REVIVING VANISHING ISLANDS: TAMIL NADU’S COASTAL RESTORATION SUCCESS STORY

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Tamil Nadu’s commitment to environmental conservation shines through its successful efforts to save Vaan Island in the Gulf of Mannar, the country’s first marine biosphere.

EXPLANATION:

  • The government’s collaboration with marine scientists has not only rescued Vaan Island but also set the stage for the restoration of another imperiled island, Kariyachalli.
  • This initiative, part of the Tamil Nadu Coastal Restoration Mission, exemplifies the state’s dedication to preserving marine biodiversity and safeguarding coastal ecosystems.

Rescuing Vaan Island:

  • Vaan Island, threatened by soil erosion from rampant coral mining and rising sea levels due to climate change, was on the brink of submersion.
  • Through a strategic intervention, over 10,000 artificial reef modules were deployed on the ocean floor.
  • These modules, meticulously designed to dissipate wave energy and encourage sediment deposition, contributed to the island’s resurgence.
  • From a diminished state, Vaan Island expanded to 3.79 hectares during low tide and 1.71 hectares during high tide in September 2023, showcasing the success of the restoration project.

Government’s Resolve for Kariyachalli:

  • Buoyed by the success of the Vaan Island restoration, the Tamil Nadu government has earmarked ₹50 crore for the restoration of Kariyachalli, the fourth island on the Thoothukudi side.
  • This proactive step is in line with the predictions that both Kariyachalli and Kasuwari Islands would sink by 2035 without intervention.
  • The groundwork has been completed, and discussions with the World Bank are underway.
  • The restoration, scheduled for the 2024-25 fiscal year, is expected to take up to three years.

Global Tender and Collaboration:

  • Similar to the Vaan Island project, global tenders will be floated for the restoration of Kariyachalli.
  • The involvement of the World Bank emphasizes the global significance of preserving these islands.
  • The collaborative approach, encompassing international agencies, reflects a shared responsibility for marine conservation.

Challenges of Coral Mining:

  • The Gulf of Mannar, hosting 21 low-lying uninhabited coral-reef islands, faced challenges from coral mining for over a century.
  • The exploitation of boulders and branching coral species for construction and industrial purposes led to severe erosion, submersion of islands, and a decline in the area of several islands.

Scientific Solutions and Artificial Reef Deployment:

  • In response to the environmental degradation, the Tamil Nadu government and scientists implemented scientific solutions.
  • The deployment of artificial reef modules, carefully designed based on bathymetry and wave dynamic studies, played a pivotal role.
  • These modules, constructed with ferro-cement and steel reinforcement, not only stabilized the island but also fostered biodiversity and enhanced fishery production.

Success Metrics and Biodiversity Enhancement:

  • The artificial reef modules, numbering 10,600, were strategically placed, resulting in increased island size and changes in bathymetry.
  • The success of the restoration is evident in the shallowing of waters around the spit, indicating exposure of more land in the future.
  • Furthermore, the artificial reef sites, protected within the Marine Park, have become havens for coral recruits, supporting over 37 species and contributing to the stabilization of the island.

Hope for Coastal Ecosystem Restoration:

  • The restoration of Vaan Island stands as a beacon of hope in the changing climatic scenario.
  • In the face of various environmental threats, this successful model offers optimism for coastal ecosystem restoration.
  • The protection of coasts, conservation of biodiversity, and support for the livelihoods of dependent fisherfolk are integral to the mission’s overarching goals.

Conclusion:

  • Tamil Nadu’s proactive measures in island restoration underscore the imperative of safeguarding marine ecosystems.
  • As the state gears up to rescue Kariyachalli, it reinforces the commitment to sustainable environmental practices, offering a blueprint for coastal restoration initiatives globally.
  • The success of Vaan Island serves as a testament to the synergy between government initiatives, scientific expertise, and international collaboration in the pursuit of ecological preservation.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tn-pioneers-a-model-for-saving-the-sinking-islands-in-the-gulf-of-mannar/article67819176.ece




WAYANAD WILDLIFE SANCTUARY: A VITAL REFUGE FOR VULTURES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: As vulture populations across the country face a worrisome decline, the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) emerges as a crucial haven for these avian species. Recent findings from the first-ever tri-State synchronised vulture survey underscore the significance of WWS, the sole protected area in Kerala nurturing vulture populations.

EXPLANATION:

  • The survey, spanning Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, revealed a total of 320 individual vultures across seven protected areas.
  • Notably, WWS accounted for 51 individual vultures, affirming its pivotal role in vulture conservation efforts.

Diverse Vulture Species in WWS:

  • Among the 320 vultures observed, the majority were white-rumped vultures (217), followed by long-billed (47), Red-headed (50), Egyptian (4), and Himalayan griffons (2).
  • The sighting of Himalayan griffons, exclusively reported in WWS, highlights the sanctuary’s unique contribution to vulture biodiversity.

Vulture Counts and Camp Sightings:

  • The survey marked a significant improvement in vulture sightings, with all 12 camps in WWS recording vulture observations.
  • In contrast, the previous survey showed vulture sightings in only nine out of the 12 camps.
  • The overall vulture count in Wayanad district rose from 46 in the last survey to 51 this time.

Camp-Specific Data:

  • Vettathgor Camp:
    • Notably, Vettathgor camp in South Wayanad Division, situated outside the sanctuary area, reported sightings of two vulture species – white-rumped and red-headed.
    • This diversity reinforces the importance of surrounding regions in supporting vulture populations.
  • Red-headed Vultures:
    • The sanctuary witnessed an increase in individual red-headed vultures, rising from seven in the previous survey to 16.
    • This surge suggests positive conservation efforts within WWS.

  • White-rumped Vultures:
    • Although the count dropped slightly from 37 to 31, the presence of 31 white-rumped vultures reaffirms the sanctuary’s status as a significant habitat for this species.

  • Long-Billed Vultures:
    • The survey recorded an increase in long-billed vulture sightings, from one in the last survey to two, signifying positive trends in their population within the sanctuary.

  • Himalayan Griffon Sightings:
    • The survey documented the sighting of two Himalayan griffon vultures, a notable addition compared to the zero sightings in the previous survey.
    • This discovery adds a layer of uniqueness to WWS in terms of vulture biodiversity.

Conservation Implications:

  • WWS’s role as a refuge for vultures holds broader implications for biodiversity conservation.
  • The sanctuary’s success in fostering diverse vulture species accentuates the need for continued conservation efforts, both within the sanctuary and in the surrounding areas.

Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS):

  • Located in Kerala, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It was established in 1973.
    • Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first from India to be included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (designated in 2012).
    • Other wildlife parks within the Reserve are: Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley.
  • Spread over 344.44 sq km, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is contiguous to the tiger reserves of Nagerhole and Bandipur of Karnataka and Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.
  • Kabini river (a tributary of Cauvery river) flows through the sanctuary.
  • The forest types include South Indian Moist Deciduous forests, West coast semi-evergreen forests and plantations of teak, eucalyptus and Grewelia.
  • Elephant, Gaur, Tiger, Panther,Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Wild boar, Sloth bear, Nilgiri langur, Bonnet macaque, Common langur, Wild dog, common otter, Malabar giant squirrel etc are the major mammals.

Conclusion:

  • The findings from the tri-State vulture survey underscore the critical role played by Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary in preserving and nurturing vulture populations.
  • As vultures face numerous threats globally, the sanctuary’s success becomes a beacon of hope, emphasizing the importance of sustained conservation measures and regional collaboration in safeguarding avian biodiversity.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wayanad-wildlife-sanctuary-offers-a-safe-haven-for-vultures/article67808122.ece




MICROPLASTICS IN NILE RIVER’S TILAPIA: A GROWING THREAT TO HUMAN HEALTH AND ECOSYSTEMS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Nile River, a vital freshwater system in Africa, is facing a concerning environmental challenge – the presence of microplastics in its iconic tilapia fish.

EXPLANATION:

  • This issue poses threats to aquatic ecosystems.
  • It also has direct implications for human health, as the fish is a staple in the diets of millions residing in the Nile basin.
  • Tilapia’ has emerged to be one of the most productive and internationally traded food fish in the world.
  • The culture of tilapia has become commercially popular in many parts of the world and fishery experts have dubbed the tilapia as “aquatic chicken” due to its quick growth and low maintenance cultivation.
  • Today, if any fish could be named a global fish, no better name can be thought of than Tilapia.

Scope of the Nile River and Pollution Concerns:

  • With around 300 million people relying on the Nile for agriculture and fishing across 11 countries, the river’s pollution is of paramount concern.
  • Like many global rivers, the Nile is grappling with plastic debris, with recent studies revealing the prevalence of microplastics, tiny particles resulting from the breakdown of larger plastic items.

Microplastics and Global Pollution Patterns:

  • Microplastics, with a significant presence in rivers worldwide, are a potent threat to biodiversity and climate.
  • As they degrade, microplastics release greenhouse gases, contributing to environmental imbalances.
  • The airborne particles can impact climate conditions, reflecting the urgent need for comprehensive global strategies to mitigate plastic pollution.

Focus on African Waters:

  • While previous studies predominantly focused on marine and coastal areas, the current research addresses the critical gap by investigating the presence of microplastics in the River Nile in Khartoum, Sudan.

Study on Nile Tilapia:

  • The study focused on Nile tilapia, a crucial freshwater fish species in Africa and a cornerstone of commercial fisheries.
  • Results from 30 freshly caught tilapia revealed alarming findings – a total of 567 microplastic particles were found in their digestive tracts.

Microplastic Characteristics:

  • The microplastics identified varied in size (ranging from 0.04mm to 4.94mm), shape (fibres, fragments, films, foams, and pellets), and colour.
  • The most common were small, fibrous, and dyed particles, aligning with the feeding habits of Nile tilapia, which consume a diverse range of organisms.

Health Risks and Environmental Impact:

  • The study underscores the potential health risks associated with microplastics. Smaller particles can carry pollutants like heavy metals, posing additional threats to both aquatic organisms and human consumers.
  • Fibrous microplastics, dominant in the Nile tilapia, may linger in the intestine, leading to potential health issues.

Pollution Sources in Khartoum:

  • The study identifies Khartoum as a hotspot for plastic pollution, with inadequate waste management contributing to the contamination of water bodies.
  • Open dumps and ineffective wastewater treatment plants further exacerbate the issue, emphasizing the need for comprehensive waste management strategies.

Call for Action and Solutions:

  • Addressing microplastic pollution in the Nile requires a multi-faceted approach.
  • Consumers must alter their plastic consumption habits, opting for sustainable alternatives.
  • Governments play a pivotal role in enforcing waste management regulations and raising public awareness.
  • Scientific advancements and innovations are crucial for understanding and mitigating the impact of microplastics on ecosystems and human health.

Conclusion:

  • The study’s findings serve as a stark warning about the pervasive issue of microplastics in the Nile River’s tilapia, demanding urgent action to safeguard both environmental sustainability and the health of the communities relying on the river for their livelihoods.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/microplastics-found-in-nile-river-s-tilapia-fish-new-study-94319




PROTECTING MAHMUDIA WETLAND: WWF’S URGENT APPEAL

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Wildlife conservation organisation World Wildlife Fund (WWF) has urged the Romanian government to classify Mahmudia wetland as a ‘national interest ecological restoration area’ to protect its natural progress and foster community prosperity.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Mahmudia wetland is situated in Romania’s Danube Delta.
  • It is facing a critical threat as agricultural leaseholders seek to revert a significant portion of the naturally restored wetlands to cropland.
  • This move poses a risk to the biodiversity, livelihoods, and climate resilience that the wetland currently provides.
  • The issue originated in June 2023 when high waters from the Danube River breached a dyke, causing flooding in Mahmudia.
  • Interestingly, this area had undergone successful restoration eight years prior with European Union funding, transforming into a flourishing wetland that significantly boosted tourism.
  • The flood, however, submerged farmland, converting it into a typical delta ecosystem.

 Mehmudia wetland

Mahmudia Region

Local Support for Wetland Preservation:

  • A survey conducted by WWF-Romania revealed that 97 percent of the local community in Mahmudia preferred the current state of the wetland over reverting it to agricultural use.
  • The wetland, a result of natural regeneration, has become integral to the community’s livelihoods and climate resilience.

Legal Challenge by Agricultural Leaseholders:

  • Despite local opposition, agricultural leaseholders obtained a court ruling favouring the reversion of the wetland to cropland.
  • This decision not only jeopardizes the natural progress of the wetland but also endangers the section that was restored with European Union funds.

WWF’s Call for National Interest Ecological Restoration Area:

  • World Wildlife Fund (WWF) has urged the Romanian government to designate Mahmudia wetland as a ‘national interest ecological restoration area.’
  • This designation would provide legal protection, allowing the government to cancel agricultural contracts and compensate leaseholders from national funds, as permitted by Romanian law.

Importance of Wetland Restoration:

  • WWF-Romania director emphasizes the centrality of restoring healthy wetlands in reversing nature loss and building resilience to climate change.
  • Losing the restored wetland in Mahmudia would not only impact local sustainable development but also hinder efforts to restore the health of Europe’s largest wetlands.

UNESCO Recognition and Precedent for Danube Delta:

  • The protection of Mahmudia wetland extends beyond local concerns; it sets an important precedent for the Danube Delta, recognized by UNESCO as Europe’s second-largest and best-preserved river delta.
  • The delta hosts over 300 bird species and 45 freshwater fish species, making its conservation vital for biodiversity and ecosystem health.

World Wildlife Fund (WWF):

  • The WWF is an international non-governmental organization dedicated to the conservation and preservation of nature and natural species.
  • WWF is the largest conservation organization in the world. It was founded on 29th April 1961 in Switzerland.
  • Presently, it is active in more than 100 countries around the world.
  • WWF aims to stop degradation of planet’s natural environment and build future in which humans live in harmony with nature.
  • Currently, its work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater, wildlife, forests, and oceans.
  • It publishes Living Planet Report every two years since 1998 and it is based on Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculation.

Conclusion:

  • The Mahmudia wetland stands at the intersection of environmental conservation, community livelihoods, and legal battles.
  • The urgency of protecting this naturally regenerated ecosystem not only addresses the immediate threat but also sets a crucial example for the broader conservation efforts in the Danube Delta and beyond.
  • The appeal by WWF underscores the delicate balance between economic interests and ecological sustainability, urging the Romanian government to prioritize the long-term well-being of both the wetland and its local inhabitants.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/wwf-demands-protection-for-naturally-restored-mahmudia-wetland-in-romania-s-danube-delta-94332




WSDP Bulletin (08/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Amid Red Sea crisis, India gets a specific zone in Duqm Port READ MORE

2. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary offers a safe haven for vultures READ MORE

3. Tamil Nadu pioneers a model for saving the sinking islands in the Gulf of Mannar  READ MORE

4. Explained: The new process for picking Election Commissioners, what led to it READ MORE

5. Kerala govt to protest against Centre at Jantar Mantar: What are its grievances over money allocation? READ MORE

6. Microplastics found in Nile River’s tilapia fish: new study READ MORE

7. WWF demands protection for naturally-restored Mahmudia wetland in Romania’s Danube Delta READ MORE

8. In breakthrough, neural network ‘explains’ how it found a new antibiotic READ MORE  

9. 390-year-old lamp post in Nalgonda dedicated to Kasi Viswanatha unravels trade links of Telangana READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Live-in fear: Uniform patriarchal code READ MORE

2. Privilege equality over uniformity READ MORE

3. Vijayanagara was the Indian Renaissance State. It contains memories of older empires READ MORE

4. The Earth’s tectonic plates made the Himalayas — and could rip them apart READ MORE

5. Deep Seabed Mining in the Arctic READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Good/Bad start: U’khand’s UCC ticks some boxes. But it also encourages moral policing & coddles a few social taboos READ MORE

2. Uniform Civil Code: Regulation of live-in relationships regressive READ MORE

3. India’s public recruitment system stuck in ‘state incapacity’ trap. Can new exam bill save it? READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. India’s universities Government school crisis: Critical to win back trust of students READ MORE

2. States have a big role in next-generation social sector reforms READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Takeaways from the great churning: No room for ambiguity on the foreign policy front as India’s credibility is at stake READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Road map for fiscal consolidation READ MORE

2. Equity concerns in banning fossil fuel extraction READ MORE

3. Blue Carbon economy READ MORE

4. RBI confident of containing inflation, maintaining growth READ MORE

5. India is scorning energy bounty that transformed China READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. How cities can factor the climate crisis in budgets READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Innovation needs free and rational minds READ MORE

2. Pioneering progress: Exploring the frontiers of AI-driven growth READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Sparks from Manipur can ignite bigger conflict in region READ MORE    

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. To see life as an infinite gamble READ MORE

2. What a pleasure! READ MORE

3. Supreme Court’s ‘murder of democracy’ remarks on Chandigarh mayor polls give ammo to Oppn READ MORE

4. To link or delink neural connections READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. The UCC is a must to ensure pan-India uniformity of civil laws while respecting religious and cultural diversity, but its nationwide implementation is a huge challenge. Comment.

2. AI is undeniably causing disruptions across the board but a shift in narrative is required to view AI as a constructive force, focusing on its potential to bring about positive changes. Discuss.

3. Budget management of the State is the discretion of the State government and it cannot be ceded to the Union executive and Parliament in the name of fiscal management. Examine the statement in the light of recent stand-off between Kerala and Center.

4. The character of India’s federalism is moving rapidly from cooperative to destructive and annihilation, and recent borrowing restrictions are an example of ‘annihilative federalism’ at play. Critically examine.

5. Climate change poses a significant threat to the country in the coming decades and to address these challenges effectively, the Republic’s current structure needs to evolve by encouraging the devolution of powers to local government bodies (LGBs). Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • It is impossible to build a multipolar world without a very relevant role of India.
  • The purpose of enacting special Acts such as the POCSO Act and making special provisions in the IT Act is to protect children from sexual exploitation and punish people involved in different forms of exploitation.
  • Any fiscal deficit of the Centre and States taken together substantially above 6% of GDP can only lead to inflation.
  • A country such as India, which is facing serious unemployment concerns, cannot afford to transit towards cleaner fuel without adequate transition support and creation of suitable economic opportunities and livelihoods for those affected.
  • Despite India’s notable progress in renewable energy systems, fossil fuel continues to dominate India’s power sector.
  • The UCC is a must to ensure pan-India uniformity of civil laws while respecting religious and cultural diversity, but its nationwide implementation is a huge challenge.
  • The Naga government and people unhappy with the fencing and abrogation of the FMR, the risk of militancy and insurgency reigniting in the North-East, either by accident or design, is higher than ever before.
  • The govt’s plan to send Indians abroad as labourers is seen as a practical acknowledgment of the constraints in the domestic economy. However, the larger issue here is an ethical one.
  • Education is the most effective tool to act as an external suggestion to bring out knowledge stored in the mind. It acts as the friction needed to fire the flint.
  • Education is the instrument through which we look at the universe, interpret it and experience the world.
  • Education institutions are the most powerful institution of society. Education is compulsory and a fundamental human right in our country.
  • Irrational, illogical, biased thinking along with authoritative oppression in the long run will one day culminate in disaster in society in the form of a threat to democracy and halt in the progress of economic growth.
  • Fiscally incentivizing blue carbon conservation and restoration programmes and fostering partnerships with stakeholders across sectors will also be crucial.
  • Fostering and leveraging international collaborations can facilitate exchange of knowledge, transfer of technology, and enhancement of capacity in conserving and managing blue carbon. Investing in and promoting blue carbon initiatives will be a pragmatic approach to expanding India’s climate action portfolio.
  • The shift towards states as accelerators of future reforms stems from a feeling that the Centre has concluded its role in easing the process of doing business.
  • AI is undeniably causing disruptions across the board. However, a shift in narrative is required to view AI as a constructive force, focusing on its potential to bring about positive changes.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Knowledge has become fundamental to economic development and technological advancement.
  • The greatest resource of all economic development is the mind.

50-WORD TALK

  • EC’s decision to give NCP name and symbol to Ajit Pawar faction was unsurprising. Its arguments for relying solely on legislative strength are convoluted. Assembly Speaker, a BJP leader, sits on MLAs’ disqualification petitions and EC uses their strength to rule in favour of BJP’s ally. It’s politics, not justice.
  • Karnataka has joined Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana in protesting Centre’s tax devolution policies. The timing works since 16th Finance Commission’s deliberations have just started. But such concerted criticism is another sign of worsening Centre-State relations. If the Centre is serious about fiscal federalism, it needs to rebuild states’ trust.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



Day-589 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the LeadIT initiative, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a joint initiative launched by India and the USA at the G-20 summit in New Delhi.
    2. It aims to reduce the net zero carbon emission from energy intensive industries by 2070.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: PM’s departure statement ahead of his recently visits to UAE for World Climate Action Summit included a mention of LeadIT initiative and Green Credit initiative.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    The LeadIT initiative was jointly launched by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    About Leadership for Industry Transition initiative/LeadIT initiative-
    · It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    · The initiative gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
    · Purpose: LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    ● Secretariat: It is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.
    ● Significance: The low carbon transition of the industrial sector will not only contribute towards the reduction in required greenhouse gas emissions.
    ● It has several co-benefits that include increasing resilience to changes in climate, enhanced energy security, innovation, socio-economic development and job creation.
    Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Denmark, Ethiopia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Republic of Korea, South Africa, Sweden, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, United States of America.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: PM’s departure statement ahead of his recently visits to UAE for World Climate Action Summit included a mention of LeadIT initiative and Green Credit initiative.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    The LeadIT initiative was jointly launched by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    About Leadership for Industry Transition initiative/LeadIT initiative-
    · It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    · The initiative gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
    · Purpose: LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    ● Secretariat: It is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.
    ● Significance: The low carbon transition of the industrial sector will not only contribute towards the reduction in required greenhouse gas emissions.
    ● It has several co-benefits that include increasing resilience to changes in climate, enhanced energy security, innovation, socio-economic development and job creation.
    Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Denmark, Ethiopia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Republic of Korea, South Africa, Sweden, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, United States of America.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) monitors the safety of air travellers.
    2. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) monitors security aircrafts as well as airports.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: Aviation regulatory bodies have imposed a total fine of ₹1.5 crore on IndiGo and ₹90 lakh on Mumbai airport following an incident where passengers occupied the airport apron and sat there following a flight diversion due to long delays after fog in Delhi in January 2024.
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The BCAS monitors security of aircraft and airports. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (India).
    About BCAS
    ● The BCAS was initially set up as a Cell in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation(DGCA) in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee constituted in the wake of the hijacking of the Indian Airlines flight on 10 September 1976.
    ● The role of the Cell was to coordinate, inspect, monitor and train personnel in Civil Aviation Security matters.
    ● The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department in April , 1987 under the
    ● Ministry of Civil Aviation as a sequel to the Kanishka Tragedy in June 1985 in which the whole aircraft was disintegrated due to an onboard bomb explosion by terrorists.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The DGCA monitors the safety of air travellers.
    About DGCA
    ● The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India to regulate civil aviation in India. It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
    ● It investigates aviation accidents and incidents.
    Other functions
    ● Registration of civil aircraft
    ● Certification of airports
    ● Licensing to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose
    ● Safety Oversight of all entities approved/ certified/ licensed under the Aircraft Rules 1937.
    ● Coordination of ICAO matters with all agencies, sending replies to State letters, and
    taking all necessary action arising out of the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) of ICAO.
    ● Granting Air Operator’s Certificates to Indian carriers and regulation of air transport services operating to/from/within/over India by Indian and foreign operators, including clearance of scheduled and non-scheduled flights of such operators
    ● Approval of institutes engaged in flying training including simulator training, AME training, air traffic services training or any other training related with aviation, with a view to ensuring a high quality of training
    ● Approval to aircraft maintenance, repair, design and manufacturing organizations and their continued oversight

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: Aviation regulatory bodies have imposed a total fine of ₹1.5 crore on IndiGo and ₹90 lakh on Mumbai airport following an incident where passengers occupied the airport apron and sat there following a flight diversion due to long delays after fog in Delhi in January 2024.
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The BCAS monitors security of aircraft and airports. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (India).
    About BCAS
    ● The BCAS was initially set up as a Cell in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation(DGCA) in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee constituted in the wake of the hijacking of the Indian Airlines flight on 10 September 1976.
    ● The role of the Cell was to coordinate, inspect, monitor and train personnel in Civil Aviation Security matters.
    ● The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department in April , 1987 under the
    ● Ministry of Civil Aviation as a sequel to the Kanishka Tragedy in June 1985 in which the whole aircraft was disintegrated due to an onboard bomb explosion by terrorists.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The DGCA monitors the safety of air travellers.
    About DGCA
    ● The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India to regulate civil aviation in India. It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
    ● It investigates aviation accidents and incidents.
    Other functions
    ● Registration of civil aircraft
    ● Certification of airports
    ● Licensing to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose
    ● Safety Oversight of all entities approved/ certified/ licensed under the Aircraft Rules 1937.
    ● Coordination of ICAO matters with all agencies, sending replies to State letters, and
    taking all necessary action arising out of the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) of ICAO.
    ● Granting Air Operator’s Certificates to Indian carriers and regulation of air transport services operating to/from/within/over India by Indian and foreign operators, including clearance of scheduled and non-scheduled flights of such operators
    ● Approval of institutes engaged in flying training including simulator training, AME training, air traffic services training or any other training related with aviation, with a view to ensuring a high quality of training
    ● Approval to aircraft maintenance, repair, design and manufacturing organizations and their continued oversight

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. The Gross Domestic Climate Risk Report, which is released by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI), measures:

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A report by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI) reveals that 1 in 12 hospitals worldwide could face shutdowns due to extreme weather events from climate change. In India, 9.6% of hospitals will be high-risk by 2100. Currently, 2,700 hospitals are at high risk, expected to increase to over 5,100 by the end of the century. Urgent action on fossil fuel emissions is needed to prevent disruption in emergency healthcare services. The report highlights the vulnerability of hospitals on coastlines and near rivers. Governments are urged to address the risk posed to critical healthcare infrastructure.
    About the Gross Domestic Climate Risk:
    The report is released by Australia-based Cross Dependency Initiative or XDI, which is a part of the climate risk group of companies quantifying the costs of climate change.
    ● The Gross Domestic Climate Risk analysis focuses on the extent of capital value at risk from extreme weather and climate change in states, provinces and other territories, represented by vulnerability and exposure of the built environment.
    ● Built environment refers to aspects of the surroundings that are built by humans to support human activity like homes and workplaces.
    ● It covers damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather and climate change such as flooding, forest fires, heat wave and sea level rise.
    ● This is the first time there has been a physical climate risk analysis focused exclusively on the built environment, comparing every state, province and territory in the world.
    ● The report is particularly significant for investors, as extensive built infrastructure generally overlaps with high levels of economic activity and capital value.

    Highlights from the report:
    ● “Gross Domestic Climate Risk” assess the physical climate risk in over 2,600 states and provinces around the world in 2050.
    ● The more built-up a state, the greater the risk.
    ● The ranking was derived using modelled projections of damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather conditions such as flooding, forest fires and sea level rise.
    ● As per the analysis, 80 percent of the top 50 most at-risk states and provinces in 2050 are in China, the US and India.
    ● After China, India has the highest number of states (nine) in the top 50, which include Bihar (22nd spot), Uttar Pradesh (25), Assam (28), Rajasthan (32), Tamil Nadu (36), Maharashtra (38), Gujarat (48), Punjab (50) and Kerala (52).Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A report by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI) reveals that 1 in 12 hospitals worldwide could face shutdowns due to extreme weather events from climate change. In India, 9.6% of hospitals will be high-risk by 2100. Currently, 2,700 hospitals are at high risk, expected to increase to over 5,100 by the end of the century. Urgent action on fossil fuel emissions is needed to prevent disruption in emergency healthcare services. The report highlights the vulnerability of hospitals on coastlines and near rivers. Governments are urged to address the risk posed to critical healthcare infrastructure.
    About the Gross Domestic Climate Risk:
    The report is released by Australia-based Cross Dependency Initiative or XDI, which is a part of the climate risk group of companies quantifying the costs of climate change.
    ● The Gross Domestic Climate Risk analysis focuses on the extent of capital value at risk from extreme weather and climate change in states, provinces and other territories, represented by vulnerability and exposure of the built environment.
    ● Built environment refers to aspects of the surroundings that are built by humans to support human activity like homes and workplaces.
    ● It covers damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather and climate change such as flooding, forest fires, heat wave and sea level rise.
    ● This is the first time there has been a physical climate risk analysis focused exclusively on the built environment, comparing every state, province and territory in the world.
    ● The report is particularly significant for investors, as extensive built infrastructure generally overlaps with high levels of economic activity and capital value.

    Highlights from the report:
    ● “Gross Domestic Climate Risk” assess the physical climate risk in over 2,600 states and provinces around the world in 2050.
    ● The more built-up a state, the greater the risk.
    ● The ranking was derived using modelled projections of damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather conditions such as flooding, forest fires and sea level rise.
    ● As per the analysis, 80 percent of the top 50 most at-risk states and provinces in 2050 are in China, the US and India.
    ● After China, India has the highest number of states (nine) in the top 50, which include Bihar (22nd spot), Uttar Pradesh (25), Assam (28), Rajasthan (32), Tamil Nadu (36), Maharashtra (38), Gujarat (48), Punjab (50) and Kerala (52).Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. In the context of BRICS, consider the following statements:
    1. The grouping was originally established in 2006 with Brazil, Russia, India and China as members.
    2. The Moscow declaration led to the establishment of the New Development Bank by the BRICS member countries.
    3. Ethiopia, Iran, and Mexico have joined BRICS as its new members.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    India congratulates UAE for joining BRICS group on this year (2024).
    Statement 1 is correct: The leaders of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) countries met for the first time in St. Petersburg, Russia, on the margins of the G8 Outreach Summit in July 2006. Shortly afterwards, in September 2006, the group was formalised as BRIC during the 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, which met on the sidelines of the General Debate of the UN Assembly in New York City.
    · BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement for establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the sixth BRICS summit -2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil, by the leaders. It is also known as the Fortaleza Declaration.
    · Besides Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as members; the NDB has been expanded to include Egypt, UAE, Bangladesh and Uruguay.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Five new full-time members have joined the BRICS grouping— Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab. It is a strong indication of the growing authority of the association and its role in international affairs.
    ● Argentina was also invited but backed out at the end of December.
    ● Now, it has become a 10-member bloc.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    India congratulates UAE for joining BRICS group on this year (2024).
    Statement 1 is correct: The leaders of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) countries met for the first time in St. Petersburg, Russia, on the margins of the G8 Outreach Summit in July 2006. Shortly afterwards, in September 2006, the group was formalised as BRIC during the 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, which met on the sidelines of the General Debate of the UN Assembly in New York City.
    · BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement for establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the sixth BRICS summit -2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil, by the leaders. It is also known as the Fortaleza Declaration.
    · Besides Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as members; the NDB has been expanded to include Egypt, UAE, Bangladesh and Uruguay.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Five new full-time members have joined the BRICS grouping— Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab. It is a strong indication of the growing authority of the association and its role in international affairs.
    ● Argentina was also invited but backed out at the end of December.
    ● Now, it has become a 10-member bloc.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements with reference to the African Union:
    1. It is a continental body consisting of the 54 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    2. It was launched as a successor to the Africa Finance Corporation.
    3. It recently became an Observer member of the G20 under the India presidency.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the African Union becomes permanent member at the inaugural session of the two-day G-20 Summit in New Delhi.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The African Union became a full member of the G-20 on September 9, 2023 under the Indian presidency. Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the inclusion of the African bloc will enhance the effectiveness of the G-20.

    ● After the European Union, the African Union is the second regional bloc to join the G20.
    ● India had hosted the India Africa Forum Summit in 2015 and has expanded its diplomatic footprint in the continent by opening new missions in the member countries of AU.
    ● Apart from supporting the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member of G-20, India has also invited Nigeria, Egypt, and Mauritius as part of the ‘Guest Countries’ at the G-20 summit.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the African Union becomes permanent member at the inaugural session of the two-day G-20 Summit in New Delhi.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The African Union became a full member of the G-20 on September 9, 2023 under the Indian presidency. Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the inclusion of the African bloc will enhance the effectiveness of the G-20.

    ● After the European Union, the African Union is the second regional bloc to join the G20.
    ● India had hosted the India Africa Forum Summit in 2015 and has expanded its diplomatic footprint in the continent by opening new missions in the member countries of AU.
    ● Apart from supporting the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member of G-20, India has also invited Nigeria, Egypt, and Mauritius as part of the ‘Guest Countries’ at the G-20 summit.

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INDIA’S CAR T-CELL THERAPY: TAKING CANCER ON

THE CONTEXT: A few months ago, India’s drug regulator Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), approved the market authorisation for NexCAR19, India’s first indigenously-developed CAR-T cell therapy. This paves the way for the commercial launch of this therapy in India, where it is expected to be available to cancer patients at a tenth of the cost abroad. Recently, a 64-year-old former army doctor has become the first patient in the country to be free of cancer cells after being administered this therapy.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS:

  • For decades, oncologists have relied on chemotherapy, radiation and surgery to treat cancer patients which the primary methods to treat the dreaded disease. In the past two decades, however, research has extended the frontiers of anti-cancer interventions.
  • Drugs have been developed to home in on the molecules cancer cells require to survive and spread. Immune system-boosting drugs have shown the ability to shrink tumours in some patients with advanced malignancy.
  • CAR T-cell therapy is among the most promising recent developments, especially because it has shown the ability to eradicate advanced leukemias and lymphomas. Most of the early research in this field was conducted in laboratories in the US, Europe and China.
  • In October, 2023, India joined this elite list after the country’s drug regulator approved a CAR T-cell therapy incubated at Tata Memorial Centre and IIT Bombay laboratories.

WHAT IS CAR-T CELL THERAPY, AND HOW DO CAR-T CELLS FIND AND DESTROY CANCER CELLS?

  • CAR-T is a revolutionary therapy that modifies immune cells, specifically T-cells, by turning them into potent cancer fighters known as CAR-T cells.
  • T-cells are special cells (white blood cells) whose primary function is cytotoxic, meaning it can kill other cells.
  • T-cells are then put back into the body, and they go after cancer cells especially in blood cancers like leukaemia and lymphomas.
  • CAR T-cell therapies are customised for each patient. The treatment is far less difficult for the patient compared to several sessions of chemotherapy.
  • Laboratory and animal studies have shown that India’s homegrown therapy has significantly fewer side effects compared to those developed in the West.

How effective and different is this from other cancer treatments like, say, chemotherapy?

  • While chemotherapy and immunotherapy may add a few months or years to a cancer patient’s life, cell-and-gene therapy is designed to cure and provide lifelong benefit.
  • It makes treatment easier with a one-time therapy unlike several sessions of chemotherapy. It is a lifeline for non-responsive cancer patients.

NEXCAR19:

  • NexCar19 is a type of CAR-T and gene therapy developed indigenously in India by ImmunoACT, which is a company incubated at IIT Bombay.
  • The therapy is designed to target cancer cells that carry the CD19 protein. This protein acts like a flag on cancer cells, which allows CAR-T cells to recognise and attach themselves to the cancer cells and start the process of elimination.
  • India is now one of the first developing countries to have its indigenous CAR-T and gene therapy platform.
  • The therapy is for people with B-cell lymphomas who didn’t respond to standard treatments like chemotherapy, leading to relapse or recurrence of the cancer.
  • Recovery typically occurs within two weeks after one cycle of the treatment. Approximately 70% of patients respond to the treatment, with variations between leukaemia and lymphoma cases. About 50% of these responsive patients achieve a complete response.

SIGNIFICANCE OF THERAPY:

  • Lower drug-related toxicities: Laboratory and animal studies have shown that it leads to significantly lower drug-related toxicities.
  • Minimal damage to neurons: It causes minimal damage to neurons and the central nervous system, a condition known as neurotoxicity. However, neurotoxicity can sometimes occur when CAR-T cells recognise the CD19 protein and enter the brain, potentially leading to life-threatening situations.
  • Minimal Cytokine Release syndromes: The therapy also results in minimal Cytokine Release Syndrome (CRS), which is characterised by inflammation and hyperinflammation in the body. Inflammation are caused due to the death of a significant number of tumour cells, as CAR-T cells are designed to target and eliminate cancer cells.

ISSUES RELATED TO THERAPY:

  • Affordability: Cancer incidence and mortality continue to rise driven by spikes in the Global South. In India, where the disease claims about 8 lakh people every year, treatment is expensive for an overwhelming section of the population. Critics argue that developing CAR T-cell therapy in India may not be as cost-effective as it will still be unaffordable for most people.
  • Accessibility: High costs and the need for specialized infrastructure for production and administration remain significant barriers to widespread adoption and accessibility.
  • Preparation: One of the issue faced by CAR T-cell therapies is its preparation that has been major hindrance to their widespread use. CAR T-cell therapy requires technical and human resources, making it challenging to administer.
  • Side Effects: The potential side-effects of CAR T-cell therapy is also significant which are associated with cytokine release syndrome and neurological symptoms.

THE CONCLUSION:

The development of indigenous CAR-T cell therapy in India marks a significant advancement in the country’s healthcare landscape. Researchers and planners must work to cut costs of the therapy to lower the cancer mortality rates in the coming decades.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 What are the research and developmental achievements in applied biotechnology? How will these achievements help to uplift the poorer sections of society? (2021)

Q.2 COVID-19 pandemic has caused unprecedented devastation worldwide. However, technological advancements are being availed readily to win over the crisis. Give an account of how technology was sought to aid the management of the pandemic. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Highlight the significance of the development of indigenous CAR-T cell therapy in India. Discuss the challenges in terms of its accessibility and affordability for cancer treatments in the country.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-indias-car-t-cell-therapy-taking-cancer-on-9149692/




“OBELISKS”: A MICROSCOPIC DISCOVERY IN HUMAN MICROBIOMES

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: A groundbreaking discovery at Stanford University has revealed the existence of microscopic entities named “obelisks” within the human mouth and gut.

EXPLANATION:

  • These obelisks, described in a preprint study, exhibit unique characteristics, blurring the lines between viruses and viroids.
  • As the scientific community delves into this intriguing world, a closer look is essential.

The Realm of Microscopic Entities

  • Viruses and Viroids:
    • Viruses, perched on the boundary of life, manipulate hosts for replication.
    • Viroids, tiny RNA fragments, lack protective shells and protein-coding capabilities but can cause diseases in plants.
  • Obelisks: A New Frontier:
    • The term “obelisks” is coined for these entities due to their rod-like shape, self-organizing abilities, and circular single-stranded RNA genome.
    • Positioned between viruses and viroids, obelisks possess genes predicting protein coding, distinguishing them from traditional viroids.

Key Characteristics of Obelisks

  • Genetic Makeup:
    • Obelisks feature a circular single-stranded RNA genome akin to viroids but lack a protein coat, resembling viruses.
    • Their genomes encode proteins, with the major protein known as “obulin,” presenting an evolutionary mystery regarding its function.
  • Abundance and Diversity:
    • Analyses from human gut and mouth microbiomes reveal nearly 30,000 distinct obelisk types, challenging previous assumptions about their scarcity.
    • Diverse niches globally house obelisks, with varying types in different body sites and donors.
  • Host Relationships:
    • Obelisks likely rely on microbial host cells, potentially bacteria or fungi, for replication.
    • The specific hosts remain unidentified, but Streptococcus sanguinis in dental plaque is a promising candidate.

Implications and Unanswered Questions

  • Potential Impact on Microbiome:
    • The effects of obelisks on the human microbiome remain uncertain—whether they act as parasites, bring benefits, or exist as neutral passengers.
    • Understanding their ecological and evolutionary significance is crucial for deciphering their potential impact on human health.
  • Research Directions:
    • Laboratory experiments on Streptococcus sanguinis offer a promising model to unravel fundamental aspects of obelisk biology.
    • Long-term implications on human health, therapeutic potential, and the broader ecological role of obelisks warrant further exploration.
  • Evolutionary Dynamics:
    • The evolutionary trajectory of obelisks, their interaction with hosts, and the role they play in microbiome dynamics are areas ripe for investigation.

Conclusion

  • The discovery of obelisks introduces a new dimension to the microscopic world, challenging conventional classifications.
  • As research unfolds, the peculiarities of obelisks and their intricate relationships with microbial hosts promise to unravel mysteries and contribute to our understanding of the intricate web of life at the smallest scales.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/health/a-new-virus-like-entity-has-just-been-discovered-obelisks-explained-94299




LOK SABHA PASSES PUBLIC EXAMINATIONS BILL: AIMING TO CURB MALPRACTICES

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Lok Sabha has approved the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, with a focus on curbing malpractices, including question paper leaks, document tampering, and network manipulation in public examinations.

EXPLANATION:

  • The bill carries provisions for stringent penalties, with Union Minister emphasizing its importance during the discussion.

Key Provisions of the Bill

  • Scope and Punishments:
    • The Bill targets officials or organizations involved in malpractices and proposes penalties, including a jail term of up to 10 years and fines exceeding Rs 1 crore.
    • Notably, students or candidates are excluded from the purview of the Bill, as clarified by Union Minister Jitendra Singh.
  • Inspiration from Indian Express Investigation:
    • During the discussion, several members referred to The Indian Express investigation report highlighting 41 instances of question paper leaks affecting over 1.4 crore candidates across 15 states in the past five years.
  • Applicability:
    • The bill is applicable to central recruitment and entrance exams conducted by:
      • the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC),
      • Staff Selection Commission (SSC),
      • Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs),
      • Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), and
      • National Testing Agency (NTA).
    • The NTA conducts exams for admission to higher educational institutions, like the Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) for engineering, National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) for medical, and Common University Entrance Test (CUET) for undergraduate and post-graduate studies.
    • Apart from these designated public examination authorities, all central ministries and departments, as well as their offices for recruitment, will also come under the purview of the new law.
  • Defines unfair means
    • Section 3 of the Bill defines unfair means.
    • It proposes 20 offences and unfair means including impersonation, manipulation of answer sheets and tampering with documents.
  • Nature of offences
    • Section 9 of the bill states that all offences shall be cognizable, non-bailable and non-compoundable.
  • Investigation
    • The bill proposes that officers not under the rank of deputy superintendent of police or assistant commissioner of police must head up such matters.
    • The government under the bill also holds the power to send the probe to a Central agency.
    • In essence, this frees up to the police to act on its own and arrest suspects without a warrant.

Parliamentary Discussion Highlights

  • Reference to Indian Express Report:
    • One of the MP brought a copy of The Indian Express to the House, linking it to the Bill.
    • The report focused on the widespread issue of question paper leaks, bringing the magnitude of the problem to the forefront.
  • Minister’s Response:
    • The Union Minister acknowledged the pervasive nature of malpractices across states, emphasizing the need for legislation.
    • He highlighted administrative deficits in states like Rajasthan and affirmed the Bill’s relevance.
  • Addressing “Jami Jamai Vyavastha”:
    • Members referred to the entrenched system depicted in the movie “12th Fail.”
    • Union Minister clarified that the Bill is designed to combat such systemic issues.
  • Clarification on Separate Legislation:
    • Members questioned the necessity of a standalone Bill when existing provisions in the IPC and the new BNS already cover malpractices.
    • The Bill is a specific legislation with defined provisions exclusively targeting examination malpractices.

Concerns and Ministerial Responses

  • Handling Technology-Driven Malpractices:
    • Members raised concerns about addressing malpractices involving new technologies.
    • The plans to establish a committee of experts for surveillance, understanding, and updating regulations periodically has been outlined.
  • Regional Language Examinations:
    • DMK members highlighted the absence of examinations in regional languages as a potential reason for cheating.
    • The government has initiated examinations in 13 languages, including Tamil, with plans to include all 22 gradually was the response.
  • Commitment to Meritorious Students:
    • Minister Singh emphasized that the Bill aims to safeguard the interests of meritorious students, ensuring they are not adversely affected by malpractices.

Conclusion

  • The passage of the Public Examinations Bill reflects a concerted effort by the government to address the pervasive issue of malpractices in examinations.
  • The legislative measures, coupled with ongoing technological surveillance plans, underscore the commitment to ensuring the integrity of the examination system in the country.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/lok-sabha-passes-anti-cheating-bill-govt-recruitment-exams-9147103/




INDIA’s TAX LANDSCAPE: RECORD HIGH PREDICTIONS AND REFORM INITIATIVES

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: India’s Revenue Secretary has projected a record high tax-to-GDP ratio of 11.7% for the fiscal year 2024-25.

EXPLANATION:

  • This surge is attributed to a focus on direct taxes, perceived as more ‘equitable,’ with ongoing efforts to simplify the tax structure, minimize disputes, and enhance enforcement efficiency.

Direct Taxes and Rationalization Efforts

  • Equitable Direct Taxes:
    • Revenue Secretary emphasizes the importance of direct taxes in driving the anticipated increase in the tax-to-GDP ratio.
    • Recent reductions in corporate and personal income taxes aim to create a more balanced and taxpayer-friendly regime.
  • New Tax Regime:
    • The introduction of a new tax regime, devoid of deductions but offering a higher tax-free income threshold, is expected to attract a significant number of income taxpayers.
    • The growth in Personal Income Tax collections stands at an impressive 28% year-to-date, with a projected moderation to 20%-22% by the fiscal year-end.

Goods and Services Tax (GST) Considerations

  • Rate Structure Review:
    • The GST Council, responsible for reviewing the rate structure, has been reconstituted, indicating ongoing efforts to rationalize GST rates.
    • Small adjustments to rationalize rates on various items remain a continual focus within the Council.
  • Quarterly Meetings:
    • The GST Council is expected to convene quarterly, providing a platform for ongoing discussions on tax-related matters.

Tax-to-GDP Ratio Projections

  • Historic High Projection:
    • Revenue Secretary anticipates the tax-to-GDP ratio to reach an all-time high of 11.7% in 2024-25, building on the 11.6% recorded in the current year and 11.2% in 2022-23.
    • The surge is primarily attributed to a rise in direct taxes from 6.1% of GDP in 2022-23 to 6.6% in the current year and a further increase to 6.7% in the next fiscal year.
  • Economic Growth Impact:
    • As the economy expands and per capita income rises, the tax-to-GDP ratio is expected to grow, aligning with the experiences of other countries.
    • The projection reflects India’s developmental trajectory, with an emphasis on sustaining tax revenue growth.

Revenue Growth Projections and Corporate Tax Insights

  • Buoyancy and Growth Projections:
    • Acknowledging the cyclicality of revenue buoyancy, a shift from a 1.4 buoyancy this year to a projected 1.1 buoyancy in 2024-25 has been noticed.
    • The anticipation is for tax revenues to grow at 11.5% fueled by a nominal GDP growth of 10.5%.
  • Corporate Tax Landscape:
    • Companies availing the 15% corporate tax rate for new manufacturing units, ending in March 2023, will be revealed in next year’s tax returns.
    • About 57% of corporate tax income is currently filed at the reduced rate of 22%, introduced in 2019 for firms not opting for deductions.

Regulatory Oversight and Enforcement

  • Money Laundering Concerns:
    • The Revenue Department does not examine lapses at Paytm Payments Bank, but the Enforcement Directorate steps in when money laundering issues arise, enforcing legal consequences for any flouting of the law.

Conclusion

  • Revenue Secretary insights provide a comprehensive view of India’s tax landscape, showcasing efforts to balance tax structures, promote equitable taxation, and project a robust tax-to-GDP ratio.
  • Ongoing reforms, coupled with prudent fiscal management, position India for sustained economic growth and revenue enhancement.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/indias-tax-to-gdp-ratio-to-hit-a-record-high-of-117-of-gdp-in-2024-25/article67818536.ece




MYSTERY OF ZODIACAL DUST: INSIGHTS FROM PRL AHMEDABAD STUDY

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The phenomenon of zodiacal light, characterized by sunlight scattering due to interplanetary dust, has long intrigued astronomers. A recent study conducted by a scientist at the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad, delves into the origins of this mysterious dust, using insights gained from NASA’s Juno spacecraft’s encounter with fast-moving particles.

EXPLANATION:

  • Juno, launched in 2011 to explore Jupiter, experienced damage to its solar panels due to dust particles encountered around Mars.
  • A 2021 paper highlighted this issue, providing valuable data. Dr. Jayesh P. Pabari from PRL seized this opportunity, utilizing the data to calculate the number of dust particles encountered by Juno between 1 and 5 Astronomical Units (AU).
  • Astronomical Units (AU): The distance between Earth and the Sun. Mars and Jupiter are situated at 1.52 AU and 5.2 AU, respectively.

Zodiacal Dust and Source Identification

  • Zodiacal Light:
    • The faint, diffuse glow observed as sunlight scatters through interplanetary dust.
    • Visible along the ecliptic, the path of the Sun over a year.
  • Flux Calculation:
    • Pabari’s analysis revealed a tenfold increase in dust flux at 1.5 AU, a crucial finding in understanding the source of zodiacal dust.
  • Possible Origin – Mars’s Moons (Deimos and Phobos):
    • Pabari compared dust flux near Mars, ruling out other phenomena and highlighting the potential role of Mars’s moons.
    • Mars’s moons, Deimos and Phobos, named after the gods of dread and panic, respectively, were identified as potential sources due to observed dust dynamics.

Characteristics of Mars’s Moons

  • Phobos:
    • Larger of the two moons.
    • Drifting towards Mars and may eventually collide or break up into a ring.
    • Features Stickney crater, named after Asaph Hall’s wife, and experiences significant temperature variations.
  • Deimos:
    • Surface likely buried under nearly 100 meters of dust.
    • Differences in shape and characteristics compared to Phobos.

Mechanism Explaining Dust Production

  • Pabari’s models incorporated moon shapes, gravitational effects, spacecraft ejecta impact, and other parameters.
  • Micrometeorites, small but fast-moving dust particles, collide with Mars’s moons. Lack of atmospheres allows these particles to create small dust clouds.
  • Moons’ low gravity facilitates the escape of smaller dust particles into space, contributing to the observed increase in dust flux.

Implications and Future Confirmatory Mission

  • A potential explanation for the zodiacal dust mystery.
  • Future missions to Phobos and Deimos could validate findings, specifically examining mass loss and confirming the calculated dust dynamics.
  • The study underscores the importance of understanding celestial dust dynamics for future space exploration endeavors.

Conclusion

  • PRL Ahmedabad’s study, leveraging unexpected data from Juno’s encounter, unravels the potential contribution of Mars’s moons to the enigmatic zodiacal dust.
  • The findings open avenues for further exploration and emphasize the significance of interdisciplinary studies in unraveling celestial mysteries.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/zodiacal-dust-mystery-prl-ahmedabad-study-spots-source/article67795421.ece




UTTARAKHAND’S UNIFORM CIVIL CODE BILL: A HISTORIC MOVE

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: Uttarakhand Chief Minister accompanied by Finance Minister tabled the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill in the state Assembly, proclaiming it as a “historic moment.”

EXPLANATION:

  • However, the Opposition criticized the move, labeling it a “poll gimmick” and questioning the urgency of its presentation.

Landmark Legislation with Exclusions

  • If passed, Uttarakhand will be the first state in independent India to implement a uniform law covering marriage, divorce, succession, and live-in relationships.
  • Notably, the Scheduled Tribes, constituting 2.9% of the state’s population, have been excluded from the ambit of the UCC Bill.

Key Provisions of the UCC Bill

  • Marriage Restrictions:
    • The UCC prohibits multiple spouses and mandates that marriages occur only between one man and one woman.
    • The age of marriage is set at 21 years for boys and 18 years for girls.
  • Equal Rights in Divorce:
    • Men and women will have the same rights in matters related to divorce, aimed at ending practices like ‘Halala’ and ‘Iddat.’
    • The Bill proposes a three-year imprisonment or a fine of ₹1 lakh, or both, for those found committing ‘Halala.’
  • Registrations Mandatory:
    • The UCC makes it mandatory to register marriages and divorces. Failure to comply will result in the couple being deprived of government facilities.
  • Changes in Religion and Divorce:
    • If one spouse changes their religion without the other’s consent, the affected party has the right to file for divorce and maintenance allowance.
  • Live-in Relationships:
    • The UCC Bill introduces stringent provisions for the registration of live-in relationships.
    • Failure to register within a month may lead to imprisonment of up to three months.
    • Providing false information during registration may result in imprisonment or a fine not exceeding ₹25,000, or both.
  • Children’s Rights:
    • Children born out of live-in relationships will be considered legitimate, and the Bill proposes equal property inheritance rights for sons and daughters, eliminating distinctions between legitimate or illegitimate children, biological or adopted children, and those born through surrogacy or assisted reproductive technologies.
  • Post-Death Property Rights:
    • After a person’s death, the UCC ensures equal property rights for the wife, children, and parents, a departure from previous laws where only the mother had rights in the deceased’s property.

Opposition’s Critique and Government’s Response

  • Leader of Opposition questioned the urgency of passing the UCC Bill, suggesting that the government may be attempting to conceal certain aspects.
  • Despite having a majority, the government is urged to allow the Opposition time for preparation and a thorough debate.

Conclusion

  • Uttarakhand’s move towards a Uniform Civil Code, if successfully enacted, could set a precedent for other states in India.
  • The Bill aims to bring uniformity while addressing contemporary issues related to marriage, divorce, and inheritance, but its exclusion of Scheduled Tribes and the Opposition’s skepticism raise questions about the broader consensus and effectiveness of the proposed legislation.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/uniform-civil-code-bill-tabled-in-uttarakhand-assembly/article67816803.ece




WSDP Bulletin (07/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Uttarakhand tables Uniform Civil Code Bill amid Opposition protest READ MORE

2. In zodiacal dust mystery, PRL Ahmedabad study points to a familiar source READ MORE

3. India’s tax-to-GDP ratio to hit a record high of 11.7% of GDP in 2024-25: Revenue Secretary READ MORE

4. EC rules Ajit faction is real NCP, Sharad Pawar faction will go to Supreme Court READ MORE

5. How the Uniform Civil Code came to be included in the Indian Constitution READ MORE

6. Weather disasters behind 95% natural calamities in 2023 that cost over $1 billion, finds report READ MORE

7. A new virus-like entity has just been discovered – ‘obelisks’ explained READ MORE

8. Hindu Kush Himalaya is a ‘biosphere on the brink’: ICIMOD READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Role of diaspora in furthering India’s religious nationalism globally READ MORE

2. Population priorities: On Interim Budget statement and the Census READ MORE

3. The Earth’s tectonic plates made the Himalayas — and could rip them apart READ MORE

4. Deep Seabed Mining in the Arctic READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Travesty in Chandigarh: On mayoral election and the Supreme Court of India’s remarks READ MORE

2. The severe erosion of fiscal federalism READ MORE

3. The Union’s reins on financial transfers to States READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. A failed attempt at denying backward groups their place in India’s universities READ MORE

2. Are Anganwadis ready to provide quality early childhood education? READ MORE

3. Going Beyond the Gap in Foundational Skills, ASER 2023 Report Raises 3 Important Questions READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Active non-alignment in a changing world READ MORE

2. NAM at a crossroads: Analysing India’s diplomatic choices and priorities READ MORE

3. Maldives, China and a challenge to India’s soft power diplomacy READ MORE

4. India–Maldives Ties in Choppy Waters READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Mint Street musings: On the interim Budget and the RBI READ MORE

2. Wages of inequality: The income-growth gap READ MORE

3. Bond route to improving female presence in labour READ MORE

4. High tide of youth unemployment: Joblessness among the youth cannot be addressed through fiat READ MORE

5. Can India overtake the US economy? READ MORE

6. India’s infrastructure sector has a skilled labour problem READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Delhi’s waste needs to be managed better READ MORE

2. Sustaining cities amid climate change READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. The perilous age of disinformation READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. China’s ‘Three Warfares’ Strategy in Action: Implications for the Sino-India Boundary, the Arctic, and Antarctica READ MORE    

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Power of silence READ MORE

2. Supreme Court’s ‘murder of democracy’ remarks on Chandigarh mayor polls give ammo to Oppn READ MORE

3. To link or delink neural connections READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. The power to make laws on, administer and determine aspects of the public debt of the State falls squarely on the State Legislature, and borrowing restrictions in States is an example of ‘annihilative federalism’. Critically Examine.

2. Budget management of the State is the discretion of the State government and it cannot be ceded to the Union executive and Parliament in the name of fiscal management. Examine the statement in the light of recent stand-off between Kerala and Center.

3. The character of India’s federalism is moving rapidly from cooperative to destructive and annihilation, and recent borrowing restrictions are an example of ‘annihilative federalism’ at play. Critically examine.

4. Climate change poses a significant threat to the country in the coming decades and to address these challenges effectively, the Republic’s current structure needs to evolve by encouraging the devolution of powers to local government bodies (LGBs). Comment.

5. While, in 1993–94, attempts were made to devolve power to local authorities, the onus of decentralisation fell onto state governments, which lacked incentives to do so, and this setup diminished accountability and undermined governance objectives. Examine.

6. For an effective delivery system, the Indian Republic must be re-envisioned in such a way that the Union and states act as facilitators and coordinators of major policy challenges and imagine Local Government Bodies as public service delivery units. Comment.

7. The Indian Constitution has provided a framework for India’s enduring success as a unified nation with a vibrant democracy but it must evolve to grapple with the key challenges of the 21st century and for which a new approach that encourages devolution of power is the need of the hour. Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • The pre-eminent obstacle to peace is Israel’s colonisation of Palestine.
  • Only a verdict invalidating the election and ordering a fresh one, with safeguards against manipulation, will be in the interest of justice.
  • Borrowing restrictions in States provide an example of ‘annihilative federalism’.
  • With foreign capital inflows into Indian government bonds likely to spike following their inclusion in global bond indices, banks which are the major holders of these securities and are facing elevated credit to deposit ratio growth rates, should get more space to lend.
  • All activities related to public accounts fall within the domain of the State Legislature and the Centre has no power to include the withdrawals from public accounts in the Net Borrowing Ceiling (NBC).
  • Budget management of the State is the discretion of the State government. The territory occupied by the State executive and legislature cannot be ceded to the Union executive and Parliament in the name of fiscal management.
  • The State’s responsibility to fund development work cannot come in the way of it delivering justice to pensioners and beneficiaries.
  • Not permitting the State to borrow will affect the State’s spending on welfare schemes and it can lead to a catastrophic situation in the revenue-scarce State.
  • The character of India’s federalism is moving rapidly from cooperative to destructive and annihilation, and recent borrowing restrictions are an example of ‘annihilative federalism’ at play.
  • The Union government’s moves, which reduce the aggregate financial transfers to States, are weakening cooperative federalism.
  • Gap between wage and GDP growth indicates a worsening of income distribution as well as weak improvements in welfare.
  • Outcome-based financing tools like Development Impact Bonds show promise in addressing skilling challenges for Indian women.
  • With local governments bearing the brunt of public service delivery, the Republic must be re-envisioned in such a way that the Union and states act as facilitators and coordinators of major policy challenges and imagine Local Government Bodies as public service delivery units.
  • While Indian Republic has fulfilled its intended ambitions of nurturing national unity and democracy, it needs to empower lower levels of government to tackle 21st century challenges.
  • Climate change poses a significant threat to the country in the coming decades, with the country being vulnerable to cyclones, heatwaves, flooding, and air pollution.
  • While attempts were made in 1993–94 to devolve power to lower authorities, the onus of decentralisation fell onto state governments, which lacked incentives to do so.
  • For an effective delivery system, the Indian Republic must be re-envisioned in such a way that the Union and states act as facilitators and coordinators of major policy challenges and imagine Local Government Bodies as public service delivery units as local governments bearing the brunt of service delivery.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Happiness is when what you think, what you say, and what you do are in harmony.

50-WORD TALK

  • How consenting adults live and love is nobody’s business; certainly not the state’s. That couples wishing to live together must seek permission in Uttarakhand is a stunning erosion of individual liberties. The state is forcing itself into people’s bedrooms. Moral vigilantes will get a free-for-all, push India back in time.
  • Karnataka has joined Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana in protesting Centre’s tax devolution policies. The timing works since 16th Finance Commission’s deliberations have just started. But such concerted criticism is another sign of worsening Centre-State relations. If the Centre is serious about fiscal federalism, it needs to rebuild states’ trust.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



THE UNION’S REINS ON FINANCIAL TRANSFERS TO STATES

THE CONTEXT: Ever since the start of the Fourteenth Finance Commission award period (2015-16), the Union government has been reducing financial transfers to States. This is in contrast given that the Fourteenth Finance Commission recommended devolving 42% of Union tax revenues to States, which is a clean 10 percentage points increase over the 13th Finance Commission’s recommendation. The Fifteenth Finance Commission retained this recommendation of 41%, excluding the devolution to Jammu and Kashmir (J&K) and Ladakh, which were recategorised as Union Territories.

ISSUES

  • Weakening of cooperative federalism: The Union government’s moves are reducing the aggregate financial transfers to States. The Union government has not only reduced the financial transfers to States but also increased its own total revenue to increase its discretionary expenditure. The discretionary expenditures of the Union government are not being routed through the States’ Budgets, and, therefore, can impact different States in different ways.
  • Lesser share for states in gross tax revenue: The Finance Commissions recommend the States share in the net tax revenue of the Union government. Though the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Finance Commissions recommended 42% and 41%, respectively, of the net tax revenue to be the shares of States, the share of the gross tax revenue was just 35% in 2015-16 and 30% in 2023-24. While the gross tax revenue of the Union government increased from ₹14.6 lakh crore in 2015-16 to ₹33.6 lakh crore in 2023-24, the States’ share in the Union tax revenue increased from ₹5.1 lakh crore to ₹10.2 lakh crore between these two years. In other words, the gross tax revenue of the Union government more than doubled while the share of States just doubled.
  • Decline in Grants in aid: Grants-in-aid to States is another statutory grant recommended by the Finance Commission. The grants-in-aid to States declined in absolute amount from ₹1.95 lakh crore in 2015-16 to ₹1.65 lakh crore in 2023-24. Thus, the combined share of the statutory financial transfers in the gross tax revenue of the Union government declined from 48.2% to 35.32%.
  • Increasing cess and surcharge: The Union government is increasing tax collection under cess and surcharge categories mainly to implement its own schemes in specific sectors, and at the same time, the revenues so raised need not be shared with the States.
  • More centralisation of public expenditure: When the financial transfers to States either as tax devolution or grants-in-aid decline this leads to availability of larger discretionary funds for the Union government to spend. This could affect the equity in distribution of financial resources among States.
  • Increase in allocation for CSS: The Union government has two other routes of direct financial transfers to States, i.e., Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) and Central Sector Schemes (CSec Schemes). Between 2015-16 and 2023-24, the allocation for CSS increased from ₹2.04 lakh crore to ₹4.76 lakh crore through 59 CSS. Thus, the Union government compels the State to spend more.
  • Inter state inequality: This creates two different effects in terms of inter-State equity in public finances. Wealthy States can afford to commit equivalent finances and leverage Union finances inwards through the implementation of CSS. Less wealthy States will have to commit their borrowed finances in these CSS, thus increasing their own liabilities. These differential trajectories of the public finances of States accentuate inter-State inequality in public finances, the major reason being CSS.
  • Scope for anti-federal fiscal policies: Together with statutory grants, the total financial transfers as a proportion to gross tax revenue were only 47.9% in 2023-24. Further, the non-statutory grants are tied grants, i.e., they have to be spent on specific schemes for which the grants are allocated. This reduces the freedom of States in conducting public expenditure.
  • More power to Union government: In addition to retaining more than 50% of gross tax revenue, the Union government incurs a fiscal deficit to the extent of 5.9% of Thus, the Union government wields enormous financial powers with limited expenditure responsibilities.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Increase the devolution: There is a need to increase the devolution of states to bring the cess and surcharges collections under a divisible pool, given that these are legitimate revenues and states do not have these additional leverages. By this inclusion, States will get a bigger pie of devolution from the Centre’s net proceeds to meet their expenditure commitments.
  • Consensus Building: There is a need for collaboration and consensus building between the Centre and States for open discussions on fiscal matters. Finance commission can act as a mediator and facilitator in fostering dialogue.
  • More weightage to fiscal efficiency: The Finance commission can give more weightage to fiscal efficiency in its criteria for transfers. By emphasizing fiscal consolidation and measuring the tax effort of States, the FC can encourage responsible financial management.
  • Addressing Fiscal Disparities: There is a need to address the disparities between states by providing financial transfers to less economically developed states. Revenue deficit grants and other means can help bridge the fiscal gap and supports states with limited revenue-raising capacity.
  • Promoting Cooperative Federalism: There is a need for an institutional mechanism that fosters cooperative federalism by facilitating intergovernmental fiscal transfers. It encourages collaboration and coordination between the Centre and the States, fostering a sense of shared responsibility in fiscal matters.
  • Strengthening Fiscal Discipline: There is a need to promote fiscal discipline and accountability of states as well. It can be done by assessing the fiscal performance and needs of the States, to encourage responsible fiscal behaviour and to discourages unnecessary spending practices.

THE CONCLUSION:

There is constant fall of finances allocated to state from the Union government which is harming not only federalism in the country but hitting fiscal health of the nation. There is a need for constant review of the financial health of States and make periodic recommendations based on the evolving economic scenario.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. How have the recommendations of the 14th France Commission of India enabled the States to improve their fiscal position? (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. The Centre’s tax devolution to the States, which has been consistently falling short of the Finance Commission’s recommendation is a bad sign for cooperative federalism. Comment.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-unions-reins-on-financial-transfers-to-states/article67818520.ece




RBI ACTION AGAINST PAYTM: PAYMENT BLOCKED

THE CONTEXT: The Reserve Bank of India imposed restrictions on Paytm Payments Bank due to non-compliance issues identified through audits, affecting its operations and parent company’s (One97 Communications) stock value. Regulatory measures have previously been enacted, indicating ongoing challenges with compliance, impacting customer onboarding and financial partnerships. The situation underscores the need to balance strict regulation and support for fintech innovation.

THE ISSUES:

RBI Sanctions on Paytm Payments Bank: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed restrictions on Paytm Payments Bank, barring it from accepting new deposits and engaging in credit transactions. These measures were implemented due to a system audit report finding consistent non-compliance and supervisory concerns.

Impact on Paytm’s Parent Company Stock Value: One97 Communications, Paytm’s parent company, has seen a significant drop in its share value, which decreased by over 42% in just five days following the RBI’s actions.

Previous Instances of Non-Compliance: Paytm Payments Bank has had past issues with regulatory compliance, which led to the RBI imposing fines and halting the onboarding of new customers. Incidents included the bank’s inability to identify beneficial owners of entities on its platform and delays in reporting cybersecurity incidents.

Challenges in Maintaining and Building Financial Relationships: Due to ongoing compliance issues, it may become difficult for Paytm Payments Bank to sustain its existing financial relationships and create new ones. Analysts suggest lenders might reconsider their partnerships with the bank due to its regulatory track record.

Paytm Payments Bank’s Market Position: Paytm is a significant player in the Indian fintech space, with many wallets, bank accounts, and KYC-verified customers, and is the largest issuer of FASTags.

Consequences for Merchants and Consumers: CAIT has advised small traders to switch to other payment modes because of possible disruptions, underscoring the operational impact of the RBI’s measures on the wider market.

Compliance vs. Innovation: All financial entities adhering to regulatory standards without stifling innovation should be paramount. However, regulatory interventions need to be transparent and mindful of the effects on users to support the growth of the digital economy.

THE WAY FORWARD:

Address Compliance Concerns: Paytm Payments Bank should take immediate steps to address the non-compliance issues identified by the regulatory authorities. This includes improving their KYC processes and ensuring adherence to all regulatory requirements.

Enhance Regulatory Oversight: The RBI should monitor Paytm Payments Bank’s operations closely and conduct regular audits to ensure compliance. This will help identify potential issues early on and prevent them from escalating.

Improve Transparency and Communication: Paytm and the RBI should improve transparency by providing clear communication to customers, merchants, and other stakeholders regarding the regulatory actions taken and the steps being taken to rectify the compliance issues. This will help rebuild trust and confidence in the platform.

Strengthen Internal Controls: Paytm Payments Bank should strengthen its internal control mechanisms to prevent future non-compliance incidents. This may include implementing robust systems for identifying beneficial owners, improving cybersecurity incident reporting, and conducting regular internal audits.

Collaborate with Lending Partners: Paytm should proactively engage with its lending partners, addressing any concerns they may have regarding regulatory issues. Building strong relationships and assuring partners of the company’s commitment to compliance can help mitigate any potential reconsideration of partnerships.

Learning from the Crisis: The Paytm crisis teaches fintech startups the importance of good governance practices, building compliant and robust systems from day one, and avoiding regulatory pitfalls.

Cost Management and Operational Efficiency: Paytm may need to focus on cost management and improving operational efficiency to ensure sustainability and profitability in the long term.

THE CONCLUSION:

The authorities must aim for transparency in their regulatory interventions to ensure stakeholders understand the reasons behind such measures and the actions to resolve issues. While entities like Paytm Payments Bank must align with regulatory standards, the broader goal should be to foster an environment where innovation is not unduly restrained, ensuring the healthy growth of the digital economy.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q1) Implementing information and Communication Technology (ICT) based Projects / Programs usually suffers regarding certain vital factors. Identify these factors and suggest measures for their effective implementation. (2019)

Q2) E-Governance is not only about utilizing the power of new technology but also much about the critical importance of the ‘use value’ of information. Explain. (2019)

Q3) In the light of the Satyam Scandal (2009), discuss the changes brought in corporate governance to ensure transparency and accountability. (2015)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q1) Examine the regulatory challenges faced by digital payments banks in India with a special focus on the recent actions taken by the Reserve Bank of India against Paytm Payments Bank. Discuss the implications of such regulatory measures on the digital economy and the innovation ecosystem.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-rbi-action-against-paytm-payment-blocked-9145840/https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/india-population-growth-nirmala-sitharaman-committee-on-population-growth-union-budget-2024-viksit-bharat-goal-9145815/




Day-588 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following:
    1. Cultivation of algae in oceans
    2. Pumping surface water down to the deep ocean
    3. Marine cloud brightening
    4. Loading minerals like basalt into the ocean
    How many of the above are ocean-based Carbon Dioxide Removal Technologies (CDR for abating climate change?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation: Options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
    Geoengineering strategies can be classified as solar radiation management (SRM) or Carbon dioxide Removal Technologies (CDR). Marine cloud brightening is a method exploited for solar radiation management (it does not involve the removal of CO2 and its storage/conversion into bio-based products etc.). Rather, marine cloud brightening harnesses natural processes, using sea spray to increase the amount of light and heat that clouds deflect from the sun, to cool and shade the coral reef below. Microscopic sea water droplets are sprayed into the air, creating a mild fog which deflects solar energy. It also seeds the clouds, increasing their capacity to deflect sunlight.

    Carbon removal, also known as negative emissions strategies, includes natural solutions like relying on forests, marshes or soil to trap and store carbon, or the deployment of emerging technology to pull carbon directly from the air or ocean, and then, storing it long term. There is a swelling interest in exploring ocean-based CDR technologies.
    Proposals include massively boosting the production of seaweeds like kelp (algae), which absorb carbon during photosynthesis, before sinking it into the deep sea or turning it into a climate-friendly seafood or bioplastic.
    Others involve pumping surface water down to the deep ocean where increased pressure and solubility allow more carbon to be stored. Or alternatively, pushing cold, nutrient-rich water up from the deep to spur the growth of plankton that absorb carbon before sinking to deeper water when they die.
    A related strategy is to fertilize the ocean with iron or nitrogen to trigger large plankton blooms.
    Scrubbing carbon from the air or stripping it from ocean water before injecting it into the deep sea or seabed, or boosting the ocean’s alkalinity and ability to absorb carbon by loading it with minerals like basalt or carbonate are also being explored.

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation: Options 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
    Geoengineering strategies can be classified as solar radiation management (SRM) or Carbon dioxide Removal Technologies (CDR). Marine cloud brightening is a method exploited for solar radiation management (it does not involve the removal of CO2 and its storage/conversion into bio-based products etc.). Rather, marine cloud brightening harnesses natural processes, using sea spray to increase the amount of light and heat that clouds deflect from the sun, to cool and shade the coral reef below. Microscopic sea water droplets are sprayed into the air, creating a mild fog which deflects solar energy. It also seeds the clouds, increasing their capacity to deflect sunlight.

    Carbon removal, also known as negative emissions strategies, includes natural solutions like relying on forests, marshes or soil to trap and store carbon, or the deployment of emerging technology to pull carbon directly from the air or ocean, and then, storing it long term. There is a swelling interest in exploring ocean-based CDR technologies.
    Proposals include massively boosting the production of seaweeds like kelp (algae), which absorb carbon during photosynthesis, before sinking it into the deep sea or turning it into a climate-friendly seafood or bioplastic.
    Others involve pumping surface water down to the deep ocean where increased pressure and solubility allow more carbon to be stored. Or alternatively, pushing cold, nutrient-rich water up from the deep to spur the growth of plankton that absorb carbon before sinking to deeper water when they die.
    A related strategy is to fertilize the ocean with iron or nitrogen to trigger large plankton blooms.
    Scrubbing carbon from the air or stripping it from ocean water before injecting it into the deep sea or seabed, or boosting the ocean’s alkalinity and ability to absorb carbon by loading it with minerals like basalt or carbonate are also being explored.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following:
    1. Ring-tailed lemur
    2. Hog deer
    3. Hoolock Gibbon
    4. Markhor
    How many of the above species are naturally found in India?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Option 1 is incorrect: Ring-tailed lemur is an endangered species of primate which is endemic to the island of Madagascar. It is not naturally found in India. rather, this exotic species can be spotted in India only in some zoos Mysuru zoo, etc.).

    Option 2 is correct: Hog deer is naturally found in India. Two sub-species of hog deer have been reported from its range. The western race is distributed from Pakistan and the terai grasslands (along the Himalayan foothills, from Punjab to Arunachal Pradesh), while the eastern race of hog deer is found in Thailand, Indo-China, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam. The western limit of hog deer in India is in Manipur.
    The hog deer or Pada is an endangered species in the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

    Option 3 is correct: Hoolock gibbon is naturally found in India. it is endemic to the Northeastern states of India.
    Gibbons, the smallest and fastest of all apes, live in tropical and subtropical forests in the southeastern part of Asia. The hoolock gibbon, unique to India’s northeast, is one of 20 species of gibbons on Earth. Over the decades, zoologists thought the northeast housed two species of the ape — the eastern hoolock gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) found in a specific region of Arunachal Pradesh and the western hoolock gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) distributed elsewhere in the northeast. A study led by Hyderabad-based Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in 2021 proved through genetic analysis that there is only one species of ape (Hoolock Gibbon) in India.

    Option 4 is correct: Markhor is naturally found in India in the region of Kashmir only. The markhor Capra falconeri, is considered the world’s largest mountain goat.
    Markhor in Persian means ‘snake-killer’, named so for its mythical power of killing snakes with its horns and eating them. However, like other goats, the markhor is actually a herbivore that grazes on grass and leaves on mountain cliffs and slopes. Scattered herds are found across the scrublands, open woodlands and mountains of central Asia, Karakoram and the Himalaya in Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and northern India. Here, they are endemic only to Kashmir and found nowhere else in the country.
    Out of the three Markhor subspecies recognised by the IUCN, the astor markhor or flare-horned markhor Capra falconeri falconeri is found in the Kashmir region. It is locally also recognised by another scientific name, Capra falconeri cashmiriensis or Kashmir markhor.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Option 1 is incorrect: Ring-tailed lemur is an endangered species of primate which is endemic to the island of Madagascar. It is not naturally found in India. rather, this exotic species can be spotted in India only in some zoos Mysuru zoo, etc.).

    Option 2 is correct: Hog deer is naturally found in India. Two sub-species of hog deer have been reported from its range. The western race is distributed from Pakistan and the terai grasslands (along the Himalayan foothills, from Punjab to Arunachal Pradesh), while the eastern race of hog deer is found in Thailand, Indo-China, Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam. The western limit of hog deer in India is in Manipur.
    The hog deer or Pada is an endangered species in the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

    Option 3 is correct: Hoolock gibbon is naturally found in India. it is endemic to the Northeastern states of India.
    Gibbons, the smallest and fastest of all apes, live in tropical and subtropical forests in the southeastern part of Asia. The hoolock gibbon, unique to India’s northeast, is one of 20 species of gibbons on Earth. Over the decades, zoologists thought the northeast housed two species of the ape — the eastern hoolock gibbon (Hoolock leuconedys) found in a specific region of Arunachal Pradesh and the western hoolock gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) distributed elsewhere in the northeast. A study led by Hyderabad-based Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in 2021 proved through genetic analysis that there is only one species of ape (Hoolock Gibbon) in India.

    Option 4 is correct: Markhor is naturally found in India in the region of Kashmir only. The markhor Capra falconeri, is considered the world’s largest mountain goat.
    Markhor in Persian means ‘snake-killer’, named so for its mythical power of killing snakes with its horns and eating them. However, like other goats, the markhor is actually a herbivore that grazes on grass and leaves on mountain cliffs and slopes. Scattered herds are found across the scrublands, open woodlands and mountains of central Asia, Karakoram and the Himalaya in Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and northern India. Here, they are endemic only to Kashmir and found nowhere else in the country.
    Out of the three Markhor subspecies recognised by the IUCN, the astor markhor or flare-horned markhor Capra falconeri falconeri is found in the Kashmir region. It is locally also recognised by another scientific name, Capra falconeri cashmiriensis or Kashmir markhor.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to the Indian laws about water governance, consider the following statements:
    1. The groundwater quality assessment in the country is under the domain of the Central Water Commission (CWC).
    2. The groundwater extraction and management through issuance of the No-Objection Certificates (NOCs) is done by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The groundwater quality assessment in the country is under the domain of the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) and not the Central Water Commission (CWC). The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) has 16 Regional Chemical Laboratories to carry out chemical analysis of water samples. The Chemical laboratories are well equipped with sophisticated instruments like ICP-MS, Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer (AAS) etc. Ground water sampling for quality monitoring is done once a year during the pre-monsoon period. In addition to it, ground water samples are also collected and analysed as a part of other scientific studies.
    It must be noted that the CWC (presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation) is entrusted with the responsibility for water quality assessment of rivers in the country. The CWC assesses the quality of river water based on the physical parameters such as temperature, colour, odour electrical conductivity, total dissolved solids, pH and dissolved oxygen of river water.

    Statement 2 is correct: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) regulates ground water development and management by issuing ‘No Objection Certificates’ (NOC) for ground water extraction to industries or infrastructure projects or Mining Projects etc. The Applicants who seek permission for Water Extraction may obtain services of the accredited individuals or institutions for conducting a hydrogeological survey and prepare a report on the ground water scenario and the impact of the proposed extraction on the ground water reservoir, which is mandatory for issuance of No Objection Certificate (NOC) from Central Ground Water Authority.
    The CGWA is a statutory body established under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986. It has been granted the powers to, amongst others, regulate and control, manage and develop ground water in the entire country and to issue necessary directions for this purpose.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The groundwater quality assessment in the country is under the domain of the Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) and not the Central Water Commission (CWC). The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) has 16 Regional Chemical Laboratories to carry out chemical analysis of water samples. The Chemical laboratories are well equipped with sophisticated instruments like ICP-MS, Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer (AAS) etc. Ground water sampling for quality monitoring is done once a year during the pre-monsoon period. In addition to it, ground water samples are also collected and analysed as a part of other scientific studies.
    It must be noted that the CWC (presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation) is entrusted with the responsibility for water quality assessment of rivers in the country. The CWC assesses the quality of river water based on the physical parameters such as temperature, colour, odour electrical conductivity, total dissolved solids, pH and dissolved oxygen of river water.

    Statement 2 is correct: The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) regulates ground water development and management by issuing ‘No Objection Certificates’ (NOC) for ground water extraction to industries or infrastructure projects or Mining Projects etc. The Applicants who seek permission for Water Extraction may obtain services of the accredited individuals or institutions for conducting a hydrogeological survey and prepare a report on the ground water scenario and the impact of the proposed extraction on the ground water reservoir, which is mandatory for issuance of No Objection Certificate (NOC) from Central Ground Water Authority.
    The CGWA is a statutory body established under Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986. It has been granted the powers to, amongst others, regulate and control, manage and develop ground water in the entire country and to issue necessary directions for this purpose.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Florianopolis declaration, often mentioned in the news, is:

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The 67th meeting of the International Whaling Commission (IWC-67) adopted the Florianopolis Declaration, which affirms the continued moratorium against commercial whaling, and a Schedule amendment on aboriginal subsistence whaling.
    In the non-binding Florianopolis Declaration, the IWC agrees that the Commission’s role in the 21st century includes its responsibility to ensure the recovery of cetacean populations to their preindustrial levels, and reaffirms the importance of maintaining the moratorium on commercial whaling. The Declaration acknowledges the abundance of contemporary non-lethal cetacean research methods and that the use of lethal research methods is unnecessary, and seeks to ensure that aboriginal subsistence whaling for the benefit of indigenous communities meets the Commission’s management and conservation objectives, taking into account the safety of hunters and the welfare of cetaceans.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The 67th meeting of the International Whaling Commission (IWC-67) adopted the Florianopolis Declaration, which affirms the continued moratorium against commercial whaling, and a Schedule amendment on aboriginal subsistence whaling.
    In the non-binding Florianopolis Declaration, the IWC agrees that the Commission’s role in the 21st century includes its responsibility to ensure the recovery of cetacean populations to their preindustrial levels, and reaffirms the importance of maintaining the moratorium on commercial whaling. The Declaration acknowledges the abundance of contemporary non-lethal cetacean research methods and that the use of lethal research methods is unnecessary, and seeks to ensure that aboriginal subsistence whaling for the benefit of indigenous communities meets the Commission’s management and conservation objectives, taking into account the safety of hunters and the welfare of cetaceans.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has notified ‘Construction and Demolition Waste processing plants’ as Red Industry.
    Statement II: Those industrial sectors which score 60 or above in the Pollution Index of the CPCB are labelled as Red industries.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
    The following industries are listed under Orange category industry by the CPCB. Orange category industries have a pollution index ranging between 41 and 59. They are relatively less polluting as compared to the Red industries, but relatively more polluting than the green and white industries.


    Both the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) have the authority to classify industries based on colour code into Red, Orange, Green and White. The categorisation takes into account the Pollution Index which assesses the overall polluting level of any industry. It ranks the industries on a scale ranging from 0 to 100; the increasing number on Pollution Index indicates the higher polluting potential of that industry. Red category industries generate the highest level of pollution, while White category industries generate negligible or no pollution. Each category has its own set of regulations that the industries must comply with.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
    The following industries are listed under Orange category industry by the CPCB. Orange category industries have a pollution index ranging between 41 and 59. They are relatively less polluting as compared to the Red industries, but relatively more polluting than the green and white industries.


    Both the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) have the authority to classify industries based on colour code into Red, Orange, Green and White. The categorisation takes into account the Pollution Index which assesses the overall polluting level of any industry. It ranks the industries on a scale ranging from 0 to 100; the increasing number on Pollution Index indicates the higher polluting potential of that industry. Red category industries generate the highest level of pollution, while White category industries generate negligible or no pollution. Each category has its own set of regulations that the industries must comply with.

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CAMEROON ADOPTS NAGOYA PROTOCOL TO HARNESS BIODIVERSITY BENEFITS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Cameroon, a biodiversity-rich nation in central Africa, has taken a significant step toward ensuring fair and equitable sharing of benefits from its vast biological resources.

EXPLANATION:

  • The adoption of the Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing reflects the country’s commitment to addressing historical exploitation and promoting sustainable practices.
  • This protocol, an offshoot of the Convention on Biological Diversity, aims to establish a framework for the just distribution of benefits derived from genetic resources and traditional knowledge.

Cameroon’s Biodiversity Landscape:

  • Biodiversity Hotspot:
    • Cameroon boasts an estimated 11,000 plant, animal, and microorganism species, making it a biodiversity hotspot.
    • The genetic information and resources within these species hold value for bioprospecting activities, including the development of medicines and crops.
  • Traditional Knowledge Significance:
    • Indigenous and local communities in Cameroon possess valuable traditional knowledge related to genetic resources, enhancing the country’s bioprospecting potential.

Nagoya Protocol: A Framework for Fairness:

  • Overview of Nagoya Protocol:
    • The Nagoya Protocol, an extension of the Convention on Biological Diversity, addresses fair and equitable benefit sharing in biodiversity access.
    • It aims to rectify imbalances where foreign companies have historically exploited resources without providing equitable benefits to local communities.
  • Example of Prunus Africana:
    • The case of Prunus Africana highlights the disparity, with foreign companies buying the plant for a minimal amount but selling the derived drugs at a significantly higher price.
    • The adoption of the Nagoya Protocol is expected to rectify such inequities.

Challenges and Initiatives:

  • Challenges Faced by Cameroon:
    • Despite enacting laws and decrees to implement the Nagoya Protocol, Cameroon faces challenges such as a lack of implementing instruments, institutional capacity, and research and development on the biodiversity value chain.
  • Global Environment Facility Support:
    • To address these challenges, the Global Environment Facility is funding a project titled ‘Support to Nagoya Protocol Implementation, Research and Development on Biodiversity Value chain for small holders in the South West and Far North Regions of Cameroon.’
    • The project aims to enhance research, bioprospecting, and the overall understanding of biodiversity value chains.

Focus on Bush Mango and Indigenous Species:

  • Bioprospecting Initiatives:
    • The project supports bioprospecting activities on selected species, including Irvingia wombulu (bush mango), Monodora myristica, Balanites aegyptiaca, and Acacia nilotica.
    • Bush mango, a significant biological resource in Cameroon, holds medicinal properties and is crucial for traditional medicine and culinary practices.
  • Economic Opportunities and Export Potential:
    • Bush mango has attracted interest from European pharmaceutical and cosmetic companies.
    • Farmers, such as Thomas Arrey Ayuk, anticipate increased value for their produce, better export opportunities, and potential benefits for community development.

Strategic Agreements and Economic Potential:

  • Cameroon’s Agreements with French and Swiss Companies:
    • Cameroon has signed agreements with French and Swiss cosmetic businesses under the Nagoya Protocol.
    • These agreements involve research and development on indigenous species and set the stage for future commercial activities.
  • Unlocking Africa’s Economic Potential:
    • The Nagoya Protocol is seen as a tool for African nations to master the true value of their biological resources, empowering them in negotiations with companies.
    • Recognizing and exploiting these resources in alignment with the protocol is viewed as a key to unlocking Africa’s economic potential.

Conclusion:

  • Cameroon’s adoption of the Nagoya Protocol represents a pivotal move towards just and sustainable practices in utilizing its biological wealth.
  • By addressing historical imbalances and promoting fair benefit-sharing, the country aims to harness the economic potential of its biodiversity, emphasizing the need for responsible exploitation and conservation efforts.
  • The collaborative initiatives and agreements signal a commitment to a more equitable and mutually beneficial relationship between Cameroon’s biological resources and global industries.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/cameroon-adopts-nagoya-protocol-to-benefit-from-its-rich-biodiversity-94288




ANNUAL WETLAND BIRD CENSUS IN VILLUPURAM DISTRICT: DECLINE IN NUMBERS RAISES CONSERVATION CONCERNS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The recently concluded two-day synchronised bird census in wetlands and bird sanctuaries in Villupuram district, organized by the Tamil Nadu Forest Department in collaboration with the Universal Eco Foundation, revealed a decline in the number of wetland birds compared to the previous year.

EXPLANATION:

  • The census, conducted on January 27 and 28, covered 18 wetlands, including Oussudu and Kazhuveli bird sanctuaries.

Census Methodology and Participants:

  • Point Count and Line Transect Method:
    • The census employed the Point Count and Line Transect method, a widely accepted approach in ornithology, conducted by more than 12 teams of volunteers, bird watchers, and ornithologists.
    • The survey took place from 6 a.m. to 9 a.m., capturing a snapshot of the bird population during these crucial hours.
  • Technical Support and Collaboration:
    • Technical support for the census was provided by the Universal Eco Foundation, a Puducherry-based biodiversity conservation organization.
    • Collaboration between the Forest Department and conservation organizations highlights the importance of concerted efforts in preserving biodiversity.

Findings from Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary:

  • Decline in Numbers:
    • A notable decline was observed in the bird population at Kazhuveli bird sanctuary, with 3,909 birds of 90 species recorded this year, compared to over 21,000 birds of 150 species in the previous year.
    • Glossy Ibis (779), Northern pintail (512), and Eurasian Coot (295) were among the most abundant species.
  • Rare Bird Sightings:
    • Despite the decline, the census recorded sightings of rare birds such as the Knob-billed duck and Black Bittern in Kazhuveli.
    • The identification of rare species underscores the ecological significance of the area.

Wetland Census Across Villupuram District:

  • Oussudu Sanctuary:
    • Oussudu sanctuary recorded 2,080 birds of 64 species during the census.
  • District-Wide Numbers:
    • Kallakurichi district reported 7,205 birds of 124 species.
    • Cuddalore district documented 14,414 birds of 118 species.

Conservation Implications and Future Phases:

  • Concerns Over Decline:
    • The decline in bird numbers raises concerns about the health of wetland ecosystems in Villupuram district.
    • Conservation efforts may need to be intensified to address potential threats to these habitats.
  • Upcoming Census Phase:
    • The second phase of the census is scheduled for March 2 and 3, focusing on terrestrial birds.
    • This multi-phase approach provides a comprehensive understanding of the avian diversity across different habitats.

Conclusion:

  • The wetland bird census in Villupuram district serves as a crucial annual assessment, revealing shifts in bird populations and highlighting areas that may require conservation attention.
  • The collaborative efforts of volunteers, the Forest Department, and conservation organizations contribute to the ongoing monitoring and preservation of the region’s rich biodiversity.
  • The identified decline emphasizes the need for sustained conservation measures to protect these vital ecosystems.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/wetland-bird-census-146-species-recorded-in-18-wetlands-in-villupuram-district-numbers-lower-than-last-year/article67813289.ece




UNRAVELING THE DYNAMICS OF HIMALAYAN FORMATION: TECTONIC PLATES AND TIBET’S RIFT

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY

THE CONTEXT: The Himalayan Mountain range, an awe-inspiring geological marvel, is a result of the ongoing collision between the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates.

EXPLANATION:

  • The recent research is conducted by a collaborative team of Chinese and U.S. scientists.
  • It sheds light on intriguing dynamics beneath the Earth’s surface.
  • It suggests not only the continuation of the collision but also the potential cleaving of Tibet due to the unexpected behavior of the Indian plate.

Understanding the Tectonic Collision:

  • Tectonic Plate Interaction:
    • The collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates, a process spanning approximately 60 million years, has been known to create the Himalayas.
    • Previous understanding emphasized the buckling and twisting of the Eurasian plate’s edge.
    • However, the specific underground processes remained a mystery.
  • Indian Plate’s Behavior:
    • The study proposes that the Indian plate is plunging beneath the Eurasian plate during the subduction process.
    • Unexpectedly, part of the Indian plate is found to be splitting apart under Tibet, with the eastern section tearing away from the western portion.

The Earth’s crust is divided into distinct “tectonic plates” that are always slowly moving. Earthquakes are concentrated along these plate boundaries

Implications of Plate Cleaving:

  • Seismic Hazards:
    • The study suggests that as the Indian plate cleaves below ground, it may create a zone of weakness, potentially leading to earthquakes and other geological hazards in the region.
    • A professor at the University of California, Berkeley, sees the tear as a potential epicenter for large earthquakes accommodating the motion of the Indian plate.
  • Zone of Weakness:
    • The tear in the Indian plate is considered a “zone of weakness,” indicating vulnerability to seismic activities.
    • The implications of such a tear raise concerns about the stability of the region and the potential risks associated with continental collisions.

Scientific Controversies and Perspectives:

  • Debates in Scientific Community:
    • The scientific community lacks a consensus on the exact nature of the collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates.
    • Divergent opinions exist on whether the Indian plate is pushing horizontally beneath Tibet or diving vertically.
  • Unique Geological Laboratory:
    • The Himalayan region holds a unique status as the only place where a continental plate collision is occurring in real-time.
    • Geophysicists acknowledge the scarcity of such opportunities to study continental collisions, considering it a “vanishingly short snapshot in time.”

Conclusion:

  • The research provides a captivating glimpse into the intricate processes shaping the Himalayas and the potential consequences of the Indian plate’s unexpected behavior.
  • As scientists continue to unravel the mysteries beneath the Earth’s surface, the study underscores the complexity of tectonic interactions and their profound impact on geological formations, seismic activities, and the overall dynamics of our planet.

SOURCE: https://www.nbcnews.com/science/science-news/earths-tectonic-plates-made-himalayas-rip-apart-rcna135622




GRI BIODIVERSITY STANDARD

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) has unveiled the Biodiversity Standard, a robust framework aimed at enhancing transparency and accountability in reporting the global response to the biodiversity crisis.

EXPLANATION:

  • It is developed by the Global Sustainability Standards Board (GSSB).
    • The standard addresses the urgent need for organizations worldwide to understand and disclose their impacts on biodiversity, considering the escalating pressures on the environment.

Key Components of GRI Biodiversity Standard:

  • Background and Development:
    • The GRI Biodiversity Standard is a pivotal update known as GRI 101: Biodiversity 2024, designed to be adopted globally by businesses.
    • Developed by GSSB, the document reflects vital inputs from representative organizations and aligns with key global developments in biodiversity, including the UN Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, the Science-Based Target Network, and the Taskforce on Nature-Related Financial Disclosures.
  • Implementation Timeline:
    • The standard will officially come into effect for reporting purposes from January 1, 2026.
    • GRI plans a two-year pilot phase with early adopters, emphasizing community engagement and participation in shaping the application of the standard.
  • Transparency and Supply Chain Impact:
    • The GRI Biodiversity Standard prioritizes transparency throughout the supply chain to address underreported biodiversity impacts.
    • It mandates disclosure of location-specific impacts, including countries and jurisdictions, and details about operational sites.
  • Drivers of Biodiversity Loss:
    • Organizations are required to report direct drivers of biodiversity loss, such as land use, pollution, invasive species, and climate change.
    • This emphasis on identifying and managing significant impacts aims to enhance understanding of dependencies and risks.
  • Impacts on Communities and Indigenous Peoples:
    • The standard places a noteworthy focus on impacts on communities and Indigenous Peoples.
    • Organizations must disclose their communication strategies with local groups and efforts to aid in the restoration of affected ecosystems.
  • Alignment with Global Goals:
    • Carol Adams, Chair of GRI GSSB, emphasizes that the updated standard raises the bar for transparency and identifies an organization’s most significant impacts.
    • Biodiversity loss is linked to the UN-mandated Sustainable Development Goals, with consequences for both people and the climate crisis.
  • Nature Positive Initiative Endorsement:
    • Convener of the Nature Positive Initiative recognizes the importance of standards and metrics in assessing and reporting negative and positive impacts.
    • Convener emphasizes the need for collective action and accountability to achieve the global goal of halting and reversing biodiversity loss.

Conclusion:

  • The GRI Biodiversity Standard emerges as a crucial tool in addressing the biodiversity crisis by providing a comprehensive framework for organizations to transparently report and manage their impacts.
  • With a focus on supply chain transparency, drivers of biodiversity loss, and impacts on communities, the standard aligns with global initiatives and goals, emphasizing the urgency of collective action for a nature-positive future.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/new-gri-biodiversity-standard-demands-reporting-of-drivers-of-biodiversity-loss-impact-on-indigenous-peoples-94268




SUN’s ROLE IN GLOBAL WARMING

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Climate change remains a pressing concern, with various factors contributing to the rising global temperatures. In this installment, we delve into a commonly asked question: “Is the Sun behind the rising global temperatures?” Let’s explore the intricate relationship between the Sun and Earth’s climate.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Sun, a middle-aged star, serves as the primary source of energy for Earth’s biological and physical processes.
  • Its radiant heat plays a pivotal role in maintaining liquid water, fostering plant growth, and influencing the planet’s weather systems.
  • However, the Sun’s brightness is not constant, undergoing an 11-year cycle of high and low activity due to magnetic pole reversals.

Solar activity

Solar Variability and Historical Changes

  • NASA reports indicate that during each solar cycle, the Sun undergoes fluctuations in radiation levels, material ejected into space, sunspots, and solar flares.
  • Historical data reveals a small increase in sunlight reaching Earth between the late 1800s and mid-1900s.
  • It contributes to a minor fraction of the observed warming (0.1 degree Celsius) since the pre-industrial era.

Debunking the Sun as the Driving Force

  • Despite historical variations in solar activity, the Sun is not the primary driver of current global warming.
  • Over the past five decades, Earth’s average temperature has surged to unprecedented levels, but the Sun’s energy output has only fluctuated by a mere 0.1%, as confirmed by NASA’s 2019 report.
  • This negligible change discounts the Sun as a major contributor to contemporary global warming.

Atmospheric Observations: Greenhouse Gases vs. Solar Influence

  • Contrary to the hypothesis that increased solar energy output would warm all layers of Earth’s atmosphere, recent observations paint a different picture.
  • While the lower atmosphere experiences warming, the upper atmosphere has displayed cooling trends.
  • This disparity aligns more closely with the effects of greenhouse gases, challenging the notion of the Sun as the primary culprit.

Human Activities and Global Warming

  • A pivotal revelation emerges when examining the timeline of global temperature increases since 1975.
  • Earth has warmed at a consistent rate of approximately 0.15 to 0.20 degrees Celsius per decade.
  • The correlation between this warming trend and the escalating levels of greenhouse gases strongly implicates human activities, particularly the burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes, as the driving forces behind the current phase of global warming.

Conclusion

  • In summary, while the Sun’s variability has historically contributed to slight temperature fluctuations, it is not the driving force behind the recent surge in global temperatures.
  • Human-induced factors, notably the emission of greenhouse gases, emerge as the primary culprits.
  • Understanding these dynamics is crucial for implementing effective strategies to mitigate the impacts of climate change and work towards a sustainable future.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/is-sun-behind-rising-global-temperatures-climate-change-9145524/




TOPIC- ANALYSING THE SC VERDICT ON SAME-SEX MARRIAGE

THE CONTEXT: Recently, a five-judge Constitution bench headed by the Chief Justice of India has delivered its verdict on the issue of same sex marriage. The Court has taken some steps to protect same-sex unions from discrimination. But in the final analysis, the Court did not grant recognition to same-sex marriage and stated that there is no fundamental right to marry. This article analyses the judgement and its implications from the UPSC PERSPECTIVE.

A BRIEF OVERVIEW OF THE SUPRIYA CHAKRABORTY VS UNION OF INDIA CASE

  • In the Supriya Chakraborty v Union of India case, petitions were filed for recognition of the right to marry and establish a family to sexual and gender minority individuals in India.
  • The grounds cited by the petitioners were protections from discrimination, the right to equality, dignity, personal liberty, privacy, and personal autonomy, and freedom of conscience and expression.
  • Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud and Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul have ruled that queer couples have a right to seek recognition for their union but declined to read down the provisions of the Special Marriage Act to that effect.
  • On the other hand, Justices S. Ravindra Bhat, Hima Kohli and P.S. Narasimha rejected the position, holding that any such recognition can only be based on statute.

  • Hence, in the final verdict, a 3-2 majority favoured the refusal of legal recognition to unions other than heteronormative ones. The bench asserted that there is no fundamental right to marriage under the Indian Constitution.
  • The Court upheld the Special Marriage Act, 1954 in its current form, e., permitting marriages only between a ‘man’ and a ‘woman’. It does not extend it to same-sex marriages.
  • It upheld the institution of marriage flows from the statutes created by the state and the right to marry is not expressly recognized either as a fundamental or constitutional right under the Indian Constitution but a statutory right.
  • The Court has accepted the government’s view that any move to legalise same-sex marriages will fall in the legislature’s domain.
  • The Centre has been told to establish a high-powered committee under the Cabinet Secretary to consider the scheme of rights flowing from the civil union. This would range from opening joint bank accounts, same-sex spouses being a beneficiary for provident funds, pensions or inheritance to such spouses, among others.

MINORITY STAND

  • Emphasis of individual liberty, dignity and choice: They argued that the legal recognition of civil unions for non-heterosexual couples represents a step towards marriage equality. They said that the right to form unions comes from the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression, and the right to life. The minority view also said that with civil union status, same-sex couples must be extended the “bouquet of rights” that heterosexual couples are entitled to.
  • Recognizing past injustices faced by the queer group and the state’s insensitivity:  Majority stand, has highlighted the discrimination faced by queer group. The queer people exist across all communities and settlements, urban or rural and state is quite insensitive to address their concerns.

MAJORITY STAND

  • Three judges of the five-judge Constitution bench disagreed with the Chief Justice of India on adoption rights for LGBTQIA people but agreed that the Special Marriage Act, 1956 (SMA) cannot be interpreted in such a manner so as to enable marriage between queer persons.
  • Majority stated that the legislation regarding institution of marriage comes within the state power and only state has the power to frame such legislation by framing an independent structure for queers.
  • The line between recognizing rights and overstepping boundaries: It is recognised that LGBTQ community faces discrimination from the state but declined acceptance on same-sex marriage. As such, a decision fell outside its purview and should be addressed by the Indian Parliament.
  • Separation of Power: Majority opinion stated that striking down the SMA provisions would jeopardise the legal framework for interfaith and inter-caste couples. It was added that interpreting the SMA in a gender-neutral way would amount to “judicial lawmaking”, which would violate the doctrine of separation of powers.

THE HISTORICAL CONTEXT: PREVIOUS JUDGMENTS

NALSA CASE JUDGEMENT (2014)

  • In the NALSA case judgement, the court held that transgenders fall within the purview of the Indian Constitution and thus are fully entitled to the rights guaranteed therein.
  • The court made a distinction between biological sex and psychological sex. The judgment affirmed transgender people’s fundamental right to marry.

K. PUTTASWAMY V UNION OF INDIA (2017)

  • It linked privacy with the rights of queer persons. In this judgement on Right to privacy, the Supreme Court held that sexual orientation of any individual comes under his/her Right to Privacy.
  • This landmark judgement became the basis of declaring Sec 377 of IPC, under which Homosexuality was a crime, unconstitutional.

NAVTEJ SINGH JOHAR AND OTHERS V. UNION OF INDIA 2018

  • In September 2018, a five-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously decriminalized consensual sex between two adults irrespective of their gender and partially struck down Section 377 of the IPC.
  • The court referred to those areas of the section that criminalized consensual unnatural sex as “irrational, indefensible and manifestly arbitrary”.
  • The SC held that members of the LGBTQ community “are entitled, as all other citizens, to the full range of constitutional rights including the liberties protected by the Constitution and are entitled to equal citizenship and equal protection of law.
  • However, in its ruling, the court also made it clear that other aspects dealing with unnatural sex with animals and children still remained in force, and that it was confining its order to consenting acts between two adults.

SHAKTI VAHINI V. UNION OF INDIA (2018)

  • A petition was filed under Art. 32 of the Indian Constitution to seek directions for the state governments as well as Central govt. to take necessary steps to prevent honour-related crimes.
  • The SC recognized the right of two consenting adults to choose each other as partners in marriage to be a fundamental right under Arts. 19 and 21 of the Indian constitution.
  • There is no requirement of consent of the family members, community or clan as a whole is not required.

THE RELEVANCE OF THIS CASE FOR THE  INDIAN SOCIETY

  • Large sections of Indian society are still opposed to the legalisation of same-sex marriages on religious and cultural grounds.
  • People believe marriage is traditionally defined as a union between a man and a woman. According to society, altering this definition undermines traditional family values and the institution of marriage.
  • Opponents argue that the primary purpose of marriage is procreation and raising children, and same-sex couples cannot fulfill this purpose. They believe children need both a mother and a father for a well-rounded upbringing.
  • Same-sex marriage is seen as inconsistent with Indian cultural and religious beliefs by opponents. They fear legalizing it would erode traditional values and contribute to the Westernization of Indian culture.
  • According to a survey titled ‘Politics and Society Between Elections 2019’ conducted by the Delhi-based think tank Centre for the Study Developing Societies (CSDS)-Lokniti in collaboration with Azim Premji University in Bengaluru. More than half of the respondents disapproved of recognition for same-sex relationships.
  • The findings of the survey contradict popular perceptions about Indian acceptance of same-sex relationships as it was earlier thought as elitist and urban which comes out contradictory in survey. Nearly 59% of urban respondents said they did not want society to accept same-sex relationships in contraction to 53% of rural respondents. Also, at the same time, it is found that income does shape one’s opinion on same-sex relationships, but higher income doesn’t necessarily lead to a tilt towards acceptance.
  • According to the survey, India’s minorities, in comparison to religious majorities, tend to strongly reject same-sex relationships. The religiosity in the state could be a link in defining their attitude towards such unions.

PUBLIC PERCEPTION AND MEDIA ROLE

  • The survey found that increased media exposure leads to higher acceptance of same-sex relationships as media plays a key role in shaping opinion around LGBTQIA+,
  • The findings also show that only 10 per cent of respondents with no media exposure tend to exhibit acceptance of same-sex relationships. The acceptance rate can go as high as 33 per cent for those with very high media exposure.

JURISPRUDENTIAL EXAMINATION FROM THREE PERSPECTIVES: LEGAL, MORAL, AND SOCIOLOGICAL

LEGAL

  • The case has a legal angle attached to the judgement as the court has cited the limits of its jurisdiction and emphasised the legislative authority over such matters.
  • There arises issue of violation of fundamental rights which is cited by petitioners that the exclusion of couples from sexual and gender minority communities from marriage laws constituted a violation of fundamental right. Similarly, the notice and objection provisions in secular marriage laws Special Marriage Act and Foreign Marriage Act constituted a violation.
  • However, Jurisprudence of the courts interpreting constitutional provisions and including new rights in a liberal and expansive manner was not put into practice in this case.
  • Hence, following Article 32 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies and designates the Supreme Court as the protector of Fundamental Rights, the petitioners argued that they are within their rights to approach the Supreme Court.

MORAL

  • Another angle attached to the case is moral angle. Violating the rights of the queer community comes under the violation of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), of which India is a signatory.
  • Even the Indian Constitution and courts have also been greatly influenced by the UDHR.
  • Even in the Maneka Gandhi case, the Court relied on Article 10 of the UDHR to include principles of natural justice in the administrative process.
  • In Navtej Johar Case (2018), CJI DY Chandrachud had held that “the Court has to be guided by the conception of constitutional morality and not by societal morality”.

SOCIOLOGICAL.

  • The case tends to have societal impacts as it regulates relationships between people and prescribes behaviour patterns reflecting societal values.
  • However, as the social realities change, the law changes. Also, sometimes a legal change precedes societal changes and is even intended to stimulate.
  • Also, Article 15 of the Indian Constitution guarantees protection from discrimination. The Supreme Court extended the protection to include sexual orientation and gender identity.
  • The Supreme Court itself has  held that the choice of marital partner is an exercise of freedom of expression enshrined in Article 19 in Vikas Yadav v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2016), Asha Ranjan v. State of Bihar (2017), Shakti Vahini v. UOI (2018) and Shafin Jahan v Ashokan K.M. (2018).
  • The SC said that unwarranted disclosure of the marriage plans might jeopardise the marriage and endanger the lives of the couple because of societal perception.

IMPLICATIONS OF THE JUDGEMENT FOR THE FUTURE

  • Setback for the queer community: The ruling is a setback for India’s LGBTQ community. Many had expected the Supreme Court to grant them the right to marry their partners. As, in 2018 the supreme court scrapped a colonial-era law banning homosexuality in India, hope was this time for same sex marriage. While acceptance of homosexuality is growing, this judgement proves that Indian society still remains largely conservative. It is resistance to opening up marriage to same-sex couples, who still face rampant discrimination and harassment in society.
  • Maintaining Status quo: There is no real meaningful application of the case as it keeps the status quo running with no important verdict. Beyond recognising natal family violence, it “doesn’t provide any real immediately actionable right to queer couples.
  • No recognition in society: Marriage is indeed a social institution, with its own legal requirements and conditions for what constitutes a valid marriage. The right to seek social and legal validation through marriage is a matter of individual choice protected by the Constitution, but the Court still views it as being subject to statutory limitations.
  • Formation of committee: The Court called on the Solicitor General’s submission that the government will constitute a committee, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, to set out the benefits and entitlements for same-sex couples. It is to see whether the committee takes the right decision for ensuring the rights of the queer community.
  • Less chance of legislation: Given that large sections of India may be opposed to the legalisation of same-sex marriages on religious and cultural grounds, the possibility of Parliament taking the initiative to do so is quite less. Also, States such as Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan have opposed outright the legal recognition of same-sex marriages in the past. This judgment will only delay the already long and arduous struggle to create the conditions where same sex couples could live a life in freedom without fear.

THE WAY FORWARD

  • Queer inclusive Policies: There is a need of proactive approach by law enforcement agencies by bringing in legal reforms. Inclusive approach for queer couples must be planned and adopted by the Government and society.
  • Dialogue and Engagement: Engaging in a dialogue with religious leaders and communities can help bridge the gap between traditional beliefs and modern attitudes towards same-sex relationships. By working together, we can create a more inclusive society where everyone has the right to love and marry whomever they choose, regardless of their gender.
  • Sensitization of authorities:There is a need of sensitization of authorities by creating awareness regarding equality of individuals irrespective of gender by modifying their behaviour and views. Change of approach of authorities can led to gender justice, equality and inclusion of queer community in the society.
  • Granting recognition to marriage: It should be on the part of the legislature to frame adequate laws to grant recognition to the marriage of queer people. It is the duty of the State to extend necessary protection. It would signal a positive message and acceptance in society for queer people as well.
  • Regulatory framework:There should be a separate anti-discrimination law and proper laws for punishment for the discriminatory practices against queer people to undo the historical injustice against the community as current laws are fragmented.
  • Adoption regulation:Law on adoption should be on the basis of merit, not on sex. Merely because a relationship is regulated by law, it does not mean that couples who are not married are not serious about their relationship.
  • Global recognition:A growing number of governments around the world are considering whether to grant legal recognition to same-sex marriages. India should also come forward to grant legal recognition for protection of their rights. State legislatures can enact laws recognising and regulating same-sex marriages; the Constitution under Articles 245 and 246 empowers both the Parliament and the State to enact marriage regulations. They need to create a gender-neutral law for marriage.

THE CONCLUSION: This verdict of the Supreme Court seems to have a significant impact on the queer community, and its significance lies in the broader trajectory of LGBTQ+ rights in India. The courts and the government have to come out and need to take steps for the larger good of marginalised communities as well. There is a need to create a more inclusive society by giving equal rights regardless of their gender.

MAINS QUESTIONS

Q.1 Queer community faces various challenges in Indian society. How far legalization of same sex marriage would address the discrimination faced by them? Analyse with respect to the impact of previous judgements of the Supreme Court.

Q.2 The Supreme Court’s recent unanimous verdict against legalizing same-sex marriage in India underscores the ongoing struggle for LGBTQ+ rights. Critically examine the implication of the judgement on the queer community.




A CRITICAL VIEW OF THE ‘SANITATION MIRACLE’ IN RURAL INDIA

THE CONTEXT: In the past decade, improving sanitation coverage has been one of the key public policy miracles in India. It is in line with access to water and sanitation which is Goal 6 in the 17 Sustainable Development Goals envisaged by the United Nations. However, despite various measures there are few rising concerns regarding issues in sanitation.

BACKGROUND:

  • Public sanitation programmes have a long history in the country, beginning with the launch of the highly subsidised Central Rural Sanitation Programme (CRSP) in 1986.
  • The Total Sanitation Campaign in 1999 marked a shift from a high subsidy regime to a low subsidy one and a demand-driven approach.
  • The public sanitation programme evolved as a mission in 2014 under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Grameen (SBM-G) to make India Open Defecation Free (ODF) by October 2019.
  • According to information by the Government of India, sanitation coverage in the country improved from 39% in 2014 to 100% in 2019.
  • Encouraged by the achievements under the SBM, the government launched Phase II of the SBM-G. The focus here was on the sustainability of initial achievements by promoting solid and liquid waste management and covering those households left out earlier.
  • The government aims to transform India from ODF to ODF Plus by 2024-25. Around 85% of villages in India have become ODF Plus, according to government data.
  • Nevertheless, this impressive performance also needs to be viewed from the perspective of behavioural change, which will usher in sustainability in a true sense.

 OPEN DEFECATION FREE STATUS:

  • ODF: An area can be notified or declared as ODF if at any point of the day, not even a single person is found defecating in the open.
  • ODF+: This status is given if at any point of the day, not a single person is found defecating and/or urinating in the open, and all community and public toilets are functional and well maintained.
  • ODF++: This status is given if the area is already ODF+ and the faecal sludge/septage and sewage are safely managed and treated, with no discharging or dumping of untreated faecal sludge and sewage into the open drains, water bodies or areas.

ISSUES:

  • Unused despite construction: The construction of toilets does not automatically lead to their use. A National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) survey (69th round), showed that in 2012, when 59% of rural households had no access to a toilet, 4% of individuals who had access reported not using the facility. The primary reasons for not using one were not having any superstructure (21%), the facility malfunctioning (22%), the facility being unhygienic/unclean (20%), and personal reasons (23%).
  • Variations: There are variations across surveys of the percentage of households having access to toilets and their uses. The more comprehensive National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey (NARSS)- Round-3 (2019-20), conducted by the Ministry, shows that 95% of the rural population had toilet access in India. However, the same report suggests that only 85% of the rural population used safe, functional, and hygienic toilets. Assuming that the same percentage of people have toilet access as the households, the gap rises to 10% between access to toilets and their use.
  • Household size: The econometric models show that along with economic conditions and education, toilet use depends on household size. The higher the household size, the greater the chances of not using the toilet. Overcrowding prevent all household members from using the same toilet. Phase II of the programme does not have any criteria mandating multiple toilets for households larger than a certain size. Neither does it have any provision for building an attached bathroom.
  • Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM): The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) programme was launched to provide tap water to each household by 2024. Nevertheless, no relation has been observed between per capita central expenses made on the JJM and the percentage of villages declared ODF Plus across States. Neither is there any relation between the percentage of ODF Plus villages in a State and households having tap connections.
  • Social norms: Social norms that act through social networks play a significant role in toilet construction and use. Examining the networks through which others influence people for their sanitation behaviour, it is observed that the size and characteristics of these networks can be different in various parts of the country.
  • Socio economic issues: In one of the upper caste-dominated villages, lower castes find it difficult to make social norms acceptable and enforceable. Hence, sanitation decisions are less likely to be taken independently.
  • Lack of synergy: Around 10 crore toilets were constructed between 2014 and 2019 during the initial phase of the SBM-G. There are separate programmes for each of these basic needs, but they are not well coordinated. The lack of overall planning in India has led to a lack of synergy of programmes despite high levels of expenditure in fulfilling basic needs. Uncoordinated efforts often lead to an inefficient utilisation of precious public finances.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Collective behaviour change: The collective behavioural change in the nation needs to take place. As studies suggest that behavioural change in sanitation cannot happen independently. It is contingent upon social networks and an overall improvement of living standards, including better housing and access to basic services.
  • Covering left out households: The left-out households appear substantial and need to be covered in SBM Phase II. The government should identify the shortcomings of the previous phase and cover the gaps in the present phase.
  • Civil society participation: Sanitation Policies and Programs should facilitate the participation of civil society including women in the design, implementation and monitoring of local priorities in rural and urban areas.
  • Effective monitoring: There is a need for strengthening of institutions for efficient monitoring and evaluation for improved accountability and implementation.
  • Conduct analysis and assessment: An analysis to examine policies, governance structures, and funding is needed. An assessment is necessary for updated figures on schemes coverage and compliance in health facilities. It will form the basis for prioritising policies and mobilising resources.

THE CONCLUSION:

There have been significant improvements in public health since sanitation systems and schemes have been implemented but universal access to safely managed sanitation services remains a challenge. The government needs to identify the shortcomings in the existing programme to transform India from open defecation free to open defecation free-plus status by 2024-25.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. What are the impediments in disposing the huge quantities of discarded solid waste which are continuously being generated? How do we remove safely the toxic wastes that have been accumulating in our habitable environment? (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. Despite significant improvement in sanitation coverage in the country from 39% in 2014 to 100% in 2019, it is facing several constraints. Identify the socio economic and behavioural constraints and justify with data and figures and suggest the measures to address the shortcomings.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/a-critical-view-of-the-sanitation-miracle-in-rural-india/article67814953.ece