RAISINA DIALOGUE 2024: NAVIGATING GLOBAL CHALLENGES

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The Raisina Dialogue, an annual conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, is set to kick off its ninth edition from today until February 23 in New Delhi.

EXPLANATION:

  • With a focus on addressing the most pressing global issues, the conference is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together leaders from political, business, media, and civil society backgrounds.
  • We will delve into the key aspects of the Raisina Dialogue 2024, covering its purpose, theme, participants, and more.

Purpose and Background

  • It is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs.
  • The Raisina Dialogue serves as a crucial forum for global leaders to engage in cross-sectoral discussions.
  • Designed to facilitate conversations among heads of state, cabinet ministers, local government officials, and thought leaders, the conference aims to tackle complex geopolitical and geoeconomic challenges.
  • The conference will be inaugurated by Prime Minister, emphasizing India’s commitment to fostering international dialogue.
  • Greece’s Prime Minister will join the inaugural session as the chief guest, highlighting the global significance of the event.
  • The 2024 edition of the Raisina Dialogue is themed “Chaturanga: Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create.”
  • This theme underscores the dynamic and multifaceted nature of global challenges, encapsulating the need for strategic thinking and collaboration.
  • The theme is structured around six thematic pillars, guiding discussions over the three-day conference.

Thematic Pillars

  • Tech Frontiers: Regulations & Realities: Exploring the challenges and opportunities at the intersection of technology and international regulations.
  • Peace with the Planet: Invest & Innovate: Addressing environmental concerns and sustainable practices, emphasizing investment and innovation.
  • War & Peace: Armouries & Asymmetries: Analyzing global security dynamics, focusing on military strategies and asymmetrical threats.
  • Decolonising Multilateralism: Institutions & Inclusion: Examining the evolution of multilateral institutions and promoting inclusive approaches.
  • The Post 2030 Agenda: People & Progress: Discussing the global agenda beyond 2030, with a focus on societal progress and well-being.
  • Defending Democracy: Society & Sovereignty: Exploring challenges and strategies to defend democratic values, emphasizing societal and sovereign aspects.

Participants and Global Reach

  • More than 2,500 participants from approximately 115 countries will physically attend the conference, while millions are expected to engage through various digital platforms.
  • The diverse participants include ministers, former prime ministers, presidents, military commanders, technology leaders, academics, journalists, scholars on strategic affairs, and experts from leading think tanks.

Conclusion

  • The Raisina Dialogue 2024 emerges as a pivotal moment for global leaders to collaboratively navigate the complexities of the contemporary world.
  • With its diverse participants and comprehensive thematic pillars, the conference is poised to foster meaningful dialogue and strategic solutions to address the multifaceted challenges facing the global community.
  • As the international community tunes in, the Raisina Dialogue stands as a testament to the importance of inclusive and informed discussions in shaping a better future.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-raisina-dialogue-9171750/




BRIGHTEST OBJECT IN THE UNIVERSE: J0529-4351 AND IT’S MASSIVE ACCRETION DISC

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: In a groundbreaking discovery reported in Nature Astronomy, astronomers have identified J0529-4351, a black hole surrounded by the largest and brightest accretion disc ever found.

EXPLANATION:

  • This celestial object stands out as the brightest entity in the universe, emitting light that surpasses anything observed before.
  • We will delve into the characteristics of J0529-4351, shedding light on its enormity and the technological advancements that facilitated its recent detection.

The Enormity of J0529-4351

  • J0529-4351’s accretion disc spans a staggering seven light years across, making it a colossal structure in the cosmic landscape.
  • This disc serves as a captivating gateway to a place of no return.
  • It is a domain where the gravitational forces are so intense that nothing, not even light, can escape.

The Brightest Object in the Universe

  • The intensity of light emitted from J0529-4351’s accretion disc is awe-inspiring, registering at a mind-boggling 500 trillion times brighter than the Sun.
  • This luminosity implies a voracious appetite, as the black hole engulfs material equivalent to the mass of our Sun every day.
  • With a mass estimated to be between 15 to 20 billion times that of our Sun, J0529-4351 stands as the brightest known object in the universe.

Black Hole Feeding Frenzy

  • J0529-4351’s brilliance is a remnant of a bygone era in the universe when black holes engaged in a feeding frenzy.
  • Rapidly growing supermassive black holes, like J0529-4351, were once more common, as they attracted stars and gas clouds into their gravitational clutches.
  • However, in the present universe, such feeding frenzies are waning, as the available gas has largely transformed into stars and settled into orderly orbits around dormant black holes.

The Age of Sleeping Giants

  • Supermassive black holes in the current universe are mostly dormant, resembling sleeping giants.
  • The once chaotic cosmic environment, where collisions between stars and black holes were frequent, has transitioned into a more stable state.
  • Even if a star were to approach a black hole today, it would likely execute a slingshot maneuver, evading capture.

Accretion Discs: Unfriendly Territories

  • Accretion discs, such as the one around J0529-4351, are not only gateways to the point of no return but also hostile environments.
  • These discs resemble colossal storm cells, with clouds glowing at temperatures reaching several tens of thousands of degrees Celsius.
  • The rapid movement of these clouds, reaching speeds of up to 100,000 kilometers per second, makes accretion discs inhospitable and perilous for any form of life.

Technological Advances and Discovery

  • The discovery of J0529-4351 was made possible through a massive astronomical survey of the entire sky, facilitated by advanced telescopes and a ten-year partnership between Australia and the European Southern Observatory.
  • Traditional search methods, avoiding the limitations of machine learning, were employed to identify extreme objects like J0529-4351, which might be overlooked by automated algorithms.

Black Hole:

  • Black holes are points in space that are so dense they create deep gravity sinks. Beyond a certain region, not even light can escape the powerful tug of a black hole’s gravity.
  • In other words, Black holes are regions in space where an enormous amount of mass is packed into a tiny volume.

Supernova:

  • A supernova is what happens when a star has reached the end of its life and explodes in a brilliant burst of light.
  • Supernovas can briefly outshine entire galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its entire lifetime.
  • They’re also the primary source of heavy elements in the universe.
  • According to NASA, supernovas are “the largest explosion that takes place in space.”

Conclusion

  • J0529-4351 stands as a testament to the vastness and complexity of the universe. Its discovery not only adds a dazzling entry to the cosmic record but also underscores the advancements in astronomical technology and international collaborations that enable humanity to unravel the mysteries of the cosmos. As we continue to explore the depths of space, J0529-4351 serves as a beacon, guiding our quest for understanding the most extreme phenomena in the universe.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/science-technology/the-brightest-object-in-the-universe-is-a-black-hole-that-eats-a-star-a-day-94557




U.S. VETO ON GAZA CEASE-FIRE RESOLUTION

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The United States’ veto of a U.N. Security Council resolution calling for an immediate ceasefire in Gaza has sparked international criticism.

EXPLANATION:

  • The move comes amid escalating conflict between Israel and Palestinian militant group Hamas, leading to a surge in casualties and displacement.
  • The U.S. circulated its own resolution, noteworthy for including the term “cease-fire” but without an immediate implementation clause.
  • Ambassador justified the veto, citing potential harm to delicate negotiations related to freeing hostages in Gaza.

International Reactions

  • Allied Criticism: Traditional U.S. allies such as France, Malta, and Slovenia, joined China and Russia in criticizing the U.S. stance.
  • Humanitarian Appeal: Slovenia emphasized the intolerable human toll in Gaza, while France called for an end to Israeli operations for the sake of humanitarian concerns.

Global Disapproval

  • Failure of the Resolution: Algeria’s envoy expressed disappointment in the Security Council’s failure to send a strong message to Palestinians.
  • Historical Judgment: Algeria’s representative urged Security Council members to examine their consciences, questioning how history would judge them.
  • Imminent Ground Incursion: Israel’s planned move into the southern Gaza Strip raised concerns, with the U.S. denying accusations of covering for an imminent ground incursion.
  • Retaliatory Campaign: The death toll in Gaza surged, prompting increased pressure on Israel, including from the U.S., to exercise restraint.

Diplomatic Dynamics

  • Russian Critique: Russia’s envoy accused the U.S. of attempting to divert attention from its veto exercise, emphasizing the unacceptability of Algeria’s text.
  • Intentions Questioned: Some diplomats raised eyebrows, speculating on whether the U.S. truly seeks the resolution or aims to prompt a Russian veto.
  • Potential Unease: The mere introduction of a U.S. counter-resolution is seen as likely to “make Israel nervous,” reflecting concerns about the evolving diplomatic landscape.

U.N. Security Council:

  • The United Nations Charter established six main organs of the United Nations, including the Security Council.
  • Under the United Nations Charter, the functions and powers of the Security Council are:
    • to maintain international peace and security;
    • to develop friendly relations among nations;
    • to cooperate in solving international problems and in promoting respect for human rights;
    • to be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations.
  • It has 15 Members, and each Member has one vote.
  • Under the Charter of the United Nations, all Member States are obligated to comply with Council decisions.
  • The Security Council takes the lead in determining the existence of a threat to the peace or act of aggression.
  • It calls upon the parties to a dispute to settle it by peaceful means and recommends methods of adjustment or terms of settlement.
  • In some cases, the Security Council can resort to imposing sanctions or even authorize the use of force to maintain or restore international peace and security.
  • The Security Council held its first session on 17 January 1946 at Church House, Westminster, London. Since its first meeting, the Security Council has taken permanent residence at the United Nations Headquarters in New York City.
  • It also travelled to many cities, holding sessions in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, in 1972, in Panama City, Panama, and in Geneva, Switzerland, in 1990.
  • Veto power is a special power given to the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), namely China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
  • Essentially, it gives these countries the ability to reject or veto any action by the UNSC that does not align with their national interests or foreign policy objectives.
  • In the United Nations Security Council, decisions are made with a majority of 9 votes of the 15 Council members’ votes. All decision is rejected if one of the five permanent members of the Security Council makes use of its veto

Conclusion

  • The U.S. veto on the Gaza cease-fire resolution has generated intense international debate, highlighting the complexities of diplomatic efforts in the context of the Israel-Palestine conflict.
  • The alternative U.S. resolution reflects a nuanced approach, attempting to balance concerns for an immediate cease-fire with ongoing negotiations and broader geopolitical considerations.

SOURCE: https://www.courthousenews.com/us-vetoes-security-council-vote-on-gaza-cease-fire-pushes-alternative/




WSDP Bulletin (21/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Maharashtra Assembly unanimously clears 10% Maratha quota; CM Shinde says it will survive test of law READ MORE

2. US vetoes Security Council vote on Gaza cease-fire, pushes alternative READ MORE

3. India, Sri Lanka take trade pact talks ahead READ MORE

4. Inflation expectations may stabilise, edge down going ahead: RBI bulletin READ MORE

5. Rules that edge out women from employment for getting married are ‘coarse’, unconstitutional: Supreme Court READ MORE

6. Global study quantifies rise in blood clots, heart inflammation following COVID-19 vaccination READ MORE

7. Raisina Dialogue begins today: Everything you need to know about the conference READ MORE

8. What is Article 142, invoked by Supreme Court to overturn Chandigarh mayoral poll results? READ MORE

9. The brightest object in the universe is a black hole that eats a star a day READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. A 100-year-old story of British brutality & Sikh sacrifice READ MORE

2. Caste census lessons for new government in Bihar READ MORE

3. Are Dalits homogenous or heterogenous? READ MORE

4. Calm assessment: On the extent of ‘deemed forest’ READ MORE

5. Heed SC’s directive on saving forests READ MORE

6. Definition of forest: SC underscores concerns over land diversion READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Having panchayats as self-governing institutions READ MORE

2. Judicial clarity on free speech READ MORE

3. SC examines divorced Muslim women’s right to maintenance under Section 125 of the CrPC READ MORE

4. TN resolution voices South India’s concerns READ MORE

5. SC bonds ruling a reminder how weak India’s key institutions are READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Why are Indians falling ill so frequently? READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Tolerance, coexistence taking root in UAE READ MORE

2. How effective is the UN in conflict mitigation READ MORE

3. India is on the right track in Nepal READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. MSP is the minimum support farmers need to stay in business READ MORE

2. Small farmers’ interests overlooked READ MORE

3. Rate Cut Dilemma READ MORE

4. Green Revolution, 2.0 READ MORE

5. Towards Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA): Strategies, obstacles, and visions for a sustainable future READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Warming up to climate change: How does climate change impact extreme weather events? READ MORE

2. Air pollution needs decentralised, micro solutions READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Dark Net Woes READ MORE

2. Keep it wholesome: On shaping a national cervical cancer control programme READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Tech Wars or Old Battlefields: Lessons from the Recent Conflicts READ MORE

2. The future of counterterrorism: Evolving online tools and tactics READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Religion, a precise science of creating clarity READ MORE

2. Well done, Milords: SC did the right thing in overturning Chandigarh mayor’s elections. Poll process integrity defines democracy READ MORE

3. Work and wisdom READ MORE

4. Seeking truth in the world of deception READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. Gram sabhas have a significant role in fostering self-sufficiency and sustainable development at the grass-roots level by leveraging local resources for revenue generation. Examine.

2. Reservations alone can’t alleviate economic deprivation; they must be complemented by the increased availability of jobs and strong, inclusive growth. Comment in the light of recent developments.

3. Discuss why the UN is facing myriad obstacles in its quest for global harmony. How structural drawbacks to the intertwined interests of its members are affecting its effectiveness in conflict mitigation?

4. The Green Revolution transformed India from a ship-to-mouth existence to self-reliance, but it also sowed the seeds of its own destruction, leading to a grave farming crisis in the country. Examine.

5. Delimitation of constituencies on the basis of the present population will not only lead to inequitable representation in parliament but it will violate the 84th Constitutional amendment. Examine.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • Broad-mindedness is related to tolerance; open-mindedness is the sibling of peace.
  • There is a need to educate elected representatives and the public on the significance and the need for panchayats to be able to survive on its own resources.
  • Gram sabhas have a significant role in fostering self-sufficiency and sustainable development at the grass-roots level by leveraging local resources for revenue generation.
  • There is a need to educate elected representatives and the public on the significance of raising revenue to develop panchayats as self-governing institutions.
  • Small farmers lack the means to be part of MSP-driven procurement system. Despite the focus of the farmers’ talks on pulses, this needs to be addressed.
  • Withdrawing from regional trading agreements and insulating the farm sector may render it vulnerable to price volatility, with direct implications for domestic food price inflation.
  • Reservations alone can’t alleviate economic deprivation. They must be complemented by the increased availability of jobs and strong inclusive growth.
  • Reservations alone can’t alleviate economic deprivation; they must be complemented by the increased availability of jobs and strong, inclusive growth.
  • From structural drawbacks to the intertwined interests of its members, the UN faces myriad obstacles in its quest for global harmony.
  • The Green Revolution transformed India from a ship-to-mouth existence to self-reliance. But the Green Revolution was not an unmixed blessing. Over the decades which followed, it sowed the seeds of its own destruction, leading to a grave farming crisis in the country.
  • In the complex tapestry of global economic dynamics, India finds itself at a crossroads as the murmurs of a delayed rate cut gain momentum.
  • Delimitation of constituencies on the basis of the present population will lead to inequitable representation in parliament.
  • As terrorists and violent extremists adapt their online tactics in the era of AI, counterterrorism efforts should also evolve, employing new tools and approaches.
  • Climate-Smart Agriculture holds promise in building a robust agri-food system amidst the intensifying effects of climate change, however, there is a pressing need to enhance current initiatives.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.

50-WORD TALK

  • The demands of agitating farmers encapsulate broader systemic inequities within India’s farming landscape. While addressing these demands is crucial, sustainable solutions must prioritise the empowerment of small and marginal farmers. Assured support for pulses must be accompanied by marketing and financial reforms.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



TIES ACROSS THE SEA: ON THE INDIA-UAE CLOSE RELATIONSHIP

THE CONTEXT: Recent visit of India’s Prime Minister is his seventh visit to UAE since 2014, indicates the government’s desire to bring out the best of the India-UAE relationship in the Gulf region.

MORE ON THE NEWS

  • President of UAE has also expressed his appreciation to PM for accepting the invitation to speak at the World Government Summit 2024 in Dubai.
  • Prime Minister has inaugurated Abu Dhabi’s first Hindu temple, the BAPS temple which is built on a 27-acre site in Abu Mreikhah, near Al Rahba off the Dubai-Abu Dhabi Sheikh Zayed Highway.
  • India and the UAE have signed agreements to collaborate in areas such as energy, infrastructure, investments, and archive management.

KEY HIGHLIGHTS OF THE PACT

  • Bilateral Investment Treaty will strengthen a broad-based investment partnership. It will not only protect existing investments but also promote further capital flows between the two economies.
  • Inter-Governmental Framework Agreement on the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) aims to enhance regional connectivity.
  • Memorandum of Understanding for cooperation on Digital Infrastructure Projects will establish a comprehensive cooperation framework. This includes investment cooperation in the digital infrastructure sector and the exchange of technical knowledge and skills. Government and regulatory authorities will form partnerships under this MoU, focusing on high power computing, digital innovation, and data management platforms.
  • Memorandum of Understanding in the field of Electricity Interconnection and Trade will focus on green hydrogen, energy storage, and cooperation on energy security and trade.
  • Cooperation Protocol between the National Library and Archives of the UAE and the National Archives of India will establish expansive bilateral cooperation in the field of restoration and preservation of archival material. This protocol will also bolster cooperation in archives management via the exchange of expertise, historical information, research, and studies.
  • Agreement on interlinking of the instant payment platforms – UPI (India) and AANI (UAE) will enable seamless cross-border transactions.
  • Agreement on inter-linking domestic debit/credit cards – RuPay (India) with JAYWAN (UAE) is a significant step in fostering financial sector cooperation, which will boost the universal acceptance of RuPay across the UAE.
  • The MoU on the Development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) aims to foster engagement between the two countries to support the Maritime Heritage Complex at Lothal, Gujarat.
  • The new initiative Bharat Mart at Jebel Ali, which will further promote bilateral trade and serve as a platform for enhancing the utilization of CEPA by leveraging the strategic location of Jebel Ali port. Bharat Mart would support micro, small and medium sector enterprises from India by providing them an effective platform to reach out to international buyers and promote their products across Middle East, Africa, and Eurasia.

SIGNIFICANCE OF THE RELATIONSHIP:

  • UAE is India’s pre-eminent partner in the region in terms of both the strength and the breadth of our partnership. It really extends to every aspect of human endeavour, whether it is food security, energy security, counterterrorism or multilateral cooperation.
  • Economy: The UAE is now India’s third largest trading partner, India’s second largest export destination, and fourth largest source of
  • Diaspora: A central reason for the UAE being India’s closest partner in West Asia is strong diaspora of Indian community, which has been the most significant contributor to the UAE’s economy since the country was formed in 1971. The diaspora also contributes about 18% of India’s global remittances.
  • New developments: There are emerging strategic bond across newer sectors fintech, clean energy and climate action, food security, digital payments, investments, defence and cyber security and education.
  • Mutual values of cooperation: There is a mutual value of tolerance and pluralism, and “shared heritage of humanity” which serves as the most significant bonds between the two countries. India-UAE ties are also built on a bedrock of history and cultural engagement that includes centuries-old maritime trade.

ISSUES:

  • Trade Barriers Impacting Indian Exports: Non-tariff barriers (NTBs) like Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), notably mandatory Halal certification, have impeded Indian exports, particularly in sectors such as poultry, meat, and processed foods. These barriers have led to a significant decline in processed food exports to the UAE by almost 30% in recent years.
  • Chinese Economic Influence: China’s “Cheque Book Diplomacy,”characterized by offering low-interest loans, has overshadowed Indian economic endeavours in the UAE and the broader Middle East.
  • Certain frictional points: While India’s technological prowess and the UAE’s positioning as a trade and industry hub bring complementarities, the changes in their polity and societies bring possible friction points.
  • Concern over secularism: UAE as a theocratic monarchy seeks to democratise its governance and have a more pluralistic system, such as the decision on the temple in Abu Dhabi has expressed concern over the rise of majoritarian and sectarian forces in India.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Streamline trade flows: India and the UAE should work together to address non-tariff barriers that impede Indian exports, particularly in sectors such as processed foods. Both countries can engage in dialogues to streamline regulations and facilitate smoother trade flows.
  • Increasing investment: India can boost its economic presence in the UAE by increasing investments in key sectors and exploring opportunities for joint ventures and partnerships. Fostering a conducive business environment and promoting entrepreneurship can attract more Indian businesses to the UAE.
  • Counter Chinese influence: India and the UAE can collaborate to counter Chinese economic influence in the region by promoting transparency, sustainability, and fair business practices.
  • Addressing concern of migrants: Both countries should work towards improving the rights and welfare of migrant workers in the UAE, including reforming the Kafala system. It can be done by ensuring fair wages, decent living conditions, and protecting workers’ rights.

THE CONCLUSION:

India and the United Arab Emirates share good bilateral relations and India’s recent proactive diplomacy in West Asia has seen the emergence of the UAE as a significant partner. Even though the relations between India and the UAE are acquiring new heights, there are a few challenges and bottlenecks that need to be addressed if the true potential of the bilateral relationship is to be achieved.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. The question of India’s Energy Security constitutes the most important part of India’s economic progress. Analyse India’s energy policy cooperation with West Asian countries. (2017)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. How has India-UAE relationship progressed since its inception and highlight the significance and associated frictions of the relationship. Suggest the measures to boost the relationship further, discuss in the context of newer developments in the relationship.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/ties-across-the-sea-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-india-uae-close-relationship/article67860741.ece




BRAVE NEW WORLD: ON THE INDIA-EUROPEAN FREE TRADE ASSOCIATION AGREEMENT AND IPR

THE CONTEXT: As the draft of the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and European Free Trade Association (EFTA) has been finalised. There is a strong likelihood that India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) would soon enter into a free trade deal.

WHAT IS EUROPEAN FREE TRADE ASSOCIATION (EFTA)?

  • The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland.
  • It was set up in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention for the promotion of free trade and economic integration between its members.
  • The main tasks of the association are threefold:
  • Maintaining and developing the EFTA Convention which regulates economic relations between the four EFTA states.
  • Managing the Agreement on the European Economic Area (EEA Agreement), which brings together the Member States of the European Union and three of the EFTA States – Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway – in a single market, also referred to as the “Internal Market”.
  • Developing EFTA’s worldwide network of free trade agreements.

What is India- EFTA trade agreement?

  • It is a broad-ranging agreement that is being negotiated between India and the four countries since 2008 to increase investment by these countries in India and reduce tariffs, on a range of exports from these countries.
  • Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is the name of free trade negotiations between India and EFTA Countries.
  • Over the past two decades, the total trade between the EFTA States and India has been growing steadily. In 2022, the combined EFTA-India merchandise trade surpassed USD 6.1 billion.
  • The primary imports to the EFTA States consisted of organic chemicals (27.5%), while machinery (17.5%) and pharmaceutical products (11.4%), excluding gold, constituted the main exports to India.

ISSUES:

  • IPR rights: There is a bone of contention relating to intellectual property rights and has persisted as an issue since 2008.
  • Constant tussle between inventors and generic drug companies: There is a constant tussle between the inventors and the generic-drug companies over the issue of affordability. The nature of the pharma industry costs much to discover a useful effective drug and relatively little to make generic copies of it.
  • Issue of data exclusivity: Data exclusivity is an embargo clause that puts a minimum of six-year embargo on clinical trial data generated during the testing and development of a drug. Data exclusivity also applies to drugs not patented in India. This ensures adequate Intellectual Property Rights protection for the original drug manufacturers and incentivising innovation and R&D. However, it hampers the development of cheap generic drugs in the developing countries, particularly India and decreases the accessibility and affordability of latest drugs, hampering healthcare outcomes.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Invest in research: India’s rise in the drug manufacturing chain in the last few decades means that it must invest in an ecosystem that can conduct ethical drug trials and make new molecules and therapeutics from scratch. The government must invest in fundamental research to be able to develop reliable drugs. It can be done by providing grants or incentives to pharmaceutical companies to invest in research and development of generic versions of essential medicines.
  • Address the monopoly of the west: There is a need to change the perception and situation that drug development do not remain confined to the west. For example, during covid 19 pandemic a lot of development of several novel technology approaches to developing vaccines was seen in India.
  • Utilising anti-counterfeiting technologies for counterfeit drugs: It can be done through imaging technologies, variable data printing of unique numbers or barcodes with speciality inks, including invisible inks, and with RFID.
  • Strong regulatory framework:There is a need to strengthen regulations that ensure the safety, quality, and efficacy of generic medicines. It can be done by creating a clear approval process for generic drugs to enter the market.

THE CONCLUSION:

India has firmly rejected the demand from four European nations in the EFTA bloc for the inclusion of a ‘data exclusivity’ provision in proposed free trade agreements, citing its commitment to protecting the interests of the domestic generic drugs industry. As negotiations with EFTA progress, India remains focused on promoting fair and equitable trade relations while upholding its principles of protecting domestic industries.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. In the present geo-political scenario, the EU and India appear to be natural partners and they need to leverage existing opportunities. Discuss. (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. India’s firm stance against the inclusion of data exclusivity provisions in FTAs reflects its commitment to safeguarding the interests of its generic drug industry. Comment.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/brave-new-world-on-the-india-european-free-trade-association-agreement-and-ipr/article67853988.ece




THE RISE OF ‘INTELLIGENCE DIPLOMACY’ IN A TIME OF GLOBAL SECURITY CHALLENGES

THE CONTEXT: India has applied new diplomatic tactics based on intelligence, meetings, consultations, and naval diplomacy. Such approaches are evidence of India’s movement from seclusion toward integration into the global security dialogue. Of importance, too especially, is India’s movement towards fruitful intelligence cooperation and modernizing its intelligence agencies.

ISSUES:

  • Intelligence Diplomacy: Intelligence diplomacy is the policy priority, so India shares the data with the allied countries’ governments and security agencies. This suggests that India is moving from isolationist to mutually intelligent relationships.
  • Conference Diplomacy: India’s participation in the conference diplomacy in the form of the Raisina Dialogue, which is an event supported by the Observer Research Foundation and the Ministry of External Affairs, creates an avenue for the country to influence the global strategic discourse and build the transnational networks.
  • Naval Diplomacy: The Milan Naval Exercise in the Bay of Bengal manifests India’s naval diplomacy, a primary military diplomacy tool India uses to promote regional cooperation and security and highlight India’s strategic relevance in the Indo-Pacific.
  • Expansion of International Engagements: The paper focuses on the fast boost in global communities involved in international affairs, which provides the grounds for the emergence of think tanks and media outlets discussing foreign and security policies.
  • Modernization of Intelligence Agencies: India’s intelligence diplomacy is also an integral part of a broader effort at the modernization of intelligence agencies, which date back to the turn of the 19th century, like the Intelligence Bureau.
  • Global and Regional Security Challenges: Employing Indian diplomatic skills, including naval and intelligence diplomacy, answers the many new risks to world peace, which are deepened military crises, economic stress, and the return of great power rivalry.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Enhance Multilateral Intelligence Sharing: India should continue enhancing intelligence cooperation with partners with similar outlooks, such as the “Five Eyes” agreement, to improve collective security and, therefore, be able to respond better and more coordinated to threats.
  • Adopt Agile Global Expansion Strategies: India must take a light footprint approach in its external relations and concentrate on local partnerships with stakeholders while using human resources well to gain benefits.
  • Prepare for Complex Threats: India should face variegated security challenges, such as cyber threats and terrorism, by upgrading its defence capability and resilience.
  • Leverage Conferences for Conflict Prevention: India should use conference diplomacy as a potential method for conflict prevention & resolution, bringing everyone to the table and making them talk in a neutral setting.
  • Enhance Maritime Infrastructure: Investing in maritime infrastructure and capabilities will strengthen India’s naval diplomacy and bring a more robust Indian presence and influence in strategically significant water bodies.
  • Invest in Training and Development: The intelligence service’s employees’ skills and capabilities should be constantly developed through continuous training and the latest technology.

THE CONCLUSION:

India’s strategic engagement in intelligence sharing, international conferences, and naval exercises demonstrates its commitment to addressing global and regional security challenges. India’s way forward involves enhancing multilateral intelligence sharing, leveraging conference diplomacy for conflict resolution, and expanding naval diplomacy efforts to strengthen its position in the Indo-Pacific region.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 The sea is an essential Component of the Cosmos’ Discuss, considering the above statement, the role of the IMO (International Maritime Organisation) in protecting the environment and enhancing maritime safety and security. (2023)

Q.2 What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives to improve maritime security. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Examine the role of ‘intelligence diplomacy’ in India’s foreign policy and its significance in the context of global and regional security challenges. Discuss how India’s engagement in ‘conference diplomacy’ and ‘naval diplomacy’ complements its intelligence diplomacy efforts.”

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/intelligence-diplomacy-india-global-security-maritime-raisina-dialogue-9169519/




Day-596 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | HISTORY

Day-596

Time limit: 0

Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Information

DAILY MCQ

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Categories

  1. Not categorized 0%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to Sardeshmukhi tax in Maratha empire, Consider the following statements:
    1. It was a tax levied by the Maratha Empire on neighbouring territories and states.
    2. It was equal to one-fourth of the land revenue collected by the subjected territories.
    3. It was collected by the Maratha officials directly from the landowners and cultivators in the empire’s territories.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Sardeshmukhi was an additional tax levied by the Maratha Empire on territories within its domain. The primary purpose of Sardeshmukhi was to provide an additional source of income for the Maratha rulers and nobility. It also served as a means of asserting the Maratha Empire’s authority over its territories and maintaining control.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was equal to one-tenth (10%) of the land revenue collected from the territories.
    Statement 3 is correct: Sardeshmukhi was collected by Maratha officials directly from the landowners and cultivators in the empire’s territories. The collected revenue was distributed among the Maratha rulers, nobility, and officials, with a portion also used for the empire’s administration and public works.
    Additional information:
    • The economic condition of Marathas was good in the 17th and 18th centuries because they were powerful in those days, so they could do whatever they wanted to, and their administration was stable.
    • Most people accepted them as rulers, and they did not have to face any problems during this period because people accepted them as rulers. Their motto was ‘freedom from fear,’ which they had proved strong.
    • Maratha state was a strong and well-organized government. So, they had ordered their administration properly, and every common person was satisfied with the administration’s work. They did not have any problems because the rules were clear to them. Maratha’s rule was very different from the other British-style rule.
    • Marathas were good administrators and had a different way of enforcing their control. They took good care of their subjects’ well-being by giving education to every person. They encouraged freedom of speech, press, religion, and expression.
    • They also controlled the trade in grains, salt, and sugar. They also had a very good system of medical treatment.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Sardeshmukhi was an additional tax levied by the Maratha Empire on territories within its domain. The primary purpose of Sardeshmukhi was to provide an additional source of income for the Maratha rulers and nobility. It also served as a means of asserting the Maratha Empire’s authority over its territories and maintaining control.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was equal to one-tenth (10%) of the land revenue collected from the territories.
    Statement 3 is correct: Sardeshmukhi was collected by Maratha officials directly from the landowners and cultivators in the empire’s territories. The collected revenue was distributed among the Maratha rulers, nobility, and officials, with a portion also used for the empire’s administration and public works.
    Additional information:
    • The economic condition of Marathas was good in the 17th and 18th centuries because they were powerful in those days, so they could do whatever they wanted to, and their administration was stable.
    • Most people accepted them as rulers, and they did not have to face any problems during this period because people accepted them as rulers. Their motto was ‘freedom from fear,’ which they had proved strong.
    • Maratha state was a strong and well-organized government. So, they had ordered their administration properly, and every common person was satisfied with the administration’s work. They did not have any problems because the rules were clear to them. Maratha’s rule was very different from the other British-style rule.
    • Marathas were good administrators and had a different way of enforcing their control. They took good care of their subjects’ well-being by giving education to every person. They encouraged freedom of speech, press, religion, and expression.
    • They also controlled the trade in grains, salt, and sugar. They also had a very good system of medical treatment.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. In the context of Colonial India, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahadev Govind Ranade were related to:

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    • Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahadev Govind Ranade were related to Deccan Education Society.
    • Deccan Education Society was an influential social reform and political organisation formed in the Pune district in Maharashtra.
    • The establishment of the New English School in Pune resulted in the foundation of the Deccan Education Society by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
    • It was an unprecedented move because the only organisations involved in mass education were governmental institutions and Christian missionaries.
    • As a fervent reformist, Agarkar took a keen interest in social reform initiatives.
    • Tilak was a Puritan when it came to social reforms. Once political freedom was attained, he thought, laws could implement such social reform measures.
    • Other leaders of the Society: Vishnushastri Chiplunkar,Mahadev Ballal,Namjoshi,V S Apte,V B Kelkar, M S Gole and N K Dharap
    • Society established Fergusson College, Pune’s first higher education institution.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    • Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahadev Govind Ranade were related to Deccan Education Society.
    • Deccan Education Society was an influential social reform and political organisation formed in the Pune district in Maharashtra.
    • The establishment of the New English School in Pune resulted in the foundation of the Deccan Education Society by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
    • It was an unprecedented move because the only organisations involved in mass education were governmental institutions and Christian missionaries.
    • As a fervent reformist, Agarkar took a keen interest in social reform initiatives.
    • Tilak was a Puritan when it came to social reforms. Once political freedom was attained, he thought, laws could implement such social reform measures.
    • Other leaders of the Society: Vishnushastri Chiplunkar,Mahadev Ballal,Namjoshi,V S Apte,V B Kelkar, M S Gole and N K Dharap
    • Society established Fergusson College, Pune’s first higher education institution.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following:
    1. Ruralisation of India
    2. India emerged as major markets for British made cotton yarns
    3. Overcrowding of agriculture
    4. Rise in number of traditional occupations
    5. Trade to GDP ratio declined
    How many of the given above were the effects of de-industrialisation during the British rule in India?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Effects of de industrialisation:
    1) Ruralisation of India
    2) As international trade reshaped the domestic structure of the economy, India became one of the major markets for the British made cotton yarns and cloths.
    3) Overcrowding of agriculture and Such overcrowding of agriculture badly affected its efficiency. Present problems of subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings, over-cultivation or cultivation of inferior and unproductive land, etc., are the direct effects of the British rule.
    4) Artisans were displaced from traditional occupations and with no other alternative source of livelihood, the artisans adopted agriculture.
    5) Trade to GDP ratio declined
    Additional information:
    • De-industrialisation is the process of destruction of a nation’s industrial capacity. Before the advent of the Europeans in India, India was the industrial hub. Indian economy was characterised by the agriculture and handicrafts.
    • But this internal balance of the village economy was systematically destroyed by the British policies. In the process, traditional handicraft industries started declining in the 18th century and proceeded rapidly almost to the beginning of the 19th century.
    • This process is called as de-industrialisation. The large scale de-industrialisation brought far reaching impacts on the economy with loss to traditional economy, which was earlier considered as a blend of agriculture and handicrafts.
    • The de-industrialisation of India played an important role in the underdevelopment and increasing poverty of the country. Thus the process of de-industrialisation proved to be a disaster for the several million persons.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Effects of de industrialisation:
    1) Ruralisation of India
    2) As international trade reshaped the domestic structure of the economy, India became one of the major markets for the British made cotton yarns and cloths.
    3) Overcrowding of agriculture and Such overcrowding of agriculture badly affected its efficiency. Present problems of subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings, over-cultivation or cultivation of inferior and unproductive land, etc., are the direct effects of the British rule.
    4) Artisans were displaced from traditional occupations and with no other alternative source of livelihood, the artisans adopted agriculture.
    5) Trade to GDP ratio declined
    Additional information:
    • De-industrialisation is the process of destruction of a nation’s industrial capacity. Before the advent of the Europeans in India, India was the industrial hub. Indian economy was characterised by the agriculture and handicrafts.
    • But this internal balance of the village economy was systematically destroyed by the British policies. In the process, traditional handicraft industries started declining in the 18th century and proceeded rapidly almost to the beginning of the 19th century.
    • This process is called as de-industrialisation. The large scale de-industrialisation brought far reaching impacts on the economy with loss to traditional economy, which was earlier considered as a blend of agriculture and handicrafts.
    • The de-industrialisation of India played an important role in the underdevelopment and increasing poverty of the country. Thus the process of de-industrialisation proved to be a disaster for the several million persons.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji as a response to a culmination of grievances against colonial rule.
    Statement II: Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji as a response to a culmination of grievances against colonial rule. Gandhi’s call for non-cooperation movement aimed to challenge the colonial economic and power structure against the Rowlatt Act.
    Statement 2 is correct: Rowlatt act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
    Additional information:
    Rowlatt Satyagraha
    • The seeds of the Rowlatt Act were sown in 1915 when the repressive Defense of India Act was imposed to curb anti-colonial activities during World War I.
    • Sedition Committee: While the Defense of India Act was meant to be a temporary wartime measure, a committee (called Sedition Committee) headed by British judge Sydney Rowlatt recommended the continuation of such suppressive powers.
    • It can be considered as an instrument of British Carrot (GOI Act,1919) and Stick (Rowlatt Act) policy.
    Non-Cooperation Movement
    • The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji in 1920 during British rule.
    • It emerged as a powerful and fervent response to a culmination of grievances and disillusionment that had been building up among the Indian populace. Rowlatt Act and the brutal Jaliawala Bagh Massacre were the immediate causes for launching the movement.
    • Congress, at its special session of Calcutta in September 1920, approved the Non-Cooperation movement, which was later endorsed by the Nagpur session of Congress in December 1920.
    • The movement saw tremendous participation of masses throughout the country. However, the movement was called off by Gandhi on February 11, 1922, following the Churi Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji as a response to a culmination of grievances against colonial rule. Gandhi’s call for non-cooperation movement aimed to challenge the colonial economic and power structure against the Rowlatt Act.
    Statement 2 is correct: Rowlatt act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
    Additional information:
    Rowlatt Satyagraha
    • The seeds of the Rowlatt Act were sown in 1915 when the repressive Defense of India Act was imposed to curb anti-colonial activities during World War I.
    • Sedition Committee: While the Defense of India Act was meant to be a temporary wartime measure, a committee (called Sedition Committee) headed by British judge Sydney Rowlatt recommended the continuation of such suppressive powers.
    • It can be considered as an instrument of British Carrot (GOI Act,1919) and Stick (Rowlatt Act) policy.
    Non-Cooperation Movement
    • The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji in 1920 during British rule.
    • It emerged as a powerful and fervent response to a culmination of grievances and disillusionment that had been building up among the Indian populace. Rowlatt Act and the brutal Jaliawala Bagh Massacre were the immediate causes for launching the movement.
    • Congress, at its special session of Calcutta in September 1920, approved the Non-Cooperation movement, which was later endorsed by the Nagpur session of Congress in December 1920.
    • The movement saw tremendous participation of masses throughout the country. However, the movement was called off by Gandhi on February 11, 1922, following the Churi Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to Satara parallel government, consider the following statements:
    1. The parallel government which developed in Satara during non-cooperation movement was the longest and most successful.
    2. Nana Patil was the leader of the Satara parallel government.
    3. The model of the parallel government in Satara was based on the “Gramrajya” of Aundh implemented by the Raja of Aundh.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The parallel government which developed in Satara during quit India movement was the longest and most successful.
    Statement 2 is correct: Nana Patil was the leader of the Satara parallel government.
    Statement 3 is correct: The model of the parallel government in Satara was based on the “Gramrajya” of Aundh, which was a progressive policy of decentralization of power which was implemented by the Raja of Aundh, Shrimant Bhavanrao Pant-Pratinidhi in 1937.
    Additional information:
    • Quit India Movement was officially launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942.
    • The movement gave the slogans ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo’. Gandhi gave the slogan to the people – ‘Do or die’.
    • In line with the Congress ideology, it was supposed to be a peaceful non-violent movement aimed at urging the British to grant India independence.
    • The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in Bombay. Gandhi was named the movement’s leader.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The parallel government which developed in Satara during quit India movement was the longest and most successful.
    Statement 2 is correct: Nana Patil was the leader of the Satara parallel government.
    Statement 3 is correct: The model of the parallel government in Satara was based on the “Gramrajya” of Aundh, which was a progressive policy of decentralization of power which was implemented by the Raja of Aundh, Shrimant Bhavanrao Pant-Pratinidhi in 1937.
    Additional information:
    • Quit India Movement was officially launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942.
    • The movement gave the slogans ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo’. Gandhi gave the slogan to the people – ‘Do or die’.
    • In line with the Congress ideology, it was supposed to be a peaceful non-violent movement aimed at urging the British to grant India independence.
    • The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in Bombay. Gandhi was named the movement’s leader.

window.wpAdvQuizInitList = window.wpAdvQuizInitList || []; window.wpAdvQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpAdvQuiz_637', init: { quizId: 637, mode: 0, globalPoints: 10, timelimit: 0, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 0, qpp: 0, catPoints: [10], formPos: 0, lbn: "Finish quiz", json: {"2969":{"type":"single","id":2969,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"2970":{"type":"single","id":2970,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2971":{"type":"single","id":2971,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"2972":{"type":"single","id":2972,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"2973":{"type":"single","id":2973,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } });




BACTERIA’s POTENTIAL ROLE IN ACCELERATING CO2 MINERALIZATION FOR DEEP UNDERGROUND STORAGE

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: A groundbreaking study led by Gokce Ustunisik and her team at the South Dakota School of Mines and Technology reveals the potential of certain bacteria to accelerate the mineralization of carbon dioxide (CO2) under extreme conditions.

EXPLANATION:

  • The application of these microbes could revolutionize the storage of CO2 in deep underground sites, offering a more rapid and durable solution to mitigating greenhouse gas emissions.

Isolation of Geobacillus Bacteria:

  • The researchers isolated Geobacillus bacteria species from a compost pile in Washington state known for their resilience to high temperatures and pressures.
  • Geobacillus bacteria were chosen for their ability to thrive under extreme conditions, making them suitable candidates for underground CO2 storage.

Laboratory Tests and Findings:

  • Laboratory tests compared the rate of CO2 mineralization with and without the presence of these microbes under conditions resembling those found deep underground.
  • The absence of microbes resulted in negligible CO2 mineralization, a process that typically takes years under natural geological conditions.
  • With the Geobacillus bacteria, mineral crystals formed within a remarkable 10 days at 80°C (176°F) and pressures 500 times that of sea level.

Role of Carbonic Anhydrase Enzyme:

  • The key to the rapid mineralization rate is attributed to an enzyme produced by the bacteria, known as carbonic anhydrase.
  • This enzyme efficiently reduces the acidity of the CO2 solution, facilitating the formation of carbonate minerals from released magnesium and calcium in the rock.

Potential Storage Sites:

  • The accelerated mineralization process opens up possibilities for using depleted oil and gas reservoirs as deep underground storage sites for CO2.
  • The speed at which CO2 can be converted into mineral crystals under extreme conditions enhances the feasibility and efficiency of long-term storage.

Challenges and Future Steps:

  • The researchers have not disclosed the exact species of bacteria due to pending patent issues.
  • Further testing will involve Bacillus bacteria from a former mine shaft in South Dakota and genetically modified strains to identify the most effective microbes.
  • The next phase includes evaluating the performance of these microbes in an actual storage well.

Concerns and Criticisms:

  • Outside researchers emphasize the need for addressing concerns about the resilience, food source, turnover rates, and adaptability of these organisms to various alkaline environments.
  • The introduction of nutrients along with the microbes to sustain them raises practical challenges.
  • The potential spread of introduced or genetically modified microbes in subsurface environments poses ecological and regulatory concerns.

Conclusion:

  • The study signifies a significant step towards developing a novel approach to carbon sequestration by leveraging bacteria to expedite CO2 mineralization under extreme conditions. While challenges and uncertainties persist, the promise of accelerating the process to a mere 10 days could have substantial implications for mitigating climate change by securely storing CO2 in underground reservoirs.

SOURCE: https://www.newscientist.com/article/2416727-bacteria-could-help-turn-co2-to-rock-under-extreme-conditions/?_ptid=%7Bkpdx%7DAAAA118tASrzgwoKcmJhNGYxWmNwZRIQbHN1N2F4ZnBjeXdhNjh2aBoMRVhHSjk1VU5XWDAyIiUxODIzMGw4MDlzLTAwMDAzM2U1dmNjajZvcWN0bmlmNmlzdXEwKhpzaG93VGVtcGxhdGVYVkMxNVhCQlFEVUoyNDABOgxPVENPMkM2VzY0SEZCDU9UVlpPN0dSVFNONU1SEnYthADwL3p1MzJ2bnB1cVokMjQwNToyMDE6NDAwYTo4Yzo0ZGEwOmQ1NzQ6N2M0NDozZDA1YgNkd2NooJbXrgZwKngE




LADAKH LEADERS CALL OFF HUNGER STRIKE AS MHA AGREES TO DISCUSS STATEHOOD AND CONSTITUTIONAL SAFEGUARDS

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The leaders of Ladakh’s civil society groups have decided to call off an indefinite hunger strike following a meeting with officials from the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) recently.

EXPLANATION:

  • This decision comes after the Centre agreed to engage in discussions on their demands, which primarily include Statehood for Ladakh, tribal status through inclusion in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, and the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the region.
  • On February 3, Ladakh witnessed a complete shutdown as thousands gathered in Leh to voice concerns about protecting cultural identity, preserving the environment, ensuring job reservations for locals, and advocating for separate parliamentary seats for Leh and Kargil.
  • The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) had invited civil society leaders for the second round of a high-powered committee dialogue, scheduled on Monday, with the committee headed by Minister of State for Home, Nityanand Rai.

Key Demands and Committee Formation:

  • Ladakh’s demands included Statehood, tribal status under the Sixth Schedule, and the establishment of a Public Service Commission.
  • The high-powered committee, comprising members of the Leh Apex Body (LAB) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA), announced the formation of a joint sub-committee.
  • This sub-committee will include representatives from both LAB and KDA and is tasked with advancing the dialogue.

MHA’s Initial Response:

  • During the meeting, MHA officials reportedly hesitated to commit to discussing Statehood and constitutional safeguards.
  • Instead, they proposed enhancing the financial powers of hill councils in Leh and Kargil.
  • The civil society leaders insisted on time-bound assurance for addressing their demands.

Postponement of Hunger Strike:

  • A sub-committee member confirmed that the MHA has agreed to discuss the demand for Statehood and other issues in the upcoming meeting on February 24.
  • The decision to call off the hunger strike is temporary, indicating a willingness to engage in dialogue and find a resolution.

Historical Context:

  • After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir on August 5, 2019, Ladakh became a Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly.
  • The MHA formed a high-powered committee last year to address the grievances and demands of the people of Ladakh.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ladakh-leaders-call-off-hunger-strike-as-mha-agrees-to-discuss-statehood-constitutional-safeguards/article67864124.ece




FOREST (CONSERVATION) AMENDMENT ACT 2023

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court, in an interim order on February 19, 2024, addressed concerns raised in a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023.

EXPLANATION:

  • The apex court, led by Chief Justice DY Chandrachud and Justices JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, emphasized adherence to the landmark TN Godavarman Thirumalpad v. Union of India judgement of 1996 in defining ‘forest.’
  • The interim order aimed to maintain the principles outlined in the Godavarman judgement until the completion of the process of identifying ‘forest’ lands recorded in government records.

Controversy Surrounding the Amendment:

  • The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023, amended by the Union government, faced constitutional scrutiny in the PIL.
  • The contentious Section 1A, introduced by the amendment, narrowed the expansive definition of ‘forest’ provided in the Godavarman judgement.
  • According to the amendment, land must either be notified as a forest or specifically recorded as a forest in government records to qualify, deviating from the Godavarman judgement, which interpreted ‘forest’ based on its dictionary meaning.

Interim Order and Godavarman Judgement:

  • The Supreme Court’s interim order directed states and Union territories to adhere to the Godavarman judgement’s definition of ‘forest’ until the completion of the land identification process.
  • The court acknowledged concerns raised by petitioners about potential diversion of lands deemed as ‘forests’ under the Godavarman judgement for non-forest use during this interim period.
  • The order underscored the importance of Rule 16 of the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Rules, 2023, requiring state and UT administrations to prepare records on forest land within a year from the notification of the 2023 amendment.

Financial Implications and Exclusion of Forest Lands:

  • Petitioners highlighted that the amended definition could exclude approximately 1.99 lakh square km of forest land from protection.
  • The court emphasized the importance of compliance with the Godavarman judgement’s interpretation of ‘forest’ during the ongoing land identification process, urging states and UTs to ensure the conservation of areas falling within the ambit of the Godavarman definition.

Role of Expert Committees and Reporting:

  • The Supreme Court instructed the Union government to issue circulars to all states and UTs, communicating the order and directing compliance.
  • Furthermore, it mandated the submission of a comprehensive record of land registered as ‘forest’ by expert committees formed by states and UTs under the guidelines of the Godavarman judgement within two weeks.
  • All states and UTs were required to submit expert committee reports by March 31, 2024, with digitized records available on official websites by April 15, 2024.

Expansion of Protection and Direction on Zoos and Safaris:

  • While acknowledging the role of expert committees formed under the 2023 Rules, the court allowed them to expand the ambit of forest lands worthy of protection.
  • Additionally, the court issued directions regarding proposals for establishing zoos and safaris, stipulating that such proposals in forest areas, excluding protected areas, require prior approval from the Supreme Court to ensure environmental safeguards.

Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023:

  • The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 amends the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 to make it applicable to certain types of land.
  • These include land notified as a forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 or in government records after the 1980 Act came into effect. The Act will not be applicable for land converted to non-forest use before December 12, 1996.
  • It also exempts certain types of land from the purview of the Act.
  • These include land within 100 km of India’s border needed for national security projects, small roadside amenities, and public roads leading to a habitation.
  • The state government requires prior approval of the central government to assign any forest land to a private entity.
  • The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 extends this to all entities, and allows the assignment to be made on terms and conditions specified by the central government.
  • The Act specifies some activities that can be carried out in forests, such as establishing check posts, fencing, and bridges. The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 also allows running zoos, safaris and eco-tourism facilities.

Conclusion:

  • The Supreme Court’s interim order seeks to strike a balance between the legal amendments introduced by the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023, and the established principles of forest conservation enshrined in the Godavarman judgement. As the legal battle unfolds, the court’s directives aim to prevent potential environmental consequences during the transitional period and ensure the preservation of forested lands according to the precedents set by the Godavarman judgement.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/forest-conservation-amendment-act-2023-states-uts-must-act-as-per-definition-in-tn-godavarman-judgement-says-sc-94543




AIR QUALITY IN INDIAN CITIES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: In January 2024, a comprehensive study conducted by the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA), a Finnish research organization, unveiled concerning findings regarding air quality in Indian cities.

EXPLANATION:

  • While only 32 cities out of 131 covered by the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) had clean air, Delhi emerged as the most polluted.
  • The report, published on February 14, 2024, sheds light on the alarming levels of air pollution and the challenges faced by the nation in combating this pervasive issue.

NCAP and Air Quality Standards:

  • The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) has been initiated by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change in 2019.
  • It aimed at reducing particulate matter (PM) pollution in 131 non-attainment cities across 24 states and Union territories.
  • It also aims to attain a decrease in PM10 (particulate matter with a diameter ranging from 10 to 2.5 micrometers) and PM2.5 (particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller) concentrations by 20% to 30% by the year 2024, with 2017 serving as the reference year for concentration comparison.
  • It is a long-term, time-bound, national-level strategy to address the air pollution problem in India comprehensively.
  • However, the recent study highlighted that in January 2024, 98 cities exceeded the World Health Organization’s (WHO) daily guideline for PM2.5 levels.
  • Only 32 cities met India’s National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), emphasizing the severity of the air quality crisis.

Pervasive Pollution Levels:

  • Among the 66 cities failing to meet NAAQS, 15 recorded PM2.5 levels more than double the prescribed standard of 60 microgrammes per cubic meter.
  • Delhi, the national capital, stood out with a monthly average PM2.5 concentration of 206 µg/m³, surpassing the daily NAAQS.
  • Following closely, Bhagalpur in Bihar shared the dubious distinction, with other cities like Saharsa, Byrnihat, Greater Noida, Hanumangarh, Noida, Baddi, Sri Ganganagar, and Faridabad completing the list of the top 10 most polluted cities.

Geographical Distribution of Pollution:

  • The analysis revealed that among the 10 most polluted cities, Bihar, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, and Delhi each had representation.
  • On the other hand, Chamarajanagar, Vijayapura, Kalaburgi, and Bagalkot in Karnataka, Aizawl in Mizoram, and Silchar and Sivasagar in Assam were recognized among the 10 cleanest cities in January 2024.

Environmental Conditions and Impact:

  • The study highlighted those unfavorable atmospheric conditions, characterized by low wind speed and cooler temperatures in northern India, contributed to stable atmospheric conditions.
  • This hindered the rapid dispersion of emissions, leading to the accumulation of pollutants near the earth’s surface and exacerbating ambient air pollution levels.
  • While recognizing the influence of natural atmospheric conditions, the report emphasized that baseline emissions significantly contribute to hazardous air pollution levels in any region.

Financial Implications and Proposed Solutions:

  • As the government grapples with the severity of air pollution, the report underscored the potential financial cost.
  • It estimated that a complete boycott of Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) markets by traders, as part of legal guarantees, could cost the government approximately Rs 6 lakh crore.
  • However, the report suggested that this expenditure could be recovered within a year through the sale of agricultural produce in open markets, providing a potential economic incentive for addressing air quality concerns.

Conclusion:

  • The findings of the CREA study present a stark reality of air quality in Indian cities, emphasizing the urgent need for comprehensive and effective measures to combat pollution. As the government grapples with the financial implications, it becomes imperative to strike a balance between economic considerations and the health and well-being of the population.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/pollution/only-32-indian-cities-had-clean-air-this-january-delhi-bhagalpur-most-polluted-94534




SATYENDRA NATH BOSE

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Satyendra Nath Bose, a brilliant physicist born in Calcutta in 1894, made a profound impact on the field of physics exactly a century ago.

EXPLANATION:

  • His contribution, often likened to a comet in its brilliance, emerged during a crucial period in the evolution of quantum theory in 1924.
  • Despite a relatively sparse publication record, Bose’s work on quantum statistics, particularly the derivation of Planck’s law of black-body radiation, changed the course of physics.

Background and Early Collaborations:

  • Bose’s early academic journey at Presidency College in Calcutta marked the beginning of a lifelong friendship with Meghnad Saha.
  • Together, they navigated the transformative landscape of physics, grappling with the revolutionary ideas introduced by Einstein, Planck, and Bohr.
  • Their collaboration extended to translating Einstein’s papers on general relativity into English, showcasing their early adaptability to emerging quantum concepts.

Challenges in Teaching and Research:

  • As faculty members at Rajabazar Science College, Bose and Saha faced the challenge of teaching the intricacies of the new physics, compounded by the language barrier posed by the dominance of German publications.
  • Undeterred, they delved into the depths of quantum theory, with Bose later joining Dhaka University as a lecturer.

Crucial Problem of Black-Body Radiation:

  • The study of black-body radiation, encapsulated by Planck’s law, was a pivotal topic in 19th-century physics.
  • Bose, struggling to satisfactorily explain Planck’s law to his students, embarked on a journey to derive it himself.
  • Planck’s formula, while successful, violated known laws of physics, prompting Bose to explore a novel approach.

Bose’s Groundbreaking Derivation:

  • Bose’s unique contribution lay in eliminating classical physics from the derivation of Planck’s law.
  • Leveraging the results of Einstein and Compton, Bose demonstrated that the law was independent of the mechanism producing it.
  • His groundbreaking insight established Planck’s law as a statistical property of quanta of radiation, introducing the concept of photons.

Pioneering Quantum Statistics:

  • Bose’s work pioneered quantum statistics, revealing that the total number of photons was not conserved.
  • This profound realization, implicit in his methods, laid the foundation for understanding the behavior of fundamental particles.
  • Years later, Paul Dirac formalized Bose’s statistics into distinct categories—bosons and fermions—clarifying the rules governing these particles.

Legacy and Comparative Silence:

  • Despite the monumental impact of Bose’s work, he remained relatively silent in terms of publications, describing himself as a comet that only appeared once.
  • His legacy, however, endures through the foundational nature of his contribution to quantum theory, forever altering the trajectory of physics.
  • Satyendra Nath Bose’s appearance on the physics scene in 1924 left an indelible mark, filling a critical gap in the emerging quantum theory.
  • His work not only solved the enigma of black-body radiation but also laid the groundwork for quantum statistics, shaping the understanding of fundamental particles.
  • Bose’s brilliance, though brief, continues to illuminate the path for future generations of physicists.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/satyendra-nath-bose-einstein-statistics-centenary/article67863141.ece




WSDP Bulletin (20/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Bacteria could help turn CO2 to rock under extreme conditions READ MORE

2. A recently formed ocean inside Saturn’s moon Mimas READ MORE

3. Go back to dictionary meaning of ‘forest’: Supreme Court READ MORE

4. Ladakh leaders call off hunger strike as MHA agrees to discuss Statehood, constitutional safeguards READ MORE

5. Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act 2023: States, UTs must act as per definition in TN Godavarman judgement, says SC READ MORE

6. Only 32 Indian cities had clean air this January, Delhi, Bhagalpur most polluted READ MORE

7. Central Asian Flyway recognised to protect over 600 migratory bird species READ MORE

8. ISRO’s latest launch: Why is the GSLV rocket nicknamed ‘naughty boy’? READ MORE

9. Gemini Pro 1.5 with 1 million tokens surpasses GPT-4 Turbo: What does that mean? READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. The tribal communities of central India: Challenges and way forward READ MORE

2. Gender disparity in Indian science READ MORE

3. La Nina impacted air quality in India in the winter of 2022: What a new study says READ MORE

4. Bangladesh experienced 185 extreme weather events between 2000 and 2019: ICCCAD report READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Uttarakhand UCC pits vulnerable young couples against the might of the state READ MORE

2. Transparency in poll funding remains a challenge READ MORE

3. Undermining the right to learn READ MORE

4. The implications of the Supreme Court ruling READ MORE

5. Tamil Nadu: The power struggle intensifies READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Can safe drinking water improve children’s educational outcomes? READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Ties across the sea: On the India-UAE close relationship READ MORE

2. The rise of ‘intelligence diplomacy’ in a time of global security challenges READ MORE

3. India-UAE relations look beyond the diaspora READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Denying MSP legal guarantee threat to India’s food security READ MORE

2. What does a guaranteed MSP mean? READ MORE

3. MSP proposal: Govt’s offer fails to convince farmer leaders READ MORE

4. Farmers’ demands are impractical and unrealistic READ MORE

5. Agriculture Infrastructure Fund: A catalyst for India’s agri-future READ MORE

6. Skill development: Key to India’s shifting job market READ MORE

7. Balancing welfare and fiscal responsibility READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Warming up to climate change: How does climate change impact extreme weather events? READ MORE

2. Air pollution needs decentralised, micro solutions READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Hundred years ago, Satyendra Nath Bose changed physics forever READ MORE

2. Recalibrating merit in the age of Artificial Intelligence READ MORE

3. Why big data is becoming small READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Misplaced priorities: On the scrapping of the Free Movement Regime between India and Myanmar READ MORE    

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Chandigarh mayor polls: Presiding officer admitted he tampered ballots, must be prosecuted, orders Supreme Court READ MORE

2. The Role of Discipline in Education READ MORE

3. Basant asks us to shift from wanting to giving READ MORE

4. ‘Triple A’ personality: Anant, Akash, Anand READ MORE

5. The mind and soul READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. As the benefits are more than the cost of the free movement regime between India and Myanmar hence, it should not be scrapped. Critically examine.

2. The Supreme Court is right in striking down electoral bonds for not being transparent, but it does not help bring transparency into electoral funding in any manner. Examine.

3. The larger objectives of enhancing food security, increasing farmers’ income and reducing dependence on imports can be achieved if the glaring anomalies in the MSP regime are removed. Comment.

4. Discuss the importance of skill-based education to bridging the gap between potential and realisation in a job market increasingly favouring specialised technical skills.

5. The distribution of power between the Centre and states as put forth by the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution has created a fiscal gap and led to a vertical fiscal imbalance. Examine.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.
  • India-UAE ties are also built on a bedrock of history and cultural engagement that includes centuries-old maritime trade and a diaspora that contributes about 18% of India’s global remittances.
  • While India’s technological prowess and the UAE’s positioning as a trade and industry hub bring complementarities, the changes in their polity and societies bring possible friction points.
  • The free movement regime between India and Myanmar had more benefits than costs.
  • The idea of neighbourly relations and borders was tied not just to the interest of national security for the post-colonial nation-state but also to the interests of the people in border areas and their imagined histories.
  • The Agreement for an Intergovernmental Framework on the India-Middle East Economic Corridor paves the way for multilateral cooperation between India and the UAE.
  • Recalibrating meritocracy in the face of AI advancements demands a sophisticated understanding of the interplay between technology and societal structures.
  • The Supreme Court is right in striking down electoral bonds for not being transparent, but it does not help bring transparency into electoral funding in any manner.
  • Governments (States and Centre) have to find comprehensive long-term solutions to the problems confronting farmers and their livelihoods, climate change, food inflation and the demands of food and nutrition security.
  • The larger objectives of enhancing food security, increasing farmers’ income and reducing dependence on imports can be achieved if the glaring anomalies in the MSP regime are removed.
  • India needs to think of alternative initiative(s) to ensure its place in the international domain, as it has come up with the idea of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, which seems to be gaining momentum.
  • To prevent the influence of money in elections in the future, we need regulations for donations, spending limits, public funding, and disclosure.
  • The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund aims to improve India’s agricultural infrastructure by providing incentives and financial support for medium to long-erm debt financing.
  • Skill-based education is paramount to bridging the gap between potential and realisation in a job market increasingly favouring specialised technical skills.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.

50-WORD TALK

  • As India stands on the brink of an era of transformation, it is vital to rethink education, give priority to on-the-job training, and embrace apprenticeships to shape a workforce that not only possesses theoretical knowledge but also has the practical tech-based skills necessary to gain a competitive advantage and thrive in the dynamic landscape of the country’s economy.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



ASHOK GULATI WRITES ON FARMERS’ PROTEST: POLICIES FAVOUR THE CONSUMER, NOT THE PRODUCER

THE CONTEXT: Farmers in India, particularly from Punjab, are protesting for higher income stability through demands such as legally binding minimum support prices based on the Swaminathan formula. They also seek loan waivers, pensions, and wage reforms. The situation is fraught with economic and political complexities, especially during elections.

THE ISSUES:

  • Demand for Legal Guarantee of MSP: Farmers demand that the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) be legally binding to ensure they receive a fair price for their produce. They want MSPs fixed according to the Swaminathan formula, which suggests a 50% profit over the comprehensive cost (Cost C2).
  • Current MSP Formula: The current government policy sets MSP at a minimum of 50% margin over the Cost A2+FL, which does not include imputed rent on owned land or interest on owned capital. Farmers are demanding a shift to the Cost C2 calculation, which would raise MSPs by approximately 25 to 30% for most crops.
  • Additional Economic Demands: Beyond MSP, farmers are also demanding loan waivers, pensions for farmers and agricultural laborers, a minimum wage rate of Rs 700/day, and the inclusion of MGNREGA workers to work on farmers’ fields.
  • Fiscal and Economic Implications: Accepting the farmers’ demands could significantly affect the government’s finances (fiscal pressure) and lead to food inflation.
  • Need for Diversification: The future of Indian agriculture and the potential for increasing farmers’ incomes lies in diversifying into sectors like livestock, fisheries, and horticulture, which have been growing without MSP support.
  • Policy Reforms: Removing bans on agri-exports, stocking limits on private trade, and selling wheat and rice below the economic cost of the Food Corporation of India (FCI) are considered anti-farmer policies.
  • Subsidy Reorientation: There is a call to reorient subsidies towards producers rather than consumers, suggesting that a more significant portion of subsidies should support farmers directly, for example, through a price stabilization fund or policies like PM-Kisan.
  • Balancing Interests: Policymakers need to balance the interests of producers and consumers, especially in election times when various groups exert pressure on their economic well-being.
  • Rational Policy Making: Rational policy-making is advised to keep emotions and politics out of negotiations and focuses on the long-term sustainability of the agricultural sector and the economy.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Legalization of MSPs: While making MSPs legally binding has been proposed, the government must carefully evaluate the fiscal implications. This could be selectively implemented for crops where market volatility is extremely high, providing a safety net for farmers while avoiding blanket policies that might strain the economy.
  • Implementing the Swaminathan Committee Recommendations: This involves fixing MSPs at levels that ensure a fair profit margin for farmers based on the comprehensive cost of production (Cost C2), thus incentivizing farming as a profession.
  • Expanding MSP to More Crops: MSP could be cautiously expanded to include additional crops, potentially even beyond the traditional 23 crops, to ensure a wider safety net for farmers.
  • Rationalizing Subsidies: Redirect subsidies from consumer-focused to producer-focused, ensuring a larger share of financial support is directed toward farmers, thereby aiding them in lowering production costs and increasing income.
  • Investment in Agriculture Infrastructure: Improve storage, transportation, and marketing infrastructure to reduce post-harvest losses, give farmers better market access, and get better prices for their produce.
  • Strengthening Farmer Organizations: Encourage the formation and strengthening of farmer cooperatives and producer organizations that can empower farmers to have greater control over their products’ production, processing, and marketing.

THE CONCLUSION:

Reorienting policies to support agricultural diversification, productivity, and market access is the way forward to increasing farmer incomes sustainably. Rationalizing subsidies, investing in infrastructure, and creating equitable trade policies could balance farmer demands with economic pragmatism.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) What are the main bottlenecks in India’s upstream and downstream processes of marketing agricultural products? (2022)

Q.2) What are the challenges and opportunities of the food processing sector in the country? How can the farmers’ income be substantially increased by encouraging food processing? (2020)

Q.3) Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non-farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India (2015)

Q.4) Given the declining average size of land holdings in India, which has made agriculture non-viable for most farmers, should contract farming and land leasing be promoted in agriculture? Critically evaluate the pros and cons. (2015)

Q.5) There is also a point of view that agriculture produce market committees (APMCs) set up under the state acts have not only impeded the development of agriculture but also have been the cause of food inflation in India. Critically examine. (2014)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) Critically assess India’s current agricultural subsidies regime concerning its producer vs. consumer focus. Discuss a reoriented subsidy policy that could align to double farmers’ incomes while ensuring food affordability for consumers.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/faremer-protest-farmer-income-haryan-punjab-farmers-at-delhi-borders-msp-legal-guarantee-9168348/




AFTER SC ELECTORAL BOND VERDICT, TIME TO CLEAN UP

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court’s judgment on electoral bonds highlights the need for electoral finance reform, addressing money’s political influence and the legal regime’s dichotomy. The judgment emphasizes the importance of transparency and consultation in the democratic process.

THE ISSUES:

  • Influence of Money on Politics: The Supreme Court’s judgment highlights money’s direct and indirect influence on electoral politics, which can create barriers to entry for new candidates and political parties, particularly those representing marginalized communities.
  • Regulation Discrepancies: There is a dichotomy in the legal regime where contributions to political parties are regulated but not to individual candidates. Conversely, the law regulates expenditures by candidates but not by political parties.
  • Need for Comprehensive Regulation: Experts suggest that future regulation must address four key aspects: regulation of donations, expenditure limits, public financing, and disclosure requirements.
  • International Comparisons: Different countries have different norms and experiments with electoral finance. For example, the US restricts contributions based on the donor type but does not regulate political party expenditure, whereas the UK does the opposite.
  • Public Financing: The text mentions Germany’s model of public financing based on a party’s importance and the “democracy vouchers” experiment in Seattle, US, as innovative approaches to campaign finance.
  • Disclosure vs. Anonymity: The balance between transparency and anonymity is a contentious issue, as seen in the rejection of electoral bonds in India, which aimed to anonymize donations to political parties.
  • Lack of Consultation: The government’s decision to implement electoral bonds without consultation with other political parties or the public is seen as a significant oversight.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Regulation of Donations: There should be clear rules on who can donate and how much they can donate to political parties to prevent undue influence by a few large donors. This could include limiting contributions from individuals and corporations and banning certain types of donors, such as foreign entities.
  • Expenditure Limits: Implementing expenditure limits for political parties can prevent a financial arms race and ensure a level playing field. For example, the UK has a cap on how much political parties can spend per seat, which could be a model to consider.
  • Public Financing: Exploring public financing options, such as the German model, where parties receive funds based on their importance in the political system or the “democracy vouchers” system used in Seattle, US, where voters are given vouchers to donate to candidates of their choice.
  • Disclosure Requirements: Strengthening disclosure requirements to ensure transparency in political donations. This would involve making it mandatory for political parties to disclose their funding sources, allowing voters to make informed decisions. The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (IDEA’s) Political Finance Database is a global resource that includes comparative political finance data. It covers regulations on political finance, including disclosure requirements. The database outlines rules on financial reporting, oversight of political finance regulations, and sanctions available for breaches, providing a comprehensive view of disclosure practices in various countries.
  • Strengthening Electoral Institutions: Increasing funding for the Election Commission of India (ECI) and changing its funding status to ensure its independence and effectiveness in overseeing elections and enforcing regulations. The legal backing of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) could be enhanced to make its provisions enforceable by law, allowing for appropriate penalties for violations by political parties or candidates.
  • Addressing Populism and Vote-Buying: Introducing legislation to cap populist announcements by political parties, like the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, could help create a level playing field and prevent unsustainable populist measures. The popular initiative was undertaken in the Philippines to combat vote-selling. This initiative involved asking voters to make a simple, unenforceable promise not to accept money from politicians or to promise to vote according to their conscience, even if they do accept money.

THE CONCLUSION:

The ruling against electoral bonds calls for a comprehensive approach to electoral finance reform, including regulation of donations, expenditure limits, public financing, and disclosure requirements. Broad consultations with stakeholders are crucial to ensure the continued health of India’s democracy.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 To enhance the quality of democracy in India, the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms, and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (2017)

Q.2 In light of the recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (2018)

Q.3 Judicial Legislation is antithetical to the doctrine of separation of powers as envisaged in the Indian Constitution. In this context, justify filing many public interest petitions praying for issuing guidelines to executive authorities. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Considering the Supreme Court’s recent judgment on electoral bonds, critically examine the role of transparency in election financing in India. Evaluate the impact of this judgment on the existing legal framework for political donations and expenditures.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-after-sc-electoral-bond-verdict-time-clean-up-9165700/https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/40-years-ago/february-17-forty-years-ago-ambush-on-crpf-9165720/




Day-595 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMICS

Day-595

Time limit: 0

Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Information

DAILY MCQ

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Categories

  1. Not categorized 0%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Which of the following statements describes the term ‘de minimis’, which is often heard in the news in context to economy?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The World Trade Organisation (WTO) defines de minimis as the “minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing”.
    The present rules and commitments on agriculture are often called the “Uruguay Round reform programme” — they were negotiated in the Uruguay Round and they include reductions in subsidies and protection as well as other disciplines on the trade.
    The main conceptual consideration is that there are basically two categories of domestic support —
    ● Green Box: Support with no, or minimal, distortive effect on trade.
    ● Amber Box: Trade-distorting support
    Other than that, there is:
    Blue Box: Direct payments under production limiting programmes (often referred to as “Blue Box” measures) are exempt from commitments if such payments are made on fixed areas and yield or a fixed number of livestock.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The World Trade Organisation (WTO) defines de minimis as the “minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing”.
    The present rules and commitments on agriculture are often called the “Uruguay Round reform programme” — they were negotiated in the Uruguay Round and they include reductions in subsidies and protection as well as other disciplines on the trade.
    The main conceptual consideration is that there are basically two categories of domestic support —
    ● Green Box: Support with no, or minimal, distortive effect on trade.
    ● Amber Box: Trade-distorting support
    Other than that, there is:
    Blue Box: Direct payments under production limiting programmes (often referred to as “Blue Box” measures) are exempt from commitments if such payments are made on fixed areas and yield or a fixed number of livestock.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following conditions:
    1. Increase in expenditure by the government.
    2. Reduction in the interest rates on loans.
    3. Increase in crude oil prices.
    4. Increase in income tax.
    How many of the above-mentioned conditions may result in demand-pull inflation?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Demand-pull inflation’ is caused by developments on the demand side of the economy, while ‘cost-push inflation’ is caused by the effect of higher input costs on the supply side of the economy.
    As demand for a particular good or service increases, the available supply decreases. When fewer items are available, consumers are willing to pay more to obtain the item—as outlined in the economic principle of supply and demand. The result is higher prices due to demand-pull inflation.
    On the other hand, the cost-push inflation occurs when prices increase due to increases in production costs, such as raw materials and wages. The demand for goods is unchanged while the supply of goods declines due to the higher costs of production. As a result, the added costs of production are passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices for the finished goods.

    ● Increase in government expenditure may result in stimulating the aggregate demand in the economy and that can drive up the prices of the goods.
    ● Reduction in the interest rate on loan, a form of expansionary monetary policy, would also create demand-pull inflation in the economy due to increased demand for goods and services.
    ● Increase in crude oil price would increase the raw material cost. Thus, it is a form of cost-push inflation that indicates supply-side bottlenecks.
    ● An increase in income tax is likely to result in decrease in the aggregate demand as it would reduce the disposable income available with an individual. Thus, it would not lead to demand-pull inflation.
    Factors leading to cost-push inflation:
    Thus, while demand-pull inflation influences the demand-side dynamics, resulting in price increase, cost-push inflation influences the supply-side dynamics.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Demand-pull inflation’ is caused by developments on the demand side of the economy, while ‘cost-push inflation’ is caused by the effect of higher input costs on the supply side of the economy.
    As demand for a particular good or service increases, the available supply decreases. When fewer items are available, consumers are willing to pay more to obtain the item—as outlined in the economic principle of supply and demand. The result is higher prices due to demand-pull inflation.
    On the other hand, the cost-push inflation occurs when prices increase due to increases in production costs, such as raw materials and wages. The demand for goods is unchanged while the supply of goods declines due to the higher costs of production. As a result, the added costs of production are passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices for the finished goods.

    ● Increase in government expenditure may result in stimulating the aggregate demand in the economy and that can drive up the prices of the goods.
    ● Reduction in the interest rate on loan, a form of expansionary monetary policy, would also create demand-pull inflation in the economy due to increased demand for goods and services.
    ● Increase in crude oil price would increase the raw material cost. Thus, it is a form of cost-push inflation that indicates supply-side bottlenecks.
    ● An increase in income tax is likely to result in decrease in the aggregate demand as it would reduce the disposable income available with an individual. Thus, it would not lead to demand-pull inflation.
    Factors leading to cost-push inflation:
    Thus, while demand-pull inflation influences the demand-side dynamics, resulting in price increase, cost-push inflation influences the supply-side dynamics.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements about the types of unemployment:
    1. In Structural unemployment, the marginal productivity of labour becomes zero.
    2. Disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector.
    3. Frictional unemployment is a temporary period of joblessness resulting from voluntary employment transitions.
    How many of the above statements are incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the jobs that are available and the people looking for work. This mismatch could be because jobseekers don’t have the skills required to do the available jobs, or because the available jobs are a long way from the jobseekers.
    Disguised unemployment” or “hidden unemployment” describes a section of the labour force engaged in duplicate activity with little to no production. In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed but are actually not making a meaningful contribution to the economy. Thus, the marginal productivity of labour is zero. Disguised unemployment does not affect an economy’s aggregate economic output.
    Statement 2 is correct: In developing economies, the disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector, where a greater number of workers are employed than required.
    Statement 3 is correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
    Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job. Businesses also spend time searching for suitable candidates to fill job vacancies. As a result, people looking for jobs are not matched immediately with vacancies and may experience a period of temporary unemployment.
    This type of unemployment is generally for a shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the jobs that are available and the people looking for work. This mismatch could be because jobseekers don’t have the skills required to do the available jobs, or because the available jobs are a long way from the jobseekers.
    Disguised unemployment” or “hidden unemployment” describes a section of the labour force engaged in duplicate activity with little to no production. In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed but are actually not making a meaningful contribution to the economy. Thus, the marginal productivity of labour is zero. Disguised unemployment does not affect an economy’s aggregate economic output.
    Statement 2 is correct: In developing economies, the disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector, where a greater number of workers are employed than required.
    Statement 3 is correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
    Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job. Businesses also spend time searching for suitable candidates to fill job vacancies. As a result, people looking for jobs are not matched immediately with vacancies and may experience a period of temporary unemployment.
    This type of unemployment is generally for a shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), consider the following statements:
    1. The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “debtors in possession”, as opposed to the previous position of “creditors in control’.
    2. The loan recovery rate of large corporates has substantially increased under this system.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the umbrella legislation for insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals.
    The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “creditors in control” as opposed to the previous position of “debtors in possession,”, and as a result, management control is transferred from the hands of the current owners to a new management headed by interim resolution professional (IRP) who practically acts under the supervision and control of Committee of Creditors (CoC) for all purposes.
    The CoC is formed by the Interim Resolution Professional once the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is initiated against a Corporate Debtor. The CoC is a committee consisting of financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
    A time-bound resolution of insolvency was the main objective. It aimed to resolve insolvency proceedings within 180 days (extendable by 90 days).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the objective of the resolution, the recovery rate of loans has been quite low.
    ● The Financial Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 28, 2023 summarises the Corporate Insolvency Process (CIRP): “Since the inception of the IBC, a total of 2,808 corporate debtors (CDs) have been rescued and 2,249 CDs have been referred for liquidation till September 2023. The total admitted claims till September 23 are 7,058. As many as 2,001 are pending, of which 36 (out of 37) for seven years, 502 for six years. During the resolution plan approval, only about 15% is paid by the purchaser and the repayment takes years without any further interest collected by the banks.”
    ● The FSR report mentions that realizable value to the creditors is only 16.9% in 2020-21, 22.4% in 2021-22 and 37.1% in 2022-23.
    ● Banks or financial creditors are recovering an average of just 10-15% in NCLT-settled cases of large corporates.
    ● As of September 2023, 67% of ongoing CIRP cases have crossed the timeline of 270 days. The average time taken for admission during FY21 and FY22 was 468 days and 650 days, respectively.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the umbrella legislation for insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals.
    The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “creditors in control” as opposed to the previous position of “debtors in possession,”, and as a result, management control is transferred from the hands of the current owners to a new management headed by interim resolution professional (IRP) who practically acts under the supervision and control of Committee of Creditors (CoC) for all purposes.
    The CoC is formed by the Interim Resolution Professional once the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is initiated against a Corporate Debtor. The CoC is a committee consisting of financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
    A time-bound resolution of insolvency was the main objective. It aimed to resolve insolvency proceedings within 180 days (extendable by 90 days).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the objective of the resolution, the recovery rate of loans has been quite low.
    ● The Financial Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 28, 2023 summarises the Corporate Insolvency Process (CIRP): “Since the inception of the IBC, a total of 2,808 corporate debtors (CDs) have been rescued and 2,249 CDs have been referred for liquidation till September 2023. The total admitted claims till September 23 are 7,058. As many as 2,001 are pending, of which 36 (out of 37) for seven years, 502 for six years. During the resolution plan approval, only about 15% is paid by the purchaser and the repayment takes years without any further interest collected by the banks.”
    ● The FSR report mentions that realizable value to the creditors is only 16.9% in 2020-21, 22.4% in 2021-22 and 37.1% in 2022-23.
    ● Banks or financial creditors are recovering an average of just 10-15% in NCLT-settled cases of large corporates.
    ● As of September 2023, 67% of ongoing CIRP cases have crossed the timeline of 270 days. The average time taken for admission during FY21 and FY22 was 468 days and 650 days, respectively.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the ‘fiscal drag’, government revenue increases without an explicit increase in tax rates.
    Statement-II: Inflation and earnings growth may push more taxpayers into higher tax brackets, thus undermining spending.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Fiscal Drag occurs when earnings growth and inflation push more earners into higher tax brackets. Consequently, the government’s tax revenue rises without any increases in tax rates. If earners pay a higher percentage of income in tax, their spending declines.
    This fiscal drag has the effect of reducing (or limiting increase) the aggregate demand. The greater tax burden on incomes dampens spending, i.e., it undermines demand. This is a drag on the economy caused by taxation, i.e., it is a fiscal drag.
    It works as automatic brakes that a progressive tax system applies to aggregate demand. Fiscal drag slows down or tames a rapidly expanding economy.
    Progressive tax is a system that taxes higher earners more than lower earners. In other words, higher earners pay a greater percentage of their income in tax than lower earners.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Fiscal Drag occurs when earnings growth and inflation push more earners into higher tax brackets. Consequently, the government’s tax revenue rises without any increases in tax rates. If earners pay a higher percentage of income in tax, their spending declines.
    This fiscal drag has the effect of reducing (or limiting increase) the aggregate demand. The greater tax burden on incomes dampens spending, i.e., it undermines demand. This is a drag on the economy caused by taxation, i.e., it is a fiscal drag.
    It works as automatic brakes that a progressive tax system applies to aggregate demand. Fiscal drag slows down or tames a rapidly expanding economy.
    Progressive tax is a system that taxes higher earners more than lower earners. In other words, higher earners pay a greater percentage of their income in tax than lower earners.

window.wpAdvQuizInitList = window.wpAdvQuizInitList || []; window.wpAdvQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpAdvQuiz_636', init: { quizId: 636, mode: 0, globalPoints: 10, timelimit: 0, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 0, qpp: 0, catPoints: [10], formPos: 0, lbn: "Finish quiz", json: {"2964":{"type":"single","id":2964,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"2965":{"type":"single","id":2965,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2966":{"type":"single","id":2966,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"2967":{"type":"single","id":2967,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"2968":{"type":"single","id":2968,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } });




SAFEGUARDING AVIAN MIGRANTS: INDIA’s CENTRAL ASIAN FLYWAY INITIATIVE RECOGNIZED

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The recently concluded Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP 14) witnessed a landmark development with the adoption of the Initiative for the Central Asian Flyway.

EXPLANATION:

  • Propelled by India and supported by BirdLife International and 30 other nations spanning from Russian Siberia to the Maldives, this initiative marks a crucial step towards the conservation of over 600 migratory bird species.

India’s Leadership in Conservation:

  • Introduced by India during CMS COP 14, the Initiative for the Central Asian Flyway showcases India’s commitment to environmental conservation.
  • Led by the Inspector General of Forests, Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, the initiative garnered widespread support as a comprehensive effort to protect the diverse migratory bird populations traversing the Central Asian Flyway.

Objectives of the Initiative:

  • Central Asian Flyway (CAF) covers a large area of Eurasia between the Arctic and Indian Oceans.
  • This flyway comprises several important migration routes of birds.
  • Including India, there are 30 countries under the Central Asian Flyway.
  • The primary goal of the Central Asian Flyway initiative is to restore and maintain the favorable conservation status of migratory species populations and facilitate their ecological connectivity within the flyway.
  • The ambitious initiative aims to address the alarming decline in populations of over 240 migratory bird species within the Central Asian Flyway.
  • Notably, 48 of these species are classified as Globally Threatened or Near Threatened.

Key Threats to Migratory Birds:

  • BirdLife International highlighted critical threats faced by migratory birds, including severe habitat loss, overexploitation, and illegal killing.
  • Additionally, the rapid development of energy infrastructure poses a significant risk, leading to collisions and electrocutions.
  • These threats make coordinated conservation efforts imperative to safeguard both the ecological balance and the cultural significance of migratory birds to local communities.

Scope of the Central Asian Flyway:

  • Encompassing a vast geographical range, the Central Asian Flyway includes countries from Russian Siberia to the Maldives.
  • The list comprises Afghanistan, India, China, Iran, Kazakhstan, the Maldives, and 25 other nations.
  • The migratory bird species relying on this flyway connect various ecosystems and contribute to the cultural heritage of communities that have coexisted with them for centuries.

Capacity Building and Collaborative Conservation:

  • The Central Asian Flyway initiative is envisioned as a platform for capacity building, knowledge sharing, research, and coordination among all participating countries.
  • The initiative seeks to foster collaboration to address the diverse challenges faced by migratory bird populations, emphasizing the importance of joint efforts in conservation.

Programme of Work and Future Outlook:

  • The initiative commits to developing and enforcing a Programme of Work aligned with CMS resolutions, decisions, and plans.
  • As it progresses, the initiative aims to provide a robust framework for coordinated action, ensuring the sustainable conservation of the 600+ species of migratory birds utilizing the Central Asian Flyway.

CMS:

  • It is an intergovernmental treaty under the UNEP- popularly known as Bonn Convention.
  • It aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and avian migratory species throughout their range.
  • It lays the legal foundation to conduct conservation measures on a global scale.
  • It was signed in 1979 and in force since 1983.
  • As of 1 March 2022, the CMS has 133 Parties.
  • India is also a party to CMS since 1983.
  • The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (COP14) was hosted by the Government of Uzbekistan, in Samarkand from 12-17 February 2024.

Birdlife International:

  • It is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources
  • It is world’s largest conservation partnerships for conservation of birds and their habitats.
  • It was earlier known as International Committee for Bird Preservation.

Conclusion:

  • India’s leadership in championing the Central Asian Flyway initiative reflects a shared commitment to protecting biodiversity and preserving the invaluable contributions of migratory birds. As nations collaborate under this initiative, it not only addresses the immediate threats faced by these birds but also lays the foundation for a sustainable and harmonious coexistence between migratory species and the diverse landscapes they traverse. The Central Asian Flyway initiative is a testament to the global community’s recognition of the urgency to protect and conserve our interconnected ecosystems.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/central-asian-flyway-recognised-to-protect-over-600-migratory-bird-species-94513




GOOGLE’s CUTTING-EDGE AI: EXPLORING GEMINI 1.5 PRO AND IT’S BREAKTHROUGHS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: In the rapidly evolving landscape of artificial intelligence, Google’s latest revelation, the Gemini 1.5 Pro, has garnered significant attention.

EXPLANATION:

  • Positioned as a pioneering model within the Gemini 1.5 line, this AI marvel introduces advancements that set it apart from its predecessors.
  • We will look into the intricacies of Gemini 1.5 Pro and its groundbreaking features.

Gemini 1.5 Pro: A Leap Ahead in AI Technology

  • Google’s Gemini 1.5 Pro is the latest addition to its repertoire of AI models, boasting advancements built on the Mixture-of-Experts (MoE) architecture.
  • This mid-size multimodal model, optimized for scalability, marks a significant leap forward in the realm of artificial intelligence.

Contextual Understanding and Token Processing:

  • One standout feature of Gemini 1.5 Pro is its unparalleled long-context understanding across modalities.
  • The model achieves comparable results to the previously launched Gemini 1.0 Ultra but with notably less computing power.
  • What sets it apart is its ability to process a staggering one million tokens consistently—a remarkable feat in the domain of large-scale foundation models.
  • To contextualize, Gemini 1.0 models handle up to 32,000 tokens, GPT-4 Turbo manages 1,28,000 tokens, and Claude 2.1 operates with 2,00,000 tokens.

Mixture-of-Experts (MoE) Architecture:

  • The underlying technology of Gemini 1.5 Pro is the MoE architecture, a collective approach dividing complex problems into sub-tasks.
  • These sub-tasks are then trained by clusters of experts, providing a comprehensive coverage of different input data with distinct learners.
  • Google emphasizes that this architectural shift enhances the efficiency of training and serving the Gemini 1.5 Pro model.

Use Cases and Multimodal Capabilities:

  • Gemini 1.5 Pro showcases impressive capabilities across various applications. It can process up to 7,00,000 words or approximately 30,000 lines of code—35 times more than Gemini 1.0 Pro.
  • Furthermore, the model can handle up to 11 hours of audio and 1 hour of video in multiple languages.
  • Demonstrations on Google’s official YouTube channel exhibit the model’s adeptness in understanding extensive context, including a 402-page PDF, a 44-minute video, and interactions with 100,633 lines of code through multimodal prompts.

Preview, Pricing, and Availability:

  • During the preview phase, Google offers the Gemini 1.5 Pro with a one million-token context window for free.
  • While Google has not introduced pricing tiers yet, future plans may include different tiers starting at 1,28,000 context windows and scaling up to one million tokens.

Gemini Series: A Continuum of Excellence:

  • Gemini 1.5 Pro follows the introduction of Google’s Gemini 1.0 series in December.
  • Comprising Gemini Ultra, Gemini Pro, and Gemini Nano, these models showcase state-of-the-art performances on diverse benchmarks, encompassing coding and text.
  • The Gemini series, known for its multimodal capabilities, represents a new frontier in Google’s AI endeavors.

Conclusion:

  • The unveiling of Gemini 1.5 Pro underscores Google’s commitment to advancing AI technology.
  • With its extended context understanding, token processing capabilities, and innovative MoE architecture, Gemini 1.5 Pro positions itself as a frontrunner in the evolving landscape of artificial intelligence.
  • As developers explore its potential through Google’s AI Studio and Vertex AI, Gemini 1.5 Pro paves the way for a new era of sophisticated reasoning and multimodal AI applications.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/google-gemini-pro-1-5-1-million-tokens-9166398/




GSLV’s JOURNEY: OVERCOMING CHALLENGES IN ROCKETRY FOR ISRO’s AMBITIOUS MISSIONS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The recent launch of the INSAT-3DS satellite by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) marked a significant achievement, not just for the satellite but also for the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) rocket.

EXPLANATION:

  • Despite its previous struggles, GSLV successfully delivered the satellite into its intended orbit, showcasing a momentous accomplishment for ISRO.
  • The GSLV rocket, a vital component of ISRO’s launch fleet, has earned the nickname ‘naughty boy’ due to its track record, characterized by a high failure rate compared to its counterparts.
  • Out of 15 previous launches, four ended unsuccessfully, raising concerns about its reliability.
  • The recent success, however, has shifted the narrative around GSLV.

Comparative Performance with PSLV and LVM3:

  • GSLV’s historical performance stands in contrast to the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle), which, despite its 60 launches, has only faced two failures since its inaugural flight in 1993.
  • LVM3, also known as GSLV-MkIII, with seven successful launches, further emphasizes the contrast, having never encountered a failure.

Cryogenic Engine Challenges:

  • GSLV’s challenges stem primarily from its cryogenic engine, located in the third and final stage of the rocket.
  • This engine utilizes liquid hydrogen, known for its efficiency as a rocket fuel, but requires handling at extremely low temperatures.
  • The GSLV’s cryogenic engine is a reverse-engineered version of a Russian design, initially part of a deal disrupted by U.S. objections under the Missile Technology Control Regime.

Indigenous Cryogenic Technology Success:

  • In the pursuit of self-reliance, ISRO developed its indigenous cryogenic engine, distinct from the GSLV’s.
  • This engine, employed in the LVM3 rocket, has showcased remarkable reliability and successful launches, including missions like Chandrayaan-2 and Chandrayaan-3.
  • The indigenously developed cryogenic technology reflects ISRO’s mastery in rocketry.

The GSLV’s Road to Redemption:

  • Despite past setbacks, GSLV’s recent flawless flight has bolstered confidence in its capabilities.
  • The successful launch of INSAT-3DS, emphasizing GSLV’s prowess, marks a pivotal moment in its journey.
  • The rocket’s upcoming mission, carrying the NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) satellite, presents a crucial test that could solidify GSLV’s reputation as a reliable vehicle for ambitious collaborative endeavors.

INSAT-3DS:

  • INSAT-3DS, is an exclusive meteorological satellite realized by ISRO.
  • Its primary objective is to provide continuity of services to the existing in-orbit INSAT-3D and 3DR satellites and significantly enhancing the capabilities of INSAT system is flagged off to SDSC-SHAR launch port on January 25, 2024 for the launch onboard GSLV F14.
  • The Satellite had successfully completed Satellite Assembly, Integration & Testing activities at U R Rao Satellite Centre, Bengaluru.
  • Pre-Shipment Review (PSR) was held with the participation of members from user community on January 25, 2024.
  • The satellite is a user funded project with Ministry of Earth Science (MoES), configured around ISRO’s well proven I-2k bus platform with a Lift-Off Mass of 2275 kg. Indian Industries have significantly contributed in the making of the Satellite.

GSLV:

  • The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is a remarkable class of expendable launch systems operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • Since its inception in 2001, GSLV has been involved in fifteen launches.
  • The project was initiated in 1990 with the goal of establishing an Indian launch capability for geosynchronous satellites.
  • GSLV utilizes components that have already proven successful in the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), including the S125/S139 solid rocket booster and the liquid-fueled Vikas engine.

NISAR:

  • NISAR has been built by space agencies of the US and India under a partnership agreement signed in 2014. The 2,800 kilograms satellite consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite.
  • While NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to store data, and a payload data subsystem, ISRO has provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch system and spacecraft.
  • According to NASA, another important component of the satellite is its large 39-foot stationary antenna reflector. Made of a gold-plated wire mesh, the reflector will be used to focus “the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure”.

Conclusion:

  • ISRO’s resilience and commitment to advancing rocket technology are evident in GSLV’s evolving narrative. From being dubbed the ‘naughty boy’ to overcoming challenges and delivering successful missions, GSLV stands as a testament to India’s space exploration capabilities. As it prepares for the significant NISAR mission, GSLV’s journey exemplifies the triumphs and learnings in the dynamic field of space exploration.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/gslv-rocket-naughty-boy-why-9166963/




JNANPITH HONORS LITERARY EXCELLENCE

TAG: GS:1 ART AND CULTURE

THE CONTEXT: The prestigious Jnanpith Award, India’s highest literary honor, has been conferred upon celebrated Urdu poet and Bollywood filmmaker Gulzar (Sampooran Singh Kalra) and distinguished Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya.

EXPLANATION:

  • The 58th edition of the award, presented by Bharatiya Jnanpith, acknowledges outstanding contributions to Indian literature, marking the second time it honors Sanskrit and the fifth time Urdu.

Gulzar’s Contribution to Literature and Film:

  • Gulzar, born in 1934, has garnered numerous accolades throughout his illustrious career.
  • These include the Sahitya Akademi Award for Urdu (2002), the Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2013), Padma Bhushan (2004), and multiple National Film Awards.
  • His song “Jai Ho” from the film Slumdog Millionaire earned him an Oscar in 2009 and a Grammy in 2010.
  • The Jnanpith Award, with a cash component of ₹11 lakh, a Vagdevi statue, and a citation, adds another jewel to Gulzar’s impressive collection of honors.
  • Apart from his acclaimed film career, Gulzar has made significant literary contributions.
  • Known for his pioneering work in Urdu poetry, he introduced the ‘Triveni’ genre—a non-mukaffa poem of three lines.
  • The maestro’s versatility extends to children’s poetry, reflecting his commitment to exploring diverse literary realms.

Jagadguru Rambhadracharya’s Multifaceted Achievements:

  • Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, a polyglot fluent in 22 languages, stands out as a Hindu spiritual leader, educator, and prolific author with over 240 books and texts to his credit, including four epics.
  • Leading the Tulsi Peeth in Chitrakoot, Madhya Pradesh, he has been a prominent figure in the Ramananda sect since 1982. His linguistic prowess spans Sanskrit, Hindi, Awadhi, Maithili, and more.
  • The Padma Vibhushan recipient (2015) adds the Jnanpith Award to his distinguished achievements.

Jnanpith Award:

  • Jnanpith Award is an Indian literary award presented annually by the BharatiyaJnanpith to an author for their “outstanding contribution towards literature”.
  • The Jnanpith Award was established in 1944.
  • It acknowledges the literary prowess of individuals who have left an indelible mark on Indian literature.
  • The award’s cash component, a Vagdevi statue, and a citation make it a symbol of literary excellence.
  • The award is bestowed only on Indian writers writing in Indian languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India and English, with no posthumous conferral.
  • The selection committee, headed by Odia writer Pratibha Rai, made the decision to honor writers from two languages—Sanskrit and Urdu.
  • It is sponsored by the cultural organization Bharatiya Jnanpith.

Conclusion:

  • The Jnanpith Award’s recognition of Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya underscores the diversity and richness of Indian literature. It celebrates not only the literary achievements of these eminent personalities but also the cultural and linguistic tapestry that defines India’s literary landscape. As the nation applauds their contributions, the Jnanpith Award continues to stand as a beacon of honor for those who illuminate the world through the power of words.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gulzar-sanskrit-scholar-rambhadracharya-selected-for-jnanpith-award/article67857170.ece/amp/




UNUSUAL AIR QUALITY TRENDS IN INDIA: A RARE TRIPLE-DIP LA NIÑA PHENOMENON

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY

THE CONTEXT: In the winter season of 2022-23, India experienced an anomalous air quality trend, attributed to a rare “triple-dip” La Niña phenomenon, as revealed by a recent study led by Chair Professor Gufran Beig and his team at the National Institute of Advanced Studies.

EXPLANATION:

  • The study, published in the Elsevier Journal, sheds light on the intricate interplay of climate change and local emissions in influencing air quality across the subcontinent.

Triple-Dip La Niña Phenomenon:

  • The study highlights the occurrence of three consecutive years (2020-23) of La Niña conditions, a rare “triple-dip” event.
  • ‘Triple Dip’ La Niña is a period where the La Niña period extends for up to three consecutive winters and results in multiyear cooling of the surface temperature of the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  • For example, the current La Niña episode was started in September 2020, prevailed for the last 24 months, and looks set to continue for another six months, and has thus been classified as a ‘triple dip’ La Niña.
  • La Niña, known for impacting ocean and climate patterns globally, took an unprecedented turn, leading to diverse consequences in India’s air quality during the winter season.
  • Contrasting Trends in North and Peninsular India: Contrary to the established trends of air quality in recent decades, the 2022-23 winter season witnessed a unique phenomenon where northern India experienced improved air quality, while peninsular India faced escalating pollution levels.

North India’s Air Quality Improvement:

  • Among the northern cities, Ghaziabad exhibited the most significant progress with a remarkable 33 percent reduction in 5 levels.
  • Rohtak and Noida followed closely with reductions of 30 percent and 28 percent, respectively.
  • Even the capital city, Delhi, displayed a positive shift with a 10 percent gain.

Peninsular India’s Deteriorating Air Quality:

  • In stark contrast, peninsular Indian cities experienced a deterioration in air quality during the same period.
  • Mumbai led the unfortunate trend with a substantial 30 percent increase in PM2.5 levels.
  • Other cities like Coimbatore, Bengaluru, and Chennai witnessed rises of 28 percent, 20 percent, and 12 percent, respectively.

Meteorological Factors Influencing Air Quality:

  • The study identifies meteorological factors as crucial contributors to these divergent trends.
  • Higher northerly winds at the transport level in peninsular India led to the trapping of pollutants, causing an increase in PM2.5 concentration.
  • This condition was exacerbated by slower winds near the surface in peninsular regions.
  • Conversely, north India experienced improved air quality due to weak western disturbances, unusual wind patterns, and the absence of rain and clouds, facilitating faster ventilation.

Climate Change as a Significant Factor:

  • The research underscores the role of rapidly changing climate as a significant factor influencing air quality.
  • The triple-dip La Niña event, exacerbated by climate change, created a complex interplay of meteorological conditions, impacting pollution levels in distinct ways across the country.

La Nina:

  • La Niña is the opposite of El Niño.
  • La Niña sees cooler than average sea surface temperature (SST) in the equatorial Pacific region.
  • Trade winds are stronger than usual, pushing warmer water towards Asia.
  • On the American west coast, upwelling increases, bringing nutrient-rich water to the surface.
  • Pacific cold waters close to the Americas push jet streams — narrow bands of strong winds in the upper atmosphere — northwards.
  • This leads to drier conditions in Southern U.S., and heavy rainfall in Canada.
  • La Niña has also been associated with heavy floods in Australia.
  • Two successive La Niña events in the last two years caused intense flooding in Australia, resulting in significant damage.

Conclusion:

  • The findings of this study not only unravel the intricate dynamics of a rare triple-dip La Niña event but also emphasize the need for a comprehensive understanding of local emissions and global climate patterns to predict and manage air quality in the face of a changing climate. The anomalous trends observed in the 2022-23 winter season serve as a stark reminder of the interconnectedness of natural phenomena and human-induced factors in shaping environmental conditions.

SOURCE: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-rare-triple-dip-la-nina-phenomenon-behind-unusual-air-quality-trend-in-india-in-2022-23-finds-a-study-3397692/lite/#amp_tf=From%20%251%24s&aoh=17082686188916&csi=0&referrer=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com




SC’S ELECTORAL BONDS JUDGMENT: A VITAL VERDICT

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bond (EB) scheme of political funding, declaring it to be “unconstitutional” because it completely anonymized contributions made to political parties. It is being welcomed especially because it is anchored in the citizen’s right to know.

ELECTORAL BONDS:

  • These are bearer banking instruments that do not carry the name of the buyer or payee, go for sale in 10-day windows in the beginning of every quarter in January, April, July and October besides an additional 30-day period specified by the central government during the Lok Sabha election years.
  • It was introduced in 2018 and are available for purchase at any SBI branch in multiples of ₹1,000, ₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore and can be bought through a KYC-compliant account.
  • There is no limit on the number of electoral bonds that a person or company can purchase. Donations made under this scheme by corporate and even foreign entities through Indian subsidiaries enjoy 100% tax exemption while identities of the donors are kept confidential both by the bank as well as the recipient political parties. The public sector bank is obligated under the scheme to disclose the details only pursuant to a court order or a requisition by law enforcement agencies.

THE SUPREME JUDGEMENT ON ELECTORAL BONDS

  • The five bench SC judgment headed by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud is based on petitions filed by Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR), non-profit Common Cause, Congress leader Jaya Thakur, and the CPI (M), among others.
  • The petitioners had argued that either the scheme must go on account of violating people’s right to know and affecting free and fair elections, or the court must direct for full disclosure of the purchasers and donors of EBs.

POINTS MADE IN THE JUDGEMENT:

  • The judgement ruled that amendments made in the Representation of the People Act, Income Tax Act, and Companies Act through the 2017 Finance Act violated the constitutional right of the electors.
  • Violates Article 14: Permitting unlimited corporate contributions to political parties was violative of Article 14 (right to equality) as it highlighted that it authorized unconstrained influence of companies in the electoral process.
  • Violates free and fair election: This is violative of the principle of free and fair elections and political equality captured in the value of one person-one vote.
  • Violate Article 19(1)(a): The electoral bond scheme is violative of Article 19(1)(a) as it infringes upon the right to information of the voter by anonymizing contributions through electoral bonds.
  • Nexus between money and politics: Contradicting the government statement that donor anonymity was necessary to shield contributors from potential retribution, the judgement noted that that financial contributions to a political party would lead to a close nexus between money and politics.
  • Fails proportionality test: The judgment underscored that voters’ right to know supersedes anonymity in political party funding, and that the EB scheme fails to meet the balancing prong of the proportionality test.
  • Violates the right to information: The scheme hides the source of funding of political parties from the public, which is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a). The scheme also enables black money, foreign funding, and corporate influence in politics, which harm the public interest and the sovereignty of the nation.
  • Violates the principle of equality: The scheme discriminates between different political parties based on their vote share, giving an unfair advantage to the ruling party and the major opposition parties, while excluding the smaller and regional parties. The scheme also creates a disparity between the donors and the voters, as the former can sway the policies and decisions of the political parties, while the latter are kept in the dark.
  • Violates the constitutional scheme of electoral reforms: The scheme goes against the constitutional aim of curbing corruption and criminalization of politics. The scheme is also contrary to the recommendations of various committees and commissions that have called for more transparency and disclosure in political funding.

SIGNIFICANCE OF JUDGEMENT:

  • Transparency and accountability of political funding: The judgment will ensure that the public will have access to the information about the source and amount of funding received by the political parties through electoral bonds. This will enable the public to scrutinize and hold the political parties accountable for their performance and conduct.
  • Reduce the influence of money: The judgment will curb the influence of money and corporate power in politics, as the donors will no longer be able to hide their identity and agenda behind the veil of anonymity.
  • Level playing field for all political parties: The judgment will level the playing field for all political parties, as they will no longer be discriminated against based on their vote share or popularity. This will enable the smaller and regional parties to compete with the ruling party and the major opposition parties on an equal footing and offer a genuine choice to the voters.
  • Democratic setup: “The voters’ right to know and access to information is too important in a democratic set-up so as to curtail and deny ‘essential’ information on the pretext of privacy and the desire to check the flow of unaccounted for money to the political parties. While secret ballots are integral to fostering free and fair elections, transparency not secrecy in funding of political parties is a prerequisite for free and fair elections. The confidentiality of the voting booth does not extend to anonymity in contributions to political parties.
  • Undo corruption: The bench held that the information about funding of political parties is essential for the effective exercise of the choice of voting to identify corruption and governance information. It ordered full disclosure of donors and recipients of EBs issued since April 2019 on the website of the Election Commission of India (ECI) by March 13, 2024. It directed the State Bank of India the only designated EB-issuing bank to stop the issuance of EBs, adding the bank will submit details of EBs purchased since April 12, 2019, till date to the poll body by March 6.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • State funding: The Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections has supported partial state funding of recognised political parties. State funding has proved its effectiveness in a number of countries like Germany, Japan, Canada, Sweden etc.
  • Stringent legislations: There is a need for effective regulation of political financing along with bold reforms to break the vicious cycle of corruption and erosion of quality of democratic polity. It is crucial to plug the loopholes in the current laws to make the entire governance machinery more accountable and transparent.
  • Strengthening Election commission: There is a need to strengthen the role of Election Commission by enabling suitable laws and creating healthy political environment. The EC should increase its own capacity in terms of empowering staff and developing infrastructural and logistical strength.
  • Political party auditing: Venkatachaliah Committee Report (2002) recommended strict regulatory frameworks for auditing and disclosure of party income and expenditure along with state funding.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Supreme Court’s judgment on scrapping of electoral bonds is a historic and landmark verdict that upholds the constitutional rights and values of the citizens and the democracy. This decision will enhance the transparency and accountability of political funding and reduce the influence of money and corporate power in politics and will create level playing field for all political parties.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. Whether electoral bonds are effective in ensuring fair, just and open elections? Discuss the various concerns regarding electoral bonds. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. Court striking down the electoral bond scheme is a landmark moment as it affirms principles of transparency and probity, and the people’s right to know. Comment.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-scs-electoral-bonds-judgment-a-vital-verdict-9164121/