WHAT CONSUMPTION EXPENDITURE SURVEY LEAVES UNANSWERED
THE CONTEXT: The 2022-23 Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) is not comparable to previous surveys due to major methodology changes. With limited factsheet data released so far, it does not provide clear insights into changing consumption patterns or poverty trends. Complete findings are awaited to understand the current ground reality.
THE ISSUES:
Rural-Urban Inequality: Some HCES data indicate a fall in rural-urban inequality, with the urban average monthly per capita consumption expenditure (MPCE) being 72 percent more than the rural areas in 2022-23 compared to 84 percent in 2011-12. Nevertheless, this neglects rural-urban price differentials, and historical evidence shows that the rural-urban gap is a highly variable empirical phenomenon.
Changes in Consumption Patterns: The share of food expenditure has significantly decreased, with cereals’ share per average MPCE falling substantially in rural and urban areas. This comes with rising trends in the proportion of processed items, beverages, and other non-food products such as medical charges, conveyance, the cost of living, consumer services, and durable commodities.
Imputed Values for Social Welfare Items: The HCES now provides imputed values for items received or consumed free of cost under the social welfare programs. Nevertheless, the imputed values are only verifiable once unit-level price and quantity data become available.
Changes in Survey Design: The HCES design evolved significantly, bringing in three separate surveys for different groups of goods and several household visits and improving data collection methodologies, ensuring comparability with previous rounds and higher estimates because of these changes.
Inter-Caste Differences: The HCES data indicates that the midpoint of MPCE for the inter-caste gap has mostly stayed the same in the rural sector. The ratio of the average rural SC MPCE to higher-caste MPCE about others remained constant at 0.7. Nevertheless, urban statistics indicate reduced inter-group MPCE gaps among SCs, Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
THE WAY FORWARD:
Developing Concordance Tables: Concordance tables can be developed whenever there are changes in item coverage between the two surveys, i.e., 2011-12 and 2022-23, that map items from the 2011-12 survey to those in the 2022-23 survey, and this will help to make better comparison over time. This involves thoroughly documenting changes in the item definition and categories. For instance, the United Nations Statistics Division provides guidelines for linking household survey data over time, even when methodologies change.
Transparent Reporting of Imputation Methods: The survey should provide detailed documentation on the methods used for imputing values for items received free of cost through social welfare programs. This includes the assumptions made, the source of unit-level price and quantity data, and the imputation process.
Longitudinal Panel Surveys: To capture changes in consumption patterns over time with minimal modifications in survey instruments, India may think of creating a longitudinal panel survey of households. This approach makes it possible to follow the same households for long periods, enabling the researchers to learn about the changes in consumption, income, and poverty.
Addressing Rural-Urban and Intra-Household Inequality: Further analysis of the HCES data should focus on understanding the drivers of rural-urban inequality and intra-household consumption differences. This may involve more detailed surveys or qualitative studies that explore the underlying factors contributing to observed disparities.
Engaging with Global Best Practices: Active interaction with international bodies such as the International Statistical Institute, ISI, or the International Household Survey Network, IHSN, allows drawing attention to the best survey re-designers practices and the measures improving data comparability. The lessons from the experience of the countries that have successfully handled the changes in the household surveys, for instance, the Netherlands or Sweden, can be instrumental.
Utilizing Technology and Big Data: Leveraging big data sources and advanced analytical techniques, including machine learning and AI, can augment traditional survey methods for a nuanced understanding of consumption patterns. For instance, transaction data from digital financial services can provide real-time insights into consumption behaviors. The World Bank’s LSMS+ initiative explores integrating big data with traditional surveys to enhance data quality and timeliness.
THE CONCLUSION:
While the methodological upgrades in the HCES signify progress toward capturing nuanced consumption data, they also underscore the necessity for comparability with historical data. Adopting concordance measures, transparency, and international best practices is essential to navigate these challenges. Doing so will ensure the survey’s ongoing relevance and utility in shaping effective policy and understanding economic dynamics.
UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:
Q.1 Explain the difference between the computing methodology of India’s gross domestic product (GDP) before the year 2015 and after 2015. (2021)
Q.2 What is the meaning of the term tax-expenditure? Taking the housing sector as an example, discuss how it influences the government’s budgetary policies. (2013)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q.1 Examine the challenges posed by the methodological changes in the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) of 2022-23 for long-term trend analysis in India. Discuss the potential solutions to address these challenges and ensure the utility of such surveys for policy formulation and socio-economic analysis. Illustrate your answer with examples.
BURDEN OF POWER: ON INDIA’S ASTRONAUTS AND THE INDIAN SPACE POLICY
THE CONTEXT: The first mission flight, Gaganyaan, an unmanned test flight to check technology readiness, is expected by the end of 2024. The announcement was made at the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre in Thumba, Kerala after the ISRO had successfully tested the human readiness of the cryogenic engine that will be used on the Gaganyaan mission vehicles. This marks an important milestone in India’s space program.
MORE ON THE NEWS:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)has signalled that, it expects to conduct two test flights of the human-rated Launch Vehicle Mark-3 rocket in 2024 and 2025 and the crewed launch in 2025.
ISRO centres and their collaborators in industry and academia have worked to bring the mission’s various components together while also negotiating delays due to the COVID-19 pandemic and ISRO’s commercial commitments. Now, with the astronauts’ names in the open, India is truly in the last mile.
Prime Minister announced four astronauts for Gaganyaan, India’s first crewed space mission. All four Indian Air Force officers have had extensive experience as test pilots and are currently in training for the mission.
PM bestowed them with the prestigious astronaut wings, described them as “four forces” who represent the aspirations and optimism of 1.4 billion Indians.
GAGANYAAN MISSION:
TheGaganyaan mission marks India’s ambitious endeavour to send humans into space. The Union Cabinet approved Gaganyaan in 2018 at a cost of ₹10,000 crore.
It consists of an Orbital Module (OM) comprising a Crew Module (CM) and a Service Module (SM), the mission prioritizes human safety through state-of-the-art avionics systems and innovative engineering solutions.
The CM, designed for human habitation in space, ensures a secure environment for astronauts during the mission, while the SM supports the CM’s functioning.
INDIAN SPACE POLICY 2023
The Government of India unleashed reforms in space domain in 2020, opening the doors for enhanced participation of Non-Governmental Entities (NGEs) in carrying out end-to-end activities in the space domain and with an aim to provide them a level playing field.
The Indian Space Policy 2023 approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security on April 6,2023 has thus been formulated as an overarching, composite and dynamic framework to implement the reform vision approved by the government.
Vision
The Indian space policy vision is to:
enable, encourage and develop a flourishing commercial presence in space
use space as a driver of technology development and derived benefits in allied areas
pursue international relations
create an ecosystem for effective implementation of space applications among all stakeholders
nation’s socio-economic development and security
protection of environment and lives
pursuing peaceful exploration of outer space
stimulation of public awareness and scientific quest.
Strategy of Indian space policy, 2023:
Government seeks to pursue a holistic approach by encouraging and promoting greater private sector participation in the entire value chain of the Space Economy, including in the creation of space and ground-based assets.
Towards this end, the Government shall focus on:
Encouraging advanced Research & Development in space sector to sustain and augment the space program.
Providing public goods and services using space technology for national priorities.
Creating a stable and predictable regulatory framework to provide a level playing field to Non-Government Entities in the Space sector through IN-SPACe.
Promoting space-related education and innovation, including support to space-sector start-ups.
Using space as a driver for overall technology development, nurture scientific temperament in the society, and increase awareness on space activities.
ISSUES FACED IN SPACE SECTOR:
Technical Challenges: Despite significant strides made by the private sector inIndia’s space domain, there remains a substantial journey ahead, posing a formidable challenge in developing cutting-edge technology for space missions demands that require substantial investment.
Financial Constraints: Balancing the costs of space exploration with other national priorities, such as healthcare and education, poses financial challenges. Also, maintaining sustained investment in space initiatives requires careful planning and support from the government.
International Competition: India faces competition with established space powers like the US, Russia, and China, who have made significant strides in space exploration. Striking a balance between collaborating with international space agencies and competingon the global stage is crucial.
Environmental Impact: Theenvironmental impact of space launches and operations needs to be managed responsibly as increased space activities contribute to space debris, which poses risks to both operational satellites and future space missions.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Skill Development: Investing in space-related skill development programscan create a workforce with the knowledge and expertise needed for innovative space projects. Establishment of Space Technology Incubation Centers is a good step in this direction.
Government-Industry Collaboration:Collaborative efforts between government agencies and private enterprises can leverage the strengths of both sectors to advance space exploration and technology.
Promote Indigenous Technologies: Encouraging the development of homegrown technologies ensures self-reliance and reduces dependence on external sources for space hardware.
Research and development: Indian Space Policy 2023 requires ISRO to “carry out applied research and development of newer systems so as to maintain India’s edge in human spaceflight and to develop a long-term roadmap for sustained human presence in space.
Immune from political interference: For technological, research, and commercial missions ISRO has received sufficient support from the Centre. It would be naive to believe an undertaking of this scale can be completely free of political capture, but Gaganyaan cannot be altogether politically motivated either and should be immune from politics.
Not focus on superpower status: Other countries, including China, may be technologically ahead, but India must keep the focus on scientific exploration and expanding human horizons, and not on achieving some ‘space superpower’ status. There should be a culture of space exploration that is truly democratic, rather than being motivated seemingly by geopolitical aspirations.
THE CONCLUSION:
Upcoming space missions such as Gaganyaan hold the potential to reshape our understanding of the space and enhance technological capabilities and solidify India’s position as a prominent player in the realm of space exploration. In this context, India should invest in space-related skill development programs to create a workforce with the knowledge and expertise for more innovative space projects.
UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1 What is India’s plan to have its own space station and how will it benefit our space programme? (2019)
Q.2 Discuss India’s achievements in the field of Space Science and Technology. How the application of this technology helped India in its socio-economic development? (2016)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION
Q.1 As India is undoubtedly on a trajectory to become influential player in the global space community, scientific exploration not superpower status should drive India’s space programme. Comment.
THE CURRENT GLOBAL ORDER — A FRAYING AROUND MANY EDGES
THE CONTEXT: At the opening of the 55th regular session of the Human Rights Council, the UN Secretary General remarked that the ‘lack of unity’ amongst UNSC members had perhaps undermined its authority. This indicates towards the troubled state of the world order which is in need of structural reforms.
THE ISSUES:
Outdated Power Structures: Power structures are locked in the past, such as the permanent veto power of the first victors of World War II in the UNSC and the governance structures of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank. Hence, they are seen as out of touch with the current global realities.
Challenges of Decolonization and Global Governance: The order of post-World War II was primarily established by colonial powers, and despite the decolonization process, the institutions they created still reflect an imbalance in power. The problems developing countries and former colonies encounter are highlighted in influencing these institutions because of the veto power and voting rights structures.
Rise of Alternative Institutions and Movements: The development of alternative groups and organizations such as the Non-Aligned Movement, G-77, the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), and others is an embodiment of the disapproval of the current global governance structure and attempts by these alternatives to gain and exert functional influence or to offer workable substitutes due to their limitations or the diversity and complexity of their membership.
Global Crises Exposing Systemic Weaknesses: Recent global events like the COVID-19 pandemic and several conflicts, such as Russia’s invasion of Ukraine and the Gaza conflict, have revealed and magnified the flaws in the UN-led system to support cooperation globally, observe human rights, and manage conflicts well.
Questioning the Legitimacy and Effectiveness of the UN: The growing tendency by more powerful states to circumvent the UN or doubt its authority and functionality, especially when backing certain states or causes (i.e., in this case, Israel) becomes paramount over the principles the UN was created to uphold, such as human rights and the genocide convention.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Reforming the UNSC: There is a need to reform the UNSC to reflect the newer global power dynamics. This can be done by increasing the members to have new permanent and non-permanent members from regions that have been left out, restructuring the veto powers and bringing mechanisms that enhance a greater level of unity and constructive dialogue among the members.
Revise Voting Rights and Governance Structures: Concerning institutions like the IMF and the World Bank, adjusting voting rights and governance structures by accounting for the current economic situation and the member states’ contributions would increase legitimacy and effectiveness. This may involve the re-alignment of votes within the UN to enhance the power of the emerging economies and the development of leadership poles that are democratically selected rather than the traditional geopolitical allocations.
Strengthen Multilateralism: Stronger multilateral relations and commitments among nations are required to solve global challenges more effectively. It also implies revitalizing the existing international treaties and conventions and creating new treaties to address modern problems like cyber security, climate change, and global health security.
Enhance Global Governance Frameworks: Form and operationalize models enabling the UN to function in a handshake with various ad hoc international groupings (the G-20, EU, ASEAN, etc.) and regional organizations. That would also further facilitate the possibility of a concerted approach towards global challenges where regional institutions’ actions would fit in and complement the more universal global objectives.
Empower Civil Society and Non-State Actors: Enabling civil society organizations and other non-state actors to become more active and influential in the decision-making processes at the UN and other international organizations would promote a broader range of views and expertise. It could also embrace establishing formal mechanisms for participation, consultation, and influence that reflect the diversity and multi-dimensionality of global stakeholders.
THE CONCLUSION:
Based on the absolute authority of powerful forces, the current global system is ineffective in dealing with global crises. We need to demand action plans for a fair redistribution of resources and focus on creating a harmonious society. Together, we can achieve peacekeeping and a better world for all.
UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:
Q.1) The World Bank and the IMF, collectively known as the Bretton Woods Institutions, are the two inter-governmental pillars supporting the world’s economic and financial order structure. The World Bank and the IMF exhibit many common characteristics, but their roles, functions, and mandates are distinctly different. Elucidate. (2013)
Q.2) What are the critical areas of reform if the WTO has to survive in the present context of the ‘Trade War’, especially considering India’s interests? (2018)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q.1) Discuss the challenges and inadequacies faced by the United Nations in the current global order. Evaluate the feasibility and effectiveness of potential reforms to strengthen global governance in the 21st century.
HUNGARY’S RATIFICATION OF SWEDEN’S NATO BID: A PIVOTAL MOMENT IN EUROPEAN SECURITY
TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
THE CONTEXT:Hungary’s parliamentary ratification of Sweden’s North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) bid marks a historic milestone in European security dynamics, ending over a year of delays that garnered international attention.
EXPLANATION:
We will explore the geopolitical context, the significance of Hungary’s approval, and the broader implications for NATO, Sweden, and the European security landscape.
Geopolitical Context
The backdrop of Russia’s invasion of Ukraine in February 2022 triggered a significant shift in the geopolitical landscape.
Sweden and Finland, traditionally non-aligned, sought NATO membership as a response to heightened regional security concerns.
The urgency to join the alliance reflected the evolving threat perceptions in Northern Europe.
Delays and Diplomatic Strains
While Finland swiftly became the 31st NATO member in April 2023, Sweden faced prolonged delays, primarily due to Hungary’s reluctance.
The diplomatic tensions and delays strained relations between NATO partners and left Ukraine in a precarious position amid the ongoing conflict with Russia.
Hungary’s Strategic Move
Hungary’s approval of Sweden’s NATO bid is portrayed as a strategic move with multifaceted objectives.
Prime Minister of Hungary emphasis on strengthening military cooperation with Sweden suggests a nuanced approach to regional security dynamics. The acquisition of Swedish-made fighter jets further underscores Hungary’s commitment to enhancing its defense capabilities.
Diplomatic Maneuvering and Concessions
The diplomatic maneuvering between Hungarian Prime Minister of Hungary and his Swedish counterpart played a crucial role in securing Hungary’s approval.
Accusations of Sweden vilifying Hungary and the subsequent agreement on mutual intentions highlight the complexities of NATO accession and the importance of bilateral relations in such processes.
Domestic Politics and International Image
Analysts view Hungary’s delayed approval as a domestic political strategy, emphasizing Hungary president’s intent to showcase Hungary as a formidable player while maintaining popularity domestically.
The confrontational stance may not have yielded tangible concessions, but it could have bolstered his image within Hungary, where anti-European sentiments are carefully navigated.
Broader Implications for NATO
Hungary’s approval of Sweden’s NATO bid signifies a unified front within the alliance, reinforcing the collective commitment to regional security.
The resolution of delays enhances NATO’s cohesion and demonstrates its adaptability amid evolving geopolitical challenges.
The accession of Sweden further expands NATO’s reach and influence in Northern Europe.
(North Atlantic Treaty Organization) NATO:
Formed in 1949 with the signing of the Washington Treaty, NATO is a security alliance of 30 countries from North America and Europe.
NATO’s fundamental goal is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security by political and military means.
NATO remains the principal security instrument of the transatlantic community and expression of its common democratic values.
Article 4 of the treaty ensures consultations among Allies on security matters of common interest, which have expanded from a narrowly defined Soviet threat to the critical mission in Afghanistan, as well as peacekeeping in Kosovo and new threats to security, such as cyber attacks, and global threats such as terrorism and piracy that affect the Alliance and its global network of partners.
Article 5 of the Washington Treaty — that an attack against one Ally is an attack against all — is at the core of the Alliance, a promise of collective defense.
It also conducts extensive training exercises and offers security support to partners around the globe, including the European Union in particular, but also the United Nations and the African Union.
Conclusion: Strengthening European Security
Hungary’s ratification of Sweden’s NATO bid is a pivotal moment in shaping the security landscape of Northern Europe. The collaborative efforts, diplomatic negotiations, and strategic considerations underscore the evolving dynamics within NATO and the imperative of collective security in the face of geopolitical uncertainties. As Sweden inches closer to formal NATO membership, the alliance solidifies its role as a key player in maintaining peace and stability in the region.
PLIGHT OF OLIVE RIDLEY SEA TURTLES: UNRAVELING THE CAUSES AND NEGLIGENCE ON ODISHA’s COAST
TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT
THE CONTEXT:The alarming phenomenon of mass deaths among Olive Ridley sea turtles along the Odisha coast has raised concerns about the non-compliance with a crucial two-decade-old order issued by the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), constituted by the Supreme Court.
EXPLANATION:
We will delve into the primary causes behind the distressing turtle deaths and shed light on the environmental and regulatory factors contributing to this crisis.
CEC’s Directive and State Compliance
A pivotal report has been submitted by CEC in 2004 following an SC order, with the aim of safeguarding Olive Ridley sea turtles.
The directive mandated a fishing ban within a 20-kilometer radius from the high tide line at specific mass nesting sites.
However, the state government’s partial implementation of the fishing ban, particularly in Rushikulya and Devi, points towards non-compliance.
The failure to enforce the fishing ban within the specified radius has allowed the use of prohibited fishing nets, posing a grave threat to Olive Ridley sea turtles.
Approximately 200,000 turtle deaths since 2000 underscore the severity of the issue.
The impact on the adult population and recruitment of smaller size classes could lead to a decline in the overall turtle population.
The CEC report identifies multiple sources of pollution, including the discharge of toxic pesticides and sediments from paddy fields, pollutants from a fertiliser factory in Paradip, and pollution from vessels near the Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary.
The Paradip port, labeled as one of the most polluted, raises concerns about the untreated waste from nearby factories and its detrimental effects on the marine ecosystem.
Odisha’s Fishing Industry and TED Non-compliance
The fishing industry, comprising 21,000 vessels, including 2,000 trawlers, is under scrutiny for its non-compliance with Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs).
While TEDs significantly reduce turtle capture, none of the trawlers along the Odisha coast are utilizing these devices.
The Fisheries Department’s failure to withhold license renewals for non-compliant trawlers exacerbates the issue.
Human Activities and Cargo Ship Risks
The extensive human population along the coastline, heavily reliant on marine resources, contributes to ecological stress on marine flora and fauna.
Large cargo ships’ proximity to turtle rookeries raises concerns about potential collisions and turtle fatalities.
The Paradip Trawler Owners Association’s resistance to using TEDs for fear of reduced catches further exacerbates the challenges.
Government Initiatives and Patrolling
The Odisha Forest Department, in collaboration with the fisheries department, marine police, and coast guard, has initiated patrolling exercises to safeguard Olive Ridley sea turtles.
However, the inefficiency of patrolling and the non-operational status of high-speed boats acquired for this purpose indicate gaps in the execution of conservation efforts.
Olive Ridley turtles:
The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
They are found to be inhabiting the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans.
They are carnivores and feed mainly on jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs, and a variety of fish and their eggs.
The males and females grow to the same size.
These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
The coast of Orissa in India is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive-ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica.
The species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list.
They lie in Scheduled 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
They are in Appendix I of the CITES.
Central Empowered Committee (CEC):
The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) is a committee established in India to address environmental and conservation-related issues.
It was created by the Supreme Court of India to ensure compliance with its orders and directives concerning environmental conservation.
The CEC was initially set up in 2002 and reconstituted in 2008 to enhance its effectiveness in safeguarding the environment.
The jurisdiction of the committee extends to the whole of India.
The CEC is typically composed of a group of experts and officials with expertise in various aspects of environmental conservation.
This includes retired Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officers, retired Forest Service officers, legal experts, and environmentalists. The committee is usually chaired by a senior retired IAS officer.
Conclusion: Urgent Need for Action
The plight of Olive Ridley sea turtles on Odisha’s coast demands immediate attention and comprehensive action. The non-compliance with long-standing directives, coupled with pollution and inadequate conservation measures, poses a severe threat to these endangered species. A holistic approach, incorporating stringent enforcement of regulations, technological interventions like TEDs, and sustained awareness campaigns, is imperative to mitigate the crisis and ensure the survival of Olive Ridley sea turtles.
BITCOIN HALVING: IMPACT AND SIGNIFICANCE FOR CRYPTO ENTHUSIASTS
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT:As the cryptocurrency community eagerly anticipates the upcoming Bitcoin Halving scheduled for April, it is crucial to understand the intricacies of this quadrennial event and its implications for investors.
EXPLANATION:
Much like the Olympics for the sporting world, the Bitcoin Halving holds a special place in the crypto calendar, affecting miners, traders, and the overall cryptocurrency market.
The Bitcoin Halving involves a 50% reduction in the reward granted to miners for successfully processing cryptocurrency transactions.
Miners, utilizing advanced computer equipment for ‘Proof of Work,’ play a pivotal role in expanding Bitcoin’s blockchain.
The reduction in rewards, occurring approximately every four years, impacts the dynamics of the cryptocurrency ecosystem.
An Analogy: Grocery Store Cashiers and Gold Coins
A helpful analogy compares Bitcoin mining to a contest among grocery store cashiers.
The analogy illustrates the diminishing reward (gold coins) for miners over time.
This reduction raises questions about the worthiness of the effort invested, mirroring the sentiments of Bitcoin miners facing a reduced reward post-halving.
Bitcoin Mining and Scarcity
Bitcoin mining contributes to the circulation of BTC, while the Halving event reduces the rate of coin release, enhancing the asset’s scarcity.
This scarcity factor is often linked to an increase in Bitcoin prices, drawing parallels with precious metals like gold. With over 19 million BTC already mined, the Halving slows down the process, potentially influencing market dynamics.
Bitcoin Prices and Market Dynamics
The Halving’s impact on Bitcoin prices is a topic of considerable interest. The reduction in mining rewards from 50 BTC in 2009 to 3.125 BTC post-halving in 2020 reflects a shift in the landscape.
However, the actual value of the reward depends on Bitcoin prices in the market.
The current price of 1 BTC, around $49,528, underscores the significant potential value of the mining reward.
Global Reach of Bitcoin Miners
Bitcoin miners, both corporate and independent, span the globe, seeking optimal conditions such as cheap electricity.
The decentralization of mining operations, prompted by government crackdowns in China, showcases the industry’s resilience and adaptability.
Investor Perspectives and Responses
The impact of the Bitcoin Halving varies for different investors. Corporate miners, heavily invested in equipment and electricity, may intensify efforts to capitalize on the higher pre-halving rewards.
New traders might remain indifferent, while experienced ones could strategically adjust their Bitcoin investments, either anticipating a price surge or preparing for a potential crash.
The Unpredictable Nature of Bitcoin
Despite attempts to predict Bitcoin’s trajectory based on historical halving cycles, the reality remains unpredictable.
Numerous factors, including regulatory changes, global events, and investor sentiments, contribute to Bitcoin’s price fluctuations.
While halving is a notable event, investors are advised to rely on thorough research and personal judgment.
Bitcoin:
Bitcoin (BTC) is a cryptocurrency, a virtual currency designed to act as money and a form of payment outside the control of any one person, group, or entity, thus removing the need for third-party involvement in financial transactions.
Cryptocurrency, sometimes called crypto-currency or crypto, is any form of currency that exists digitally or virtually and uses cryptography to secure transactions.
Cryptocurrencies don’t have central issuing or regulating authority, instead using a decentralized system to record transactions and issue new units.
It is rewarded to blockchain miners for verifying transactions and can be purchased on several exchanges.
Bitcoin was introduced to the public in 2009 by an anonymous developer or group of developers using the name Satoshi Nakamoto.
It has since become the most well-known cryptocurrency in the world. Its popularity has inspired the development of many other cryptocurrencies.
Conclusion
The Bitcoin Halving is a significant event in the cryptocurrency world, influencing mining rewards, market dynamics, and investor strategies. As the crypto community gears up for the upcoming halving, the long-term impact on Bitcoin prices and market behavior remains uncertain. Navigating through the unpredictable nature of Bitcoin, investors are encouraged to stay informed, conduct thorough research, and make decisions aligned with their individual perspectives and goals.
ERICSSON’S MASSIVE MIMO DEPLOYMENT: A GAME-CHANGER FOR AIRTEL’S 5G EXPANSION
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT:In a groundbreaking move, Ericsson, the Swedish telecommunications giant, has successfully deployed 100,000 ‘Massive MIMO 5G radios’ for Bharti Airtel across 12 circles in India.
EXPLANATION:
This marks a significant step towards enhancing Airtel’s 5G capabilities and expanding its network infrastructure.
‘Massive MIMO’ (Multiple Input, Multiple Output) technology is at the forefront of advanced radio technologies, revolutionizing data capacity in narrowband networks without the need for additional spectrum.
Massive MIMO is a key enabler for the New Radio (NR) technology used in 5G networks.
It significantly enhances both network capacity and coverage.
Here are some of its benefits:
Spectral Efficiency: It allows more data to be transmitted simultaneously, improving overall efficiency.
Higher Throughput: Massive MIMO enables faster data rates for users.
Lower Interference: It minimizes interference between devices.
Extended Range: It can cover larger areas effectively.
Ericsson’s deployment of these cutting-edge radios aims to boost Airtel’s network capacity and deliver an enhanced 5G experience to its customers.
The deployment by Ericsson goes beyond Massive MIMO radios, encompassing energy-efficient Radio System products and solutions for the 5G Radio Access Network.
Additionally, Ericsson provides MINI-LINK (microwave) mobile transport portfolios, offering a holistic approach to optimizing Airtel’s network infrastructure.
Implications for Airtel’s Network
Airtel’s Chief Technology Officer emphasizes the positive impact of the Massive MIMO deployment, stating that over 65 million Airtel customers are already experiencing high-speed unlimited 5G data without incurring additional costs.
This development positions Airtel as a frontrunner in providing advanced 5G services to its widespread user base.
Airtel’s 5G Plus Service Expansion
The deployment aligns with Airtel’s commitment to extending its 5G Plus service across the entire country.
The service is already available in districts nationwide, with plans to cover the entire country by March 2024.
This ambitious timeline underscores Airtel’s determination to establish itself as a comprehensive 5G service provider.
Collaboration and Technological Advancements
In October 2023, Airtel and Ericsson collaborated to successfully test Ericsson’s pre-commercial Reduced Capability (RedCap) software on Airtel’s 5G network.
This collaboration involved Qualcomm Technologies, Inc., and was a crucial step in validating RedCap in the Indian context.
Such collaborations showcase the commitment of telecom giants to push the boundaries of technology and introduce innovations to their networks.
Conclusion
Ericsson’s deployment of Massive MIMO 5G radios for Airtel signifies a major milestone in the evolution of India’s telecommunications infrastructure. As Airtel continues its ambitious journey towards nationwide 5G coverage, the collaboration with Ericsson exemplifies the industry’s commitment to harnessing cutting-edge technologies for the benefit of consumers. The successful deployment positions Airtel as a frontrunner in the race to establish a robust and expansive 5G network in the country.
ADVANCEMENTS IN ROOM-TEMPERATURE QUANTUM COMPUTING: HARNESSING THE POWER OF ‘COLOUR MOLECULES’
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT:Researchers are actively exploring alternatives for room-temperature quantum computing, and a recent collaborative study in Japan presents a promising breakthrough involving metal-organic frameworks (MOFs) and ‘colour molecules’ known as chromophores.
EXPLANATION:
Quantum computing has emerged as a revolutionary field, promising unparalleled computational power.
However, the majority of quantum systems require extremely low temperatures to maintain their quantum states, making them costly and complex.
Traditional quantum systems, such as superconducting junctions, trapped ions, and quantum dots, operate at very low temperatures or in high vacuum conditions.
The need for these extreme environments increases the complexity and cost of quantum computers, limiting their commercial viability.
The Role of Qubits in Quantum Computing
Qubits, the fundamental units of quantum information, exhibit unique properties like superposition, allowing them to exist in multiple states simultaneously.
However, maintaining superposed states, crucial for quantum information processing, becomes challenging due to interactions with external systems, leading to decoherence.
Requirements for Quantum Devices
Building a quantum device requires a collection of identical qubits that can be operated controllably.
Achieving identical qubits poses challenges due to manufacturing imperfections, and controllability involves addressing individual qubits and enabling qubit-qubit interactions.
Breakthrough: Room-Temperature Qubits in Metal-Organic Frameworks
The recent study in Japan introduces a novel approach by utilizing metal-organic frameworks (MOFs) for room-temperature qubits.
In this system, zirconium acts as the metal component, and an organic molecule with the chromophore pentacene bridges the metal atoms.
Chromophores are organic molecules responsible for absorbing specific colors of light.
Understanding Chromophores and Singlet Fission
Chromophores, often referred to as ‘colour molecules,’ absorb light and move to higher energy levels.
The study focuses on singlet fission, a process where an excited chromophore in a singlet state transfers energy to another chromophore, causing it to enter a triplet state.
This phenomenon is crucial for the creation of qubits in the MOF system.
Mechanism in Metal-Organic Frameworks
The MOF networks, resembling sponges in their porosity, enable chromophores to rotate slightly.
This rotation alters the interaction strength between adjacent chromophores, facilitating singlet fission.
The interaction between chromophores results in a long-lived superposition of triplet states, even at room temperature, a notable achievement compared to other qubit systems requiring extremely low temperatures.
Implications and Future Directions
While the study successfully demonstrates the generation of room-temperature qubits, challenges remain in achieving quantum gate operations, assembling multiple qubits, and ensuring controllability.
Nevertheless, this breakthrough opens avenues for further exploration by research groups and holds promise for more economically viable quantum computing technologies.
Quantum Computing:
Quantum computing is a multidisciplinary field comprising aspects of computer science, physics, and mathematics that utilizes quantum mechanics to solve complex problems faster than on classical computers.
The field of quantum computing includes hardware research and application development.
Quantum computers are able to solve certain types of problems faster than classical computers by taking advantage of quantum mechanical effects, such as superposition and quantum interference.
Some applications where quantum computers can provide such a speed boost include machine learning (ML), optimization, and simulation of physical systems.
Conclusion
The quest for room-temperature quantum computing takes a significant stride with the utilization of metal-organic frameworks and chromophores. This innovative approach not only addresses cost concerns associated with quantum technologies but also invites extensive research to unlock the full potential of room-temperature qubits.
INAUGURATION OF SUDARSHAN SETU: INDIA’S LONGEST CABLE-STAYED BRIDGE
TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY
THE CONTEXT:On February 25, Prime Minister inaugurated the Sudarshan Setu, colloquially known as the Signature Bridge, marking a significant milestone in Gujarat’s infrastructure development.
EXPLANATION:
The bridge, serving as a sea link, connects the mainland Gujarat to Bet Dwarka island, presenting a key advancement in the region’s connectivity.
Key Features of Sudarshan Setu
Length: The Sudarshan Setu spans a total length of 4,772 meters, making it Gujarat’s longest cable-stayed bridge.
Cable-Stayed Section: Featuring a 900-meter-long cable-stayed section, the bridge showcases cutting-edge engineering.
Four-Lane Structure: Built at a cost of Rs 978 crore, the four-lane bridge aims to enhance transportation efficiency.
Funding: The Union government provided the financial backing for this ambitious project.
Connecting Bet Dwarka to Mainland Gujarat
Geographic Significance
Location: Sudarshan Setu links the Okha town in Devbhumi Dwarka district to Bet Dwarka, an island situated 3 km off Okha.
Geographical Area: Bet Dwarka, the second-largest island off the Gujarat coast after Diu, spans 36 sq km.
Transportation: The bridge eliminates the reliance on ferry services, providing all-weather road connectivity between Bet Dwarka and mainland Gujarat.
Religious Tourism Hub
Cultural and Economic Impact
Shree Dwarkadhish Mukhya Mandir: Bet Dwarka hosts the prominent Shree Dwarkadhish Mukhya Mandir, a revered shrine dedicated to Lord Krishna.
Tourism Attractions: The island is home to various Hindu temples, a gurudwara, and mosques, making it a pilgrimage destination.
Economic Activities: Fishing, tourism, and some agricultural pursuits constitute the primary sources of livelihood on the island.
Unique Design and Features
Architectural Elements
Pier Support: The bridge is supported by 32 piers, facilitating seven cable-stayed spans of 900 meters each.
Navigation Section: The structure includes a navigation section allowing the movement of fishing boats to and from the Dalda Bandar harbor.
Aesthetic Touch: Pillars adorned with verses from the Bhagavad Gita and images of Krishna add a cultural and aesthetic dimension.
Sustainability: Solar panels form the roof of walkways, showcasing a commitment to sustainable energy.
Contractor Controversy
Construction Details
Contractor: The bridge was constructed by S P Singla Constructions Private Limited, based in Panchkula.
Controversy: The contractor was under scrutiny due to its involvement in the collapse of the Aguwani-Sultanganj Ganga bridge in Bihar. Despite concerns, the Signature Bridge was completed.
Demolitions and Concerns
Social and Economic Ramifications
Structural Demolitions: In October 2022, over 100 structures, including homes and religious sites, were demolished on the shoreline of Bet Dwarka for perceived national security threats.
Impact on Livelihood: Concerns were raised about the impact on ferry boat operators, with predictions of reduced passenger traffic affecting their livelihoods.
Future Developments
Mitigating Economic Impact
FareRegulation: The Gujarat Maritime Board regulates ferry boat fares, and discussions indicate a possible fare increase to Rs 50 to offset the impact on boat operators.
Diversification: Boat operators exploring alternatives, such as converting boats for dolphin viewing, showcase adaptive strategies in the face of changing circumstances.
Conclusion
The inauguration of Sudarshan Setu not only marks a significant engineering achievement but also underscores the socio-economic impact on the region. As Gujarat’s longest cable-stayed bridge, it symbolizes progress, connectivity, and cultural significance, paving the way for future developments in the state’s infrastructure landscape. The challenges and controversies surrounding its construction highlight the complexities involved in such transformative projects.
LARGE LANGUAGE MODELS (LLMS) IN AI CHATBOTS: BACKBONE OF CONVERSATIONAL AI
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT:The advent of conversational AI, exemplified by OpenAI’s ChatGPT and other AI chatbots like Gemini, has marked a paradigm shift in human-computer interactions.
EXPLANATION:
At the heart of these innovations lies the Large Language Model (LLM), a crucial element enabling machines to learn, think, and engage in conversations.
We will delve into the intricacies of LLMs, exploring their features, types, working mechanisms, applications, and advantages.
Defining Large Language Models (LLMs)
Key Characteristics
LLMs, according to Google, are expansive general-purpose language models that undergo pre-training and subsequent fine-tuning for specific tasks.
They excel in solving diverse language-related problems, from text classification and question answering to document summarization.
The term “large” refers to both the extensive training data and the parameter count, with parameters embodying the acquired knowledge during training.
Features of LLMs
Enormous Size: Refers to both the extensive training data and parameter count.
General Purpose: LLMs are designed to address general language problems, transcending specific tasks and resource constraints.
Types of LLMs
Based on Architecture
LLMs can be categorized into three types:
Autoregressive: Exemplified by GPT-3, these models predict the next word in a sequence based on previous words.
Transformer-based: Models like Gemini (formerly Bard) utilize a specific neural network architecture known as transformers for language processing.
Encoder-Decoder: These models encode input text into a representation and then decode it into another language or format.
Based on Training Data
LLMs can be classified into three types:
Pretrained and Fine-tuned: Tailored for specific purposes using relatively small field datasets.
Multilingual: Capable of understanding and generating text in multiple languages.
Domain-specific: Trained on data related to specific domains such as legal, finance, or healthcare.
Working Mechanism of LLMs
At the core of LLMs is “deep learning,” involving the training of artificial neural networks inspired by the human brain.
LLMs learn to predict the probability of a word or sequence of words given the preceding words in a sentence.
This is achieved by analyzing patterns and relationships within the training dataset.
The learning process is analogous to how a baby learns language—by exposure and understanding without explicit instructions.
Applications of LLMs
LLMs showcase a wide array of applications across domains:
Text Generation: Creating human-like content, including stories, articles, poetry, and songs.
Conversational AI: Engaging in conversations, providing information, answering questions, and maintaining context.
Language Understanding Tasks: Proficiency in sentiment analysis, language translation, and summarization of dense texts.
Content Creation and Personalization: Aiding in marketing strategies, offering personalized product recommendations, and tailoring content to specific target audiences.
Advantages of LLMs
Versatility
LLMs stand out for their versatility, as a single model can be applied to a variety of tasks.
Their ability to generalize patterns learned from large datasets enables them to tackle different problems.
Performance Improvement
The continuous infusion of data and parameters into LLMs leads to a continuous improvement in performance.
Their adaptability and learning capabilities contribute to their sustained evolution.
Conclusion
In conclusion, LLMs serve as the backbone of AI chatbots, empowering them to understand, generate, and converse in human-like language. Their versatility, coupled with continuous improvement capabilities, positions LLMs as pivotal components in the ongoing evolution of artificial intelligence. As these models continue to develop, their impact on diverse domains and applications is set to expand, making them a key area to watch in the dynamic field of AI.
IGNCA’S LANGUAGE ATLAS: MAPPING INDIA’S LINGUISTIC DIVERSITY
TAG: GS 1: ART AND CULTURE
THE CONTEXT:The Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts (IGNCA), an autonomous body under the Union Culture Ministry, is set to embark on a comprehensive linguistic survey across India.
EXPLANATION:
The primary objective is to create a ‘Language Atlas’ that will shed light on the extensive linguistic diversity existing in the country.
As India emphasizes education in mother tongues, particularly at the primary level, the actual number of “active” languages in the country remains a pivotal question.
The linguistic survey proposed by IGNCA aims to fill this knowledge gap by providing a detailed account of languages spoken and their distribution across states and regions.
India officially recognizes 22 languages, as outlined in Schedule 8 of the Indian Constitution.
Census data indicates that 97% of the population speaks one of these officially recognized languages.
However, an additional 99 non-scheduled languages, identified by around 37.8 million people as their mother tongue, are not included in the official count due to the exclusion of languages with fewer than 10,000 speakers since 1971.
The decision to exclude languages with fewer than 10,000 speakers has left the native languages of 1.2 million people unaccounted for, with many of these languages being spoken by tribal communities.
The linguistic survey seeks to address this gap in data, providing a more inclusive representation of India’s linguistic landscape.
Urgent Need for a Comprehensive Linguistic Survey
The last comprehensive linguistic survey was conducted during the 1961 Census, which recorded a staggering 1,554 languages spoken in India.
The proposed Language Atlas aims to replicate such exhaustive data collection, offering a comprehensive view of the linguistic tapestry of the nation.
Database for Future Policy Decisions
Experts highlight the significance of the linguistic survey as a potential database for future policy decisions.
The detailed insights into language distribution and the number of speakers can inform educational, cultural, and social policies catering to the diverse linguistic needs of the population.
The Detailed Project Report (DPR) outlines the involvement of various ministries, including Culture, Education, Tribal Affairs, Home, Social Justice and Empowerment, and Development of North East Region, as key stakeholders in the survey.
Collaborators include the Central Institute of Indian Languages, National Museum, Centres for Endangered Languages, and Linguistic Departments of universities.
Survey Methodology and Phases
The survey proposes a phased approach, starting with State-wise data collection followed by region-wise analysis.
Additionally, there is an emphasis on digital archiving of audio recordings for all languages, including those that are endangered or extinct.
This approach ensures a holistic and technologically advanced documentation of linguistic diversity.
Beyond Communication: Preserving Wisdom and Culture
It underscores the broader importance of languages beyond communication, emphasizing their role in preserving local wisdom, knowledge, stories, and culture.
Indigenous medicinal practices, for example, often rely on local languages to pass down traditional knowledge, highlighting the cultural richness intertwined with linguistic diversity.
Historical Context: The Linguistic Survey of India (LSI)
The initiative by IGNCA draws parallels with the historical context of linguistic surveys, notably the Linguistic Survey of India (LSI) conducted by Sir George Abraham Grierson in 1928.
The evolving Indian map post-Independence necessitates a contemporary survey that aligns with the current state boundaries and linguistic dynamics.
Indira Gandhi National Centre for Arts (IGNCA) :
The Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) was established in 1987
It is established as an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture, as a centre for research, academic pursuit and dissemination in the field of the arts.
The IGNCA has a trust (i.e. Board of Trustees), which meets regularly to give general direction about the Centre’s work.
The Executive Committee, drawn from among the Trustees, functions under a Chairman.
ANCIENT CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS UNEARTHED: DOWN SYNDROME AND EDWARDS SYNDROME
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT:Researchers have recently reported groundbreaking findings in the realm of ancient genetics, discovering chromosomal disorders in prehistoric skeletal remains dating back approximately 5,500 years.
EXPLANATION:
Notably, this includes instances of both Down syndrome and Edwards syndrome, shedding light on the prevalence and recognition of these conditions in ancient societies.
A team from the Max Planck Institute for Evolutionary Anthropology conducted a meticulous analysis, screening nearly 10,000 genomes from ancient human skeletal remains across Ireland, Bulgaria, Greece, Spain, and Finland.
The researchers identified six cases of Down syndrome and a remarkable first-ever instance of Edwards syndrome from historic or prehistoric remains.
Trisomy and its Impact
Trisomies are characterized by the presence of three copies of a chromosome instead of the typical two.
It result in conditions like Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18).
The difficulty in identifying genetic disorders in ancient individuals without modern DNA analysis techniques has limited our understanding of how ancient societies dealt with such conditions.
The discovered cases span various time periods and regions, with two cases dating back to the Bronze Age (approximately 2,700 BCE) and one from the Neolithic period (around 3,500 BCE).
The temporal and geographic diversity of these cases provides valuable insights into the prevalence of trisomies across different ancient societies.
Concentration of Cases in Early Iron Age Spain
Intriguingly, the study reveals a concentration of trisomy cases in early Iron Age Spain (800-400 BCE), suggesting a potentially higher frequency of burials for trisomy carriers in this particular society.
This insight prompts further questions about the societal responses and perceptions surrounding individuals with chromosomal disorders during that era.
Ritualistic Treatment of Afflicted Individuals
The researchers note that, regardless of the specific temporal or geographic context, all individuals with trisomies appear to have been cared for after death through various rituals.
This indicates a recognition of these individuals as integral members of their communities.
In some instances, individuals received exceptional burials or were accompanied by elaborate grave goods, underscoring the societal acknowledgment of their uniqueness.
Community Recognition and Care
The inclusion of bronze rings, Mediterranean seashells, and even animal remains in the burials signifies a level of care and recognition extended to those with chromosomal disorders.
These findings offer a unique perspective on how ancient communities perceived and integrated individuals with such conditions, emphasizing a sense of communal inclusivity.
This groundbreaking research not only expands our understanding of the prevalence of chromosomal disorders in ancient populations but also provides valuable insights into how these societies responded to and recognized individuals with such conditions.
The care and ritualistic treatment observed in the burials challenge assumptions about societal attitudes towards diversity and disability in the distant past.
Down Syndrome:
Down syndrome is a condition in which a person has an extra chromosome. Chromosomes are small “packages” of genes in the body.
They determine how a baby’s body forms and functions as it grows during pregnancy and after birth.
Typically, a baby is born with 46 chromosomes. Babies with Down syndrome have an extra copy of one of these chromosomes, chromosome 21. A medical term for having an extra copy of a chromosome is ‘trisomy.’
Down syndrome is also referred to as Trisomy 21. This extra copy changes how the baby’s body and brain develop, which can cause both mental and physical challenges for the baby.
Edwards’ syndrome (trisomy 18):
Edwards’ syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is a rare but serious condition.
Edwards’ syndrome affects how long a baby may survive. Sadly, most babies with Edwards’ syndrome will die before or shortly after being born.
A small number (about 13 in 100) babies born alive with Edwards’ syndrome will live past their 1st birthday.
ALL INDIA HOUSEHOLD CONSUMPTION EXPENDITURE SURVEY
TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY
THE CONTEXT:The Indian government has, after an 11-year hiatus, disclosed the findings of the All-India Household Consumption Expenditure Survey conducted between August 2022 and July 2023.
EXPLANATION:
This survey typically conducted every five years by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
It is designed to collect information on the consumption spending patterns of households across the country, both urban and rural.
The data gathered in this exercise reveals the average expenditure on goods (food and non-food) and services.
It helps generate estimates of household Monthly Per Capita Consumer Expenditure (MPCE) as well as the distribution of households and persons over the MPCE classes.
It plays a crucial role in assessing key economic indicators like Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Consumer Price Inflation (CPI), and poverty levels.
The last survey in 2017-18 faced delays in release, attributed to “data quality” issues.
The current disclosure marks the first comprehensive data release since then, providing insights into consumption patterns.
Average Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) Trends
Urban and Rural Disparities:
Urban households witnessed a 33.5% rise in MPCE since 2011-12, reaching ₹3,510.
Rural India experienced a 40.42% increase, reaching ₹2,008 over the same period.
Spending Composition Shift:
Notably, spending on food decreased:
Rural households: from 52.9% in 2011-12 to 46.4%.
Urban households: from 42.6% to 39.2%.
This shift may impact the calculation of retail inflation.
The MPCE figures exclude imputed values of items received through social welfare schemes like PM Garib Kalyan Ann Yojana.
When these are considered, the average MPCE at 2011-12 prices rises, excluding free education and healthcare sops.
Bottom 5% and Top 5% Population Analysis
Income Disparities:
Bottom 5% in rural areas have an average MPCE of ₹1,373, while in urban areas, it is ₹2,001.
Top 5% in rural and urban areas have significantly higher MPCE, at ₹10,501 and ₹20,824, respectively.
Regional Disparities in MPCE
Sikkim stands out with the highest MPCE in both rural (₹7,731) and urban (₹12,105) areas.
Chhattisgarh reports the lowest MPCE, with ₹2,466 for rural households and ₹4,483 for urban households.
Methodology and Data Collection
The survey involved 2,61,746 households, with 1,55,014 in rural areas, covering all States and Union Territories.
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation released a factsheet summarizing the survey, promising a detailed report later.
National Statistical Office (NSO):
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is a ministry of Government of Indiaconcerned with coverage and quality aspects of statistics released. The surveys conducted by the Ministry are based on scientific sampling methods.
The Ministry has two wings, one relating to Statistics and the other Programme Implementation. The Statistics Wing called the National Statistical Office (NSO) consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer center and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).
On 23rd May 2019, the government merged the NSSO with the Central Statistics Office (CSO) to form the National Statistical Office (NSO).
Conclusion and Implications
The disclosed data will be instrumental in revising economic indicators like GDP, CPI, and poverty levels. The shift in spending patterns, particularly the decrease in food spending, has potential implications for inflation calculations. The socio-economic disparities highlighted in income distribution underscore the need for targeted policy interventions in specific regions.
GOVERNMENT’S NEW GRAIN STORAGE PLAN: MORE IN STORE
THE CONTEXT: Recently, Prime Minister launched the world’s largest grain storage plan in the cooperative sector. The pilot project is being carried out in 11 states by primary agricultural credit societies where the government is looking to “set up a storage infrastructure of 700 lakh metric tons’’.
MORE ON THE NEWS:
The foundation stone for additional 500 PACS for construction of godowns and other agri infrastructure has also been laid.
A project for computersation in 18,000 PACS across the country, aligning farming with cutting edge technology and shifting to fully digital payments has also been launched.
The scheme aims to create storage capacity for storing 100 per cent of India’s grain production to strengthen food security, reduce wastage, and empower farmers.
700 lakh tonne storage capacity will be created in the next five years, with an investment of ₹1.25 lakh crore. In India, storage capacity with regards to food grain production is only 47%, whereas in the USA it is 161%, Brazil 149%, Canada 130% and China 107%.
The Plan aims for creation of various agri infrastructure at Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level, including warehouses, custom hiring center, processing units, Fair Price Shops, etc. by leveraging the ‘whole-of-Government’ approach.
The initiative is being implemented through the convergence of various existing schemes like the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agriculture Marketing Infrastructure (AMI), etc. to enable PACS participating in the project to avail subsidies and interest subvention benefits for undertaking infrastructure development.
This ambitious project aims to converge eight ongoing schemes of three ministries to address the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure in India.
Ministry of Cooperation has constituted Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) with Hon’ble Home and Cooperation Minister as its chairman and Hon’ble Ministers and Secretaries of Ministries concerned as its members for smooth and effective implementation of the Plan.
The Ministry of Cooperation has also constituted National Level Coordination Committee (NLCC) under the chairmanship of Secretary (Ministry of Cooperation) to steer the overall implementation of the Plan and reviewing the progress of implementation, etc.
BENEFITS OF THE PROJECT:
Addressing Infrastructure Shortage:The plan aims to establish godowns at the level of PACS to alleviate the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure in the country.
Diversification of PACS Activities:PACS will be empowered to undertake various activities, including functioning as procurement centres for state agencies or the Food Corporation of India (FCI), serving as fair price shops, and setting up custom hiring centres and common processing units. This diversification will enhance the incomes of farmer members.
Reduction of Food Grain Wastage:By creating decentralised storage capacity at the local level, the plan aims to reduce grain wastage, contributing to improved food security.
Preventing Distress Sale:The plan provides farmers with various options, preventing distress sale of crops and enabling them to realise better prices for their produce.
Cost Reduction:The establishment of storage facilities at the PACS level will significantly reduce transportation costs of food grains to procurement centres and fair price shops.
WHAT IS Primary Agricultural Credit Societies(PACS)?
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies are the grass root level arms of the short-term co-operative credit structure.
PACS deals directly with the rural (agricultural) borrowers, give those loans and collect repayments of loans given and also undertake distribution and marketing functions.
They occupy a predominant position in the co-operative credit structure and form its base.
It serves as the final link between the ultimate borrowers on the one hand and the higher financing agencies, namely the Scheduled Commercial Banks, and the RBI/NABARD on the other hand.
Organisational Structure of PACS
General Body of PACS: Exercise the control over board as well as management.
Management Committee: Elected by the general body to perform the work as prescribed by the society’s rules, acts, and by-laws.
Chairman, Vice-Chairman, and Secretary: Work for the benefit of the members by performing their roles and duties as assigned to them.
Office Staff: Responsible for performing day to day work.
GOVERNMENT EMPHASIS ON COOPERATIVES
A separate Cooperation Ministry has been set up by the government as cooperatives have a great role in strengthening agriculture.
The Ministry of Cooperation has developed the grain storage plan to leverage the strength of cooperatives and transform them into successful business enterprises,aligning with the vision of “Sahakar-se-Samriddhi” (Cooperation for Prosperity). The vision of Sahakar se Samriddhi is to rejuvenate the cooperative sector and empower small and marginal farmers.
The government had even reduced minimum alternate tax on cooperative societies – bringing it at par with the corporate sector and raised the slab for tax to be deducted at source to income above Rs 3 crore.
The government believe that the success achieved by Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (Amul) in augmenting income of farmers in their home state can be replicated across the country.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Strengthen transportation networks: There is need to improve transportation infrastructure, including roads, rail networks, and logistics systems, will enable efficient movement of food from farms to storage facilities and distribution centers. This will reduce delays, minimize spoilage, and ensure timely delivery of food to the market.
Encourage private sector participation: The involvement of the private sector in food storage infrastructure development and management can bring in expertise, technology, and investments. Public-private partnerships can help bridge the gap between demand and supply of storage facilities.
Facilitate access to finance: Providing financial support, subsidies, and credit facilities to farmers, small-scale food businesses, and storage facility operators can help them invest in modern storage technologies and facilities. This will enable them to store food properly and efficiently.
Promote research and innovation: Continued research and innovation in food storage technologies, packaging materials, and preservation methods is the need of hour. This can lead to the development of cost-effective and sustainable solutions tailored to Indian conditions.
THE CONCLUSION:
By strengthening Cooperatives, governments and stakeholders aim to improve the overall state of agriculture, uplift rural communities, and promote inclusive economic growth. These efforts can contribute to poverty reduction, food security, and sustainable development in agrarian economies.
UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1 In the villages itself no form of credit organisation will be suitable except the cooperative society.” – All India Rural Credit Survey. Discuss this statement in the background of agricultural finance in India. What constraints and challenges do financial institutions supplying agricultural finance face? How can technology be used to better reach and serve rural clients? (2014)
Q.1 Recently, Prime Minister launched the world’s largest grain storage plan in the cooperative sector. Highlight the key rationale behind the initiative and its significance in boosting agriculture economy.
Q.2 Critically assess whether cooperative can take over the role of government bodies to contribute towards promoting food security and for improvement of rural livelihoods.
EVERYTHING IN THE GARDEN OF ELECTIONS IS NOT LOVELY
THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court’s 2024 verdict on the Chandigarh Mayor’s election highlights India’s defense of electoral integrity against polarization, emphasizing the balance between legal frameworks, political practices, and societal fabric in the world’s largest democracy.
THE ISSUES:
Subversion of Electoral Process: The Returning Officer’s unprecedented move to ignore the ballot papers and the constitutional procedure, as evidenced by the dumping of the votes in the Chandigarh Mayor’s elections, signifies serious attempts to transgress the democratic character of the electoral process. The various breaches in ethics that arise from the case in this crack additionally connote a conflict of credibility of democratic governance. In the elections concerning this case, the results can become a subject for manipulation and change.
Judicial Defense of Electoral Integrity: The Supreme Court’s participation reiterates the institutions’ role as the last voice of justice on aspects that conflict with the principles of election transparency. Still, the case implied that many courts, especially the lower ones, failed to acknowledge and implement such measures aimed at discouraging the votes candling and ensuring that the decisions taken at the top would be respected and enforced. Therefore, the Supreme Court felt the judiciary needed to take severe measures and protect democratic principles.
Legal and Constitutional Safeguards Under Threat: The legality of elections and adherence to constitutional grounds are essential for ensuring fair and just democratic elections. However, the institutions responsible for upholding these principles are often overlooked. Neglecting these crucial institutions could lead to long-lasting barriers against interference and deception in elections, potentially resulting in the decline of the electoral system and the future of democracy.
Misuse of Religion in Elections: Political preaching within religion or using religious symbols to influence electoral decisions can lead to unfortunate outcomes. However, the Supreme Court has recognized that allowing religious figures to create enthusiasm and then benefit from it during elections is detrimental to secularism in Indian democracy. The court has directed concerned authorities to ensure the maintenance of secularism by recognizing the non-alignment of politics with religion.
Uncertain Future for Electoral Democracy: These issues raise profound questions about the nature of India’s electoral democracy and whether it is the best option for the nation. Many people recognize a problem with the electorate’s behavior, and some see the current system as an obstacle to progress. Additionally, the political culture in India may promote religious tolerance, but it also appears to discriminate against certain ethnic and cultural groups, which undermines the integrity of public institutions.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Strengthening Electoral Integrity: Ensure swift and decisive judicial action against electoral malpractices. The Supreme Court’s rapid intervention in electoral bond issues and other election-related cases demonstrates the judiciary’s role in safeguarding democracy. The Law Commission of India, in its 255th report, suggested electoral reforms, including measures to address criminalization in politics, which indirectly contributes to ensuring judicial oversight.
Legislative Measures Against Misuse of Religion in Elections: Laws like Section 123(3) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951, should be strictly enforced to prevent appealing to voters based on religion. The ECI monitors election campaigns to check for violations of the Model Code of Conduct, including misuse of religion for political gains. In “Abhiram Singh vs C.D. Commachen (2017)“, a more expansive interpretation was given to Section 123(3), emphasizing the non-permissibility of any appeal in the name of religion.
Promoting Secular and Pluralistic Values: Promote secularism and pluralism through educational and social campaigns, emphasizing the importance of unity in diversity. Education is crucial in fostering mutual respect and understanding in diverse societies. Celebrating India’s cultural diversity can help bridge communal divides.
Political Will and Leadership: Leaders and parties must maintain the integrity of the electoral process and uphold the secular fabric. Ethical leadership is crucial to combat corruption and shape political discourse, as highlighted by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission’s report on “Ethics in Governance.”
Civil Society and Media Engagement: Encourage active participation and oversight by civil society organizations and vigilant media to hold electoral processes and political discourse to higher standards of transparency and integrity. The role of civil organizations in voter education and monitoring electoral practices has been pivotal in numerous democracies worldwide.
THE CONCLUSION:
This case highlights the critical importance of having judicial oversight and robust legal and institutional mechanisms to protect democratic processes. It emphasizes the need for well-informed citizens and resilient institutions to address the democratic challenges faced by India effectively. It is crucial to ensure the preservation and advancement of constitutional values.
UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:
Q.1 There is a dire need for electoral reforms in India, discuss various challenges related to elections in India and suggest some measures to resolve them. (2023)
Q.2 The role played by the Election Commission of India has bestowed a very high level of confidence in the minds of Indian citizens in ensuring the purity of the elected legislative bodies in the country. Critically examine. (2021)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q.1 How can the judiciary contribute to maintaining the integrity of electoral processes in the face of political and religious polarization? What steps can be taken to improve the electoral system and protect democratic values in India?
CONSUMPTION EXPENDITURE SURVEY IS NECESSARY TO FILL DATA VACUUM IN INDIA
THE CONTEXT: The government recently released the broad findings of the All-India Household Consumption Expenditure Survey carried out between August 2022 and July 2023. These surveys inform about changes in household consumption expenditure patterns and also form the basis of poverty and inequality estimation.
HOUSEHOLD CONSUMPTION EXPENDITURE SURVEY (HCES)
The National Sample Survey Office conducts large-scale surveys on household consumption expenditure in the country, typically once every five years.
This survey provides detailed information on how households allocate their financial resources across various categories such as food, housing, education, healthcare, and transportation.
It is a critical statistical tool used by governments, policy analysts, and researchers to collect data on the spending habits of households within a country.
It is used for understanding economic behaviour, assessing living standards, and formulating policies aimed at economic development and poverty alleviation.
Methodology
It adopts a stratified multistage sampling design to ensure representativeness across urban and rural areas.
The survey covers a wide range of expenditure items, from necessities like food, clothing, and housing to discretionary spending on education, healthcare, and entertainment.
Households are usually selected through a random sampling method, and data are collected through personal interviews and expenditure diaries.
OBJECTIVES OF HCES
Measuring Living Standards: It helps in assessing the living standards and quality of life of the population by examining how households spend their income.
Policy Development: It helps government to design and implement effective social, economic, and fiscal policies for various social welfare programs.
Economic Analysis: It aims to analyze consumption patterns, which are key indicators of economic stability, growth, and the distribution of wealth within a society.
Poverty and Inequality Assessment: It provides essential data for measuring poverty levels, identifying vulnerable groups, and understanding income inequality.
Inflation and Cost of Living: It calculates inflation rates and cost of living indexes to help central banks and governments in monetary policy formulation.
OUTCOMES OF THE SURVEY:
Rise in household expenditure: There is a rise in household expenditure. In rural areas, household consumption expenditure has risen from Rs 1,430 in 2011-12 to Rs 3,773 in 2022-23, and in urban areas from Rs 2,630 to Rs 6,459. At 2011-12 prices, this translates to an increase of 3.1 per cent per year in rural areas, and 2.7 per cent in urban areas.
Fall in expenditure on food: As household incomes have continued to grow, expenditure on food has continued to fall. In rural areas, the share of food in the spending basket has declined from 52.9 per cent in 2011-12 to 46.4 per cent in 2022-23, while in urban areas it has fallen from 42.6 per cent to 39.2 per cent.
Greater allocation for share on nutritional foods: Households are now allocating a greater share for nutritional items such as eggs, fish and meat, milk and fruits, as well as on beverages, refreshments and processed foods. Milk and milk products are now the second highest item in the consumption basket.
Rise in discretionary spending: A greater share of spending is also now being directed towards education, health and conveyance and on consumer durables and services. As household incomes rise and expenditure on essential items falls, discretionary spending will rise further.
Less income disparity: The factsheet estimates that monthly per-capita consumption expenditure rose 164% in rural India compared to 146% in urban India. This narrowed the gap in per-capita spending between rural and urban India by nearly 13% over 11 years. The survey shows that the spending gap between rural and urban India has narrowed, there remains a wide intra-state and inter-state disparity in spending.
Huge disparity in top and bottom layer: There is also a huge disparity between the spending of the bottom and top layer of the society. As, there is a noted wide gap in the spending of the top 5% compared to the next 5%. This difference was 58% and 68% in rural and urban areas, respectively.
CHALLENGES RELATED TO HCES
Underreporting: There is an issue of inaccurate reporting of consumption which often leads to underestimation or recall bias.
Sample Representativeness: It is a difficult task to make sure the sample fairly represents the diverse population of India with a range of socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds.
Temporal and Regional Variability: There are more difficulties in capturing the seasonal variations in spending and the regional differences.
SIGNIFICANCE OF HCES
Despite challenges, the HCES remains a vital tool for economic and social planning in India. Its data are extensively used for:
Policy Making: It helps in taking informed decisions in policy making regarding subsidies, social welfare schemes, and taxation policies.
Academic Research: It serves as a primary source for studies on consumption patterns, poverty, and socio-economic status.
International Comparisons: It facilitates comparisons with other countries on economic welfare and living standards.
Understanding poverty and inequality: With the release of the detailed survey data, it will now be possible to arrive at an understanding of the trends in poverty and inequality in India over the past decade.
Updating consumer price index: This survey data will also help in updating the consumer price index, which is a valuable input for monetary policy.
Filling the data vacuum: The release of this survey also marks an important step towards filling the data vacuum in the country. The government should take this forward, initiate the much-delayed census exercise and take steps to strengthen the country’s statistical system.
THE CONCLUSION:
The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) in India is a critical source of data that provides insights into the spending patterns of Indian households. It plays a pivotal role in understanding the socio-economic fabric of the country, guiding policy formulation, and assessing the impact of economic reforms on different segments of the population. Despite the challenges associated with data collection and interpretation, the HCES is instrumental in guiding the nation’s socio-economic policies and addressing the needs of its citizens. As India continues to evolve, the significance of accurate, transparent, and comprehensive consumption data cannot be overstated for shaping a more inclusive and equitable society.
UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1 Among several factors for India’s potential growth, the savings rate is the most effective one. Do you agree? What are the other factors available for growth potential? (2017)
Q.2 Do you agree with the view that steady GDP growth and low inflation have left the Indian economy in good shape? Give reasons in support of your arguments. (2019)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Q.1 The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey plays significant role not only about changes in household consumption expenditure patterns but also form the basis of poverty and inequality estimation. Comment.
Q.2 What is Household Consumption Expenditure Survey and how is it calculated? Discuss its role in measuring retail inflation and for deriving other macroeconomic indicators.
THE CONTEXT: The proposal to penalize live-in relationships challenges personal liberties and sparked a nationwide debate on state intervention. The Bill appears regressive and critically tests India’s constitutional and democratic ethos. The judiciary has emphasized privacy, autonomy, and consent.
THE ISSUES:
Invasion of Privacy and Autonomy: The UCC’s mandatory registration of live-in relationships invades privacy and autonomy, violating the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India and Ors (2017), the Supreme Court recognized privacy as a fundamental right, including the privacy of personal choices, which the UCC provision infringes upon.
Formalization of Live-in Relationships: Critics argue that UCC formalizes live-in relationships, undermining their flexibility. Supreme Court recognizes them under Article 21, upholding adults’ freedom to choose life partners as part of their right to autonomy and privacy.
Potential for Harassment and Moral Policing: UCC’s registration requirement and penalties for non-registration may lead to moral policing and harassment, infringing the right to equality before the law. The provisions may also create a discriminatory environment for those in live-in relationships, contrary to the principle of equality.
Violation of Constitutional Rights: The Uniform Civil Code’s provisions may violate constitutional rights such as privacy (Article 21), equality (Article 14), and freedom of choice in personal relationships (linked to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a)). These articles protect individual autonomy and the right to live free from unwarranted state intervention.
Misuse of Law and Arbitrary Punishment: Non-registration of live-in relationships may lead to arbitrary punishment, violating Article 14. The Supreme Court has emphasized the importance of non-arbitrariness in state action, holding that equality is antithetical to arbitrariness.
Impact on Social Norms and Individual Choices: The UCC’s approach to regulating live-in relationships conflicts with the Supreme Court’s recognition of the right to choose one’s life partner and individual autonomy.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Ensuring Privacy and Autonomy: Eliminate mandatory registration of live-in relationships in Uttarakhand Uniform Civil Code to respect privacy and autonomy. Uphold the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution and implement legal safeguards that protect the privacy and independence of individuals in live-in relationships with voluntary and non-intrusive registration.
Preserving the Essence of Live-in Relationships: Recognize live-in relationships without imposing marriage formalities, aligning with the Supreme Court’s right to life and personal liberty. Launch awareness campaigns to educate citizens about legal protections without formal registration.
Preventing Harassment and Moral Policing: Set guidelines for law enforcement to prevent harassment of couples in live-in relationships and strengthen anti-discrimination laws to protect them from societal and legal harassment.
Upholding Constitutional Rights: It is imperative that we conduct a thorough constitutional examination of the provisions outlined in the UCC to protect the fundamental rights of privacy, equality, and freedom of choice. Additionally, we must advocate for judicial intervention to assess the constitutionality of this legislation.
Preventing Misuse of Law and Arbitrary Punishment: Implement procedural safeguards against arbitrary punishment and ensure fair penalties for non-registration. Offer legal aid to individuals living in a relationship to ensure access to relevant information and legal recourse.
Respecting Social Norms and Individual Choices: Involve diverse stakeholders in the policymaking process to ensure that laws reflect and respect the diversity of social norms and individual choices. Foster education and dialogue on the diversity of relationships and family structures to promote a more inclusive society that respects individual choices and freedoms.
THE CONCLUSION:
The legislation challenges India’s Constitution and its fundamental principles. It’s essential to critique it based on constitutional guarantees, personal liberties, and democratic values. Accepting or rejecting the legislation will reflect India’s commitment to protecting citizens’ fundamental rights amidst changing social norms.
UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:
Q.1 Examine the scope of Fundamental Rights in the light of the K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India judgement. (2019)
Q.2 The Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution have often met with a wide and varied criticism. Analyse. (2022)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q.1 Recent legislative attempts to penalize live-in relationships in India have sparked significant debate on balancing societal morality and individual rights. Critically examine the implications of such legislation on the constitutional rights of privacy, autonomy, and equality before the law.
Day-601 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1. The Paat-Mitro Application, currently in news, serves which one of the following objectives?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Paat-Mitro is a mobile application developed by the Jute Corporation of India Limited (JCI) to provide important information about the minimum support price and agronomy to jute farmers.
● The application is available in six languages.
● Other features which are made available on the app: Farmer-centric schemes like ‘Jute-ICARE’, weather forecasts, JCI’s Purchase Centres’ locations, Procurement Policies, etc.
● Farmers will also be able to track the status of their payments for the raw jute sold to JCI under MSP Operation.
● Latest technology features like Chatbot are included.
About Jute Corporation of India Limited:
It was created in 1971, with the primary objective of strengthening the jute sector by protecting the interest of the jute growers who are mostly marginal farmers.
➢ The institution comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textile.
Mission of the institution:
● Implementation of the policy of the government of India for providing minimum support price to the jute/mesta growers of the country.
● Serving as a price stabilising agency in the raw jute sector and taking the necessary measures in this respect.
● Undertaking various extension measures for implementation of different jute related projects.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Paat-Mitro is a mobile application developed by the Jute Corporation of India Limited (JCI) to provide important information about the minimum support price and agronomy to jute farmers.
● The application is available in six languages.
● Other features which are made available on the app: Farmer-centric schemes like ‘Jute-ICARE’, weather forecasts, JCI’s Purchase Centres’ locations, Procurement Policies, etc.
● Farmers will also be able to track the status of their payments for the raw jute sold to JCI under MSP Operation.
● Latest technology features like Chatbot are included.
About Jute Corporation of India Limited:
It was created in 1971, with the primary objective of strengthening the jute sector by protecting the interest of the jute growers who are mostly marginal farmers.
➢ The institution comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textile.
Mission of the institution:
● Implementation of the policy of the government of India for providing minimum support price to the jute/mesta growers of the country.
● Serving as a price stabilising agency in the raw jute sector and taking the necessary measures in this respect.
● Undertaking various extension measures for implementation of different jute related projects.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2. Consider the following countries:
1. Maldives
2. Myanmar
3. India
4. Madagascar
How many of the above mentioned countries are members of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
The National Security Adviser represented India at the sixth meeting of senior security officials of the Colombo Security Conclave in 2024 at Port Louis, Mauritius. Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was formed in 2011 as a trilateral maritime security group of India, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) is a group that works to ensure the security and stability of the Indian Ocean region and includes India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and the Maldives. Observers country Bangladesh, Seychelles
Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Members Objective:
o Creating a platform for closer cooperation in maritime security
o Narco-trafficking,
o Human trafficking,
o Piracy,
o Terrorism
o Shared experiences in combating internet and social media abuse
o and addressing challenges such as extremism.
India’s stance
There is a need for regional cooperation in view of Chinese influence. India will play an important role in this so that China’s crypto policy can be influenced. In view of the increasing number of security issues and uncertainties, there is a great need for cooperation in IOR. And India, along with its neighbours, must begin to accept that the IOR is evolving into a global commons area.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Context:
The National Security Adviser represented India at the sixth meeting of senior security officials of the Colombo Security Conclave in 2024 at Port Louis, Mauritius. Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was formed in 2011 as a trilateral maritime security group of India, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) is a group that works to ensure the security and stability of the Indian Ocean region and includes India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and the Maldives. Observers country Bangladesh, Seychelles
Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Members Objective:
o Creating a platform for closer cooperation in maritime security
o Narco-trafficking,
o Human trafficking,
o Piracy,
o Terrorism
o Shared experiences in combating internet and social media abuse
o and addressing challenges such as extremism.
India’s stance
There is a need for regional cooperation in view of Chinese influence. India will play an important role in this so that China’s crypto policy can be influenced. In view of the increasing number of security issues and uncertainties, there is a great need for cooperation in IOR. And India, along with its neighbours, must begin to accept that the IOR is evolving into a global commons area.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
3. With reference to ‘Mount Vinson’, consider the following statements:
1. It is the highest point in the continent of Antarctica.
2. It is located between the Sentinel Range and the Heritage Range.
3. It is famous for specialised research stations notified by the United Nations (UN).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Recently, Washington social media users and conspiracy theorists claim that a new pyramid has been discovered in Antarctica.
Recently satellite photos related to this have surfaced. A mysterious triangular structure has been seen in the icy continent, which is being described as the world’s newest wonder.
Geographic location of the Ellsworth Mountains and their configuration
Statement 1 is correct: Mount Vinson is the highest point in Antarctica, standing at 16,050 ft (4,892 m) above sea level. It’s located in the Sentinel Range of the Ellsworth Mountains, about 1,200 km (750 mi) from the South Pole. This is a 360 km long and 48 km wide chain running in north-south direction from the Rhone Ice Shelf in the west.
Statement 2 is correct: Mount Vinson is located between the Sentinel Range and the Heritage Range. The Sentinel Range is in the north of the Ellsworth Mountains, and the Heritage Range is in the south.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is one of the most recently discovered and explored of the Seven Summits, the highest peaks of the world’s seven continents. Not for a research center.
About Seven Summits:
● The Seven Summits are defined as the highest peaks on each of the seven continents.
● A mighty goal, climbing all of these mountains is a pinnacle achievement that many mountaineers dream of.
● It’s a phenomenal feat that requires extreme fitness, commitment, determination, resilience and courage and as such, joining the ‘Seven Summiters’ club is a very exclusive privilege held by few people.
Seven Summits
● Denali. (6,194 m)
● Mont Blanc. (4,810 m)
● Elbrus. (5,642 m)
● Everest. (8,848 m)
● Kilimanjaro. (5,895 m)
● Aconcagua. (6,961 m)
● Vinson. (4,892 m)
● Kosciuszko. (2,228 m)
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Recently, Washington social media users and conspiracy theorists claim that a new pyramid has been discovered in Antarctica.
Recently satellite photos related to this have surfaced. A mysterious triangular structure has been seen in the icy continent, which is being described as the world’s newest wonder.
Geographic location of the Ellsworth Mountains and their configuration
Statement 1 is correct: Mount Vinson is the highest point in Antarctica, standing at 16,050 ft (4,892 m) above sea level. It’s located in the Sentinel Range of the Ellsworth Mountains, about 1,200 km (750 mi) from the South Pole. This is a 360 km long and 48 km wide chain running in north-south direction from the Rhone Ice Shelf in the west.
Statement 2 is correct: Mount Vinson is located between the Sentinel Range and the Heritage Range. The Sentinel Range is in the north of the Ellsworth Mountains, and the Heritage Range is in the south.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is one of the most recently discovered and explored of the Seven Summits, the highest peaks of the world’s seven continents. Not for a research center.
About Seven Summits:
● The Seven Summits are defined as the highest peaks on each of the seven continents.
● A mighty goal, climbing all of these mountains is a pinnacle achievement that many mountaineers dream of.
● It’s a phenomenal feat that requires extreme fitness, commitment, determination, resilience and courage and as such, joining the ‘Seven Summiters’ club is a very exclusive privilege held by few people.
Seven Summits
● Denali. (6,194 m)
● Mont Blanc. (4,810 m)
● Elbrus. (5,642 m)
● Everest. (8,848 m)
● Kilimanjaro. (5,895 m)
● Aconcagua. (6,961 m)
● Vinson. (4,892 m)
● Kosciuszko. (2,228 m)
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
4. Which of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘carbon leakage’?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
European Commissioner Wopke Hoekstra’s recent statement at the UN Climate Summit that the main goal of the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) was to stop carbon leakage was flawed, according to research body Global Trade Research Initiative.
• Carbon leakage is a concept to quantify an increase in greenhouse gas emissions in one country as a result of an emissions reduction by a second country with stricter climate change mitigation policies. Carbon leakage is one type of spill-over effect. Spillover effects can be positive or negative; for example, emission reductions policy might lead to technological developments that aid reductions outside of the policy area. Carbon leakage is defined as “the increase in CO2 emissions outside the countries taking domestic mitigation action divided by the reduction in the emissions of these countries.”It is expressed as a percentage, and can be greater or less than 100%. There is no consensus over the magnitude of long-term leakage effects.
Hence, Option (C) is the correct answer.
Additional Information:
● CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, which is the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55 by 2030 compared to 1990 levels
● The EU has agreed to the world’s first Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), a measure aimed at preventing “carbon leakage”.
● CBAM will initially cover several specific products in some of the most carbon-intensive sectors.
● CBAM, which some argue violates international trade rules, also aims to incentivize trading partners to decarbonize.
● CBAM extends the concept of carbon pricing to imports for the first time.
● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a tariff on carbon-intensive products, such as cement or fertiliser. While CBAM’s implementation is still being worked out, we at least know the scheme’s scope.
● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms are already in place in some regions around the world, such as California, where an adjustment is applied to certain imports of electricity. A number of countries such as Canada and Japan are planning similar initiatives. In addition,
● The IMF and the OECD have recently carried out work to study how such measures could support international efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Context:
European Commissioner Wopke Hoekstra’s recent statement at the UN Climate Summit that the main goal of the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) was to stop carbon leakage was flawed, according to research body Global Trade Research Initiative.
• Carbon leakage is a concept to quantify an increase in greenhouse gas emissions in one country as a result of an emissions reduction by a second country with stricter climate change mitigation policies. Carbon leakage is one type of spill-over effect. Spillover effects can be positive or negative; for example, emission reductions policy might lead to technological developments that aid reductions outside of the policy area. Carbon leakage is defined as “the increase in CO2 emissions outside the countries taking domestic mitigation action divided by the reduction in the emissions of these countries.”It is expressed as a percentage, and can be greater or less than 100%. There is no consensus over the magnitude of long-term leakage effects.
Hence, Option (C) is the correct answer.
Additional Information:
● CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, which is the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55 by 2030 compared to 1990 levels
● The EU has agreed to the world’s first Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), a measure aimed at preventing “carbon leakage”.
● CBAM will initially cover several specific products in some of the most carbon-intensive sectors.
● CBAM, which some argue violates international trade rules, also aims to incentivize trading partners to decarbonize.
● CBAM extends the concept of carbon pricing to imports for the first time.
● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a tariff on carbon-intensive products, such as cement or fertiliser. While CBAM’s implementation is still being worked out, we at least know the scheme’s scope.
● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms are already in place in some regions around the world, such as California, where an adjustment is applied to certain imports of electricity. A number of countries such as Canada and Japan are planning similar initiatives. In addition,
● The IMF and the OECD have recently carried out work to study how such measures could support international efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
5. With reference to the ‘Fish Disease App’, consider the following statements:
1. It has been developed in collaboration with the Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (CIFT) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
2. It intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
A mobile app titled ‘Report Fish Disease’ recently has been introduced to help aquaculture farmers to report diseases on their farms.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Surveillance Program for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced ‘Report Fish Disease’, a mobile app to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.It’s aim is to boost India’s aquaculture sector. It has been developed by National Informatics Center Pune.
Statement 2 is correct: Intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.
● Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
● Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
Additional Information
➢ Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMSSY)
➢ Introduced, as part of the ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ package
➢ Fishermen are provided with insurance cover, financial assistance and a facility of Kisan Credit Card as well.
➢ The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components:
➢ Central Sector Scheme (CSS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
A mobile app titled ‘Report Fish Disease’ recently has been introduced to help aquaculture farmers to report diseases on their farms.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Surveillance Program for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced ‘Report Fish Disease’, a mobile app to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.It’s aim is to boost India’s aquaculture sector. It has been developed by National Informatics Center Pune.
Statement 2 is correct: Intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.
● Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
● Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
Additional Information
➢ Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMSSY)
➢ Introduced, as part of the ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ package
➢ Fishermen are provided with insurance cover, financial assistance and a facility of Kisan Credit Card as well.
➢ The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components:
➢ Central Sector Scheme (CSS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘sympatry’?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are five types of speciation: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric and artificial.
Allopatric speciation occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring.
When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others.
In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment.
Parapatric speciation sometimes happens when part of an environment has been polluted. Mining activities leave waste with high amounts of metals like lead and zinc.
These metals are absorbed into the soil, preventing most plants from growing. Some grasses, such as buffalo grass, can tolerate the metals. Buffalo grass, also known as vanilla grass, is native to Europe and Asia, but is now found throughout North and South America, too. Buffalo grass has become a unique species from the grasses that grow in areas not polluted by metals.
Sympatric speciation occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another, and all members are in close proximity to one another. A new species, perhaps based on a different food source or characteristic, seems to develop spontaneously. The theory is that some individuals become dependent on certain aspects of an environment—such as shelter or food sources—while others do not.
Artificial speciation is the creation of new species by people. This is achieved through lab experiments, where scientists mostly research insects like fruit flies.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are five types of speciation: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric and artificial.
Allopatric speciation occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring.
When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others.
In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment.
Parapatric speciation sometimes happens when part of an environment has been polluted. Mining activities leave waste with high amounts of metals like lead and zinc.
These metals are absorbed into the soil, preventing most plants from growing. Some grasses, such as buffalo grass, can tolerate the metals. Buffalo grass, also known as vanilla grass, is native to Europe and Asia, but is now found throughout North and South America, too. Buffalo grass has become a unique species from the grasses that grow in areas not polluted by metals.
Sympatric speciation occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another, and all members are in close proximity to one another. A new species, perhaps based on a different food source or characteristic, seems to develop spontaneously. The theory is that some individuals become dependent on certain aspects of an environment—such as shelter or food sources—while others do not.
Artificial speciation is the creation of new species by people. This is achieved through lab experiments, where scientists mostly research insects like fruit flies.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In general, the temperate areas are not as rich in species diversity as the tropical regions.
Statement II: Species diversification is higher in regions that are less subject to glaciations.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Statement 2 explains statement 1.
The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows a rather uneven distribution. In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. With very few exceptions, tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S) harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
Ecologists and evolutionary biologists have proposed various hypotheses; some important ones are:
(a) Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
(b) Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity.
(c) There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
Thus, there are three major factors proposed by ecologists to have influenced the richness of species diversity in the areas near equator as compared to the poles.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Statement 2 explains statement 1.
The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows a rather uneven distribution. In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. With very few exceptions, tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S) harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
Ecologists and evolutionary biologists have proposed various hypotheses; some important ones are:
(a) Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
(b) Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity.
(c) There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
Thus, there are three major factors proposed by ecologists to have influenced the richness of species diversity in the areas near equator as compared to the poles.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
3. ‘Climate Club’, recently seen in the news, is:
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Climate Club has been launched at UNFCCC COP28 (at Dubai, UAE in 2023). It is a leading high-ambition intergovernmental forum for exchange on accelerating climate action and industry decarbonisation. The objective of the Climate Club members is to support the effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and decisions thereunder.
The Climate Club’s initial focus is on the emission-intensive sectors steel and cement with the aim to scale up lead markets and to make decarbonised industrial production the default business case. While focusing on exchange among governments, the Climate Club will engage relevant stakeholders and experts from academia, think tanks, civil society, and the private sector. It draws on their expertise, and elevates and complements the ongoing work of international organisations and initiatives that relates to its activities.
It has been agreed that the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), along with the International Energy Agency (IEA), would host an Interim Secretariat working together with other relevant organisations to ensure progress on working arrangements until further arrangements are decided.
NOTE- India is not a member of the Climate Club, as of now. Chile and Germany are the co-hosts of this club. Currently, it comprises 37 members.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Climate Club has been launched at UNFCCC COP28 (at Dubai, UAE in 2023). It is a leading high-ambition intergovernmental forum for exchange on accelerating climate action and industry decarbonisation. The objective of the Climate Club members is to support the effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and decisions thereunder.
The Climate Club’s initial focus is on the emission-intensive sectors steel and cement with the aim to scale up lead markets and to make decarbonised industrial production the default business case. While focusing on exchange among governments, the Climate Club will engage relevant stakeholders and experts from academia, think tanks, civil society, and the private sector. It draws on their expertise, and elevates and complements the ongoing work of international organisations and initiatives that relates to its activities.
It has been agreed that the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), along with the International Energy Agency (IEA), would host an Interim Secretariat working together with other relevant organisations to ensure progress on working arrangements until further arrangements are decided.
NOTE- India is not a member of the Climate Club, as of now. Chile and Germany are the co-hosts of this club. Currently, it comprises 37 members.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
4. Consider the following conditions:
1. The wetland must be a unique and natural, located within an appropriate biogeographic region and supports threatened species of biodiversity.
2. The wetland should regularly support 2,000 or more waterbirds.
3. The wetland should regularly support 1% of the individuals in a population of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.
For the declaration of Wetlands of International Importance, how many of the above-mentioned conditions have been specified under the Ramsar Convention?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation: Options 1 and 3 are correct.
The Ramsar Convention has specified 9 criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance:
Criterion 1: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.
Criterion 2: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
Criterion 3: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
Criterion 4: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
Criterion 5: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds. (hence, Option 2 is incorrect).
Criterion 6: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
Criterion 7: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
Criterion 8: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.
Criterion 9: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation: Options 1 and 3 are correct.
The Ramsar Convention has specified 9 criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance:
Criterion 1: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.
Criterion 2: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
Criterion 3: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
Criterion 4: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
Criterion 5: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds. (hence, Option 2 is incorrect).
Criterion 6: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
Criterion 7: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
Criterion 8: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.
Criterion 9: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
5. Which of the following species is the most appropriate to fit into the fourth trophic level in a savanna food chain?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
The savanna food web is a complex ecological network formed by the trophic relationships between savanna plants and animals in different levels of different savanna food chains. One of the food chains in savanna ecosystem can be summarised in ascending order as follows:
Grasses-Bushback- Baboon/lion/leopard-Hyena
• Primary Producers (Trophic level 1): Grasses, Baobab, Acacia trees
• Primary Consumers (Trophic level 2): Bushbuck (African antelope), Grasshopper, Giraffe, Zebra
• Secondary Consumers (Trophic level 3): Baboon, African Wild Dog
• Tertiary Consumers (Trophic level 4): Spotted Hyena, Vultures, lion
As carnivores, hyenas eat zebras, rabbits, warthogs and are also known to be scavengers who feed on carcasses.
Additional information:
About Bushback:
• Widely distributed in Sub-Saharan Africa
• Habitat: woodlands, forests, savanna
• Diet: herbivore- consumes leaves, shoots, twigs etc.
• Predators: lions, leopard, cheetah; baboons sometimes eat baby bushback
• Characteristics: white patches on neck, vertical stripes or spots on sides, males have horns
About Baboon: Mammals, Primates (Old World Monkey), omnivores, distributed across Africa and Arabia.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
The savanna food web is a complex ecological network formed by the trophic relationships between savanna plants and animals in different levels of different savanna food chains. One of the food chains in savanna ecosystem can be summarised in ascending order as follows:
Grasses-Bushback- Baboon/lion/leopard-Hyena
• Primary Producers (Trophic level 1): Grasses, Baobab, Acacia trees
• Primary Consumers (Trophic level 2): Bushbuck (African antelope), Grasshopper, Giraffe, Zebra
• Secondary Consumers (Trophic level 3): Baboon, African Wild Dog
• Tertiary Consumers (Trophic level 4): Spotted Hyena, Vultures, lion
As carnivores, hyenas eat zebras, rabbits, warthogs and are also known to be scavengers who feed on carcasses.
Additional information:
About Bushback:
• Widely distributed in Sub-Saharan Africa
• Habitat: woodlands, forests, savanna
• Diet: herbivore- consumes leaves, shoots, twigs etc.
• Predators: lions, leopard, cheetah; baboons sometimes eat baby bushback
• Characteristics: white patches on neck, vertical stripes or spots on sides, males have horns
About Baboon: Mammals, Primates (Old World Monkey), omnivores, distributed across Africa and Arabia.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Radiocarbon dating technique is used to determine the age of an inorganic object.
Statement-II: This technique is useful only for those entities which are dead.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation
What is radiocarbon dating?
Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon. The method was developed in the late 1940s at the University of Chicago by Willard Libby.
Concept of radiocarbon dating
It is based on the fact that radiocarbon (14C) is constantly being created in the Earth’s atmosphere by the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric nitrogen. The resulting 14C combines with atmospheric oxygen to form radioactive carbon dioxide, which is incorporated into plants by photosynthesis; animals then acquire 14C by eating the plants. When the animal or plant dies, it stops exchanging carbon with its environment, and thereafter the amount of 14C it contains begins to decrease as the 14C undergoes radioactive decay.
Statement 1 is incorrect: This technique is used to determine the age of objects which are generally of archaeological importance and have organic content (or in simpler words objects which once were living, or material made from living things).
Statement 2 is correct: This technique is used for entities which are dead. When an entity dies, it stops exchanging radiocarbon with the environment. Thus, as the fossil ages, the radiocarbon decays in its concentration. This radioactive decay is analysed to identify the relative age of the fossil.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation
What is radiocarbon dating?
Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon. The method was developed in the late 1940s at the University of Chicago by Willard Libby.
Concept of radiocarbon dating
It is based on the fact that radiocarbon (14C) is constantly being created in the Earth’s atmosphere by the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric nitrogen. The resulting 14C combines with atmospheric oxygen to form radioactive carbon dioxide, which is incorporated into plants by photosynthesis; animals then acquire 14C by eating the plants. When the animal or plant dies, it stops exchanging carbon with its environment, and thereafter the amount of 14C it contains begins to decrease as the 14C undergoes radioactive decay.
Statement 1 is incorrect: This technique is used to determine the age of objects which are generally of archaeological importance and have organic content (or in simpler words objects which once were living, or material made from living things).
Statement 2 is correct: This technique is used for entities which are dead. When an entity dies, it stops exchanging radiocarbon with the environment. Thus, as the fossil ages, the radiocarbon decays in its concentration. This radioactive decay is analysed to identify the relative age of the fossil.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: In a split air conditioner, the condenser is the outdoor unit whereas evaporator is the indoor unit.
Statement-II: Vaporisation of the liquid coolant leads to the cooling effect in the indoor unit.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: An air conditioner is typically composed of two units: The indoor and outdoor unit. These are usually called ‘split’ air conditioners. Indoor unit have expansion valve and evaporator coils where outdoor have compressor and condenser coils.
Statement 2 is correct and is the explanation of statement 1: Due to very low vaporization temperature of an AC coolant. The liquid coolant absorbs heat from the room and vaporizes into a gas in the evaporator coil. This leads to a cooling effect in the room. The gaseous form of the coolant is brought back to the liquid state in the condenser coil and by the action of compressor which compresses the gas to again liquify it. This is a continuous cycle and hence, an air conditioner works in this way.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: An air conditioner is typically composed of two units: The indoor and outdoor unit. These are usually called ‘split’ air conditioners. Indoor unit have expansion valve and evaporator coils where outdoor have compressor and condenser coils.
Statement 2 is correct and is the explanation of statement 1: Due to very low vaporization temperature of an AC coolant. The liquid coolant absorbs heat from the room and vaporizes into a gas in the evaporator coil. This leads to a cooling effect in the room. The gaseous form of the coolant is brought back to the liquid state in the condenser coil and by the action of compressor which compresses the gas to again liquify it. This is a continuous cycle and hence, an air conditioner works in this way.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
3. This mysterious entity is completely invisible. We only assume it exists because, without it, the behavior of stars, planets and galaxies simply wouldn’t make sense. It emits no light or energy and thus cannot be detected by conventional sensors and detectors.
Which of the following entities is being described in the above paragraph?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation
• In the current universe, nearly 70 per cent constitutes dark energy whereas 25 per cent is dark matter – about both of which there is scanty knowledge, till date.
• Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic force.
• This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
• In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation
• In the current universe, nearly 70 per cent constitutes dark energy whereas 25 per cent is dark matter – about both of which there is scanty knowledge, till date.
• Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic force.
• This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
• In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
4. Consider the following:
1. Radar
2. Optical fiber communication
3. Surgery
In how many of the above cases, lasers can be used?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation
A laser is a device that emits a beam of coherent light through an optical amplification process. The letters in the word laser stand for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Lasers produce a narrow beam of light in which all of the light waves have very similar wavelengths.
The laser’s light waves travel together with their peaks all lined up, or in phase. This is why laser beams are very narrow, very bright, and can be focused into a very tiny spot.
Lasers have many uses. They are used in precision tools and can cut through diamonds or thick metal. They can also be designed to help in delicate surgeries. Lasers are used for recording and retrieving information. They are used in communications and in carrying TV and internet signals. We also find them in laser printers, bar code scanners, and DVD players. They also help to make parts for computers and other electronics.
Option 1 is incorrect: Laser is not used for radar applications. Radar stands for Radio Detection and Ranging. It uses radio waves (and not laser) to determine the distance, angle, and radial velocity of objects relative to the site.
Option 2 is correct: Laser is used for optical fiber communication in case of beaming of high-speed internet.
Option 3 is correct: Laser is used for precision surgery like lasik eye surgery for correcting vision.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation
A laser is a device that emits a beam of coherent light through an optical amplification process. The letters in the word laser stand for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Lasers produce a narrow beam of light in which all of the light waves have very similar wavelengths.
The laser’s light waves travel together with their peaks all lined up, or in phase. This is why laser beams are very narrow, very bright, and can be focused into a very tiny spot.
Lasers have many uses. They are used in precision tools and can cut through diamonds or thick metal. They can also be designed to help in delicate surgeries. Lasers are used for recording and retrieving information. They are used in communications and in carrying TV and internet signals. We also find them in laser printers, bar code scanners, and DVD players. They also help to make parts for computers and other electronics.
Option 1 is incorrect: Laser is not used for radar applications. Radar stands for Radio Detection and Ranging. It uses radio waves (and not laser) to determine the distance, angle, and radial velocity of objects relative to the site.
Option 2 is correct: Laser is used for optical fiber communication in case of beaming of high-speed internet.
Option 3 is correct: Laser is used for precision surgery like lasik eye surgery for correcting vision.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
5. With reference to the digital payments system in India, consider the following statements:
1. Payment through UPI Lite does not require internet service.
2. Some digital wallet-based payment instruments do not require PIN for transaction.
3. A direct debit mandate given for recurring expenses requires One Time Password (OTP) for every transaction.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: UPI Lite requires internet service to process transactions but it does not require PIN for each transaction. It is UPI 123 Pay system which has been designed for feature phone users to use UPI without the need for internet.
UPI Lite
UPI LITE is a new payment solution that leverages the trusted NPCI Common Library (CL) application to process low value transactions that have been set at below ₹ 500. User enters the amount, and the money is sent to the party without the need for PIN.
Statement 2 is correct: UPI is a type of Prepaid Instrument which does not require PIN for transactions. It is a kind of wallet-based payment instrument that enables users to load cash digitally before transacting.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A direct debit mandate given for recurring expenses like bill payment, recharge does not require OTP to be filled for every transaction. A Direct Debit mandate, sometimes called a Direct Debit instruction (DDI), is when a customer authorizes you to collect future payments from their account on a predetermined schedule.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: UPI Lite requires internet service to process transactions but it does not require PIN for each transaction. It is UPI 123 Pay system which has been designed for feature phone users to use UPI without the need for internet.
UPI Lite
UPI LITE is a new payment solution that leverages the trusted NPCI Common Library (CL) application to process low value transactions that have been set at below ₹ 500. User enters the amount, and the money is sent to the party without the need for PIN.
Statement 2 is correct: UPI is a type of Prepaid Instrument which does not require PIN for transactions. It is a kind of wallet-based payment instrument that enables users to load cash digitally before transacting.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A direct debit mandate given for recurring expenses like bill payment, recharge does not require OTP to be filled for every transaction. A Direct Debit mandate, sometimes called a Direct Debit instruction (DDI), is when a customer authorizes you to collect future payments from their account on a predetermined schedule.
NEUTRON STAR DISCOVERED IN SUPERNOVA REMNANT WITH JAMES WEBB SPACE TELESCOPE
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT:In a groundbreaking discovery, scientists utilizing the James Webb Space Telescope have identified evidence of a neutron star at the heart of a young supernova remnant.
EXPLANATION:
This marks the first time that the effects of high-energy emissions from a potential young neutron star have been observed, shedding light on the aftermath of the core-collapse supernova SN 1987A.
SN 1987A: A Core-Collapse Supernova:
SN 1987A, situated 160,000 light-years away in the Large Magellanic Cloud, captivated astronomers as a core-collapse supernova.
The spectacular event, visible from Earth in 1987, presented a unique opportunity to study the remnants that would form either a neutron star or a black hole at its core.
Historical Significance of SN 1987A:
The supernova SN 1987A holds historical significance as the first supernova visible to the naked eye since Kepler’s Supernova in 1604.
Detected in February 1987, its brightness peaked in May of the same year.
Notably, just hours before the initial visible-light observation, three observatories globally recorded a burst of neutrinos linked to the same supernova event.
This provided crucial evidence supporting theories about the mechanisms behind core-collapse supernovae.
While astronomers had been searching for evidence of a compact object, potentially a neutron star, within the remnants of SN 1987A, confirmation has been elusive until now.
The recent discovery, announced by NASA, not only confirms the presence of a neutron star but also marks the first detection of the high-energy emissions associated with it.
Importance of Neutron Star Detection:
The identification of a neutron star within the remnants of SN 1987A provides valuable insights into the aftermath of core-collapse supernovae.
Neutron stars are dense remnants that result from the gravitational collapse of massive stars.
This discovery not only validates existing theories but also opens new avenues for studying the properties and behavior of neutron stars in the specific context of supernova remnants.
Role of James Webb Space Telescope:
The James Webb Space Telescope played a crucial role in this discovery, showcasing its capabilities in unraveling cosmic mysteries.
As the scientific community eagerly anticipates the full operational deployment of the telescope, this achievement underscores its potential to revolutionize our understanding of the universe.
The telescope will be able to capture images of some of the first galaxies ever formed.
It will also be able to observe objects in our solar system from Mars outward, look inside dust clouds to see where new stars and planets are forming and examine the atmospheres of planets orbiting other stars.
The Webb telescope’s cameras are sensitive to heat from the Sun. Webb has a sunshield to protect its instruments and mirrors.
The James Webb Space Telescope sees the universe in light that is invisible to human eyes. This light is called infrared radiation. The James Webb Space Telescope will use its infrared cameras to see through dust in the universe.
It took deep field images of Pandora’s cluster in 2022.
Neutron star:
A neutron star is a dense and compact stellar object that forms from the remnants of a massive star’s core after a supernova explosion.
These stars are among the densest objects known in the universe, packing an immense mass into a relatively small size.
The discovery of pulsars in 1967 provided the first evidence of the existence of neutron stars.
Pulsars are neutron stars that emit pulses of radiation once per rotation.
Supernova:
A supernova is a cataclysmic explosion of a massive star, releasing an enormous amount of energy and radiation.
It occurs when a star exhausts its nuclear fuel, leading to a sudden gravitational collapse and a violent explosion.
Supernovas are often seen in other galaxies. But supernovas are difficult to see in our own Milky Way galaxy because dust blocks our view.
Conclusion:
The detection of a neutron star within the remnants of SN 1987A represents a triumph in astronomical research, offering a glimpse into the aftermath of a core-collapse supernova. As the James Webb Space Telescope continues to unveil cosmic secrets, this discovery marks a milestone in our quest to comprehend the complexities of stellar evolution and the cosmic processes that shape our universe.
THE CONTEXT:The Central government in India has made significant amendments to the Surrogacy (Regulation) Rules, 2022, addressing concerns and complexities surrounding surrogacy procedures.
EXPLANATION:
The modifications, notified by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, offer new provisions that impact both married couples with medical conditions and single women (widow or divorcee) undergoing surrogacy.
Amendments for Couples with Medical Conditions:
The latest amendment allows flexibility in the origin of gametes for couples certified as suffering from a medical condition.
Unlike the previous rule, both gametes need not necessarily come from the intending couple.
Instead, if either the husband or wife constituting the intending couple has a certified medical condition necessitating the use of donor gametes, surrogacy with donor gametes is now permitted.
This amendment aims to provide an avenue for couples facing medical challenges to still pursue surrogacy.
Specifics on Single Women Undergoing Surrogacy:
The notification emphasizes that single women, whether widowed or divorced, opting for surrogacy must use their own eggs and donor sperm.
This directive reinforces the requirement for self-eggs from the intending mother, offering clarity on the genetic components involved in surrogacy procedures for single women.
Legal Context and Supreme Court’s Involvement:
The amendment comes in response to the Supreme Court’s involvement in the matter.
The Apex Court had questioned the delay in decision-making by the Central government, particularly concerning women petitioners seeking surrogacy options.
The Court had received petitions from women across the country, challenging the previous rule that prohibited the use of donor gametes for couples undergoing surrogacy.
Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021:
Regulation of surrogacy:
The Bill prohibits commercial surrogacy, but allows altruistic surrogacy. Altruistic surrogacy involves no monetary compensation to the surrogate mother other than the medical expenses and insurance coverage during the pregnancy.
Commercial surrogacy includes surrogacy or its related procedures undertaken for a monetary benefit or reward (in cash or kind) exceeding the basic medical expenses and insurance coverage.
Purposes for which surrogacy is permitted:
Surrogacy is permitted when it is: (i) for intending couples who suffer from proven infertility; (ii) altruistic; (iii) not for commercial purposes; (iv) not for producing children for sale, prostitution or other forms of exploitation; and (v) for any condition or disease specified through regulations.
Eligibility criteria for intending couple:
The intending couple should have a ‘certificate of essentiality’ and a ‘certificate of eligibility’ issued by the appropriate authority.
Appropriate authority:
The central and state governments shall appoint one or more appropriate authorities within 90 days of the Bill becoming an Act.
The functions of the appropriate authority include; (i) granting, suspending or cancelling registration of surrogacy clinics; (ii) enforcing standards for surrogacy clinics; (iii) investigating and taking action against breach of the provisions of the Bill; (iv) recommending modifications to the rules and regulations.
Registration of surrogacy clinics:
Surrogacy clinics cannot undertake surrogacy related procedures unless they are registered by the appropriate authority.
Clinics must apply for registration within a period of 60 days from the date of appointment of the appropriate authority.
National and State Surrogacy Boards:
The central and the state governments shall constitute the National Surrogacy Board (NSB) and the State Surrogacy Boards (SSB), respectively. Functions of the NSB include, (i) advising the central government on policy matters relating to surrogacy; (ii) laying down the code of conduct of surrogacy clinics; and (iii) supervising the functioning of SSBs.
Offences and penalties:
The offences under the Bill include: (i) undertaking or advertising commercial surrogacy; (ii) exploiting the surrogate mother; (iii) abandoning, exploiting or disowning a surrogate child; and (iv) selling or importing human embryo or gametes for surrogacy.
The penalty for such offences is imprisonment up to 10 years and a fine up to 10 lakh rupees. The Bill specifies a range of offences and penalties for other contraventions of the provisions of the Bill.
Conclusion:
The amended surrogacy rules in India reflect a balancing act between legal regulations, medical considerations, and individual rights. The changes bring a nuanced approach to accommodate couples facing medical challenges while ensuring clarity for single women opting for surrogacy. The ongoing legal discourse demonstrates the importance of adapting regulations to meet the evolving needs and perspectives in the realm of assisted reproductive technologies.
THE CONTEXT:The moon lander, Odysseus, created by Houston-based Intuitive Machines, made history as the first private spacecraft to reach the lunar surface and the first from the United States since 1972.
EXPLANATION:
However, its triumph was accompanied by challenges, with the lander described as being tipped over sideways.
Post-Landing Status:
Despite the unconventional landing with the lander resting on its side, CEO reassured that Odysseus is “alive and well.”
The unique touchdown saw one of its six landing feet catching on the lunar surface, resulting in the lander propping up sideways on a rock near the intended landing site close to the Malapert A crater in the moon’s south pole region.
The Intuitive Machines team maintained communication with Odysseus, allowing them to send commands to the vehicle.
The stability of the lander near the targeted landing site, alleviating concerns about the impact of the sideways position on its functionality have been emphasized.
Initial reports suggested that the lander had landed upright based on telemetry from before the landing.
However, Altemus clarified that this conclusion was faulty, highlighting the importance of real-time data and post-landing assessments.
Mission Success and Flawless Performance:
The spacecraft, powered by a propulsion fuel combination of liquid methane and liquid oxygen, successfully completed its journey to the lunar surface.
Odysseus showcased technological milestones, including burning liquid methane and liquid oxygen for the first time in space.
The successful utilization of these propellants marks a significant achievement in space exploration.
Communication Challenges and Uncertainty:
The mission encountered challenges during the final approach and descent, with issues arising in the lander’s navigation system.
Engineers on the ground had to implement an untested work-around to address the problem at the last moment.
After an anticipated radio blackout, the re-establishment of communication was faint, leaving mission control uncertain about the lander’s precise condition and position.
Recharging and Scientific Payload:
The spacecraft is reported to be recharging efficiently from solar energy, and it is currently at full charge.
Odysseus carries a suite of scientific experiments for NASA and commercial customers, designed to operate for seven days on solar energy before the polar landing site experiences sunset.
Conclusion:
Odysseus’s successful lunar landing, despite the unexpected sideways positioning, represents a remarkable achievement in private space exploration. The challenges faced during descent and the subsequent reassurances from Intuitive Machines highlight the complexities and uncertainties inherent in pioneering space missions. As communication is maintained and the lander continues its scientific operations, the mission holds promise for advancing private space capabilities and contributing to lunar exploration.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION AND BASICS OF THE MISSION, KINDLY REFER TO THE 23RD OF FEBRUARY 2024 DNA TOPIC
