seems to develop spontaneously. The theory is that some individuals become dependent on certain aspects of an environment—such as shelter or food sources—while others do not.
Artificial speciation is the creation of new species by people. This is achieved through lab experiments, where scientists mostly research insects like fruit flies.

Answer: A
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Statement 2 explains statement 1.
The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows a rather uneven distribution. In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. With very few exceptions, tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S) harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
Ecologists and evolutionary biologists have proposed various hypotheses; some important ones are:
(a) Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
(b) Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity.
(c) There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
Thus, there are three major factors proposed by ecologists to have influenced the richness of species diversity in the areas near equator as compared to the poles.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Climate Club has been launched at UNFCCC COP28 (at Dubai, UAE in 2023). It is a leading high-ambition intergovernmental forum for exchange on accelerating climate action and industry decarbonisation. The objective of the Climate Club members is to support the effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and decisions thereunder.
The Climate Club’s initial focus is on the emission-intensive sectors steel and cement with the aim to scale up lead markets and to make decarbonised industrial production the default business case. While focusing on exchange among governments, the Climate Club will engage relevant stakeholders and experts from academia, think tanks, civil society, and the private sector. It draws on their expertise, and elevates and complements the ongoing work of international organisations and initiatives that relates to its activities.
It has been agreed that the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), along with the International Energy Agency (IEA), would host an Interim Secretariat working together with other relevant organisations to ensure progress on working arrangements until further arrangements are decided.
NOTE- India is not a member of the Climate Club, as of now. Chile and Germany are the co-hosts of this club. Currently, it comprises 37 members.

Answer: B
Explanation: Options 1 and 3 are correct.
The Ramsar Convention has specified 9 criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance:
Criterion 1: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.
Criterion 2: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
Criterion 3: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
Criterion 4: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
Criterion 5: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds. (hence, Option 2 is incorrect).
Criterion 6: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
Criterion 7: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
Criterion 8: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.
Criterion 9: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The savanna food web is a complex ecological network formed by the trophic relationships between savanna plants and animals in different levels of different savanna food chains. One of the food chains in savanna ecosystem can be summarised in ascending order as follows:
Grasses-Bushback- Baboon/lion/leopard-Hyena
• Primary Producers (Trophic level 1): Grasses, Baobab, Acacia trees
• Primary Consumers (Trophic level 2): Bushbuck (African antelope), Grasshopper, Giraffe, Zebra
• Secondary Consumers (Trophic level 3): Baboon, African Wild Dog
• Tertiary Consumers (Trophic level 4): Spotted Hyena, Vultures, lion
As carnivores, hyenas eat zebras, rabbits, warthogs and are also known to be scavengers who feed on carcasses.
Additional information:
About Bushback:
• Widely distributed in Sub-Saharan Africa
• Habitat: woodlands, forests, savanna
• Diet: herbivore- consumes leaves, shoots, twigs etc.
• Predators: lions, leopard, cheetah; baboons sometimes eat baby bushback
• Characteristics: white patches on neck, vertical stripes or spots on sides, males have horns
About Baboon: Mammals, Primates (Old World Monkey), omnivores, distributed across Africa and Arabia.

Answer: D
Explanation
What is radiocarbon dating?
Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon. The method was developed in the late 1940s at the University of Chicago by Willard Libby.
Concept of radiocarbon dating
It is based on the fact that radiocarbon (14C) is constantly being created in the Earth’s atmosphere by the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric nitrogen. The resulting 14C combines with atmospheric oxygen to form radioactive carbon dioxide, which is incorporated into plants by photosynthesis; animals then acquire 14C by eating the plants. When the animal or plant dies, it stops exchanging carbon with its environment, and thereafter the amount of 14C it contains begins to decrease as the 14C undergoes radioactive decay.
Statement 1 is incorrect: This technique is used to determine the age of objects which are generally of archaeological importance and have organic content (or in simpler words objects which once were living, or material made from living things).
Statement 2 is correct: This technique is used for entities which are dead. When an entity dies, it stops exchanging radiocarbon with the environment. Thus, as the fossil ages, the radiocarbon decays in its concentration. This radioactive decay is analysed to identify the relative age of the fossil.

Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: An air conditioner is typically composed of two units: The indoor and outdoor unit. These are usually called ‘split’ air conditioners. Indoor unit have expansion valve and evaporator coils where outdoor have compressor and condenser coils.

Statement 2 is correct and is the explanation of statement 1: Due to very low vaporization temperature of an AC coolant. The liquid coolant absorbs heat from the room and vaporizes into a gas in the evaporator coil. This leads to a cooling effect in the room. The gaseous form of the coolant is brought back to the liquid state in the condenser coil and by the action of compressor which compresses the gas to again liquify it. This is a continuous cycle and hence, an air conditioner works in this way.

Answer: B
Explanation
• In the current universe, nearly 70 per cent constitutes dark energy whereas 25 per cent is dark matter – about both of which there is scanty knowledge, till date.
• Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic force.
• This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
• In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.

Answer: B
Explanation
A laser is a device that emits a beam of coherent light through an optical amplification process. The letters in the word laser stand for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Lasers produce a narrow beam of light in which all of the light waves have very similar wavelengths.
The laser’s light waves travel together with their peaks all lined up, or in phase. This is why laser beams are very narrow, very bright, and can be focused into a very tiny spot.
Lasers have many uses. They are used in precision tools and can cut through diamonds or thick metal. They can also be designed to help in delicate surgeries. Lasers are used for recording and retrieving information. They are used in communications and in carrying TV and internet signals. We also find them in laser printers, bar code scanners, and DVD players. They also help to make parts for computers and other electronics.
Option 1 is incorrect: Laser is not used for radar applications. Radar stands for Radio Detection and Ranging. It uses radio waves (and not laser) to determine the distance, angle, and radial velocity of objects relative to the site.
Option 2 is correct: Laser is used for optical fiber communication in case of beaming of high-speed internet.
Option 3 is correct: Laser is used for precision surgery like lasik eye surgery for correcting vision.

Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: UPI Lite requires internet service to process transactions but it does not require PIN for each transaction. It is UPI 123 Pay system which has been designed for feature phone users to use UPI without the need for internet.
UPI Lite
UPI LITE is a new payment solution that leverages the trusted NPCI Common Library (CL) application to process low value transactions that have been set at below ₹ 500. User enters the amount, and the money is sent to the party without the need for PIN.
Statement 2 is correct: UPI is a type of Prepaid Instrument which does not require PIN for transactions. It is a kind of wallet-based payment instrument that enables users to load cash digitally before transacting.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A direct debit mandate given for recurring expenses like bill payment, recharge does not require OTP to be filled for every transaction. A Direct Debit mandate, sometimes called a Direct Debit instruction (DDI), is when a customer authorizes you to collect future payments from their account on a predetermined schedule.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
• The Port of Haifa is the largest of Israel’s three major international seaports, the others being the Port of Ashdod, and the Port of Eilat. Its natural deep-water harbor operates all year long and serves both passenger and merchant ships.
• It has been in news due to takeover of operations of this port by Adani group of India.

Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
• The Port of Duqm is strategically located situated on south eastern seaboard of Oman, overlooking Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean.
• It is straddled along critical sea lanes in the Arabian Sea and Gulf of Aden.
• The Port of Duqm is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It offers India access to the Gulf of Oman, the Red Sea, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea. This location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region.
Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
• Anjoun is an island located in Comoros.
• INS Trishul visited Port Anjouan, Comoros from 31 May to 02 June 23 as part of the Indian Navy’s long-range deployment.

Answer: B
Explanation: Statements 1 and 4 are correct.
Statement 1 is correct:
Dendritic Drainage Pattern:
• It is the most common form and resembles the branching pattern of tree roots.
• The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain.
• The pattern develops in areas where the rock beneath the stream has no particular structure and can be eroded equally easily in all directions.
• Tributaries join larger streams at acute angles (less than 90°).
• Examples- The rivers of the northern plains; Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Trellis Drainage Pattern:
• Trellis drainage develops in folded topography where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other.
• Down-turned folds called synclines form valleys in which reside the main channel of the stream.
• Such a pattern is formed when the primary tributaries of main rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at right angles.
• Examples- The rivers in the upper part of the Himalayan region; Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
Rectangular Drainage Pattern:
• The rectangular drainage pattern is found in regions that have undergone faulting.
• It develops on a strongly joined rocky terrain.
• Streams follow the path of least resistance and thus are concentrated in places where exposed rock is the weakest.
• The tributary streams make sharp bends and enter the main stream at high angles.
• Examples- Streams found in the Vindhya mountain range; Chambal, Betwa and Ken.
Statement 4 is correct:
Radial Drainage Pattern:
• The radial drainage pattern develops around a central elevated point and is common to conically shaped features such as volcanoes.
• When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’.
• Examples- The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range; Narmada and Son (tributary of Ganga).

Answer: B
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
Location:
• It is being developed over the Chenab River near the villages of Patharnakki and Kiru in Kishtwar district, Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
• It is located between Kirthai II hydroelectric project to its upstream and Kwar hydroelectric project to its downstream.
• It is a 624MW run-of-river project.
• The project is being developed by Chenab Valley Power Projects (CVPP).
• Beneficiary States: J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Rajasthan, Union territories of Chandigarh & Delhi.
Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
• The Shanan hydropower project is developed on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas River.
• It is a 110 MW power project located in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh, India.
• It was commissioned in 1932 and is currently under the control of the Punjab Government.
Controversy around the project-
• The 99-year lease on the project is set to expire in March 2024, leading to a dispute between Himachal Pradesh and Punjab over its ownership and control.
• Himachal Pradesh has made it clear that it will not renew or extend the lease and wants the project to be handed over to the state.
• Punjab, on the other hand, is unwilling to part with the project and is prepared to pursue legal action to retain it.
Pair 3 is matched correctly:
Sunni hydropower project:
• It is a run of river project.
• It is being executed on the Sutlej in Shimla and Mandi districts of Himachal Pradesh and it would have a 71-metre-high concrete gravity dam and six generating units in its surface power house.
• The project will generate 1,382 million units annually.

Answer: C
Explanation: Only pair 4 is matched incorrectly
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
Pangchen Valley:
• Zemithang, the first stop of the 14th Dalai Lama during his flight from China-occupied Tibet in 1959, hosted a major Buddhist conference in April, 2023 attended by some 600 delegates, including Tibetan spiritual leaders, from across India.
• Zemithang is located in the Pangchen Valley of Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is a village and the last circle headquarters bordering Bhutan and Tibet.
• Zemithang means “sand valley” and the people of the area are referred to as Pangchenpa, meaning “people who gave up sin”.

Pair 2 is matched correctly:
Niti Valley:
• It is a remote valley located in the northernmost region of Garhwal Himalayas in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
• The valley’s major river is the Dhauliganga which flows south-southwest.
• Due to high altitude at Niti Valley the winter season is hard. Due to that most residents leave the Niti Valley during winter and come back in April.
• There are 24 villages in the Niti Valley. Majority of population belongs to members of the Bhotiya scheduled tribe.
• Niti, located at an elevation of 3,600 m, is the most important village of the valley.
• Nestled within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Niti is the last village at the Indo-China border.
Pair 3 is matched correctly: The Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley, which was once a battlefield during the Kargil War, has now opened up for tourists.
About Mushkoh Valley:
• It is located in Kargil’s Drass Sector of Ladakh and was a battlefield during the 1999 Kargil war between India and Pakistan.
• The region includes the Gurez Valley in north Kashmir, which was previously inaccessible to civilians due to shelling from Pakistan but now connects with the Mushkoh Valley in Kargil’s Drass Sector.
• Kaobal Gali, the highest pass at a height of 4,167 meters in Gurez, connects Gurez to Mushkoh Valley.
• The Gurez Valley is close to the Line of Control (LoC) and is also home to ibex, musk deer and marmots, Himalayan brown bear and snow leopard.
• The Kishanganga River flows through the valley.
Pair 4 is matched incorrectly:
Derma Valley:
• A snow leopard has been sighted for the first time at a height of about 11,120 feet in the Darma valley in Uttarakhand’s Pithoragarh district.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Phreatomagmatic eruptions:
• Phreatomagmatic eruptions are volcanic events triggered by the interaction of magma with water, typically seawater.
• These interactions lead to explosive releases of ash and steam.
• The term “phreatomagmatic” combines “phreatic,” relating to water, and “magmatic,” referring to magma.
• These eruptions often occur underwater and are characterized by the explosive nature of the ash and steam release.
• A new island was born in Japan after underwater volcano eruption.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
o Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for Lok Sabha
• It empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for disorderly conduct.
• This rule says that any Member so ordered to withdraw shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
o Rules 374 and 374A – To deal with more recalcitrant
• Rule 374 empowers the Presiding officers to name the legislators if the MP continues disrupting the House even after repeated warnings.
• After that, the House can move a motion to suspend the MP for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session
• Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001. The intention was to circumvent the necessity of adopting a motion for suspension.
• Under this rule, the Speaker can name an MP, who shall then automatically stand suspended for five days or the remaining part of the session, whichever is less.
• Provided that the House may, at any time, on a motion being made, resolve that such suspension be terminated.
This makes it clear that there are instances when there is no need to pass a motion for the suspension of MPs named by the Speaker.
Statement 2 is correct: Rule 374Aof the ‘Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha’deal with the disorderly conduct of Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha and the power of the Speaker to take disciplinary action against them.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution, under Article 280, mandates the President of India to constitute a Finance Commission, not the Parliament.
The Parliament plays a crucial role in the Finance Commission’s work, but not in its establishment. Once the Commission submits its report to the President, it is laid before both houses of Parliament. Parliament can then debate the report and make recommendations to the government on its implementation. However, the recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government. The government can choose to accept them in full, partially, or even reject them altogether.
Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 280: Establishes the Finance Commission and mandates its constitution by the President.
• Article 281: Requires the President to lay the Commission’s report before Parliament. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending grants and resource allocation between the Union and the States in India, states do not have a legal right to receive the exact amounts recommended by the Commission.
While the Commission’s recommendations carry significant weight, they are not legally binding on the government. This means the Union government has the discretion to accept, modify, or even reject the recommended amounts.
It is nowhere laid down in the constitution that the recommendations of the Commission shall be binding upon the government of India or that it would give rise to the legal right in favor of the beneficiary States to receive the moneys recommended to be offered to them by the commission.

Answer: C
The text of Preamble of Indian Constitution is as follow-
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

Answer: C
Explanation: While the Indian Councils Act, 1861 marked a significant step in the evolution of India’s representative government, its political provisions were limited and had certain drawbacks. The key provisions are:
• Recognition of the Portfolio System: Divided the Governor-General’s Council into departments and assigned each member a specific portfolio like finance, home, or public works.
• Expansion of Legislative Council: Increased the number of members in the Governor-General’s Legislative Council and allowed for the appointment of some Indians through nomination by the Governor-General. This was the first time Indians were formally included in the legislative process, albeit in a limited way.
• Restoration of Legislative Powers to Certain Presidencies: It restored legislative powers to the Bengal, Punjab and North-Western Provinces. This allowed these regional bodies to make laws on specific issues relevant to their territories.
• Symbolic Step towards Representative Government: Although the Act’s powers remained heavily tilted towards the British, it symbolized a step towards representative government for Indians. Their inclusion in the legislative process, even in a limited capacity, fueled future demands for greater participation and self-governance.(Raja of Benaras, Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao)

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Section 11 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 states that:
Section 11(1): The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
Section 11(2):The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Section 11(3):The other Election Commissioners shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners (ECs), as the President may decide. The CEC and other ECs are appointed by the President.
The Act specifies the same composition of the Election Commission; however, it adds that the CEC and other ECs will be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
• A Search Committee will prepare a panel of five persons for the consideration of the Selection Committee.
• The Search Committee will be headed by the Law Minister.
• It will have two other members, not below the rank of Secretary to the central government, having knowledge and experience in matters related to elections.
However, the Selection Committee may also consider candidates who have not been included in the panel prepared by the Search Committee.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
Section 9 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 states that:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he assumes his office or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall not be eligible for re-appointment. (i.e. the Election Commissioner can be appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, but is not eligible for reappointment as Election Commissioner.)
3. Where an Election Commissioner is appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than six years in aggregate as the Election Commissioner and the Chief Election Commissioner.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Sardeshmukhi was an additional tax levied by the Maratha Empire on territories within its domain. The primary purpose of Sardeshmukhi was to provide an additional source of income for the Maratha rulers and nobility. It also served as a means of asserting the Maratha Empire’s authority over its territories and maintaining control.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was equal to one-tenth (10%) of the land revenue collected from the territories.
Statement 3 is correct: Sardeshmukhi was collected by Maratha officials directly from the landowners and cultivators in the empire’s territories. The collected revenue was distributed among the Maratha rulers, nobility, and officials, with a portion also used for the empire’s administration and public works.
Additional information:
• The economic condition of Marathas was good in the 17th and 18th centuries because they were powerful in those days, so they could do whatever they wanted to, and their administration was stable.
• Most people accepted them as rulers, and they did not have to face any problems during this period because people accepted them as rulers. Their motto was ‘freedom from fear,’ which they had proved strong.
• Maratha state was a strong and well-organized government. So, they had ordered their administration properly, and every common person was satisfied with the administration’s work. They did not have any problems because the rules were clear to them. Maratha’s rule was very different from the other British-style rule.
• Marathas were good administrators and had a different way of enforcing their control. They took good care of their subjects’ well-being by giving education to every person. They encouraged freedom of speech, press, religion, and expression.
• They also controlled the trade in grains, salt, and sugar. They also had a very good system of medical treatment.

Answer: B
Explanation:
• Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahadev Govind Ranade were related to Deccan Education Society.
• Deccan Education Society was an influential social reform and political organisation formed in the Pune district in Maharashtra.
• The establishment of the New English School in Pune resulted in the foundation of the Deccan Education Society by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
• It was an unprecedented move because the only organisations involved in mass education were governmental institutions and Christian missionaries.
• As a fervent reformist, Agarkar took a keen interest in social reform initiatives.
• Tilak was a Puritan when it came to social reforms. Once political freedom was attained, he thought, laws could implement such social reform measures.
• Other leaders of the Society: Vishnushastri Chiplunkar,Mahadev Ballal,Namjoshi,V S Apte,V B Kelkar, M S Gole and N K Dharap
• Society established Fergusson College, Pune’s first higher education institution.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Effects of de industrialisation:
1) Ruralisation of India
2) As international trade reshaped the domestic structure of the economy, India became one of the major markets for the British made cotton yarns and cloths.
3) Overcrowding of agriculture and Such overcrowding of agriculture badly affected its efficiency. Present problems of subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings, over-cultivation or cultivation of inferior and unproductive land, etc., are the direct effects of the British rule.
4) Artisans were displaced from traditional occupations and with no other alternative source of livelihood, the artisans adopted agriculture.
5) Trade to GDP ratio declined
Additional information:
• De-industrialisation is the process of destruction of a nation’s industrial capacity. Before the advent of the Europeans in India, India was the industrial hub. Indian economy was characterised by the agriculture and handicrafts.
• But this internal balance of the village economy was systematically destroyed by the British policies. In the process, traditional handicraft industries started declining in the 18th century and proceeded rapidly almost to the beginning of the 19th century.
• This process is called as de-industrialisation. The large scale de-industrialisation brought far reaching impacts on the economy with loss to traditional economy, which was earlier considered as a blend of agriculture and handicrafts.
• The de-industrialisation of India played an important role in the underdevelopment and increasing poverty of the country. Thus the process of de-industrialisation proved to be a disaster for the several million persons.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji as a response to a culmination of grievances against colonial rule. Gandhi’s call for non-cooperation movement aimed to challenge the colonial economic and power structure against the Rowlatt Act.
Statement 2 is correct: Rowlatt act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
Additional information:
Rowlatt Satyagraha
• The seeds of the Rowlatt Act were sown in 1915 when the repressive Defense of India Act was imposed to curb anti-colonial activities during World War I.
• Sedition Committee: While the Defense of India Act was meant to be a temporary wartime measure, a committee (called Sedition Committee) headed by British judge Sydney Rowlatt recommended the continuation of such suppressive powers.
• It can be considered as an instrument of British Carrot (GOI Act,1919) and Stick (Rowlatt Act) policy.
Non-Cooperation Movement
• The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji in 1920 during British rule.
• It emerged as a powerful and fervent response to a culmination of grievances and disillusionment that had been building up among the Indian populace. Rowlatt Act and the brutal Jaliawala Bagh Massacre were the immediate causes for launching the movement.
• Congress, at its special session of Calcutta in September 1920, approved the Non-Cooperation movement, which was later endorsed by the Nagpur session of Congress in December 1920.
• The movement saw tremendous participation of masses throughout the country. However, the movement was called off by Gandhi on February 11, 1922, following the Churi Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The parallel government which developed in Satara during quit India movement was the longest and most successful.
Statement 2 is correct: Nana Patil was the leader of the Satara parallel government.
Statement 3 is correct: The model of the parallel government in Satara was based on the “Gramrajya” of Aundh, which was a progressive policy of decentralization of power which was implemented by the Raja of Aundh, Shrimant Bhavanrao Pant-Pratinidhi in 1937.
Additional information:
• Quit India Movement was officially launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942.
• The movement gave the slogans ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo’. Gandhi gave the slogan to the people – ‘Do or die’.
• In line with the Congress ideology, it was supposed to be a peaceful non-violent movement aimed at urging the British to grant India independence.
• The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in Bombay. Gandhi was named the movement’s leader.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) defines de minimis as the “minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing”.
The present rules and commitments on agriculture are often called the “Uruguay Round reform programme” — they were negotiated in the Uruguay Round and they include reductions in subsidies and protection as well as other disciplines on the trade.
The main conceptual consideration is that there are basically two categories of domestic support —
● Green Box: Support with no, or minimal, distortive effect on trade.
● Amber Box: Trade-distorting support
Other than that, there is:
Blue Box: Direct payments under production limiting programmes (often referred to as “Blue Box” measures) are exempt from commitments if such payments are made on fixed areas and yield or a fixed number of livestock.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Demand-pull inflation’ is caused by developments on the demand side of the economy, while ‘cost-push inflation’ is caused by the effect of higher input costs on the supply side of the economy.
As demand for a particular good or service increases, the available supply decreases. When fewer items are available, consumers are willing to pay more to obtain the item—as outlined in the economic principle of supply and demand. The result is higher prices due to demand-pull inflation.
On the other hand, the cost-push inflation occurs when prices increase due to increases in production costs, such as raw materials and wages. The demand for goods is unchanged while the supply of goods declines due to the higher costs of production. As a result, the added costs of production are passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices for the finished goods.

● Increase in government expenditure may result in stimulating the aggregate demand in the economy and that can drive up the prices of the goods.
● Reduction in the interest rate on loan, a form of expansionary monetary policy, would also create demand-pull inflation in the economy due to increased demand for goods and services.
● Increase in crude oil price would increase the raw material cost. Thus, it is a form of cost-push inflation that indicates supply-side bottlenecks.
● An increase in income tax is likely to result in decrease in the aggregate demand as it would reduce the disposable income available with an individual. Thus, it would not lead to demand-pull inflation.
Factors leading to cost-push inflation:
Thus, while demand-pull inflation influences the demand-side dynamics, resulting in price increase, cost-push inflation influences the supply-side dynamics.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the jobs that are available and the people looking for work. This mismatch could be because jobseekers don’t have the skills required to do the available jobs, or because the available jobs are a long way from the jobseekers.
Disguised unemployment” or “hidden unemployment” describes a section of the labour force engaged in duplicate activity with little to no production. In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed but are actually not making a meaningful contribution to the economy. Thus, the marginal productivity of labour is zero. Disguised unemployment does not affect an economy’s aggregate economic output.
Statement 2 is correct: In developing economies, the disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector, where a greater number of workers are employed than required.
Statement 3 is correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job. Businesses also spend time searching for suitable candidates to fill job vacancies. As a result, people looking for jobs are not matched immediately with vacancies and may experience a period of temporary unemployment.
This type of unemployment is generally for a shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the umbrella legislation for insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals.
The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “creditors in control” as opposed to the previous position of “debtors in possession,”, and as a result, management control is transferred from the hands of the current owners to a new management headed by interim resolution professional (IRP) who practically acts under the supervision and control of Committee of Creditors (CoC) for all purposes.
The CoC is formed by the Interim Resolution Professional once the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is initiated against a Corporate Debtor. The CoC is a committee consisting of financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
A time-bound resolution of insolvency was the main objective. It aimed to resolve insolvency proceedings within 180 days (extendable by 90 days).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the objective of the resolution, the recovery rate of loans has been quite low.
● The Financial Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 28, 2023 summarises the Corporate Insolvency Process (CIRP): “Since the inception of the IBC, a total of 2,808 corporate debtors (CDs) have been rescued and 2,249 CDs have been referred for liquidation till September 2023. The total admitted claims till September 23 are 7,058. As many as 2,001 are pending, of which 36 (out of 37) for seven years, 502 for six years. During the resolution plan approval, only about 15% is paid by the purchaser and the repayment takes years without any further interest collected by the banks.”
● The FSR report mentions that realizable value to the creditors is only 16.9% in 2020-21, 22.4% in 2021-22 and 37.1% in 2022-23.
● Banks or financial creditors are recovering an average of just 10-15% in NCLT-settled cases of large corporates.
● As of September 2023, 67% of ongoing CIRP cases have crossed the timeline of 270 days. The average time taken for admission during FY21 and FY22 was 468 days and 650 days, respectively.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Fiscal Drag occurs when earnings growth and inflation push more earners into higher tax brackets. Consequently, the government’s tax revenue rises without any increases in tax rates. If earners pay a higher percentage of income in tax, their spending declines.
This fiscal drag has the effect of reducing (or limiting increase) the aggregate demand. The greater tax burden on incomes dampens spending, i.e., it undermines demand. This is a drag on the economy caused by taxation, i.e., it is a fiscal drag.
It works as automatic brakes that a progressive tax system applies to aggregate demand. Fiscal drag slows down or tames a rapidly expanding economy.
Progressive tax is a system that taxes higher earners more than lower earners. In other words, higher earners pay a greater percentage of their income in tax than lower earners.

Answer. C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that improves (not guarantees) a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds. The effectiveness and success of cloud seeding is often a topic of hot debate. There is no evidence so far that cloud seeding will be successful in non-monsoon months; also, ‘not all clouds are seedable, not all clouds will make rain’.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The chemicals commonly used in seeding the clouds include table salt, silver iodide, calcium chloride, propane and potassium iodide (not potassium nitrate).

Answer. A
Explanation: Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.
Essentially, Global Warming Potential (GWP) measures how potent a gas is as a contributor to climate change. The most commonly used metric to quantify greenhouse gas emissions is known as GWP100. This metric looks at the GWP of the greenhouse gases over 100 years. For example, methane has a GWP of 34. This means 1 ton of methane is equal to 34 tons of CO2 and therefore captures more heat per molecule compared to CO2.
However, a flaw in GWP100 measurements was assessed a few years ago by researchers based at the University of Oxford. GWP100 assumed that all greenhouse gases were stagnant in the atmosphere, meaning they remained there for centuries. What GWP100 did not account for was that methane, as a short-lived gas, was actively removed from the atmosphere relatively soon after being emitted.
While GWP100 does consider short-lived gases like methane, it does not account for removal from the atmosphere. Since methane is removed in about 12 years through a natural process, stable emissions do not increase warming after those 12 years.
Today, GWP* represents a new means of measuring carbon in the atmosphere, taking short-lived gas removal from the atmosphere into consideration. GWP* is a better means of determining if the world is on track to temperature targets, compared to GWP100. Methane should be treated a temporary pulse, rather than a constant agent of warming.
Additional information
The established metric under the 2015 Paris Agreement for measuring the global warming potential of a gas over a 100-year period is GWP100, which is the global warming potential evaluated over a 100-year timeline. It focuses on the absolute level of emissions.
GWP* was developed in 2016 by a team of researchers from Oxford University, led by two academics who argued it was more accurate than the current systems used to report national methane emissions at the international level. It was then introduced in 2018 at 24th Conference of Parties (COP24) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (held at Katowice, Poland).
GWP100 measures the warming effect of a quantity of a non-carbon dioxide (CO2) GHG, emitted at a given point in time, relative to an equal amount of CO2. On the other hand, GWP* focuses on changes in emissions over decadal timescales rather than absolute levels.

Answer. D
Explanation: The Central government has prohibited the use of four insecticides from the initial list of 27. This list includes the controversial monocrotophos (MCP). It is a broad-spectrum organophosphate insecticide with applications in agricultural crops like rice, maize, sugarcane, cotton, soybeans, groundnut and vegetables. MCP solubilizes in water readily and thus reduced sorption occurs in soil. This leads to MCP leaching into the groundwater and poses a significant threat of contamination.
Due to its toxicology and ill-effects on the health of humans, it has been banned by the European Union as well as India.
Along with monocrotophos, three other insecticides—Dicofol, Dinocap, and Methomyl—have also been banned in India recently.
Monocrotophos causes abnormality, ranging from mild to severe confusion, agitation, hypersalivation, convulsion, pulmonary failure, senescence in mammals and insects. MCP affects humans by inhibiting the activity of the acetylcholine esterase enzyme. MCP is accountable for the catalytic degradation of acetylcholine and affects the neurotransmission between neurons. In India, monocrotophos continues to be produced, used and exported. The perception that monocrotophos is cheap and necessary, have prevented the product from being taken off the market. Another cause of concern is the use of MCP for suicide attempts in the country.
Additional information:
The government of India regulates the manufacture, registration, sale, transport, distribution, use, import and export of pesticides through the Insecticides Act 1968 and the Insecticides Rules 1971.

Answer. B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis (i.e. biomass generated from primary producers through photosynthesis). But it must be noted that a considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
GPP – R = NPP
Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
Statement 2 is correct but does not explain statement 1: 50% of light from the sunlight supports the process of photosynthesis. Out of which 2-10% is captured by plants, which is absorbed through chlorophyll and utilised in photosynthesis.
The atmosphere of the earth comprises different layers having varying density and composition. The sunlight, therefore, gets either absorbed or reflected or scattered through the atmosphere.

Answer. B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Megaherbivores unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by dispersing their seeds.
By virtue of their size and varied diets, the megaherbivores such as Indian bison, sambar deer, elephant, rhinoceros etc. can clear swathes of vegetation, including invasive plants, creating opportunities for new growth. In places like Kaziranga and Manas, this “gardening” has led to a reduction in invasive species. However, in drier regions, invasive trees like Lantana camara and Prosopis juliflora have established an impenetrable fortress. Unable to break through these thorny thickets, megaherbivores turn to native plants, adding pressure on already struggling population. Even worse, some, like elephants, unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by eating on their fruits and dispersing their seeds.
Statement 2 is correct: The sculptures of elephants were skillfully crafted by tribal artisans hailing from Gudalur in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve from lantana camara, an invasive species. These elephant sculptures were brought to Chennai for display at the Tamil Nadu Global Investors Meet 2024.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Many salt-tolerant aquatic and terrestrial plants as well as epiphytes can colonize and persist in mangrove forests. Many opportunistic invaders can also invade mangrove forests during periodic reduced soil and water salinity.
The rising temperatures and sea level due to climate change are allowing mangroves to expand their ranges farther away from the equator and encroach on temperate wetlands, like salt marshes. Also, on some isolated tropical islands, such as Hawaii and Tahiti, mangroves are not native and are sometimes considered invasive species.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamyopterus biswasi) has been recently sighted again in Arunachal Pradesh after going missing for 42 years. The Namdapha flying squirrel was last described in 1981 in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh.

Statement 1 is correct: It is a rare nocturnal flying squirrel species found in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh, India.
Statement 2 is correct: It’s a critically endangered species according to the IUCN Red Data Book.
● Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022: Schedule I
● These are animals of the rodent family which have the ability of gliding.
● There are 44 biological species across the world, of which 12 species are found in India.
● These are animals of the rodent family which have the ability of gliding.
Statement 3 is incorrect: These are not capable of true flight like bats or birds, but they do engage in an impressive flight-like gliding. Flying squirrels launch themselves off tree branches and float through the air using a special membrane that extends from their front legs to their back legs.

Additional Information:
Namdapha Tiger Reserve
● It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1972,
● Namdapha Tiger Reserve was declared the country’s 15th project tiger reserve in 1983. Then in 1983 it was declared a national park and in the same year it became a tiger reserve under the Project Tiger scheme.
● Namdapha is the name of a river which is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
● The park is situated between the Dafa Bum Range and the Patkai Range of the Mishmi Hills. Which originates from Dafabam (Dafa is the name of the hill, Bam means hill top) and meets the Noa-Dehing river. This river flows in the exact north-south direction of the national park and hence it is named Namdapha.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Eurasian otters were recently discovered for the first time from Kerala.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It can be both marine and freshwater: streams, rivers, lakes, ponds and marshes. They prefer unpolluted water with a minimal human disturbance. An extremely adaptable animal, otters tolerate hot and cold climates, as well as high elevations and lowland coastal waters.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Otters are found on every continent except Australia and Antarctica. The Eurasian otter is the most widely distributed otter species, found throughout Europe, North Africa, and Asia to Japan and Indonesia.
Statement 3 is correct: Otters are carnivorous mammals in the subfamily Lutrinae. The 13 extant otter species are all semiaquatic, aquatic, or marine, with diets based on fish and invertebrates. Lutrinae is a branch of the Mustelidae family, which also includes weasels, badgers, mink, and wolverines, among other animals.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Iranian Army office on December 10, 2023, shows Iranian army officials inspecting Iranian homemade Karrar drones displayed during an inauguration ceremony in Tehran.
• The Karrar Combat Drone (KCD) is an Unmanned Combat Air Vehicle (UCAV) developed by Iran. The HESA Karrar is a jet-powered target drone manufactured by Iran Aircraft Manufacturing Industrial Company (HESA) since 2010. It has a maximum speed granted by its turbojet installation of 360 miles per hour.

Significance:
• Long-range: Capable of flying up to 1,000 kilometers (621 miles).
• High-altitude: Can reach an altitude of 49,000 feet.
• Supersonic speed: Able to fly at Mach 0.8.
• Air-to-air combat: Equipped with air-to-air missiles, such as the Shahab-e-Saqeb and Majid, for engaging enemy aircraft.
• Electronic warfare: Can carry electronic countermeasures to disrupt enemy radars and communications.
Hence, Option (b) is the correct answer.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Tamil Nadu government recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), to develop an urban cooling programme in the State. The programme is being undertaken under the framework of the ‘Cool Coalition’ and the India-Denmark Green Strategic Partnership.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a joint initiative of the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) and the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

Statement 2 is correct: Its work focuses on engaging youth for impactful environmental action at the grassroots level.
The main goal is to unite millions of youths around the world,
 To encourage their active participation in green initiatives
 and adapt to the severe impacts of climate change on their communities.
Additional Information
UNICEF
• It was established on 11 December 1946, and headquartered in New York, United States.
• President: Catherine M. Russell
• UNICEF, in full originally called the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund, now officially United Nations Children’s Fund
• It is an agency of the United Nations responsible for providing humanitarian and developmental aid to children worldwide.

Answer: D
Context: Recently, E-cigarettes as consumer products are not shown to be effective for quitting tobacco use at the population level. Instead, alarming evidence has emerged on adverse population health effects according to the World Health Organisation(WHO).
Explanation:
● Liquid for use inside an e-cigarette is called e-liquid also known as e-juice or vape juice. E-liquids contain nicotine, propylene glycol, vegetable glycerin or glycerol, Aldehyde,metals, volatile oxide substances (VEOs), Phenolic and other chemicals (including those used to create flavours) and, in some cases, water.
Hence, Option (d) is the correct answer.
Additional information
● E-cigarettes are the most common form of Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS), which are basically devices that do not burn or use tobacco leaves.
● Instead, they vaporise a solution using a battery and this vapour is then inhaled by the user.

What is the status of E-Cigarette use in India?
● In 2019, the central government informed Parliament that e-cigarettes worth USD 1,91,781 were imported in India between 2016-16 and 2018-19, mostly from China, US, Hong Kong and Germany.
● Besides this, it estimates that between 2017 and 2018, e-cigarette use saw an increase of 78% among high school students and 48% among middle school students.
● The government of India through the Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes (production, manufacture, import, export, transport, sale, distribution, storage and advertisement) Ordinance 2019 banned e-Cigarettes in India.
● Any production, manufacturing, import, etc., shall be a cognisable offence in India, punishable with an imprisonment of up to 1 year/fine up to Rs 1 lakh/both for the first offence.
● India, where 65% of the population is under 35 years of age, is one of the few countries that has completely banned the sale of e-cigarettes.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Pair 1: The Rajamannar Committee, also known as the Committee on Administrative Reorganisation, made several recommendations in 1971 aimed at improving Centre-State relations in India. Among them the most prominent recommendation was for the abolition of Article 356 and Article 357.
Pair 2: The Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended invoking Article 356 only in “very rare cases and for extreme reasons” like complete failure of constitutional machinery, internal subversion, or external aggression. It suggested emphasizing other alternatives like Governor’s reports, persuasion, and political dialogue before resorting to President’s Rule.
Pair 3: The MM Punchhi Commission Report (2010) advised that Article 355 and Article 356 of the Constitution need to beamended. Article 355 talks about the duty of the Centre to protect the state against anyexternal aggression and Article 356 talks about the implementation of President’s rule in caseof failure of the machinery of the state. The recommendation seeks to protect States’ interest by curbing centre’s misuse of powers. It specified that the Centre should rather than bringing the whole state under emergency, bring only the troubled area under its jurisdiction. The time period of an emergency should not be more than three months.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Committee of Privileges consists of 15 members in Lok Sabha (10 in case of Rajya Sabha) nominated by the Speaker (Chairman in case of Rajya Sabha). The Committee of Privileges in Lok Sabha is not chaired by the Speaker. Its Chairman is appointed by the Speaker. Similarly, in Rajya Sabha the Chairperson of the committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha from amongst the members of the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, ensuring representation from different parties, however there is no such rule which specifies the consultation with the Prime Minister and the Leader of Opposition.
Statement 3 is incorrect: No such time frame is prescribed either in the Constitution or in any other statute or in the rules of the house.
Additional Information:
The Committee of Privileges in Lok Sabha:
The Committee of Privileges is a crucial parliamentary body in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament. It safeguards the dignity, rights, and powers of the House and its members by investigating and addressing breaches of privilege.
Composition and Function:
• Members: The Committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, ensuring representation from different parties.
• Function: Its primary function is to examine every question involving a breach of privilege of the House, its members, or its committees.
• Initiation:
o By the House: Any member can raise a question of privilege, but their notice needs the Speaker’s consent.
o By the Speaker: The Speaker can also suo moto (on their own initiative) refer a matter to the Committee.
Types of Breaches of Privilege:
The Committee deals with various breaches of privilege, categorized broadly into:
• Contempt of the House: This includes acts that obstruct the functioning of the House, like causing disturbances or refusing to obey its orders of the presiding officers.
• Defamation of the House or its members: This refers to making false or derogatory statements against the House or its members.
• Interference with parliamentary work: This encompasses acts that hinder the smooth functioning of Parliament, like preventing members from attending sessions or submitting documents.
Procedure:
• The Committee examines each case presented, summoning witnesses and collecting evidence.
• It determines whether a breach of privilege has occurred and, if so, recommends appropriate action.
• This action may include reprimands, apologies, suspension from the House, or even legal proceedings in severe cases.
• Its reports are presented to the Lok Sabha for consideration and final decision.
• The Committee’s recommendations are generally accepted by the House, showcasing its crucial role in maintaining parliamentary decorum and integrity.
The Committee of Privileges in Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament, performs a crucial function similar to its Lok Sabha counterpart: protecting the dignity, rights, and powers of the House and its members. Here’s a detailed explanation of its composition, function, and significance:
Composition and Function:
• Members: Comprising 10 members nominated by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, it ensures balanced representation from different parties.
• Function: It examines every question relating to a breach of privilege referred to it by the House or the Chairman. These breaches can be against:
o The House itself: Obstruction of proceedings, disrespectful behavior, etc.
o Its members: Defamation, assault, interference with parliamentary work, etc.
o Its committees: Similar breaches as above, occurring within committee functions.
Initiating a Privilege Motion:
• By a member: Similar to Lok Sabha, members can raise questions of privilege with prior consent from the Chairman.
• By the Chairman: The Chairman can suo moto refer a matter to the Committee if they deem it necessary.
Types of Breaches of Privilege:
• Similar to Lok Sabha, they fall into broad categories like contempt of the House, defamation, interference with parliamentary work, and assault/obstruction of members.
Procedure:
• The Committee conducts a confidential investigation, summoning witnesses and examining evidence.
• It concludes whether a breach occurred and, if so, recommends appropriate action. This might include:
o Reprimands or apologies: For less severe breaches.
o Suspension from the House: For more serious cases.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Goods and Service Tax Act, 2017 (CGST Act) mandates the constitution of a Goods and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) and its Benches to fulfill a crucial role in the GST dispute resolution process.
Purpose of GSTAT:
• Specialized Appellate Authority: GSTAT acts as a dedicated forum for resolving disputes arising under the GST legislation. This helps in efficient and specialized handling of GST-related issues compared to general courts.
• Two-Tier Appeal System:
o First Appeal: Taxpayers dissatisfied with an order passed by a GST officer can first appeal to the appellate authority under the relevant state or central GST Act.
o Second Appeal: If still aggrieved, they can further appeal to the GSTAT.
• Uniformity in Dispute Resolution: GSTAT serves as a common platform for both central and state-level GST disputes. This ensures consistent interpretation and application of GST laws across the country, promoting uniformity and reducing confusion.
• Expertise and Experience: GSTAT members are expected to possess expertise in taxation and related matters. This ensures thorough and informed adjudications, leading to higher quality decisions.
Structure of GSTAT:
• National Bench: Located in New Delhi, it handles appeals from across the country.
• State Benches: Established in various states and Union Territories, these benches cater to appeals specific to their jurisdiction. As of September 14, 2023, 31 state benches have been notified.
Impact: The establishment of GSTAT is expected to bring significant benefits to taxpayers by offering:
o Faster Dispute Resolution: Compared to High Courts, appeals through GSTAT are expected to be resolved quicker, reducing pendency and facilitating business continuity.
o Reduced Litigation Costs: Specialized GSTAT proceedings may be more cost-effective than navigating through general courts.
o Enhanced Taxpayer Confidence: A robust and efficient dispute resolution mechanism strengthens taxpayer confidence in the GST regime.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Act, the Central Government will constitute, on the recommendation of the GST Council, an Appellate Tribunal known as the GSTAT.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a crucial element of the Indian Constitution, outlining a set of guidelines for the government to strive towards in creating a just and equitable society.
Listed in Part IV (Articles 36-51) of the Constitution, DPSPs are not enforceable rights like Fundamental Rights, but rather aspirational objectives for the government’s policies and actions.
They encompass a wide range of areas, including:
• Economic Policy: Right to work, living wage, equitable distribution of resources, prevention of monopolies.
• Social Welfare: Education, healthcare, social security for the elderly and disabled.
• Environment: Protection of forests and wildlife, sustainable development.
• Justice and Governance: Promotion of international peace, equal justice for all.
Despite not being enforceable, DPSP serve as moral and constitutional obligations for the government, guiding its decisions towards establishing a welfare state. They provide a framework for legislation and policy-making, influencing various laws and programs like the Right to Education Act or MNREGA. They act as a yardstick for evaluating government performance, enabling public scrutiny and discussion on issues like poverty, education, and environmental protection.
Let us see the above mentioned options:
Article 40: The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats as units of Self Government
Articles 39: The State shall in particular, direct its policies towards securing:
• Right to an adequate means of livelihood to all the citizens.
• The ownership and control of material resources shall be organised in a manner to serve the common good.
• The State shall avoid concentration of wealth in a few hands.
• Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
• The protection of the strength and health of the workers.
• Childhood and youth shall not be exploited.
Article 47: The State shall take steps to improve public health and prohibit consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs that are injurious to health.
The prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is enshrined in Article 23 of the Constitution (Fundamental Rights).
Article 23(1) Prohibits
• Traffic in human beings: This encompasses any act of buying, selling, or otherwise dealing with human beings for the purposes of exploitation or slavery.
• Begar: A specific form of forced labour, particularly prevalent in rural areas, where individuals are compelled to work without remuneration to repay debts.
• Other similar forms of forced labour: This broad category covers any situation where a person is forced to work against their will, under threat of violence, coercion, or deception.
Hence only three options are correct.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Refer to the correctly matched pairs given below:
Amendment – Provision
1. 103th – Provided reservation to EWS category
2. 104th – Extended the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies of the States.Interestingly the amendment did not extend the tenure of reservation for the Anglo-Indians.
3. 105th – Restored the power to state governments to identify Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Answer: A
Explanation: Only statement 1 is correct
Statement 1 is correct:
• Natural rubber is a native of warm humid Amazon forests.
• The Hevea brasiliensis is the main source of natural rubber, native to the Amazon river basin, and was introduced to tropical Asia and Africa by the British Government in the late 19th century.
• Agro-climatic conditions: The rubber tree grows in a wide range of agro climates and soil conditions, if well-distributed rainfall of about 200 cm is received annually.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
• Natural rubber is not naturally suited for the colder conditions in the Northeast although it is one of the largest producers of rubber in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect:
• The first rubber plantations in India were set up in 1895 on the hill slopes of Kerala.
• Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India.
• Major areas: Kottayam, Kollam, Ernakulam, Kozhikode districts produce practically all the rubber of this state.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
• The Gulf of Guinea is the northeastern most part of the tropical Atlantic Ocean from Cape Lopez in Gabon, north and west to Cape Palmas in Liberia.
• Null Island, defined as the intersection of the Equator and Prime Meridian, is in this gulf.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
• Niger River drains into Atlantic Ocean while Zambezi River drains into Indian Ocean.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
• Saada is one of the governorates of Yemen.
• It is the epicentre of Zaydism and a place of origin of the Houthi group.

Pair 2 is matched correctly:
• The Kachin area, also known as Kachin State, is a region located in northern Myanmar (Burma).
• It is one of the 14 administrative divisions of Myanmar and shares borders with China and India.
• The area is primarily inhabited by the Kachin people, an ethnic group indigenous to the region.
• The Kachin area has been characterized by ethnic tensions and armed conflicts between the Kachin Independence Army (KIA) and the Myanmar government forces.
• The KIA, which represents the interests of the Kachin people, has been fighting for greater autonomy and self-determination.
Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
• The Essequibo region is more than two-thirds of the territory of Guyana and is home to 125,000 of its 800,000 citizens.
• Location: A geographical region in the northeast of South America.
• Significance: The region also has the world’s biggest crude oil reserves per capita.
• This region has been in news due to ongoing land conflict between Guyana and Venezuela.

Answer: A
Explanation: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Statement-I is correct:
• Agra and Darjeeling are located on the same latitude, but temperature of January in Agra is 16 degree Celsius whereas it is only 4 degree Celsius in Darjeeling.
• The climate of a particular region is influenced by various factors, including latitude, altitude, distance from the sea, and geographical features such as mountains.
• In the case of Agra and Darjeeling, the primary cause of climatic difference is the difference in altitude.
Statement-II is correct and is the correct explanation for Statement-I:
• Under normal conditions, the temperature usually decreases with an increase in altitude in the troposphere at a rate of 6.5 degrees for every 1 km. This is called the normal lapse rate.
• As altitude increases, the amount of gas molecules in the air decreases—the air becomes less dense.
• Thin air exerts less pressure than air at a lower altitude.
• High-altitude locations are usually much colder than areas closer to sea level.
• This is due to the low air pressure. Air expands as it rises, and the fewer gas molecules including nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide—have fewer chances to bump into each other.
• That is why Darjeeling is colder compared to Agra.

Answer: C
Statement-I is correct:
• The South-West monsoonal winds coming from Arabian Sea splits into three branches. One of these branches directly strikes with the Western Ghats (900-1200 meters) and second one strike at the coast North of Mumbai.
• These two branches cause massive rainfalls along the Western coasts of India.
In comparison, Eastern coast of India receives lesser rainfall as compared to the Western coast.
Reason:
The Eastern Coast largely remains dry during this season (except for some parts of Utkal coasts) because:
1) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.
2) It lies in the rain-shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.
Statement-II is incorrect:
• Though both are located in the same latitude band and receive the same amount of solar radiation from the Sun, the Bay of Bengal is much warmer than the Arabian Sea.
• This factor becomes an important reason for forming of most of the tropical cyclones in Bay of Bengal as compared to the Arabian Sea.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A liquidity trap is a situation where interest rates in the economy are at very low levels and savings rates are too high. In this situation, monetary policy has no effect on interest rate or the level of income.
● Interest rate can be considered as an opportunity cost or ‘price’ of holding money balance. If the supply of money in the economy increases and people purchase bonds with this extra money, demand for bonds will go up, bond prices will rise and rate of interest will decline.
● However, if the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds.
● In that case, everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy, it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. Hence, monetary policy will be ineffective here.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives short-term loan facilities to the central and state governments to bridge a temporary mismatch in their cash flows, as laid down in terms of Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934.
The WMA mechanism to the Centre was re-introduced on April 1, 1997 after a period of four decades when the system of ad hoc treasury bills was abolished.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if required. But it must return the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate.
● If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (interest rate on overdrafts is 2 percentage points more than the repo rate).
Statement 3 is correct: The limits for Ways and Means Advances are decided by the Central government and the RBI mutually and revised periodically.
● As the evidence reveals, there is no defined process in the fixation of WMA limits. Sometimes it is quarterly, and at other times it is half-yearly.
● The RBI Annual Report stated that the WMA limits were fixed quarterly and half yearly in 2017-18 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹25,000 crore). Similarly, there were quarterly and half yearly limits for 2018-19 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹35,000 crore). However, this was reversed in 2019-20 with half-yearly estimates.
● For the second half of the financial year 2023-24 (October 2023 to March 2024), the limit for the Centre has been set at ₹50,000 crore.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Statement I is correct: A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
● Given the nature of their operations, NBFCs also carry inherent risks, including excess leverage (indebtedness) and concentrations risks.
● On an average, NBFCs in India have a higher debt-to-equity ratio compared to banks. This indicates a greater reliance on borrowed funds, potentially amplifying their vulnerability to economic downturns and rising interest rates.
● A significant portion of NBFC loans are concentrated in specific sectors like real estate, infrastructure, and microfinance. These sectors are inherently cyclical and susceptible to adverse shocks, which could impact the stability of NBFCs with high exposure.
● They are regarded as shadow banks by the Financial Stability Board.
Statement II is incorrect: The RBI has prescribed prudential norms for all the NBFCs. Prudential norms refer to the set of laws and rules designed to minimise the risks banks/financial entities assume.
● NBFCs were brought under the regulation of the Reserve Bank in 1964 by inserting Chapter III B in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
● In more recent years, regulatory measures have been motivated by the objectives of financial stability, financial inclusion and harnessing of specialised domain expertise.
● The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment) Act, 1997 made it obligatory for NBFCs to apply to the central bank for a certificate of registration (CoR).
● Based on deposit mobilisation, NBFCs are classified into two major categories: NBFCs-D (deposit taking) and NBFCs-ND (non-deposit taking).
● A conscious policy was pursued to discourage acceptance of deposits by NBFCs so that only banks accept public deposits. Hence, no new license has been given to NBFCs-D after 1997.
● NBFCs-ND were sub-divided into two categories in 2006 — Systemically Important Non- Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND-SI) and other Non-Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) based on asset size.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Revenue receipts are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable, that is, they cannot be reclaimed from the government. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
Example of tax revenues:
● Personal income tax
● Corporate tax
● Excise taxes
● Custom duties
● Wealth tax, gift tax
Example of non-tax revenues:
● Interest receipts
● Dividend and profit on investments made by the government
● Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations
● Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government
● Spectrum sale
Other receipts can be classified under capital receipts. These are those receipts which create liability or reduce financial assets of the government.
Examples:
● Loans in the form of market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank of India, commercial banks, sale of Treasury Bills
● Disinvestment proceeds
● Receipts of small savings (Post-Office savings, National Savings Certificates).

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Buyback of shares means repurchasing of shares by the company that issued them. The company uses buyback as a means to return cash to shareholders and regain ownership.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Share buyback reduces the number of shareholders of the company, as the company buys back the shares. This enhances the earnings per share to shareholders in the long run.
Earnings Per Share (EPS) = (Net Income – Preferred Dividends)/Weighted Average of Shares Outstanding
● Where, shares outstanding refers to the number of a company’s shares that are traded on the secondary market.
● Preferred dividend is the dividend payment made to the holders of preferred stock.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Following the buyback, there is often a short-term boost in share prices. The reduction in the number of outstanding shares due to the repurchase increases the earnings per share (EPS) for existing shareholders, making the stock relatively more attractive. Additionally, the buyback signals confidence from the company’s management in its future prospects, which can further instil investor confidence and drive share prices higher.
There are two types of buybacks: tender offer and open market offer. Companies can choose either of these methods to buy back shares from their shareholders.
Tender offer: The company makes an offer to buy back its shares at a particular price (offer price) at which the shareholders can tender, i.e., sell their shares.
Open-market offer: The company can buy back its shares by actively buying from sellers on the exchange. The buyback period is mentioned in the buyback offer, and it can last for months.

Answer: D
Context: PM’s departure statement ahead of his recently visits to UAE for World Climate Action Summit included a mention of LeadIT initiative and Green Credit initiative.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The LeadIT initiative was jointly launched by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
About Leadership for Industry Transition initiative/LeadIT initiative-
· It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
· The initiative gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
· Purpose: LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
● Secretariat: It is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.
● Significance: The low carbon transition of the industrial sector will not only contribute towards the reduction in required greenhouse gas emissions.
● It has several co-benefits that include increasing resilience to changes in climate, enhanced energy security, innovation, socio-economic development and job creation.
Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Denmark, Ethiopia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Republic of Korea, South Africa, Sweden, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, United States of America.

Answer: D
Context: Aviation regulatory bodies have imposed a total fine of ₹1.5 crore on IndiGo and ₹90 lakh on Mumbai airport following an incident where passengers occupied the airport apron and sat there following a flight diversion due to long delays after fog in Delhi in January 2024.
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: The BCAS monitors security of aircraft and airports. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (India).
About BCAS
● The BCAS was initially set up as a Cell in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation(DGCA) in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee constituted in the wake of the hijacking of the Indian Airlines flight on 10 September 1976.
● The role of the Cell was to coordinate, inspect, monitor and train personnel in Civil Aviation Security matters.
● The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department in April , 1987 under the
● Ministry of Civil Aviation as a sequel to the Kanishka Tragedy in June 1985 in which the whole aircraft was disintegrated due to an onboard bomb explosion by terrorists.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The DGCA monitors the safety of air travellers.
About DGCA
● The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India to regulate civil aviation in India. It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
● It investigates aviation accidents and incidents.
Other functions
● Registration of civil aircraft
● Certification of airports
● Licensing to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose
● Safety Oversight of all entities approved/ certified/ licensed under the Aircraft Rules 1937.
● Coordination of ICAO matters with all agencies, sending replies to State letters, and
taking all necessary action arising out of the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) of ICAO.
● Granting Air Operator’s Certificates to Indian carriers and regulation of air transport services operating to/from/within/over India by Indian and foreign operators, including clearance of scheduled and non-scheduled flights of such operators
● Approval of institutes engaged in flying training including simulator training, AME training, air traffic services training or any other training related with aviation, with a view to ensuring a high quality of training
● Approval to aircraft maintenance, repair, design and manufacturing organizations and their continued oversight

Answer: A
Explanation:
A report by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI) reveals that 1 in 12 hospitals worldwide could face shutdowns due to extreme weather events from climate change. In India, 9.6% of hospitals will be high-risk by 2100. Currently, 2,700 hospitals are at high risk, expected to increase to over 5,100 by the end of the century. Urgent action on fossil fuel emissions is needed to prevent disruption in emergency healthcare services. The report highlights the vulnerability of hospitals on coastlines and near rivers. Governments are urged to address the risk posed to critical healthcare infrastructure.
About the Gross Domestic Climate Risk:
The report is released by Australia-based Cross Dependency Initiative or XDI, which is a part of the climate risk group of companies quantifying the costs of climate change.
● The Gross Domestic Climate Risk analysis focuses on the extent of capital value at risk from extreme weather and climate change in states, provinces and other territories, represented by vulnerability and exposure of the built environment.
● Built environment refers to aspects of the surroundings that are built by humans to support human activity like homes and workplaces.
● It covers damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather and climate change such as flooding, forest fires, heat wave and sea level rise.
● This is the first time there has been a physical climate risk analysis focused exclusively on the built environment, comparing every state, province and territory in the world.
● The report is particularly significant for investors, as extensive built infrastructure generally overlaps with high levels of economic activity and capital value.

Highlights from the report:
● “Gross Domestic Climate Risk” assess the physical climate risk in over 2,600 states and provinces around the world in 2050.
● The more built-up a state, the greater the risk.
● The ranking was derived using modelled projections of damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather conditions such as flooding, forest fires and sea level rise.
● As per the analysis, 80 percent of the top 50 most at-risk states and provinces in 2050 are in China, the US and India.
● After China, India has the highest number of states (nine) in the top 50, which include Bihar (22nd spot), Uttar Pradesh (25), Assam (28), Rajasthan (32), Tamil Nadu (36), Maharashtra (38), Gujarat (48), Punjab (50) and Kerala (52).Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer: A
Explanation:
India congratulates UAE for joining BRICS group on this year (2024).
Statement 1 is correct: The leaders of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) countries met for the first time in St. Petersburg, Russia, on the margins of the G8 Outreach Summit in July 2006. Shortly afterwards, in September 2006, the group was formalised as BRIC during the 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, which met on the sidelines of the General Debate of the UN Assembly in New York City.
· BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement for establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the sixth BRICS summit -2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil, by the leaders. It is also known as the Fortaleza Declaration.
· Besides Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as members; the NDB has been expanded to include Egypt, UAE, Bangladesh and Uruguay.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Five new full-time members have joined the BRICS grouping— Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab. It is a strong indication of the growing authority of the association and its role in international affairs.
● Argentina was also invited but backed out at the end of December.
● Now, it has become a 10-member bloc.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the African Union becomes permanent member at the inaugural session of the two-day G-20 Summit in New Delhi.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The African Union became a full member of the G-20 on September 9, 2023 under the Indian presidency. Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the inclusion of the African bloc will enhance the effectiveness of the G-20.

● After the European Union, the African Union is the second regional bloc to join the G20.
● India had hosted the India Africa Forum Summit in 2015 and has expanded its diplomatic footprint in the continent by opening new missions in the member countries of AU.
● Apart from supporting the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member of G-20, India has also invited Nigeria, Egypt, and Mauritius as part of the ‘Guest Countries’ at the G-20 summit.

Answer. C
Explanation: Options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
Geoengineering strategies can be classified as solar radiation management (SRM) or Carbon dioxide Removal Technologies (CDR). Marine cloud brightening is a method exploited for solar radiation management (it does not involve the removal of CO2 and its storage/conversion into bio-based products etc.). Rather, marine cloud brightening harnesses natural processes, using sea spray to increase the amount of light and heat that clouds deflect from the sun, to cool and shade the coral reef below. Microscopic sea water droplets are sprayed into the air, creating a mild fog which deflects solar energy. It also seeds the clouds, increasing their capacity to deflect sunlight.

Carbon removal, also known as negative emissions strategies, includes natural solutions like relying on forests, marshes or soil to trap and store carbon, or the deployment of emerging technology to pull carbon directly from the air or ocean, and then, storing it long term. There is a swelling interest in exploring ocean-based CDR technologies.
Proposals include massively boosting the production of seaweeds like kelp (algae), which absorb carbon during photosynthesis, before sinking it into the deep sea or turning it into a climate-friendly seafood or bioplastic.
Others involve pumping surface water down to the deep ocean where increased pressure and solubility allow more carbon to be stored. Or alternatively, pushing cold, nutrient-rich water up from the deep to spur the growth of plankton that absorb carbon before sinking to deeper water when they die.
A related strategy is to fertilize the ocean with iron or nitrogen to trigger large plankton blooms.
Scrubbing carbon from the air or stripping it from ocean water before injecting it into the deep sea or seabed, or boosting the ocean’s alkalinity and ability to absorb carbon by loading it with minerals like basalt or carbonate are also being explored.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1 is incorrect: Ring-tailed lemur is an endangered species of primate which is endemic to the island of Madagascar. It is not naturally found in India. rather, this exotic species can be spotted in India only in some zoos Mysuru zoo, etc.).

Option 2 is correct: Hog deer is naturally found in India. Two sub-species of hog deer have been reported from its range. The western race is distributed from Pakistan and the terai grasslands (along the Himalayan foothills, from Punjab to Arunachal Pradesh), while the eastern race of hog deer is found in Thailand, Indo-China, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam. The western limit of hog deer in India is in Manipur.
The hog deer or Pada is an endangered species in the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Option 3 is correct: Hoolock gibbon is naturally found in India. it is endemic to the Northeastern states of India.
Gibbons, the smallest and fastest of all apes, live in tropical and subtropical forests in the southeastern part of Asia. The hoolock gibbon, unique to India’s northeast, is one of 20 species of gibbons on Earth. Over the decades, zoologists thought the northeast housed two species of the ape — the eastern hoolock gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) found in a specific region of Arunachal Pradesh and the western hoolock gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) distributed elsewhere in the northeast. A study led by Hyderabad-based Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in 2021 proved through genetic analysis that there is only one species of ape (Hoolock Gibbon) in India.

Option 4 is correct: Markhor is naturally found in India in the region of Kashmir only. The markhor Capra falconeri, is considered the world’s largest mountain goat.
Markhor in Persian means ‘snake-killer’, named so for its mythical power of killing snakes with its horns and eating them. However, like other goats, the markhor is actually a herbivore that grazes on grass and leaves on mountain cliffs and slopes. Scattered herds are found across the scrublands, open woodlands and mountains of central Asia, Karakoram and the Himalaya in Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and northern India. Here, they are endemic only to Kashmir and found nowhere else in the country.
Out of the three Markhor subspecies recognised by the IUCN, the astor markhor or flare-horned markhor Capra falconeri falconeri is found in the Kashmir region. It is locally also recognised by another scientific name, Capra falconeri cashmiriensis or Kashmir markhor.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The groundwater quality assessment in the country is under the domain of the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) and not the Central Water Commission (CWC). The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) has 16 Regional Chemical Laboratories to carry out chemical analysis of water samples. The Chemical laboratories are well equipped with sophisticated instruments like ICP-MS, Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer (AAS) etc. Ground water sampling for quality monitoring is done once a year during the pre-monsoon period. In addition to it, ground water samples are also collected and analysed as a part of other scientific studies.
It must be noted that the CWC (presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation) is entrusted with the responsibility for water quality assessment of rivers in the country. The CWC assesses the quality of river water based on the physical parameters such as temperature, colour, odour electrical conductivity, total dissolved solids, pH and dissolved oxygen of river water.

Statement 2 is correct: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) regulates ground water development and management by issuing ‘No Objection Certificates’ (NOC) for ground water extraction to industries or infrastructure projects or Mining Projects etc. The Applicants who seek permission for Water Extraction may obtain services of the accredited individuals or institutions for conducting a hydrogeological survey and prepare a report on the ground water scenario and the impact of the proposed extraction on the ground water reservoir, which is mandatory for issuance of No Objection Certificate (NOC) from Central Ground Water Authority.
The CGWA is a statutory body established under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986. It has been granted the powers to, amongst others, regulate and control, manage and develop ground water in the entire country and to issue necessary directions for this purpose.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The 67th meeting of the International Whaling Commission (IWC-67) adopted the Florianopolis Declaration, which affirms the continued moratorium against commercial whaling, and a Schedule amendment on aboriginal subsistence whaling.
In the non-binding Florianopolis Declaration, the IWC agrees that the Commission’s role in the 21st century includes its responsibility to ensure the recovery of cetacean populations to their preindustrial levels, and reaffirms the importance of maintaining the moratorium on commercial whaling. The Declaration acknowledges the abundance of contemporary non-lethal cetacean research methods and that the use of lethal research methods is unnecessary, and seeks to ensure that aboriginal subsistence whaling for the benefit of indigenous communities meets the Commission’s management and conservation objectives, taking into account the safety of hunters and the welfare of cetaceans.

Answer: D
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
The following industries are listed under Orange category industry by the CPCB. Orange category industries have a pollution index ranging between 41 and 59. They are relatively less polluting as compared to the Red industries, but relatively more polluting than the green and white industries.


Both the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) have the authority to classify industries based on colour code into Red, Orange, Green and White. The categorisation takes into account the Pollution Index which assesses the overall polluting level of any industry. It ranks the industries on a scale ranging from 0 to 100; the increasing number on Pollution Index indicates the higher polluting potential of that industry. Red category industries generate the highest level of pollution, while White category industries generate negligible or no pollution. Each category has its own set of regulations that the industries must comply with.

Answer: A
Explanation
Stem cells are special human cells that can develop into many different types of cells, from muscle cells to brain cells. Stem cells can repair damaged cells. These cells also have strong healing power.
• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Totipotent stem cells are a type of embryonic stem cells. These stem cells can differentiate into all possible types of stem cells.
• Pair 2 is correctly matched: These are also known as Mesenchymal stem cells. These cells are mainly formed from the connective tissues surrounding other tissues and organs, known as the stroma. There are different stroma stem cells that are used to treat various diseases as they have been developed from different tissues of the human body.
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Pluripotent stem cells can be either embryonic or adult stem cells. They further develop into different types of cells which make the human body. It is to be noted that there is a certain similarity between totipotent and pluripotent embryonic stem cells in terms of differentiation. However, pluripotent stem cells are not as versatile as totipotent stem cells as totipotent cells have the potential to divide until they create an entire organism. Pluripotent stem cells can divide into most, or all, cell types in an organism, but cannot develop into an entire organism on their own.

Answer: B
Explanation
Satellite Internet access or Satellite Broadband is Internet access provided through communication satellites. Modern consumer grade satellite Internet service is typically provided to individual users through geostationary satellites. Starlink (from SpaceX) has recently become available, and Project Kuiper (from Amazon) will also offer satellite internet service.
Statement 1 is correct: For people who live in remote rural areas, satellite internet is a good option. This is because of the high cost of infrastructure in laying optical fiber cable and other ground based infrastructure which is unviable in remote areas given low-population density.
Statement 2 is correct but is not the correct explanation of statement 1: Satellite internet has data limits and slower speeds than optical fiber-based internet. Satellite internet speeds range from 12–100 Mbps, which is enough speed for common online activities like emailing, browsing, and online schooling whereas optical fiber-based internet can offer speed upto 1000 Gbps and even more.

Answer: A
Explanation
A fuel cell can be defined as an electrochemical cell that generates electrical energy from fuel via an electrochemical reaction. Fuel cells require a continuous supply of fuel and an oxidizing agent (generally oxygen) to sustain the reactions that generate the electricity. Therefore, these cells can constantly generate electricity until the supply of fuel and oxygen is cut off.
Types of Fuel cells:
1. Polymer Electrolyte Membrane Fuel Cells
2. Direct Methanol Fuel Cells
3. Alkaline Fuel Cells
4. Phosphoric Acid Fuel Cells
5. Molten Carbonate Fuel Cells
6. Solid Oxide Fuel Cells
7. Reversible Fuel Cells
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The operating temperatures of Solid Oxide Fuell cells are very high. It lies between 800 and 1000 degrees Celsius. Thus, they are limited to stationary applications due to their high operating temperatures.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In alkaline fuel cells, an aqueous alkaline solution is used to saturate a porous matrix, which is in turn used to separate the electrodes. This was the fuel cell which was used as the primary source of electricity in the Apollo space program.
• Statement 3 is correct: A regenerative fuel cell or reverse fuel cell (RFC) is a fuel cell run in reverse mode, which consumes electricity to produce hydrogen and oxygen at different electrodes.

Answer: C
Explanation
• Statement 1 is correct: Pink Himalayan salt is harvested by hand from the Khewra Salt Mine in Pakistan. It’s minimally processed to provide a natural alternative to regular table salt. The natural harvesting process allows pink Himalayan salt to possess many other minerals and trace elements that are not found in regular table salt. Thus, it is a healthier alternative to regular table salt.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Pink Himalayan salt contains slightly less sodium chloride than regular table salt. It is not the case that pink Himalayan salt is potassium-based salt. A teaspoon of pink Himalayan salt has about 1,680 milligrams of sodium, according to the USDA.

Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: XPoSat is the world’s second satellite-based mission dedicated to making X-ray polarimetry measurements. In 2021, NASA launched Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE). It has been designed to operate and perform X-ray polarisation measurements within the soft X-ray band (2 to 8 keV energy band).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The satellite will be placed in the Low Earth Orbit at 650km above the surface of the Earth to conduct various space-based experiments. Geosynchronous orbit is roughly 36000km above the surface of the Earth.
Statement 3 is correct: XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions.
What is X-ray polarisation?
X-rays comprise electric and magnetic waves that are constantly in motion. Being sinusoidal waves, they do not follow a patterned direction of motion. Whereas, a polarised X-ray is both organised and has two waves vibrating in the same direction.
The emission mechanism from various astronomical sources such as black holes, neutron stars, active galactic nuclei, pulsar wind nebulae etc. originates from complex physical processes and are challenging to understand.
While the spectroscopic and timing information by various space-based observatories provide a wealth of information, the exact nature of the emission from such sources still poses deeper challenges to astronomers.
The polarimetry measurements add two more dimensions to our understanding, the degree of polarization and the angle of polarization and thus is an excellent diagnostic tool to understand the emission processes from astronomical sources.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair 1 is matched correctly:
• The Jenin refugee camp, also known as the Jenin camp, is a Palestinian refugee camp located in the city of Jenin in the northern West Bank.
• It was established in 1953 to house Palestinians who fled or were expelled from their homes by Israeli forces during and in the aftermath of the 1948 Palestine War.
• The camp has been in news due to a military operation launched by Israeli defence forces against armed rebels.
Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
• Adre refugee camp is located in Chad near its border with Sudan.
• It is home to thousands of refugees who had fled Darfur to neighbouring Chad to escape fighting and ethnically targeted attacks in Sudan’s western region.
Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
Kutupalong refugee camp: It is located in Ukhia, Cox’s Bazar, Bangladesh, and is inhabited mostly by Rohingya refugees who fled from ethnic and religious persecution in neighboring Myanmar.
Pair 4 is matched incorrectly:
• Ain al-Hilweh is the largest Palestinian refugee camp in Lebanon.
• It had a population of over 70,000 Palestinian refugees but swelled to nearly 120,000, as a result of influx of refugees from Syria since 2011.

Answer: C
Explanation:
• In India compact or clustered village of a few hundred houses is a rather universal feature, particularly in the northern plains. However, there are several areas, which have other forms of rural settlements.
• There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India.
• These include:
 physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water
 cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion
 security factors – defence against thefts and robberies

Answer: B
Explanation: Only sex indicators and Age-groups are displayed in population pyramid.
About population pyramid-
• A population pyramid, also called an age-sex pyramid, is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in a population which normally forms a pyramid.
• It typically consists of two back-to-back bar graphs, with the population plotted on the X-axis and age on the Y-axis, one showing the number of males and one showing females in a particular population in five-year age groups.
• Males are conventionally shown on the left and females on the right, and they may be measured by a raw number or as a percentage of the total population.
• The age–sex structure reflects the demographic and socioeconomic history of a population over a period of time and, even their prospects for the future.
• It is the result of various factors, such as fertility, mortality, and migration.
Three main types of age-sex pyramids have been identified:
I. “Stationary” pyramid or constant population pyramid
o A pyramid can be described as stationary if the percentages of population (age and sex) remain approximately constant over time.
o In a stationary population, the numbers of births and death roughly balance one another.
II. “Expansive” pyramid or Expanding population pyramid
o A population pyramid that is very wide at the younger ages, characteristic of countries with a high birth rate and perhaps low life expectancy therefore leading to high death rate.
o The population is said to be fast-growing, and the size of each birth cohort increases each year.
III. “Constrictive” pyramid or Declining population
o A population pyramid that is narrowed at the bottom.
o The population is generally older on average, as the country has long life expectancy, a low death rate, but also a low birth rate.
o This may suggest that in future there may be a high dependency ratio due to reducing numbers at working ages. This is a typical pattern for a very developed country, with a high level of education, easy access to and incentive to use birth control, good health care, and few negative environmental factors

Answer: A
Explanation: Only Pair 2 is matched correctly
Context of the question:
• The Mines Ministry, through the state-owned Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL), has entered into a draft exploration and development agreement with Argentinan miner CAMYEN for possible acquisition and development of five-odd lithium blocks.
Important lithium mines in the world:
In Australia:
• Greenbushes, Western Australia
• Pilgangoora, Western Australia
• Mt Cattlin, Western Australia
• Mount Marion, Western Australia
In Brazil:
• Mibra, Minas Gerais, Brazil
In Chile:
• Salar de Atacama, Antofagasta, Chile
Argentina:
• Pozuelos-Pastos Grandes lithium salt lake, Argentina
In Bolivia:
• Salr De Vyuni, Bolivia
Additional Information:
Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL):
• Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) is a joint venture company set up with the participation of three Central Public Sector Enterprises namely-
 National Aluminium Company Ltd. (NALCO)
 Hindustan Copper Ltd. (HCL) and
 Mineral Exploration Company Ltd. (MECL).
• The equity participation between NALCO, HCL and MECL is in the ratio of 40:30:30.
• Objective of constituting KABIL is to ensure a consistent supply of critical and strategic minerals to Indian domestic market.
Lithium Triangle:
 Lithium triangle is made up of Argentina, Chile, and Bolivia—containing roughly half the world’s known lithium.

Answer: C
Explanation:
About Derecho:
• A derecho, is “a widespread, long-lived, straightline windstorm” that is associated with a “band of rapidly moving showers or thunderstorms”.
• Being a warm-weather phenomenon, a derecho generally – not always – occurs during summertime beginning May, with most hitting in June and July.
• However, they are a rare occurrence as compared to other storm systems like tornadoes or hurricanes.
• For a storm to be classified as a derecho it must have wind gusts of at least 93 km per hour; wind damage swath extending more than 400 km.

Where do derechos usually occur?
• They mostly occur across central and eastern parts of the United States.
• Derechos have also been documented elsewhere across the world.
• In 2010, Russia witnessed its first documented derecho.
• They have also swept through Germany and Finland, and more recently in Bulgaria and Poland.

Answer: A
Explanation: Statement A is correct.
The Wednesbury principle, though not directly enshrined in the Indian Constitution, serves as a fundamental principle for judicial review of administrative actions, ensuring their reasonableness and non-arbitrariness. The Wednesbury principle has been adopted by Indian courts as a vital tool for reviewing the decisions of public authorities. It helps prevent arbitrary and unreasonable decisions by setting a baseline standard of logic and fairness.
While the Wednesbury principle plays a crucial role in preventing arbitrariness in administrative decision-making, it doesn’t directly guarantee fundamental rights. Its primary function is to ensure reasonableness and fairness in administrative actions, which indirectly upholds the principles enshrined in the Constitution. It acts as a check on unreasonable and perverse decisions but does not apply only to the violation of the fundamental rights.
The Wednesbury principle applies to all administrative decisions, regardless of the level of government or authority involved. Whether it’s a local panchayat or a central government ministry, any exercise of administrative power is subject to scrutiny under the principle of reasonableness. It sets a minimum standard for rationality; it protects citizens from arbitrary decisions and promotes good governance within the public sphere.
Origins of the Wednesbury Principle:
The Wednesbury Principle emerged from the 1948 English case Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v Wednesbury Corporation. In this case, the Court of Appeal established the principle that courts can only intervene in administrative decisions if they are “so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever come to it.” This set a crucial precedent for judicial review of administrative actions, emphasizing a balance between respecting public authority autonomy and ensuring responsible decision-making.
The Wednesbury Principle didn’t directly enter Indian jurisprudence through a singular case but rather through a gradual process of judicial borrowing and adaptation. Today, the Wednesbury Principle remains a core concept in Indian administrative law. It serves as a crucial tool for ensuring the reasonableness and fairness of administrative decisions, protecting citizens from arbitrary or irrational governmental actions.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The concept of liberty in India is depicted through the framework given as the question statement.
• Freedom of an individual (X): This refers to an Indian citizenwho enjoys fundamental rights and freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution.
• Obstacle (A): These are the restrictions, limitations, or hindrances that can impede an individual’s freedom. They can come from various sources, including the state, societal norms, or even economic constraints.
• To do (B): This represents the desired action, thought, or expression that the individual seeks to pursue freely. It encompasses a wide range of activities, from personal decisions like choosing one’s religion to broader societal pursuits like political participation.
This framework plays out within the context of the Indian Constitution and in specific cases:
Constitutional Provisions:
• Part III of the Constitution: This section guarantees fundamental rights, including those relevant to liberty, such as:
o Article 19: Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, and right to reside and settle in any part of India.
o Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty.
o Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
• Right to Privacy: Though not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has recognized it as an inherent part of Article 21, protecting individuals from unwarranted state intrusion into their personal lives.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Money Bill can only be tabled in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament, and not in the Rajya Sabha, the upper house. According tothe Constitution of India, at the Union level, only in the Lok Sabha Money Billscan be introduced that too on the recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on Money Bills, but it cannot reject or amend the Money Bill.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker of Lok Sabha holds the final authority to decide on whether a bill falls under the category of a Money Bill in the Indian Parliament. Article 110(3) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that “If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.” The Speaker does not consult with the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha before certifying a Bill as Money Bill.
Statement 3 is correct: A Private Member can introduce a Money Bill as neither the Constitution, any statutes nor any rules of the Lok Sabha prevent such an introduction. If the previous recommendation of the President is obtained, then the member can introduce the Money Bill. But as the President acts on the aid and advice of the CoMs, it is highly unlikely that he gives previous recommendation for the introduction of a Private Member Money Bill.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2023, a 5-Judge Constitution Bench in Kaushal Kishor caseheld that the grounds to restrict Freedom of Speech under Article 19(2) are limited. The Bench held that the restrictions under Article 19(2) protect individuals and sections of society, prevent contempt of Court, and protect the security of the country. As these restrictions cover all necessary aspects, any restrictions beyond these are unconstitutional.
Statement 2 is correct: As per the Kaushal Kishor Judgment, a fundamental right under Article 19/21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.
The original thinking of the apex court that the fundamental rights can be enforced only against the State, changed over a period of time. The reason for this change of stance is attributed to the change in the understanding as to what role is being performed. Initially, only government actors were bound by these rights and individuals could only seek legal remedies against them for violations. This thinking progressively changed, expanding the scope of entities subject to these rights and included directly controlled by the state, like public bodies or agencies. Later, the scope broadened to encompass entities with close ties to the government, even if not strictly under its control. Furthermore, entities not directly controlled by the state could still be subject to fundamental rights if they possessed significant government-like powers or functions.
Now the Court is focused on the nature of control the state exercises over an entity, even if not direct, as a factor in determining its accountability for respecting fundamental rights. Also, the court seems to emphasize the nature of the duties and functions performed by an entity as the key factor in determining whether it is subject to fundamental rights. This suggests a functional approach, focusing on the potential for harm to individual rights rather than the strict legal relationship with the state.
This evolution reflects a growing recognition that individual rights can be infringed upon not just by the state itself, but also by private entities acting with significant state-like powers or control. This expands the potential for legal redress and strengthens the protection of fundamental rights.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Entry 9 of List I (the Union List)of the Seventh Schedule, Parliament has the exclusive power to enact a law for preventive detention for the reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs, or security of India.
Under Entry 3 of List III (‘Concurrent List’) of the Seventh Schedule, both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact such laws for the reasons related to the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community and security of state.
Statement 2 is incorrect:Article 22(4) of the Constitution of India deals with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases and says “No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless- (a) an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a high court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention.”
However, the Parliament can also pass a law which allows for persons to be detained for longer than three months without an Advisory Board hearing (Article 22(7)of the Constitution of India).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The states have power to make laws on preventive detention on matters in Concurrent List. There are no such provisions for states making rules under parliamentary statutes dealing with preventive detention. In fact, when states have power to make laws on preventive detention, the need to make rules under parliamentary statutes does not arise.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Ashoka’s private beliefs and the socio-political needs of the contemporary situation were responsible for the formulation of the policy of Dhamma.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The policy of Dhamma was not the policy of a heretic but a system of beliefs created out of different religious faiths. Ashoka’s dhamma was not anti Brahamanical in nature. Ashoka’s creation of the institution of the Dhammamahamattas convincingly proves that Ashoka’s Dhamma did not favour any particular religious doctrine. Had that been the case, then there would have been no need for such an office, as Ashoka could have utilized the organisation of Samgha to propagate Dhamma.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Ashoka’s Dhamma was not a new religion and he did not insist that his subjects convert to it. It was not a new form of political philosophy either. Dharma is the Sanskrit word for “dhamma.” Dhamma was a way of life enshrined in a code of behaviour and a set of ideals that he advised his subjects to follow to live in peace and prosperity.
Additional information:
• The practice of Dhamma, which became the foundation of his generous and tolerant administration. Ashoka’s Dhamma was based on the ten principles espoused by Lord Buddha.
• These ten principles are:
1) To be liberal while avoiding egoism.
2) To uphold a high moral standard.
3) To be willing to put one’s own pleasure aside for the sake of the subjects’ well-being.
4) To be truthful and uphold total integrity.
5) To be gentle and kind.
6) To live a humble life to inspire the subjects.
7) To be free of all forms of hatred.
8) To practise non-violence.
9) To develop patience.
10) Respect for the public’s viewpoint to create peace and concord.
• He propagated these Ashoka’s Dhamma ideals through the issuance of 14 edicts. He disseminated all of these edicts throughout his realm during his reign.
• Ashoka entrusted Dhamma Mahamatras with the task of teaching the Dhamma to the masses. They were even deployed to spread it in other countries.

Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the Tamil legends, there were three Sangams (Academy of Tamil poets) held in the ancient South India popularly called Muchchangam.
Given below are the correctly matched pairs:
Tamil Sangam – Associated Places
1) First Sangam – Madurai
2) Second Sangam – Kapadapuram
3) Third Sangam – Madurai
Additional information:
• Sangam Age is the period from the 3rd century BC to the 3rd century AD in south India.
• There were 3 Sangams conducted in ancient South India called Muchchangam, Tamil legends say.
• These Sangams prospered under the royal patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai.
• Three dynasties ruled during the Sangam Age – the Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas.
• The key source of evidence about these kingdoms is outlined from the literary references of the Sangam Period.
The following are the sources of Sangam Age:
• Sangam Literature – It is a major source that mentions about Sangam Age
• The Greek Authors including Megasthenes, Pliny etc. mentioned the trade contacts between South India and the West.
• Tamil kingdoms are mentioned in Ashokan edicts.
• Adhichanallur excavations brought to surface articles depicting the life of the Sangam Period.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Law of primogeniture is not among one of the reasons for the decline of Delhi Sultanate. No clear and well-defined law of succession developed in the Sultanate. Hereditary principle was accepted ‘but not adhered to invariably. There was no rule of law of primogeniture in Delhi Sultanate that only the eldest son would succeed.
Reasons for decline of Delhi sultanate:
• Autocratic nature of Delhi Sultanate: The Delhi Sultanate was a theocratic state with an administration based on Islamic principles.
• Emergence of independent political centre: There was emergence of autonomous and independent political centres in different regions which lead to decline of Delhi Sultanate.
• Change of nature of iqta from Non-permanent to Permanent: Initially, the iqta system served the central authority and its elements of transfer and non-permanence ensured the Sultan’s power. But gradual disappearance of these principles, especially during Feroz Tughluq’s rule, paved the way for the steady dissipation of the state’s authority. The Iqta system was a unique type of land distribution and administrative system introduced during the reign of Iltutmish. In the Iqta system the lands of the Delhi Sultanate were divided into several large and small tracts called Iqta and assigned these Iqtas to the Sultan’s soldiers, officers and nobles.
Additional information:
• The Delhi Sultanate was an Islamic empire based in Delhi that stretched over large parts of the Indian subcontinent for 320 years (1206–1526). Five dynasties ruled over the Delhi Sultanate sequentially: the Mamluk dynasty (1206–1290), the Khalji dynasty (1290–1320), the Tughlaq dynasty (1320–1414), the Sayyid dynasty (1414–1451), and the Lodi dynasty (1451–1526). It covered large swathes of territory in modern-day India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh as well as some parts of southern Nepal.
• The effective administrative system under the Delhi Sultanate made a great impact on the Indian provincial kingdoms and later on the Mughal administrative system. At its peak, the Delhi Sultanate controlled regions as far south as Madurai.
• There were many departments and officials who helped the Sultan in administration. The Naib was the most influential post and virtually enjoyed all the powers of the Sultan. He had control over all the other departments.
• The post of Wazir was next to the Naib and he headed the finance department known as the Diwan-i-Wizarat. An Auditor-General for examining expenditure and an Accountant General for checking income worked under the Wazir. The period of wazir-ship of Feroz Shah Tughlaq Khan-i-Jahan is generally considered as the high watermark period of the Wazir’s influences.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Excessive austerities and self-mortification was one of the elements of the way of life of Chishti Silsila.
Statement 2 is correct: They preferred to remain aloof from state politics and shunned the company of rulers and nobles.
Additional information:
• Sufism is a mystical form of Islam, a school of practice that focuses on the spiritual search for God and shuns materialism.
• It is a form of Islamic mysticism which stresses on asceticism. There is a lot of emphasis on devotion towards God.
• In Sufism, self-discipline is considered an essential condition to gain knowledge of God by sense of perception.
• The Chishti Silsilah is an order or school, within Sunni Islam’s mystic Sufi tradition.
• The Chishti Order is noted for emphasising love, tolerance, and openness in its teachings. It originated about 930 AD.
• The Chishti order was founded by Khwaja Muinuddin Chisht and takes its name from the Afghan hamlet of Chisht, which lies thirty miles from the current city of Herat.
• The Chishtis led a simple, austere life and conversed with people in Hindawi, their local dialect.
• They were hardly interested in effecting conversions, though later on, many families and groups attributed their conversions to the “good wishes” of these saints.
• These Sufi saints made themselves popular by adopting musical recitations called sama, to create a mood of nearness to God.