GOVERNMENT PLANS TO CHANGE BASE YEAR OF KEY ECONOMIC GAUGES TO FY23

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The Indian government is considering updating the base year for critical economic indices, including the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), Wholesale Price Index (WPI), and National Income, to the fiscal year 2023 (FY23).

EXPLANATION:

  • This change aims to better reflect the current structural changes in the economy.
  • Currently, these indices use FY12 as the base year, and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) also uses 2012 as its base year.
  • The potential shift is part of a broader effort to ensure economic metrics accurately represent contemporary economic realities.

What is a Base Year Benchmark?

  • The base year serves as a reference point for measuring changes in economic variables over time, allowing for the comparison of relative performance.
  • For instance, real GDP growth is calculated with reference to the prices of the base year.
  • Regular updates to the base year are necessary to align indices with the evolving economic structure, capturing shifts in consumption patterns, sectoral weights, and the inclusion of new sectors.

Importance of Regular Updates

  • Updating the base year ensures that economic indices reflect current economic conditions and consumption habits.
  • This is crucial for accurate policy formulation and economic analysis.
  • For example, the previous change in the GDP computation base year from FY05 to FY12 improved coverage of financial corporations, local bodies, and autonomous institutions, and introduced methodological changes that enhanced the accuracy of economic measurements.

Planned Changes to Economic Indices

  • Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
    • The IIP measures the industrial sector’s performance by tracking the production volume of various industries.
    • The update to FY23 aims to incorporate recent changes in the industrial landscape, ensuring that the index accurately reflects the current state of industrial activity.
  • Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
    • The WPI measures the average change in prices of goods at the wholesale level.
    • Updating its base year to FY23 will involve revising the product basket and adjusting item weights to match current market conditions and consumption patterns.
    • This update is crucial for reflecting the latest price movements and economic activities accurately.
  • National Income
    • National Income calculations, which provide a comprehensive measure of a country’s economic activity, will also be updated to FY23.
    • This change will ensure that the data accurately represent the current economic environment, including new sectors and industries that have emerged since the last base year update.
  • Consumer Price Index (CPI)
    • The CPI, a critical measure of inflation and a key input for monetary policy, will undergo significant updates.
    • The current CPI basket, which includes outdated items like horsecart fares and VCD players, will be revised to reflect contemporary consumption patterns more accurately.
    • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses the CPI as its primary gauge for monetary policy management, making this update essential for effective economic governance.

Rationale for Choosing FY23 as the New Base Year

  • Experts advocate for updating the base year every decade to maintain the relevance and accuracy of economic indices.
  • FY23 is considered a suitable base year because it did not experience significant droughts or structural economic shocks, providing a stable reference point for comparisons.

Efforts to Revamp Key Datasets

  • Wholesale Price Index (WPI) Update
    • The Industry Ministry is actively working on updating the WPI series.
    • This involves revising the product basket and adjusting item weights to reflect the latest market trends and economic conditions accurately.
  • Consumer Price Index (CPI) Overhaul
    • A comprehensive overhaul of the CPI is underway, driven by the ongoing consumption expenditure survey for FY23.
    • This update aims to modernize the CPI by including relevant products and services that reflect current consumption patterns, ensuring that the index accurately measures inflation and cost-of-living changes.

Index of Industrial Production (IIP):

  • IIP is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of industrial products during a given period.
  • It is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
  • It is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under:
    • Broad sectors, namely, Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity.
    • Use-based sectors, namely Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods.
  • Base Year for IIP is 2011-2012.

Wholesale Price Index (WPI):

  • It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
  • Published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India.
  • Major criticism for this index is that the general public does not buy products at wholesale price.
  • The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.

Consumer Price Index (CPI):

  • The Consumer Price Index measures the overall change in consumer prices based on a representative basket of goods and services over time.
  • It is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
  • The CPI is the most widely used measure of inflation, closely followed by policymakers, financial markets, businesses, and consumers.
  • The widely quoted CPI is based on an index covering 93% of the U.S. population, while a related index covering wage earners and clerical workers is used for cost-of-living adjustments to federal benefits.
  • The CPI is based on about 80,000 price quotes collected monthly from some 23,000 retail and service establishments as well as 50,000 rental housing units.
  • Housing rents are used to estimate the change in shelter costs including owner-occupied housing that accounts for about a third of the CPI.
  • The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.

SOURCE: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/govt-looks-to-change-base-year-for-major-economic-gauges-to-fy23-revamp-of-key-datasets-also-being-planned/articleshow/110157100.cms?from=mdr




RAMCHARITMANAS INCLUDED IN UNESCO’S MEMORY OF THE WORLD (MOW) REGIONAL REGISTER

TAG: GS 1: ART AND CULTURE

THE CONTEXT: Three prominent Indian literary works, Ramcharitmanas, Panchatantra, and Sahṛdayaloka-Locana, have been included in UNESCO’s Memory of the World Asia-Pacific Regional Register.

EXPLANATION:

Significance of the Works

  • Ramcharitmanas
    • Authored by the 16th-century poet Goswami Tulsidas, Ramcharitmanas is an epic poem that retells the story of the Ramayana in the Awadhi language.
    • It is not only a cornerstone of Indian literature but also a crucial text for Hindu culture and religious practices.
    • Its influence extends beyond India to countries like Cambodia, Thailand, Sri Lanka, and Indonesia.
    • The inclusion of two manuscripts—one by Tulsidas and another in Arabic from the 18th century—underscores its widespread appeal, even reaching West Asia.
  • Panchatantra
    • Panchatantra is a collection of ancient Indian fables written by Vishnu Sharma.
    • Known for its universal moral values and wisdom, the Panchatantra has been translated into numerous languages worldwide and has influenced storytelling traditions across cultures.
    • Its fables, often featuring animals with human traits, impart timeless lessons on politics, strategy, and ethics.
  • Sahṛdayaloka-Locana
    • The 15th-century text Sahṛdayaloka-Locana, authored by Kashmiri scholars Acharya Anandvardhan and Abhinavagupta, is significant for its exploration of aesthetics and literary criticism.
    • This work delves into the theory of rasa, or aesthetic experience, which has profoundly influenced Indian art and literature.
    • Its inclusion in the register highlights its enduring relevance in understanding classical Indian theories of art and literature.

UNESCO’s Memory of the World (MOW) Programme

  • The MOW programme was launched by UNESCO in 1992.
  • It aims to safeguard and promote documentary heritage.
  • It focuses on protecting valuable archives and library collections from decay and neglect, ensuring their accessibility and preservation for future generations.
  • The programme recognizes documentary heritage of international, regional, and national significance, maintaining registers of such heritage and awarding logos to identified collections.
  • Being inscribed in the MOW register affirms the importance of the documentary heritage, increasing its visibility and accessibility.
  • This facilitates research, education, and preservation efforts.
  • The programme also raises public awareness about the need to preserve documentary heritage, engaging governments, businesses, and the general public in these efforts.
  • As of May 2023, there are 494 inscriptions on the International Memory of the World Register.
  • These include a diverse array of documents, manuscripts, and collections that hold significant historical, cultural, and intellectual value.

Regional Contributions

  • The MOWCAP Regional Register celebrates achievements in the Asia-Pacific region.
  • In the 2024 cycle, alongside the three Indian texts, 20 items were inscribed, including contributions from China, Indonesia, Malaysia, Mongolia, the Philippines, and Uzbekistan.
  • Notable entries included documents related to tea entrepreneurship in China, sugar research in Indonesia, and the Philippines’ Indigenous Hinilawod chants.
  • The register also recognized significant literary and scientific contributions, such as the sci-fi feminist work of Bangladesh’s Rokeya S. Hossain and the documentation of coral reef formations by Australia and Tuvalu.

UNESCO:

  • The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) was born on 16 November 1945.
  • UNESCO has 195 Members and 8 Associate Members and is governed by the General Conference and the Executive Board.
  • The Secretariat, headed by the Director-General, implements the decisions of these two bodies. The Organization has more than 50 field offices around the world.
  • Its headquarters are located in Paris.
  • UNESCO’s mission is to contribute to the building of a culture of peace, the eradication of poverty, sustainable development and intercultural dialogue through education, the sciences, culture, communication and information.
  • UNESCO works to create the conditions for dialogue among civilizations, cultures and peoples, based upon respect for commonly shared values.
  • It is through this dialogue that the world can achieve global visions of sustainable development encompassing observance of human rights, mutual respect and the alleviation of poverty, all of which are at the heart of UNESCO’s mission and activities.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-culture/indian-literary-works-unesco-memory-world-register-9331289/




IGLA-S AIR DEFENCE SYSTEMS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The Indian Army is on the brink of enhancing its air defence capabilities with the imminent arrival of Russian Igla-S very short-range air defence systems (VSHORAD).

EXPLANATION:

  • This acquisition addresses a critical need within the Army’s air defence framework, a move that has been delayed multiple times due to payment issues and other logistical challenges.

Igla-S Acquisition

  • In the latest tranche of Emergency Procurements (EP), the Indian Army contracted 48 Igla-S launchers, 100 missiles, 48 night sights, and a missile testing station, all under a ₹260 crore deal.
  • The systems are being assembled by Adani Defence Systems and Technologies Limited (ADSTL) in India, utilizing technology transferred from Rosoboronexport, Russia.
  • While the missiles will be imported, components such as sights, launchers, and batteries are being assembled or manufactured locally by Adani Defence.
  • This local assembly is part of the broader initiative to enhance India’s self-reliance in defence production.

Resolution of Payment Issues

  • Since the onset of the Ukraine conflict and Russia’s exclusion from the international payment system, payments for major defence deals were significantly delayed.
  • The disruption affected crucial acquisitions, including the S-400 air defence systems.
  • The payment issue has been resolved through the use of national currencies, specifically Rupee-Ruble trade.
  • This arrangement allows Russia to utilize accumulated Indian Rupees, thereby streamlining the payment process for ongoing and future defence deals.

Emergency Procurement Route

  • Under the EP-4 route from September 2022 to September 2023, the Army completed over 70 procurement schemes worth nearly ₹11,000 crore, while the Indian Air Force concluded 64 contracts worth around ₹8,137 crore.
  • The EP route, introduced post the 2016 Uri terror attack, allows the Services to procure weapon systems up to ₹300 crores urgently, bypassing lengthy clearance processes.
  • Deliveries under EP must commence within six months and be completed within a year.

VSHORAD Systems

  • VSHORAD (Very Short Range Air Defence System) systems serve as the soldier’s last line of defence against enemy aircraft, helicopters, and UAVs, fitting into the multilayered air defence network.
  • Beyond the Igla-S, the Army’s broader VSHORAD upgrade plan includes:
    • DRDO Developments: An infrared-based man-portable system under development by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), aimed to meet a requirement of 300 launchers and 1800 missiles.
    • Laser Beam Riding Systems: A project sanctioned under Make-2 procurement for 200 launchers and 1,200 missiles, with prototype testing expected by the end of 2024.
  • The original VSHORAD acquisition process began in 2010, undergoing multiple trials and re-trials.
  • The Request for Proposal (RFP) included over 5000 missiles, 258 single launchers, and 258 multi-launchers.
  • Three contenders made it to the trials: MBDA (France), Rosoboronexport (Russia), and SAAB (Sweden).
  • All were deemed technically compliant in 2017, with Igla-S emerging as the lowest bidder in 2018.
  • However, the deal faced procedural deviations and protests from vendors, delaying the final contract.

Broader Air Defence Framework

  • Air Defence Structure
    • Air Defence in the Indian Army operates across three levels:
      • Gun/Missile Systems: These include the indigenous Akash SAM in the medium segment.
      • Medium Range Surface to Air Missile System: Falls within the high range category.
      • Self-Propelled Guns: The Army is seeking new acquisitions in both AD Gun Missile systems and AD self-propelled guns.

Hermes-900 UAVs

  • New UAV Acquisitions
    • The Army is also set to receive the first of two Israeli Hermes-900 Medium Altitude Long Endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), assembled by ADSTL in Hyderabad.
    • This follows last year’s orders where all three services placed orders for two MALE UAVs each under EP.
  • Production and Deployment
    • ADSTL, in partnership with Elbit Systems, manufactures the aerostructures for Hermes 900 and Hermes 450 in Hyderabad.
    • The Navy has already received its first Hermes-900 UAV, with the Army expected to receive theirs next month.
    • The Indian Air Force has opted for the Heron Mk2 from Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI), with four Heron-Mk2 UAVs inducted in the Eastern sector in 2021.

About Igla-S:

  • It is a man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) developed by Russia.
  • It is known in the West as SA-24 Grinch.
  • It entered service with the Russian Army in 2004.
  • It can be fired by an individual or crew to bring down an enemy aircraft.
  • It has the capability of bringing down low-flying aircraft. It can also identify and neutralise air targets, such as cruise missiles and drones.

Features:

  • The Igla-S system comprises of combat equipment, including the 9M342 missile and the 9P522 launching mechanism, along with maintenance equipment, including the 9V866-2 mobile test station and the 9F719-2 test set.
  • It has an effective range upto 6 km.
  • The limiting altitude of effective target destruction for the “Igla-S” complex is 3.5 km.
  • It has a heavier, more powerful warhead to maximize damage capabilities, as well as contact and timed fuzes for increased attack range.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/army-set-to-receive-igla-s-air-defence-systems-partly-assembled-in-india/article68179544.ece




NISAR SATELLITE: ENHANCING EARTH’S OBSERVATION CAPABILITIES

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is preparing for the launch of the NISAR satellite, a collaborative mission with NASA.

EXPLANATION:

  • The satellite, equipped with advanced radar systems, promises to enhance the monitoring of tectonic movements and provide detailed observations of various Earth systems.

Unique Features of the NISAR Satellite

  • Dual-Band Synthetic Aperture Radar
    • NISAR, which stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, is equipped with two radar bands:
      • S-band: Developed by ISRO.
      • L-band: Developed by NASA.
    • Large Deployable Antenna
      • The satellite features a significant technological advancement with its 18-meter diameter deployable antenna.
      • This allows NISAR to cover the entire Earth’s surface approximately twice a month.
    • High-Resolution Monitoring
      • NISAR’s dual-band radar system enables high-resolution monitoring of various Earth phenomena, including:
        • Tectonic Movements: Capable of detecting movements with centimeter-level accuracy.
        • Water Bodies: Accurate measurement and monitoring of water resources and water stress.
        • Vegetation and Snow Cover: Comprehensive analysis of greenery and snow cover.
        • Agricultural Changes: Monitoring agricultural patterns and yield, crucial for understanding and managing agricultural dynamics.
        • Desertification and Climate Change: Observing and analyzing desertification processes and climate-related issues.

Applications and Benefits

  • Tectonic Plate Movements
    • NISAR can precisely measure tectonic plate movements, aiding in the study of geological processes and potentially contributing to earthquake prediction and monitoring.
  • Water Resource Management
    • By providing accurate data on water bodies and water stress, NISAR supports better water management practices, crucial for addressing water scarcity and improving agricultural productivity.
  • Climate and Environmental Studies
    • NISAR’s ability to monitor vegetation, snow cover, and desertification offers valuable insights into climate change impacts, enabling more effective environmental conservation strategies.
  • Agricultural Monitoring
    • The satellite’s high-resolution data on agricultural changes can help optimize crop management, enhance food security, and support sustainable agricultural practices.

Challenges and Delays

  • Initially scheduled for a July launch, the NISAR satellite’s deployment has been delayed to October-November due to technical issues on the U.S. side of the collaboration.
  • These corrections are being addressed to ensure the satellite’s optimal performance.
  • While NISAR’s radars can penetrate the ground to some extent, their depth is limited.
  • This feature is useful for monitoring water and moisture levels but not for locating deeply buried archaeological sites.

ISRO’s Future Missions

  • Chandrayaan-4: A Sample Return Mission
    • Chandrayaan-4 is in the conceptual stage, aimed at returning lunar samples to Earth. This mission is part of ISRO’s long-term plan to land humans on the Moon by 2040, necessitating the development of new methods and technologies.
  • Space Docking Experiment (SPADEX)
    • Scheduled for launch by the end of the year, SPADEX will demonstrate autonomous docking between two satellites, a crucial step towards ISRO’s goal of building a space station.
  • Gaganyaan Mission
    • The Gaganyaan mission, India’s human spaceflight program, is progressing with various tests, including helicopter air drop tests and abort tests. The project aims to send Indian astronauts to space, with one astronaut expected to fly to the International Space Station (ISS) in 2024.
  • Sukhrayaan: A Mission to Venus
    • ISRO has completed designs and configurations for the Sukhrayaan project, a mission to explore Venus. Approval from the government is pending.
  • Bharatiya Antariksha Station
    • ISRO is designing a space station named Bharatiya Antariksha Station, targeting the launch of the first module by 2028.
  • New Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV)
    • The NGLV, named Surya, is designed to enhance ISRO’s launch capabilities. The project report is ready, awaiting government approval.
  • Quantum Key Distribution Satellite
    • This satellite aims to enhance secure communication through quantum key distribution, with the project already approved.
  • Software-Defined Radio Satellite
    • A communication satellite with flexible, software-defined functionalities is in development, alongside a constellation of satellites for aircraft monitoring in Indian airspace.
  • IDRSS: Indian Data Relay Satellite System
    • The IDRSS is being developed to ensure continuous communication with the Gaganyaan crew module and other distant missions, enhancing data transmission capabilities between India and remote locations.
  • Technology Development Satellite (TDS-01)
    • This satellite will demonstrate full electric propulsion for communication purposes and is slated for launch this year.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nisar-satellite-will-be-able-to-monitor-tectonic-movements-accurately-says-isro-chief/article68175702.ece




HEPATITIS A OUTBREAK

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Kerala’s Malappuram district is experiencing a significant Hepatitis A outbreak, with approximately 8,000 reported cases and 12 deaths.

EXPLANATION:

  • Hepatitis A, a highly contagious viral infection, typically spreads through contaminated food and water.
  • This outbreak is unusual as it predominantly affects older adults, unlike the usual demographic of children under 15.
  • The outbreak may be linked to the use of contaminated food and water resources in the community.

Hepatitis A

  • Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver that is caused by a variety of infectious viruses and noninfectious agents leading to a range of health problems, some of which can be fatal.
  • There are five main strains of the hepatitis virus, referred to as types A, B, C, D and E.
  • While they all cause liver disease, they differ in important ways including modes of transmission, severity of the illness, geographical distribution and prevention methods.
  • In particular, types B and C lead to chronic disease in hundreds of millions of people and together are the most common cause of liver cirrhosis, liver cancer and viral hepatitis-related deaths.
  • An estimated 354 million people worldwide live with hepatitis B or C, and for most, testing and treatment remain beyond reach.

Hepatitis A:

  • Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver.
  • It is transmitted primarily through the consumption of contaminated water or food that has been contaminated with the feces of an infected person.
  • Poor sanitation and hygiene practices, such as inadequate handwashing after using the toilet, can contribute to the spread of the virus.

Hepatitis B:

  • Hepatitis B can cause a chronic infection and puts people at high risk of death from cirrhosis and liver cancer.
  • It can spread through contact with infected body fluids like blood, saliva, vaginal fluids and semen. It can also be passed from a mother to her baby.
  • Hepatitis B can be prevented with a safe and effective vaccine. The vaccine is usually given soon after birth with boosters a few weeks later. It offers nearly 100% protection against the virus.

Hepatitis C:

  • Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver. It can cause both acute (short term) and chronic (long term) illness. It can be life-threatening.
  • Hepatitis C is spread through contact with infected blood. This can happen through sharing needles or syringes, or from unsafe medical procedures such as blood transfusions with unscreened blood products.
  • Symptoms can include fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, dark urine and yellowing of the skin or eyes (jaundice).
  • There is no vaccine for hepatitis C, but it can be treated with antiviral medications.
  • Early detection and treatment can prevent serious liver damage and improve long-term health.

Hepatitis D:

  • Hepatitis D is an inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis D virus (HDV), which requires HBV for its replication.
  • Hepatitis D infection cannot occur in the absence of hepatitis B virus.
  • HDV-HBV co-infection is considered the most severe form of chronic viral hepatitis due to more rapid progression towards hepatocellular carcinoma and liver-related death.
  • Vaccination against hepatitis B is the only method to prevent HDV infection.
  • The routes of HDV transmission, like HBV, occur through broken skin (via injection, tattooing etc.) or through contact with infected blood or blood products. Transmission from mother to child is possible but rare.
  • Vaccination against HBV prevents HDV coinfection and hence expansion of childhood HBV immunization programmes has resulted in a decline in hepatitis D incidence worldwide.

Hepatitis E:

  • Hepatitis E is inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis E virus (HEV). The virus has at least 4 different types: genotypes 1, 2, 3 and 4. Genotypes 1 and 2 have been found only in humans.
  • Hepatitis E infection is found worldwide and is common in low- and middle-income countries with limited access to essential water, sanitation, hygiene and health services.
  • In these areas, the disease occurs both as outbreaks and as sporadic cases.
  • The outbreaks usually follow periods of faecal contamination of drinking water supplies and may affect several hundred to several thousand persons.
  • Some of these outbreaks have occurred in areas of conflict and humanitarian emergencies such as war zones and camps for refugees or internally displaced populations, where sanitation and safe water supply pose special challenges.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/hepatitis-a-outbreak-kerala-symptoms-vaccine-9331310/




SOCIAL MEDIA’S IMPACT ON INDIAN POLITICS

THE CONTEXT: The 2024 election in India marks a significant shift as social media emerges as a pivotal player in shaping political narratives. This election is characterized by the active engagement of educated youth, who are increasingly turning to social media influencers for information and viewpoints. Traditional media’s abdication of its role has created a vacuum that social media has filled, leading to a diverse and contested political landscape.

ISSUES:

  • Shift in Media Influence: Social media has created avenues for alternate viewpoints outside of state control, challenging the traditional media’s dominance and creating cognitive dissonance with the government narrative.
  • Role of Social Media Influencers: Influencers with large followings, such as Dhruv Rathee, play a significant role in shaping political opinions and narratives, often challenging the dominant political discourse.
  • Youth Engagement and Frustration: Social media has been rapidly adopted by the educated youth, who were once core supporters of Prime Minister Modi but are now increasingly frustrated due to unmet aspirations and lack of jobs.
  • Political Polarization and Centralization: Social media enables more excellent centralization within political parties, as leaders can directly shape narratives, bypassing traditional party workers and intermediaries. This centralization is coupled with more profound polarization driven by social media algorithms.
  • Decline of Traditional Media: The shift from traditional media to more provocative and biased content for survival has led to its decline as people turn to social media for more credible information.
  • Democratic Reclaiming and Long-term Implications: The emergence of social media as a critical player in elections indicates a reclaiming of democratic spaces. However, the long-term implications for party structures, political narratives, and the health of Indian democracy remain uncertain.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strengthening Fact-Checking Mechanisms: Implement robust fact-checking mechanisms across all social media platforms. This could involve partnerships with independent fact-checking organizations and using AI to detect and flag false information. Platforms should also promote verified information and provide users with tools to report suspicious content.
  • Enhancing Transparency in Political Advertising: Enforce stricter regulations requiring full disclosure of paid political content and funding sources for such advertisements. Social media platforms should maintain public databases of all political ads, including information about the sponsors and the amount spent.
  • Promoting Digital Literacy and Critical Thinking: Launch nationwide digital literacy campaigns to educate the public on identifying misinformation and understanding the algorithms that drive social media content. Schools and community programs should include critical thinking and media literacy modules to help individuals discern credible information.
  • Regulating Algorithmic Bias and Content Moderation: Develop and enforce regulations that require social media companies to audit and adjust their algorithms to reduce bias and prevent the amplification of harmful content. Platforms should also be transparent about their content moderation policies and practices.
  • Encouraging Diverse and Independent Media: Support the growth of independent and diverse media outlets that adhere to high journalistic standards. This could involve providing grants, tax incentives, and other forms of support to independent media organizations. Additionally, promoting public service broadcasting can ensure that credible and balanced information reaches a broad audience.

THE CONCLUSION:

The rise of social media in Indian politics has opened new avenues for democratic engagement and diverse opinions. However, it also raises questions about the long-term implications for party structures and the public sphere. As social media continues to shape political narratives, the health of Indian democracy and the nature of reasoned discussion remain critical areas for further interrogation.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 How do pressure groups influence the Indian political process? Do you agree with this view that informal pressure groups have emerged as more powerful than formal pressure groups in recent years? 2018

Q.2 In the Indian governance system, the role of non-state actors has been only marginal.” Critically examine this statement. 2016

Q.3 Young people with ethical conduct are not willing to come forward to join active politics. Suggest steps to motivate them to come forward. 2017

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Analyse the role of social media influencers in shaping political narratives in India, with a particular focus on the 2024 general elections. Discuss the implications of this trend on the traditional roles of political parties and the media in democratic discourse.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/social-medias-impact-on-indian-politics/article68178417.ece




CRIME AND TIME: ON ELECTION-TIME INCARCERATION

THE CONTEXT: Parity in judicial decisions is crucial to ensure the equal application of rules. The recent denial of interim bail to former Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren, despite a similar grant to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal, raises questions about consistency in judicial rulings.

ISSUES:

  • Inconsistency in Judicial Decisions: When similar cases are treated differently, there is a potential for perceived inequality in judicial decisions. This is particularly relevant to granting bail to political leaders during election periods.
  • Principle of Parity: The principle of parity suggests that cases should be treated alike. Based on this principle, it is argued that Hemant Soren should be entitled to interim bail to campaign for the general election, like the bail granted to Arvind Kejriwal.
  • Electoral Democracy and Campaigning: The importance of allowing key political leaders to campaign during elections is emphasized. The Supreme Court’s decision to grant bail to Kejriwal was based on the peculiarities of his case and the surrounding circumstances, underscoring the significance of electoral democracy.
  • Legal Requirements for Bail: Point to be noted that any bail order must be given only after hearing the prosecution’s objections. This legal requirement was a factor in the delay of Soren’s bail hearing, as the Court needed to hear from the Enforcement Directorate.
  • Differences in Cases and Charges: It is acknowledged that neither of the two cases are exactly comparable. While Kejriwal faces bribery charges related to an excise policy, Soren is accused of money laundering. The differences, like the charges and the evidence against them (approvers’ statements vs. documentary evidence), are significant in determining the merits of their respective cases.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Standardized Bail Criteria: Implement standardized bail criteria that apply uniformly to all individuals, regardless of their political status. The principle of non-discrimination in judicial decision-making emphasizes that equal treatment does not mean identical treatment but rather fair consideration of differences. The Supreme Court’s decision to grant bail to Arvind Kejriwal was based on the “peculiarities of the person in question and the surrounding circumstances,” which can lead to perceived inconsistencies.
  • Timely Judicial Decisions: Ensure that courts deliver timely judgments to prevent delays that can affect the fairness of the judicial process. The delay in the Jharkhand High Court’s decision on Hemant Soren’s petition, which took over two months, highlights the need for timely judicial action to avoid prejudicing the accused’s rights. Delays in judicial decisions can lead to unequal application of the law, as seen in the historical context of the criminal justice system, where the wealthy could manipulate delays to their advantage.
  • Transparent Judicial Review: Enhance transparency in judicial review processes to ensure that decisions are based on clear, objective criteria. Judicial bias and the appearance of bias can undermine public confidence in the legal system. The principle that “justice must be seen to be done” is crucial for maintaining trust in judicial decisions. The Supreme Court’s power to interpret laws involves making choices among different possibilities, which should be transparent to avoid perceptions of bias.
  • Equal Application of Legal Standards: Apply legal standards equally to all cases, ensuring that political considerations do not influence judicial decisions. Equality in judicial decision-making requires that different treatment must be objective and reasonable, not influenced by political status. Historically, the unequal application of criminal laws has shown that those with influence often receive more favorable treatment, which must be addressed to ensure fairness.
  • Independent Judicial Oversight: Establish independent oversight bodies to review and ensure the fairness of judicial decisions, particularly in politically sensitive cases. The need for judicial independence and impartiality is critical, as seen in cases where judges recuse themselves to avoid any appearance of bias. Independent oversight can help ensure decisions based on legal merits rather than political considerations, promoting a fairer judicial process.

THE CONCLUSION:

The contrasting judicial outcomes for Hemant Soren and Arvind Kejriwal highlight the complexities and potential inconsistencies in applying bail laws. As the courts navigate these legal challenges, the impact on electoral fairness and the broader democratic process remains a critical concern. Ensuring a level playing field during elections is essential to uphold the democratic spirit.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q. Constitutionally guaranteed judicial independence is a prerequisite of democracy. Comment. 2023

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q. Discuss the principle of parity in judicial decisions concerning the cases of Hemant Soren and Arvind Kejriwal. Critically analyze the judiciary’s role in maintaining fairness and equality in such scenarios.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/crime-and-time-on-election-time-incarceration/article68179125.ece




WSDP Bulletin (16/05/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. India records highest number of Internet shutdowns globally in 2023 READ MORE

2. The Great Barrier Reef is seeing unprecedented coral bleaching READ MORE

3. Critically endangered bird at a greater risk of being taken for captivity than harmed through loss of habitat READ MORE

4. Ramcharitmanas among 3 Indian literary works included in UNESCO’s Memory of the World Regional Register: Their significance READ MORE

5. Kanwar lake, Bihar’s only Ramsar site, faces challenge of survival but not a poll issue READ MORE

6. Government starts giving citizenship under CAA, 300 get in first lot READ MORE

7. Ahead of U.K. FTA,  India agrees with Australia to share key import data READ MORE

8. Coal India, NMDC, OVL look to secure critical mineral assets abroad READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Use of lighting in Indian architecture READ MORE

2. How to care for an ageing population READ MORE

3. Around half the world could lose easily accessible groundwater by 2050 READ MORE

4. Why have Bikaner and Barmer in Rajasthan reported land sinking in the last month? READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. The case for election day as a holiday READ MORE

2. Judicial infrastructure needs a revamp READ MORE

3. Rule of law prevails: SC orders release of Prabir, Navlakha READ MORE

4. Crime in India: A Critical Review of Data Collection and Analysis READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. The challenge of extra-pulmonary TB READ MORE

2. Fostering innovation from schools to startups READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Reforming the UNSC remains a tough task READ MORE

2. Anchoring ties in Chabahar waters READ MORE

3. Chabahar Port: India’s counterweight to China’s BRI in Eurasia READ MORE

4. SCO is not an anti-Western club. India’s presence is a guarantee against it READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Not so easy to improve ease of doing business READ MORE

2. Declining poverty ratio: a continuing trend READ MORE

3. Services exports must go beyond IT READ MORE

4. Precision agriculture: Key to food security READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Climate crisis compass for water management READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. AI is revolutionising sustainable, tech-driven farming READ MORE

2. Decoding O-RAN: A blueprint for digital connectivity beyond 5G READ MORE

3. The rise of robots READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Countering Maoist Insurgency: Has Chhattisgarh turned the corner? READ MORE

2. Maritime Security in the Bay of Bengal: Obstacles and Opportunities READ MORE

3. Can IORA aid maritime security efforts in the Indian Ocean? READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Weather-related disasters continue to displace more than conflict and violence READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Shift the focus to duty-based approach READ MORE

2. Harnessing the power of resolution READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. “Do unto others as you would have them do unto you.”  is the golden rule of ethics and it is the highest principle of social ethics. Comment.

2. The Indian Constitution enshrined a balance between equitable representation of marginalised communities and the principles of meritocracy. Examine.

3. Ensuring transparency and accountability in the electoral process has been an ongoing endeavour, guided by judicial interventions aimed at curbing malpractices and fostering electoral integrity. Critically comment.

4. The evolution of drone technology has opened up boundless possibilities in the realm of crop assessment and monitoring. Comment.

5. How far do you agree with this view that to represent the local issues in Parliament, independent candidates play an effective role than partly relative candidates? Examine your view.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • In a vibrant democracy such as India, the right to vote is not just a privilege but also a fundamental duty enshrined in the Constitution.
  • While the Constitution underscores the importance of voting rights, it is imperative to strike a balance that respects both civic obligations and business autonomy.
  • Public awareness of proper waste management practices is also lacking, contributing to littering and improper disposal habits, which divert the MCD’s attention towards clearing open points rather than processing wet waste.
  • Shortage of courtrooms, lack of adequate health/sanitation facilities and other citizen-centric amenities must be addressed.
  • The absence of adequate representation from Asia and Africa betrays the UN Charter. To regain its effectiveness, the UN body must reflect the world as it is.
  • While reiterating the protection of individual freedom against arbitrary state action, the SC has frequently emphasised that bail should be the norm and jail an exception.
  • A degree of social consensus on indisputable national goals will help India move forward in a comprehensive way.
  • The lesson that India can learn from Southeast Asia is to move forward with its own type of consensus which considers it wise to spend less time fighting internal political battles and focuses single-mindedly on improving overall economic functioning and attracting more investment.
  • By harnessing data-driven insights, AI empowers farmers to optimise resource allocation, mitigate environmental degradation and enhance crop yields.
  • The Chabahar Port deal between India and Iran can help the former gain connectivity to Eurasia and counter China’s growing regional influence.
  • Maritime security in the Indian Ocean needs to be conceptualised. Thus, a rethink about injecting momentum into collective regional cooperation via IORA is required.
  • India’s critical water infrastructure must be built to withstand, respond to, and recover rapidly from climate disruptions.
  • The SCO is critical for India to advance its priorities for peace and prosperity in its northern periphery and broader Eurasia.
  • O-RAN’s ability to decouple hardware and software components of traditional systems fosters flexibility and interoperability, potentially countering China’s 5G dominance.
  • Despite the recent series of successful operations against the Maoists, the state and its security forces have to entrench themselves in the state while still opening a line for peace dialogue with the rebels.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • A leader is one who knows the way, goes the way and shows the way.

50-WORD TALK

  • As Elon Musk comes calling, India’s notification of 100% FDI in space sector is timely. It isn’t automatic. FDI above 49% or 74% will need government approval. Unfortunately, we’ve seen the ‘system’, armed with discretions, defeat many reforms. We can only hope this won’t be the fate of space FDI.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



Day-635 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli scheme, consider the following statements:
    1. The proposed scheme aims to add 30 GW of solar capacity through rooftop solar installation.
    2. Interest-free loans will be provided to households for installation upto 3kW.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Union Cabinet has approved the PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana with a total outlay of Rs.75,021 crore for installing rooftop solar and providing free electricity up to 300 units every month for One Crore households.
    The proposed scheme will result in addition of 30 GW of solar capacity through rooftop solar in the residential sector.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Households will be able to access collateral-free low-interest loan products of around 7% at present for installation of residential RTS systems up to 3 kW. No interest-free loans will be provided.
    The scheme provides a Central Finance Assistance of 60% of system cost for 2 kW systems and 40% of additional system cost for systems between 2 to 3 kW capacity. The CFA will be capped at 3 kW. At current benchmark prices, this will mean Rs 30,000 subsidy for 1 kW system, Rs 60,000 for 2 kW systems and Rs 78,000 for 3 kW systems or higher.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Union Cabinet has approved the PM-Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana with a total outlay of Rs.75,021 crore for installing rooftop solar and providing free electricity up to 300 units every month for One Crore households.
    The proposed scheme will result in addition of 30 GW of solar capacity through rooftop solar in the residential sector.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Households will be able to access collateral-free low-interest loan products of around 7% at present for installation of residential RTS systems up to 3 kW. No interest-free loans will be provided.
    The scheme provides a Central Finance Assistance of 60% of system cost for 2 kW systems and 40% of additional system cost for systems between 2 to 3 kW capacity. The CFA will be capped at 3 kW. At current benchmark prices, this will mean Rs 30,000 subsidy for 1 kW system, Rs 60,000 for 2 kW systems and Rs 78,000 for 3 kW systems or higher.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: An indirect tax is regressive in nature.
    Statement-II: The burden of this tax cannot be shifted to others.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Explanation:
    • Statement I is correct: Indirect taxes are regressive in nature as they are levied equally upon taxpayers. Everyone has to pay the same tax amount, regardless of the income. This is because they are based on the price of the product rather than the income of the person.
    • Statement II is incorrect: The burden of the indirect tax can be shifted on to others. For example, the burden of Goods and Services Tax (GST), a form of an indirect tax, is passed on to final consumers through the price of goods and services.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Explanation:
    • Statement I is correct: Indirect taxes are regressive in nature as they are levied equally upon taxpayers. Everyone has to pay the same tax amount, regardless of the income. This is because they are based on the price of the product rather than the income of the person.
    • Statement II is incorrect: The burden of the indirect tax can be shifted on to others. For example, the burden of Goods and Services Tax (GST), a form of an indirect tax, is passed on to final consumers through the price of goods and services.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements:
    1. While Small Finance Banks are established to promote financial inclusion in unbanked areas, Payment Banks are established to cater to urban areas.
    2. While Small Finance Banks cannot give loans, Payment Banks can give loans.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are financial institutions that provide financial services to a country’s underserved and unbanked areas.
    Financial inclusion has been the objective of establishing the Payments Bank as well. They are not restricted to cater to urban areas only. Like SFBs, Payments Banks are also required to have more than 25% of their branches in rural areas.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: SFBs can engage in all basic banking activities such as lending and accepting deposits. On the other hand, Payments Banks cannot give loans and can accept deposits only up to Rs 2 lakh.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Small Finance Banks (SFBs) are financial institutions that provide financial services to a country’s underserved and unbanked areas.
    Financial inclusion has been the objective of establishing the Payments Bank as well. They are not restricted to cater to urban areas only. Like SFBs, Payments Banks are also required to have more than 25% of their branches in rural areas.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: SFBs can engage in all basic banking activities such as lending and accepting deposits. On the other hand, Payments Banks cannot give loans and can accept deposits only up to Rs 2 lakh.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: A lower subsidy outgo can give a boost to GDP.
    Statement-II: GDP calculation excludes subsidies and includes taxes on products.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Explanation:
    Gross domestic Product measures the national income by adding up all expenditures in the economy.
    GDP = GVA + taxes earned by the government — subsidies given by the government
    GVA and GDP differ in respect to the treatment of taxes and subsidies.
    Overall, GDP tends  to  be higher  than  GVA as tax collections often remain bigger than subsidy payouts.
    India’s GDP rose to a six-quarter high of 8.4% in Q3 FY24, surpassing estimates, while GVA growth stood at 6.5% during the same period. The divergence has been attributed to reduced fertilizer subsidy disbursement.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Explanation:
    Gross domestic Product measures the national income by adding up all expenditures in the economy.
    GDP = GVA + taxes earned by the government — subsidies given by the government
    GVA and GDP differ in respect to the treatment of taxes and subsidies.
    Overall, GDP tends  to  be higher  than  GVA as tax collections often remain bigger than subsidy payouts.
    India’s GDP rose to a six-quarter high of 8.4% in Q3 FY24, surpassing estimates, while GVA growth stood at 6.5% during the same period. The divergence has been attributed to reduced fertilizer subsidy disbursement.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following:
    1. State Development Loans
    2. Gold
    3. Treasury Bills
    4. Dated government securities
    How many of the above-mentioned instruments can be used to maintain Statutory Liquidity Ratio?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities.
    These are not reserved with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), but with banks themselves. The SLR was prescribed by Section 24 (2A) of Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
    SLR can be maintained as:
    1. Cash
    2. Gold
    3. Dated securities of the Government of India issued from time to time under the market borrowing programme and the Market Stabilization Scheme
    4. Treasury Bills of the Government of India
    5. State Development Loans (SDLs) of the state governments issued from time to time under the market borrowing programme.
    6. Securities lodged with another institution for an advance or any other credit arrangement to the extent to which such securities have not been drawn against or availed of
    7. Securities offered as collateral to the RBI for availing liquidity assistance from Marginal Standing Facility, upto the permissible percentage of the total NDTL in India.
    Hence, all the options are correct.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities.
    These are not reserved with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), but with banks themselves. The SLR was prescribed by Section 24 (2A) of Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
    SLR can be maintained as:
    1. Cash
    2. Gold
    3. Dated securities of the Government of India issued from time to time under the market borrowing programme and the Market Stabilization Scheme
    4. Treasury Bills of the Government of India
    5. State Development Loans (SDLs) of the state governments issued from time to time under the market borrowing programme.
    6. Securities lodged with another institution for an advance or any other credit arrangement to the extent to which such securities have not been drawn against or availed of
    7. Securities offered as collateral to the RBI for availing liquidity assistance from Marginal Standing Facility, upto the permissible percentage of the total NDTL in India.
    Hence, all the options are correct.

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SUPREME COURT INVALIDATES PRABIR PURKAYASTHA’S ARREST UNDER UAPA

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: In a landmark decision, the Supreme Court of India has declared the arrest and remand of Prabir Purkayastha, the founder of the news portal NewsClick, as invalid under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA).

EXPLANATION:

  • The ruling mandates his immediate release from custody.
  • The judgment, delivered by a bench of Justices B.R. Gavai and Sandeep Mehta, underscores significant procedural lapses and the violation of legal rights in the process of his arrest.

Background of the Case

  • Prabir Purkayastha, a 74-year-old journalist, had been detained for over six months on allegations of using Chinese funding to promote “anti-national propaganda” through NewsClick.
  • The Delhi Police accused him and others, including activist Gautam Navlakha and U.S.-based businessman Neville Roy Singham, of activities undermining national security.

Procedural Violations Leading to Invalid Arrest

  • The Supreme Court found that neither Purkayastha nor his designated counsel were provided the grounds of his arrest in writing.
  • This is a critical requirement under the law, as it enables the accused to seek and argue for bail.
  • The court noted that during the remand hearing on October 4, 2023, Purkayastha was severely disadvantaged due to the absence of written reasons for his arrest.
  • A Magistrate court had remanded Purkayastha into police custody in the early hours of October 4, 2023.
  • This decision was made before Purkayastha or his lawyer received a written copy of the arrest reasons.
  • Consequently, Purkayastha was unable to mount an effective defense during the remand hearing.
  • The police only communicated the details of the arrest and remand to Purkayastha’s lawyer via WhatsApp after the order for his custody was passed.

Supreme Court’s Judgment

  • The court unequivocally stated that the failure to provide written grounds of arrest to Purkayastha and his counsel before the remand order vitiated his arrest and subsequent remand.
  • Justice Mehta, delivering the judgment, emphasized that the absence of written communication of the arrest grounds made the process legally invalid.
  • The Supreme Court applied the ratio of its judgment in the Pankaj Bansal case, which mandates that the police provide a written copy of the grounds of arrest.
  • Although the Additional Solicitor General S.V. Raju argued that this precedent was specific to money laundering cases under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), the court upheld that similar principles apply under the UAPA.
  • The judgment quashed Purkayastha’s arrest and remand and set aside the Delhi High Court’s decision upholding his incarceration.
  • The Supreme Court directed that Purkayastha be released from custody upon furnishing bail bonds to the trial court, given that a chargesheet had already been filed in the case.

Public and Legal Implications

  • The case has drawn significant attention, with multiple journalists’ collectives writing to the Chief Justice of India to highlight the perceived malice behind the raids and arrests.
  • They argued that journalism should not be prosecuted as terrorism, and the invocation of the UAPA was particularly alarming.
  • This ruling by the Supreme Court reaffirms the importance of due process and the legal rights of individuals, particularly in cases involving severe charges under stringent laws like the UAPA.
  • The judgment reinforces that procedural safeguards cannot be bypassed, even in the pursuit of national security.

UNLAWFUL ACTIVITIES (PREVENTION) ACT, 1967:

  • It was passed in 1967 and aimed at effective prevention of unlawful activities associations in India.
  • Unlawful activity refers to any action taken by an individual or association intended to disrupt the territorial integrity and sovereignty of India.

Key provisions of the UAPA, 1967:

  • It empowers the central government to declare an association as unlawful if it believes that the association is involved in unlawful activities that threaten the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • It leaves very little room for judicial reasoning, and makes the grant of bail virtually impossible under UAPA. It has death penalty and life imprisonment as highest punishments.
  • Under UAPA, both Indian and foreign nationals can be charged. It will be applicable to the offenders in the same manner, even if crime is committed on a foreign land, outside India.
  • Under the UAPA, the investigating agency can file a charge sheet in maximum 180 days after the arrests and the duration can be extended further after intimating the court.
  • The 2004 amendment added “terrorist act” to the list of offences to ban organizations for terrorist activities. Till 2004, “unlawful” activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory.

Features of 2019 Amendment:

  • Under the Act, the central government may designate an organisation as a terrorist organisation if it:
    • commits or participates in acts of terrorism,
    • prepares for terrorism,
    • promotes terrorism, or
    • is otherwise involved in terrorism.
    • It additionally empowers the government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds.
  • Under the Act, investigation of cases may be conducted by officers of the rank of Deputy Superintendent or Assistant Commissioner of Police or above. It additionally empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases.
  • The Act defines terrorist acts to include acts committed within the scope of any of the treaties listed in a schedule to the Act.
  • The Schedule lists nine treaties, including the Convention for the Suppression of Terrorist Bombings (1997), and the Convention against Taking of Hostages (1979). The Bill adds another treaty to the list.  This is the International Convention for Suppression of Acts of Nuclear Terrorism (2005).

Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India:

  • In Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India Case 2023, the Supreme Court has held that the Directorate of Enforcement (ED) must furnish the reasons of arrest to the accused.
  • The judgement came on a plea by Pankaj Bansal and Basant Bansal, Directors of M3M real estate group.
  • They challenged an order of the Punjab and Haryana High Court which declined to set aside their arrest by the ED under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
  • The Supreme Court ruled on 3rd October 2023 that it is necessary a copy of the grounds of arrest to the arrested person as a matter of course and without exception.
  • The arrest was held illegal by the bench, as arrest does not fulfil the mandate of Article 22 (1) of Constitution and Section 19 (1) of the PMLA.
  • It underlined that the Enforcement Directorate (ED) is not expected to be vindictive in its conduct.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/newsclick-founder-prabir-purkayasthas-arrest-invalid-orders-sc-directs-his-release-on-furnishing-of-bail-bonds/article68177596.ece




COP16 TO THE CONVENTION ON BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY (CBD)

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Technical experts from across the world are gathered at the United Nations headquarters in Kenya in preparation for the 16th Conference of Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

EXPLANATION:

  • These discussions are critical for shaping the agenda and outcomes of COP16, which will be held in Cali, Colombia, from October 21 to November 1, 2024.
  • Central to these meetings is the assessment of progress towards the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, now referred to as the Biodiversity Plan, which aims to achieve its ambitious goals by 2030.

Subsidiary Bodies: Roles and Focus Areas

  • Subsidiary Body on Scientific, Technical and Technological Advice (SBSTTA)
    • SBSTTA 26, one of the key subsidiary bodies, is addressing several scientific and technical issues essential for the implementation of the Biodiversity Plan.
    • The primary focus areas include:
      • Development of Indicators: Establishing metrics to monitor progress towards the 23 targets of the Biodiversity Plan.
      • Scientific and Technical Needs: Identifying the requirements to support effective implementation of the framework.
      • Synthetic Biology: Evaluating the implications of synthetic biology on biodiversity.
      • Risk Assessment and Management: Formulating strategies to assess and manage risks associated with living modified organisms.
      • Detection and Identification: Enhancing methods for identifying living modified organisms.
      • Marine and Coastal Biodiversity: Addressing the specific needs and challenges in marine and coastal ecosystems.
      • Biodiversity and Health: Exploring the interconnections between biodiversity and human health.
    • Subsidiary Body on Implementation (SBI)
      • SBI 4 is concentrating on the practical aspects of implementing the Biodiversity Plan. Its key areas of focus include:
        • Review of Implementation: Evaluating current progress and updating national biodiversity strategies and action plans.
        • Resource Mobilization and Financial Mechanism: Ensuring adequate financial resources are available for implementation.
        • Capacity Building and Development: Strengthening the capabilities of nations to implement biodiversity strategies.
        • Technical and Scientific Cooperation: Fostering collaboration among countries and with international organizations.
        • Knowledge Management: Improving the sharing and management of information related to biodiversity.
        • Cooperation with Other Conventions: Enhancing synergies with other international conventions and organizations.

Key Discussions and Outcomes

  • Monitoring Framework and Implementation Support
    • On the first day of the meetings, the focus was on developing a robust monitoring framework and identifying the scientific and technical needs necessary for implementing the Biodiversity Plan.
    • This framework, created by the Ad Hoc Technical Expert Group, is crucial for tracking progress and ensuring that the goals of the Biodiversity Plan are met.
    • The endorsement of this framework by experts is essential for its discussion and potential adoption at COP16.
  • Synthetic Biology and Biodiversity
    • Another critical issue discussed was the impact of synthetic biology on biodiversity.
    • Experts have compiled available information on this topic, which will be used to provide informed recommendations at COP16.
    • The discussions aim to understand the potential risks and benefits of synthetic biology, ensuring that its development does not adversely affect biodiversity.
  • Significance of the Meetings
    • Acting executive secretary of CBD emphasized the importance of these meetings in transitioning from agreement to action.
    • The detailed deliberations and expert inputs are vital for fine-tuning the Biodiversity Plan, ensuring that it is actionable and effective.
    • The meetings underscore the crucial role of science in guiding the future of the convention and achieving its targets.

Challenges and the Path Forward

  • The meetings in Nairobi highlight the complex challenges faced by the global community in preserving biodiversity.
  • Achieving the 2030 targets requires concerted efforts and cooperation among nations, adequate financial resources, and robust scientific and technical support.
  • The discussions aim to address these challenges by refining strategies, enhancing cooperation, and ensuring effective implementation mechanisms are in place.

Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):

  • The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international treaty established in 1992 during the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
  • The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) has three main objectives:
    • the conservation of biological diversity;
    • the sustainable use of the components of biological diversity;
    • the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
  • The Convention acknowledges the special needs of LDCs, among those of other developing countries:
    • Preamble: Parties acknowledge that “special provision is required to meet the needs of developing countries, including the provision of new and additional financial resources and appropriate access to relevant technologies” and, in this regard, note “the special conditions of the least developed countries and small island States”.
    • Article 20.5: Parties commit to taking “full account of the specific needs and special situation of least developed countries in their actions with regard to funding and transfer of technology”.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/road-to-cop16-two-subsidiary-bodies-of-convention-on-biological-diversity-begin-talks-in-nairobi-96145




ADVOCATES NOT LIABLE UNDER CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT FOR DEFICIENCY OF SERVICES

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: On May 14, 2024, the Supreme Court of India issued a landmark judgment, ruling that advocates cannot be held liable under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (as re-enacted in 2019), for deficiency of services.

EXPLANATION:

  • This decision differentiates professionals from those engaged in business and trade, highlighting the unique nature of professional services.

Background and Context

  • Previous Rulings
    • The Supreme Court’s ruling overruled a 2007 judgment by the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) that categorized the services rendered by lawyers under Section 2(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
    • The Court clarified that the primary purpose and objective of the Consumer Protection Act were to protect consumers from unfair and unethical trade practices, not to include professions or professionals within its ambit.

Key Highlights of the Judgment

  • The Court highlighted that professions require advanced education and training in specific branches of learning or science.
  • The nature of professional work involves specialization and substantial mental labour rather than manual work.
  • Factors beyond the control of professionals often influence their success, distinguishing them from businesses and trade activities.
  • The Court described the legal profession as sui generis, possessing unique attributes that set it apart from other professions.
  • Advocates are perceived as agents of their clients, owing fiduciary duties and respecting client autonomy.
  • The relationship between a client and an advocate is distinct, as advocates cannot make concessions or undertakings without specific client instructions, reflecting the significant control clients have over advocates.
  • The judgment stated that the services provided by advocates form a contract of personal service, thus excluded from the definition of service under Section 2(42) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
  • This exclusion is based on the unique nature and role of advocates within the judicial system.

Implications for the Legal Profession

  • The ruling clearly establishes that complaints against advocates for deficiency of services are not maintainable before consumer forums.
  • This distinction protects advocates from being equated with service providers in business and trade, acknowledging the specialized and controlled environment in which legal services are rendered.

Comparison with Medical Profession

  • The Court’s judgment calls for a reconsideration of the precedent set in the Indian Medical Association v. VP Shantha (1995), where doctors and medical professionals were held liable under the Consumer Protection Act.
  • The bench requested the Chief Justice of India to refer this judgment to a larger bench, indicating a potential re-evaluation of the inclusion of medical services under the Act.

Independence of the Legal Profession

  • The judgment underscores the importance of the independence and immunity of advocates.
  • Senior advocates argued that lawyers, as officers of the court, require a certain level of independence to perform their duties fearlessly.
  • This independence is crucial for maintaining an effective and unbiased judicial system.

Consumer Protection Act, 2019:

  • The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 was enacted in India to safeguard the interests of consumers and establish mechanisms for timely and effective resolution of consumer disputes. Here are some key provisions of the act:
  • Three-Tier Quasi-Judicial Mechanism:
    • The act establishes a three-tier quasi-judicial mechanism for redressal of consumer disputes:
      • District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: At the district level.
        • This is the lowest body that consumers can approach. The State Government, under section 28(1) establishes at least one district consumer dispute redressal commission in every district of the state.
        • If the government deems fit, it can even establish more than one district commission in a district.
        • District Commission shall consist of— (a) a President; and (b) not less than two and not more than such number of members as may be prescribed, in consultation with the Central Government.
      • State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: At the state level.
        • A State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is an Indian autonomous, statutory and constitutional institution formed as a quasi judicial body at the state and union territory level under Section 2(44) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 to protect the rights of consumers.
        • It is a system of alternate dispute resolution between conflicting parties during the process of trade.
        • The president of the States Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission is appointed by the state government in consultation with the Chief Justice of state high court.
      • National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: At the national level.
        • The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
        • Its head office is in New Delhi.
        • The Commission is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India or a sitting or a retired Chief Justice of an Hon’ble High Court, in terms of Rule 3(12)(a) of the Tribunal(Conditions of Service) Rules, 2021.
      • Pecuniary Jurisdiction:
        • The act specifies the pecuniary jurisdiction of each tier of the consumer commission, ensuring that disputes are handled appropriately based on their financial value.
      • Improved Protection for Consumers:
        • The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaces the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
        • It aims to strengthen consumer protection, especially in the context of globalization, online platforms, and e-commerce markets.
        • The act provides improved protection for consumers involved in online transactions.
      • Establishment of Authorities:
        • Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
          • CCPA is a statutory body constituted under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
          • Responsible for administration and settlement of consumer disputes at the central level.
          • Empowered to recall goods, issue penalties against false/misleading advertisements, and more.
        • District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
          • Each tier handles consumer complaints and disputes within its jurisdiction.
          • Provides a structured process for resolution, including mediation, hearings, and appeals.

SOURCE: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/advocates-liable-under-consumer-protection-act-for-deficieency-of-services-supreme-court-257837?code=g18qfHyqQ4qFpBbfG1VQcZTU4zl9RY




SUNDARBANS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Sundarbans, the world’s largest mangrove ecosystem, situated in the delta region of the Ganges-Brahmaputra River system, is facing severe threats from air pollution.

EXPLANATION:

  • This unique habitat, which supports a rich diversity of flora and fauna including endangered species, is experiencing significant environmental stress due to pollutants.
  • A recent study by researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur and Bose Institute, Kolkata, highlights the alarming impact of air pollution on the Sundarbans’ delicate ecosystem.

Highlights of the Study:

  • The study identifies major sources of pollution impacting the Sundarbans.
  • Pollutants, especially black carbon or soot particles are transported from the Kolkata metropolis and the broader Indo-Gangetic Plain (IGP) region.
  • These pollutants are deteriorating air quality in the Sundarbans despite its sparse population.
  • The unique geographical position of the Sundarbans, coupled with diverse weather patterns and socioeconomic factors, exacerbates the pollution problem.
  • Air quality in the Sundarbans is influenced by a complex interplay of factors:
    • Geographical Position: The delta region’s location makes it susceptible to pollutant transport from urban and industrial areas.
    • Weather Patterns: Seasonal changes, particularly during winter, worsen air quality due to increased pollutant concentration.
    • Socioeconomic Factors: Local emissions from nearby villages contribute to the pollution load, further complicating air quality management.

Impact on Mangrove Ecosystem

  • The study published in Elsevier reveals that the oxidative stress due to PM 2.5 pollutants in the Sundarbans is as severe as in urban areas.
  • Mangroves, which usually form antioxidants to reduce reactive oxygen species (ROS) and toxic stresses, are now facing prolonged deposition of heavy metals.
  • This prolonged exposure affects their resistibility, leading to cellular damage.
  • The research underscores the significant effect of transported and regionally emitted air pollutants on the Sundarbans’ ecology and biogeochemistry.
  • The elevated levels of ROS can harm not only the mangroves but also aquatic animals by creating toxic conditions.
  • The mangroves’ ability to mitigate oxidative stress is compromised, threatening the overall health of the ecosystem.

Climate Change Mitigation Role

  • The Sundarbans mangrove ecosystem plays a crucial role in mitigating climate change by acting as a net absorber of greenhouse gases.
  • Its capacity to sequester atmospheric carbon and other warming gases is even greater than that of the Amazon rainforest.
  • This makes the Sundarbans a vital component in global climate regulation efforts.
  • Sundarbans’ role in maintaining the delicate equilibrium between the mangroves and the Bay of Bengal is very important.
  • This balance is essential for the ecosystem’s resilience, especially in providing natural protection against tsunami-like events and safeguarding nearby urban areas, including the Kolkata metropolis.
  • Stress induced by air pollution disrupts this equilibrium, reducing the ecosystem’s ability to perform these protective functions.

Policy and Management Implications

  • The findings of the study call for urgent attention to address the air pollution issues affecting the Sundarbans.
  • Effective pollution control policies need to be formulated and implemented to protect this critical ecosystem.
  • The complexity of the pollution sources and the region’s unique challenges make it imperative to adopt a comprehensive and integrated approach to air quality management.
  • With 4.5 million inhabitants relying on the Sundarbans for their livelihood, preserving the air quality and overall health of the mangrove ecosystem is essential.
  • Protecting the Sundarbans not only safeguards biodiversity but also ensures the well-being of the local human population.

Sundarbans:

  • Sundarbans is a mangrove area in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Spread across parts of India and Bangladesh, this forest is the largest mangrove forest in the world.
  • It spans the area from the Baleswar River in Bangladesh’s division of Khulna to the Hooghly River in India’s state of West Bengal.
  • It comprises closed and open mangrove forests, land used for agricultural purpose, mudflats and barren land, and is intersected by multiple tidal streams and channels.
  • Sundarbans is home to the world’s largest area of mangrove forests.
  • Four protected areas in the Sundarbans are enlisted as UNESCO World Heritage Sites, viz. Sundarbans West (Bangladesh), Sundarbans South (Bangladesh), Sundarbans East (Bangladesh) and Sundarbans National Park (India).

                          Sundarbans

SOURCE: https://www.indiatoday.in/environment/story/sundarbans-under-threat-study-reveals-concerning-trends-in-the-mangroves-2536669-2024-05-08




GPT-4o: OPENAI’S LATEST AI MODEL

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: OpenAI has unveiled its newest large language model (LLM), GPT-4o, on May 13, 2024.

EXPLANATION:

  • This advanced AI model promises to enhance ChatGPT, making it more intelligent, faster, and freely available to users.

What is GPT-4o?

  • GPT-4o, with the “o” standing for “Omni,” represents a significant advancement in AI, designed to improve human-computer interactions.
  • Unlike previous models, GPT-4o is a multimodal AI, capable of processing and responding to text, audio, and image inputs.
  • This leap in functionality enables more intuitive and versatile interactions with users.
  • Key Features of GPT-4o:
    • Multimodal Capabilities: GPT-4o can handle text, audio, and image inputs and provide responses in the same formats.
    • Enhanced Usability: According to OpenAI CTO Mira Murati, GPT-4o is a major step forward in ease of use, transforming ChatGPT into a versatile digital personal assistant.
    • Interactive Abilities: The model can engage in real-time translations, read facial expressions, and conduct spoken conversations, making it highly interactive.

Technological Advancements

  • GPT-4o is built on the concept of end-to-end training across various modalities.
  • Unlike earlier models that required multiple separate models for different tasks, GPT-4o integrates these capabilities into a single, cohesive model.
  • Example:
    • Voice Mode: Previously, voice interaction required separate models for transcription, intelligence, and text-to-speech.
    • GPT-4o consolidates these functions into one integrated process, enhancing speed and efficiency.
  • GPT-4o can process and understand complex inputs more holistically, considering tone, background noises, and emotional context in audio inputs. This ability was a significant challenge for earlier models.
  • One of the standout features of GPT-4o is its speed.
  • It can respond to queries in approximately 232 to 320 milliseconds, a substantial improvement over previous models that had response times of several seconds.
  • GPT-4o offers extensive multilingual support, handling non-English text with improved accuracy and making it accessible to a global audience.
  • During live demos, GPT-4o showcased its capabilities by solving a linear equation in real-time from a handwritten note and gauging the emotions of a speaker on camera.
  • It can also identify objects in images, demonstrating its advanced vision understanding.

Implications of GPT-4o

  • GPT-4o’s release comes at a crucial time in the AI industry.
  • Competitors like Meta and Google are developing powerful LLMs, aiming to integrate them into various products.
  • GPT-4o’s advanced features provide a competitive edge, potentially benefiting OpenAI’s major partner, Microsoft, by enhancing its services.
  • The launch of GPT-4o precedes major events like Google I/O and the Apple Worldwide Developers Conference, where significant AI advancements are expected.
  • This strategic timing positions GPT-4o as a frontrunner in the evolving AI landscape.

Availability

  • GPT-4o will be rolled out in phases. Text and image capabilities are already being made available on ChatGPT, with free users gaining access.
  • Audio and video functionalities will be introduced gradually to developers and selected partners, ensuring each modality meets safety standards before a full release.

Limitations and Safety Concerns

  • Despite its advanced capabilities, GPT-4o is still in the early stages of exploring unified multimodal interaction.
  • Certain features, such as audio outputs, are initially available in a limited form with preset voices.
  • OpenAI has incorporated several safety measures in GPT-4o, including:
    • Filtered Training Data: Ensuring the data used to train the model is carefully selected to minimize biases and misinformation.
    • Refined Model Behavior: Post-training refinements to address any problematic behaviors identified during safety evaluations.
  • The model has undergone extensive safety evaluations and external reviews, focusing on risks like cybersecurity, misinformation, and bias.
  • Currently, GPT-4o scores a Medium-level risk in these areas, with ongoing efforts to mitigate emerging risks.

Open AI:

  • OpenAI is an artificial intelligence research and deployment company with a mission to ensure that artificial general intelligence benefits all of humanity.
  • Founded in 2015, OpenAI focuses on developing AI technologies like ChatGPT, a generative AI model that can produce text, images, and more based on human prompts.
  • Initially a non-profit, OpenAI has transitioned to a for-profit business, attracting investments from notable figures like Elon Musk and Microsoft.
  • The company offers various products and services, including an API platform for accessing their latest models and safety best practices.
  • OpenAI’s goal is to build safe and beneficial artificial general intelligence while considering the ethical, accuracy, safety, and legal implications of its AI products.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/gpt-4o-openai-new-ai-model-capabilities-9327407/




WSDP Bulletin (15/05/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Advocates Not Liable Under Consumer Protection Act For Deficiency Of Services : Supreme Court READ MORE

2. Explained: GPT-4o, OpenAI’s newest AI model that makes ChatGPT smarter and free for all READ MORE

3. Explained Climate: Heatwaves and climate change READ MORE

4. As deepfakes flourish amid Lok Sabha elections, a look at how AI detection tools work READ MORE

5. Climate change responsible for over 80% of temperature rise within Asia last month, the hottest April ever: WWA READ MORE

6. Road to COP16: Two subsidiary bodies of Convention on Biological Diversity begin talks in Nairobi READ MORE

7. How AI is helping communities restore Madagascar’s ancient baobab forests READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Use of lighting in Indian architecture READ MORE

2. How to care for an ageing population READ MORE

3. Rising sea surface temperatures in Bay of Bengal could impact Indian monsoon READ MORE

4. India’s Forest Cover Has Increased Consistently Over Last 15 Years, Environment Ministry Says at UN Forum READ MORE

5. Water water everywhere, not a drop to drink? Information and enabling access to clean water READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Candid notes on the NHRC’s status deferral READ MORE

2. Delhi High Court’s ‘virtual touch’ judgment ignores agency of teenagers READ MORE

3. SC judgments have strengthened democracy READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. The challenge of extra-pulmonary TB READ MORE

2. Fostering innovation from schools to startups READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Stabilising India-Nepal ties in changing times READ MORE

2. India-Iran deal: US sanctions no deterrent for Delhi READ MORE

3. Indian troop withdrawal troops marks regional paradigm shift READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Little respite: On food price gain- Food inflation continues to undermine wider price stability READ MORE

2. Declining poverty ratio: a continuing trend READ MORE

3. Services exports must go beyond IT READ MORE

4. Precision agriculture: Key to food security READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Sundarbans under threat. Study reveals concerning trends in the mangroves READ MORE

2. Battle to save India’s biodiversity READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Deepfakes in elections: They have shaken our faith in our own judgement READ MORE

2. The rise of robots READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Underwater challenge in Indian Ocean READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Weather-related disasters continue to displace more than conflict and violence READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Shift the focus to duty-based approach READ MORE

2. Vote on the basis of consciousness, not conditioning READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. “Do unto others as you would have them do unto you.”  is the golden rule of ethics and it is the highest principle of social ethics. Comment.

2. The Indian Constitution enshrined a balance between equitable representation of marginalised communities and the principles of meritocracy. Examine.

3. Ensuring transparency and accountability in the electoral process has been an ongoing endeavour, guided by judicial interventions aimed at curbing malpractices and fostering electoral integrity. Critically comment.

4. The evolution of drone technology has opened up boundless possibilities in the realm of crop assessment and monitoring. Comment.

5. How far do you agree with this view that to represent the local issues in Parliament, independent candidates play an effective role than partly relative candidates? Examine your view.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • Unless there is a change, both in approach and in leadership in Manipur and the way it has treated the conflict, the situation will continue to fester.
  • The twin challenges in tackling EPTB are lack of awareness, even among physicians, and lack of accurate diagnostic and treatment criteria.
  • India should also never forget that for the big brother-small brother syndrome to be overcome, the onus lies on the big brother — the style of diplomacy matters as much as the substance in relations between the two countries.
  • On the other hand, building a nation without laying a solid foundation in its individuals is like building sandcastles, which soon crumble away.
  • “Do unto others as you would have them do unto you.” Known as the golden rule of ethics, this is the highest principle of social ethics.
  • Each election represents a great possibility. Democracy is a tremendous tool of self-determination where people are the power and decide the destiny of the nation.
  • India must work on above strategy to realise the true potential of its services exports, which extend well beyond its established IT sector.
  • Early education is essential for shaping future innovators and entrepreneurs so that they can drive the nation towards a bright future.
  • Efficient resolution of electoral disputes is indispensable for upholding the sanctity of elections and fostering public trust in the democratic process.
  • Striking a balance between equitable representation of marginalised communities and the principles of meritocracy has been enshrined in the Indian Constitution.
  • The Indian Constitution enshrined a balance between equitable representation of marginalised communities and the principles of meritocracy.
  • Ensuring transparency and accountability in the electoral process has been an ongoing endeavour, guided by judicial interventions aimed at curbing malpractices and fostering electoral integrity.
  • As robotics technology continues to advance, it will further transform society and open new possibilities for innovation and human-machine collaboration.
  • India’s strategic redeployment of troops from the Maldives reflects evolving alliances and diplomatic shifts in the Indian Ocean region.
  • The evolution of drone technology has opened up boundless possibilities in the realm of crop assessment and monitoring.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • If you want to test a man’s character, give him power.

50-WORD TALK

  • As Elon Musk comes calling, India’s notification of 100% FDI in space sector is timely. It isn’t automatic. FDI above 49% or 74% will need government approval. Unfortunately, we’ve seen the ‘system’, armed with discretions, defeat many reforms. We can only hope this won’t be the fate of space FDI.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



ON CHABAHAR CONTRACT WITH IRAN: LOOKING WEST

THE CONTEXT: The 2003 visit to Delhi by then-president Syed Mohammad Khatami marked a pivotal moment in India-Iran relations, with the development of Chabahar Port as a key agreement. Despite geopolitical challenges and shifting alliances, Chabahar’s strategic importance remains significant. The recent 10-year contract between India’s IPGL and Iran’s Ports and Maritime Organization underscores Delhi’s commitment to this crucial project.

ISSUES:

  • Strategic Importance of Chabahar Port: The Chabahar port is crucial for India as it provides access to the Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, Central Asia, and Europe, bypassing Pakistan. This strategic location helps India counter China’s influence in the region, particularly with China’s control over Pakistan’s Gwadar Port.
  • US Sanctions and Diplomatic Challenges: US sanctions on Iran have significantly impacted the development of the Chabahar port. Despite a waiver granted during Donald Trump’s presidency, the current US administration has reiterated that sanctions remain in place, posing potential risks for entities engaging in business with Iran.
  • Economic and Commercial Considerations: The sanctions, which affect the types and volumes of products that can be traded through Iran, complicate the commercial viability of the Chabahar port. This could lead to tensions with some of India’s Western allies, who are wary of economic engagements with Iran.
  • Geopolitical Dynamics and Regional Partnerships: The Chabahar port is part of the broader International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), which aims to link South Asia with Central Asia and Europe. However, geopolitical tensions within Europe and between Iran and the West complicate this project. Additionally, the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, announced at the G20 summit, faces challenges due to the Israel-Hamas conflict.
  • India’s Diplomatic Balancing Act: India must navigate a complex global strategic environment, balancing its growing ties with the US and its strategic interests in Iran. The Chabahar port deal exemplifies India’s diplomatic efforts to maintain and expand its regional influence while managing the risks associated with US sanctions.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Diplomatic Engagement with the United States: The port should be highlighted for its strategic importance for regional stability and humanitarian aid, particularly in Afghanistan. The port should also be emphasized for countering China’s regional influence and promoting a balanced geopolitical environment. India should seek specific exemptions or waivers for the Chabahar project, like those granted during the Trump administration.
  • Diversification of Trade Routes: Actively participating in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) to enhance connectivity with Central Asia and Europe and developing alternative routes such as the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, which can serve as a counterbalance to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
  • Strengthening Regional Alliances: India should collaborate closely with Iran and Afghanistan to ensure smooth operations and security at the port and engage with Central Asian countries to promote the use of Chabahar as a key transit hub for their goods.
  • Investment in Infrastructure and Technology: Allocating the promised $120 million for infrastructure development, ensuring timely disbursement of the $250 million line of credit to Iran, and procuring advanced port equipment and machinery to improve cargo handling and reduce turnaround times.
  • Strategic Communication and Advocacy: India should undertake a strategic communication campaign to advocate for the benefits of the Chabahar project. This would address the concerns of Western allies by ensuring transparency in operations and compliance with international regulations.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Chabahar project exemplifies India’s strategic maneuvering in a complex global environment, balancing relations with Iran and Western allies. While challenges persist, including US sanctions and regional tensions, India’s multi-faceted approach to its near-West partnerships highlights its determination to secure vital economic and geopolitical interests.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q. In what ways would the ongoing US-Iran Nuclear Pact Controversy affect India’s national interest? How should India respond to this situation? 2018

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q. Discuss the strategic significance of the Chabahar Port for India in the context of its geopolitical and economic interests.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-chabahar-contract-with-iran-looking-west-9329111/




CANDID NOTES ON THE NHRC’S STATUS DEFERRAL

THE CONTEXT: The National Human Rights Commission of India (NHRC) faces a continued deferral of its ‘A’ status by the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) for another year. Despite lobbying efforts, the NHRC and the Indian government could not lift the deferral, although they avoided a downgrade to ‘B’ status. This situation raises concerns about the NHRC’s adherence to the Paris Principles and the implications of its leadership and operational practices.

ISSUES:

  • Lack of Transparency and Independence: The GANHRI’s Sub Committee on Accreditation (SCA) cited the NHRC’s failure to operate independently of government interference. This includes concerns over the transparency in appointing members and the involvement of police officers in human rights investigations, which presents a conflict of interest.
  • Diversity and Representation: The NHRC has been criticized for lacking gender and minority representation. The current composition includes only one woman and lacks adequate representation of India’s largest minority religions. This lack of pluralism does not reflect the diversity of Indian society.
  • Adherence to Paris Principles: The deferral is linked to the belief that India has not been adhering to the Paris Principles, which set international benchmarks for National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs). These principles include mandates such as autonomy from the government, independence guaranteed by statute, pluralism, adequate resources, and adequate powers of investigation.
  • Impact of Leadership and Governance: The leadership under Justice Arun Mishra, who has been criticized for his close ties to the government, has been a point of contention. His tenure and the amendments to the Protection of Human Rights Act in 2019 have contributed to the NHRC’s decline in effectiveness and independence.
  • International and Domestic Criticism: Human rights activists and former NHRC employees have expressed concerns over the NHRC’s deteriorating standards and failure to address significant human rights issues. GANHRI’s deferral decision, a peer-reviewed process, underscores these criticisms and reflects broader concerns about India’s human rights record.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strengthening Independence and Pluralism: Ensure that the appointment process for NHRC members is transparent and inclusive, involving a broader range of stakeholders, including civil society organizations and representatives from marginalized communities. Amend the Protection of Human Rights Act to guarantee greater autonomy from the government and to ensure that political considerations do not influence appointments.
  • Enhancing Accountability and Responsiveness: Implement regular independent audits and reviews of the NHRC’s performance, with findings made public to ensure transparency and accountability. Establish a robust public grievance mechanism that allows individuals and organizations to report human rights violations directly to the NHRC, with a commitment to timely and effective responses.
  • Addressing Regional Human Rights Concerns: Set up regional offices in areas with significant human rights concerns, such as Jammu and Kashmir, to ensure better accessibility and responsiveness to local issues. Deploy dedicated teams to monitor and report on human rights conditions in these regions, ensuring that local issues are addressed promptly and effectively.
  • Improving Collaboration with Civil Society: Develop formal partnership programs with civil society organizations to collaborate on human rights monitoring, reporting, and advocacy. Consult with human rights defenders, activists, and NGOs regularly to gather insights and feedback on human rights issues and the NHRC’s performance.
  • Ensuring Adequate Resources and Capacity: Secure increased government funding to ensure that the NHRC has the necessary resources to carry out its mandate effectively. Invest in capacity-building programs for NHRC staff, including training on international human rights standards and best practices in human rights investigations.

THE CONCLUSION:

The NHRC’s ongoing deferral highlights significant issues regarding compliance with international human rights standards. The leadership and the government’s approach to human rights have come under scrutiny, necessitating introspection and potential reforms within the NHRC. The future of the NHRC’s status and effectiveness in promoting human rights in India remains uncertain.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in India can be most effective when its tasks are adequately supported by other mechanisms that ensure government accountability. In light of the above observation, assess the role of NHRC as an effective complement to the judiciary and other institutions in promoting and protecting human rights standards. 2014

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q. Discuss the reasons behind the deferral of the National Human Rights Commission of India (NHRCI) accreditation by the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI). What are the implications of this deferral for India’s human rights record and its international standing?

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/candid-notes-on-the-nhrcs-status-deferral/article68175651.ece




Day-634 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT AFFAIRS

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    1. Question

    1. Recently seen in the news, the term ‘Ergosphere’ refers to:

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: The term Ergoshpere was seen recently in the news when an image of the black hole at the centre of the M87 galaxy was captured by the Event Horizon Telescope.
    Explanation:
    • The term ‘Ergosphere’ refers to a region located outside a rotating black hole’s outer event horizon.
    • The label ‘ergosphere’ comes from ‘ergon’, the Greek word for ‘work’. It is so named because it is possible to extract matter and energy from the ergosphere, but not from beyond the event horizon.
    Additional information:
    • A black hole is formed when a really massive star runs out of fuel to fuse, blows up, leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole.
    • The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply. A black hole’s great gravitational pull emerges as if from the singularity.
    • The event horizon describes a sphere around the singularity: when anything enters this sphere, it can’t escape unless it travels faster than light (which is impossible).
    • Just beyond this sphere, a rotating black hole will also have an ergosphere – a bigger sphere that an object can enter and then leave if it’s moving fast enough, but still less than the speed of light.
    • Some scientists have suggested using this possibility to send an object into the ergosphere and allow it to accelerate there along the black hole’s direction of rotation, so that it comes out moving faster. This energy ‘gain’ will translate to the black hole losing some angular momentum.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: The term Ergoshpere was seen recently in the news when an image of the black hole at the centre of the M87 galaxy was captured by the Event Horizon Telescope.
    Explanation:
    • The term ‘Ergosphere’ refers to a region located outside a rotating black hole’s outer event horizon.
    • The label ‘ergosphere’ comes from ‘ergon’, the Greek word for ‘work’. It is so named because it is possible to extract matter and energy from the ergosphere, but not from beyond the event horizon.
    Additional information:
    • A black hole is formed when a really massive star runs out of fuel to fuse, blows up, leaving its core to implode under its weight to form a black hole.
    • The centre of a black hole is a gravitational singularity, a point where the general theory of relativity breaks down, i.e. where its predictions don’t apply. A black hole’s great gravitational pull emerges as if from the singularity.
    • The event horizon describes a sphere around the singularity: when anything enters this sphere, it can’t escape unless it travels faster than light (which is impossible).
    • Just beyond this sphere, a rotating black hole will also have an ergosphere – a bigger sphere that an object can enter and then leave if it’s moving fast enough, but still less than the speed of light.
    • Some scientists have suggested using this possibility to send an object into the ergosphere and allow it to accelerate there along the black hole’s direction of rotation, so that it comes out moving faster. This energy ‘gain’ will translate to the black hole losing some angular momentum.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements regarding the NAMO Drone Didi scheme:
    1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
    2. The Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the scheme.
    3. The scheme aims to provide drones to 15000 selected Women Self Help Groups (SHGs) for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture purposes.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Context: The Union Government has allocated ₹500 crores for Namo Drone Didi scheme, which will target to provide 15,000 drones to women self-help groups. The drones operated by women can be rented by farmers to spray fertilizers and pesticides.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct:
    ● It is a Central Sector Scheme.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● The Government launched this Central Sector Scheme in November, 2023 for providing drones to the Women Self Help Group (SHGs) for the period from 2024-25 to 2025-26 with an outlay of Rs. 1261 Crores.

    ● The Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal ministry of the scheme.
    ● The Government has allocated Rs. 500 crore for the fiscal year 2024-25 for the scheme.
    Statement 3 is correct:
    Key features of the scheme:
    ● Empowering Rural Women with Drone Technology:
    Ø Extending drone access to 15,000 women SHGs for farmers’ rental, fostering technological integration into rural life.
    Ø Elevating rural women by placing them at the forefront of the economy through cutting-edge drone technology.
    ● Time and Labor Savings:
    Ø Application of pesticides and fertilizers through drones streamlining processes, reducing physical toil.
    Ø Granting farmers more time for productive agricultural work.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Context: The Union Government has allocated ₹500 crores for Namo Drone Didi scheme, which will target to provide 15,000 drones to women self-help groups. The drones operated by women can be rented by farmers to spray fertilizers and pesticides.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct:
    ● It is a Central Sector Scheme.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    ● The Government launched this Central Sector Scheme in November, 2023 for providing drones to the Women Self Help Group (SHGs) for the period from 2024-25 to 2025-26 with an outlay of Rs. 1261 Crores.

    ● The Department of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare is the nodal ministry of the scheme.
    ● The Government has allocated Rs. 500 crore for the fiscal year 2024-25 for the scheme.
    Statement 3 is correct:
    Key features of the scheme:
    ● Empowering Rural Women with Drone Technology:
    Ø Extending drone access to 15,000 women SHGs for farmers’ rental, fostering technological integration into rural life.
    Ø Elevating rural women by placing them at the forefront of the economy through cutting-edge drone technology.
    ● Time and Labor Savings:
    Ø Application of pesticides and fertilizers through drones streamlining processes, reducing physical toil.
    Ø Granting farmers more time for productive agricultural work.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following pairs:
    Ramsar sites in news – States
    1. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve – Tamil Nadu
    2. Aghanashini Estuary – Andhra Pradesh
    3. Longwood Shola Reserve Forest – Karnataka
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context- ahead of the World Wetlands Day (2nd February), 5 new Ramsar sites have been declared in India, taking the total tally of Ramsar sites in India at 80.
    Explanation:
    Ramsar sites in news Location
    1. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve – Karnataka, Gadag district
    Rare and threatened species such as the northern shoveler (Anas clypeata), garganey (Anas querquedula) and common pochard (Aythya ferina) are found here. It is one of the largest wintering grounds for bar-headed goose (Anser indicus) in southern India. The globally endangered Indian pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) has also been observed in the vicinity of the Site.
    2. Aghanashini Estuary – Karnataka
    The Site is an estuary where the Aghanashini River flows into the Arabian Sea in Karnataka State. The diverse environment provides habitats to many mangroves and mangrove-associated species, including globally threatened species such as halavi guitarfish (Glaucostegus halavi), lesser adjutant (Leptoptilos javanicus) and Indian river tern (Sterna aurantia). In the estuary, farmers practice traditional farming to grow a salt-tolerant rice called “kagga”, which is one of the specialities of the region.
    3. Longwood Shola Reserve Forest – Tamil Nadu
    The Site lies near the town of Kothagiri, adjacent to the eastern slopes of the Nilgiri mountain range. This Site is the only natural shola forest remaining in the vicinity of Kothagiri and has very high species endemicity. Some of the noteworthy plant species that are endemic and threatened include Actinodaphne bourneae (the Bourne’s beak-rush), Psychotria nilgiriensis and Cinnamomum wightii (the Wight’s cinnamon). The Site is one of the key conservation areas of the endangered black-chinned Nilgiri laughing thrush (Strophocincla cachinnans), the Nilgiri blue robin (Myiomela major) and the vulnerable Nilgiri wood-pigeon (Columba elphinstonii). It is mainly threatened by encroachment, invasive species and deforestation.
    4. Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve – Karnataka
    The Site is a human-made wetland built for storing monsoon run-off water coming from the Tungabhadra River and providing irrigation to surrounding drought-risk areas. Several thousand gum Arabic trees (Vachellia nilotica) growing in the lake provide nesting, roosting and breeding habitat for large colonies of waterbirds including the Indian cormorant (Phalacrocorax fuscicollis) and the near-threatened painted stork (Mycteria leucocephala). At least 20% of the regional population of glossy ibis (Plegadis falcinellus) has been regularly recorded at the Site. There are also nine endemic fish species, three of which are globally endangered: tiger loach (Botia striata), aruli barb (Dawkinsia arulius) and nukta (Schismatorhynchos nukta).
    5. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu
    It is located along the Central Asian Flyway which provides roosting and nesting grounds for threatened species such as spotted eagle (Aquila clanga), tawny eagle (Aquila rapax) and Indian darter (Anhinga melanogaster). The Site also provides breeding habitat for the vulnerable Indian flap-shelled turtle (Lissemys punctata). During the driest period, between July and October, the water level of the Site is maintained with water from the Mettur Dam.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context- ahead of the World Wetlands Day (2nd February), 5 new Ramsar sites have been declared in India, taking the total tally of Ramsar sites in India at 80.
    Explanation:
    Ramsar sites in news Location
    1. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve – Karnataka, Gadag district
    Rare and threatened species such as the northern shoveler (Anas clypeata), garganey (Anas querquedula) and common pochard (Aythya ferina) are found here. It is one of the largest wintering grounds for bar-headed goose (Anser indicus) in southern India. The globally endangered Indian pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) has also been observed in the vicinity of the Site.
    2. Aghanashini Estuary – Karnataka
    The Site is an estuary where the Aghanashini River flows into the Arabian Sea in Karnataka State. The diverse environment provides habitats to many mangroves and mangrove-associated species, including globally threatened species such as halavi guitarfish (Glaucostegus halavi), lesser adjutant (Leptoptilos javanicus) and Indian river tern (Sterna aurantia). In the estuary, farmers practice traditional farming to grow a salt-tolerant rice called “kagga”, which is one of the specialities of the region.
    3. Longwood Shola Reserve Forest – Tamil Nadu
    The Site lies near the town of Kothagiri, adjacent to the eastern slopes of the Nilgiri mountain range. This Site is the only natural shola forest remaining in the vicinity of Kothagiri and has very high species endemicity. Some of the noteworthy plant species that are endemic and threatened include Actinodaphne bourneae (the Bourne’s beak-rush), Psychotria nilgiriensis and Cinnamomum wightii (the Wight’s cinnamon). The Site is one of the key conservation areas of the endangered black-chinned Nilgiri laughing thrush (Strophocincla cachinnans), the Nilgiri blue robin (Myiomela major) and the vulnerable Nilgiri wood-pigeon (Columba elphinstonii). It is mainly threatened by encroachment, invasive species and deforestation.
    4. Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve – Karnataka
    The Site is a human-made wetland built for storing monsoon run-off water coming from the Tungabhadra River and providing irrigation to surrounding drought-risk areas. Several thousand gum Arabic trees (Vachellia nilotica) growing in the lake provide nesting, roosting and breeding habitat for large colonies of waterbirds including the Indian cormorant (Phalacrocorax fuscicollis) and the near-threatened painted stork (Mycteria leucocephala). At least 20% of the regional population of glossy ibis (Plegadis falcinellus) has been regularly recorded at the Site. There are also nine endemic fish species, three of which are globally endangered: tiger loach (Botia striata), aruli barb (Dawkinsia arulius) and nukta (Schismatorhynchos nukta).
    5. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary – Tamil Nadu
    It is located along the Central Asian Flyway which provides roosting and nesting grounds for threatened species such as spotted eagle (Aquila clanga), tawny eagle (Aquila rapax) and Indian darter (Anhinga melanogaster). The Site also provides breeding habitat for the vulnerable Indian flap-shelled turtle (Lissemys punctata). During the driest period, between July and October, the water level of the Site is maintained with water from the Mettur Dam.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Recently, the PM addressed a programme on the 200th birth anniversary of Swami Dayanand Saraswati. Consider the following statements regarding Swami Dayanand Saraswati:
    1. He was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Prarthana Samaj.
    2. He published his views in his work, Satyarth Prakash.
    3. Swami Vivekananda was his foremost disciple.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: The Prime Minister recently addressed a programme on the 200th birth anniversary of Swami Dayananda Saraswati organized at the birthplace of Swami Dayananda, Tankara in Morbi, Gujarat, via a video message.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: He was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj. Arya Samaj is a reform movement of Vedic dharma and he was the first to give the call for Swaraj as “India for Indian” in 1876. It aims to reestablish the Vedas, the earliest Hindu scriptures, as revealed truth. He rejected all later accretions to the Vedas as degenerate but, in his own interpretation, included much post-Vedic thought.
    Statement 2 is correct: He published his views in the work Satyarth Prakash (The True Exposition).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Swami Vivekananda was Ramakrishna Paramahamsa disciple, a 19th-century saint, who was the founder of the Ramakrishna Order of monks and is regarded as the spiritual founder of the Ramakrishna Movement.
    Additional information:
    • Swami Dayanand Saraswati was born on 12th February 1824 in Tankara, Gujarat in a Brahmin family. His parents, Lalji Tiwari and Yashodhabai were orthodox Brahmin.
    • He was earlier named Mool Shankar Tiwari as he was born during Mool Nakshatra.
    • He wandered as an ascetic for fifteen years (1845-60) in search of truth.
    • The first Arya Samaj unit was formally set up by him at Mumbai (then Bombay) in 1875 and later the headquarters of the Samaj were established at Lahore.
    • His vision of India included a classless and casteless society, a united India (religiously, socially and nationally), and an India free from foreign rule, with Aryan religion being the common religion of all.
    • He took inspiration from the Vedas and considered them to be ‘India’s Rock of Ages’, the infallible and the true original seed of Hinduism. He gave the slogan “Back to the Vedas”.
    • He subscribed to the Vedic notion of chaturvarna system in which a person was not born in any caste but was identified as a brahmin, kshatriya, vaishya or shudra according to the occupation the person followed.
    • He introduced a complete overhaul of the education system and is often considered as one of the visionaries of modern India. The DAV (Dayanand Anglo Vedic) schools came into existence in 1886 to realize the vision of Swami Dayanand Saraswati. The first DAV School was established at Lahore with Mahatma Hansarj as the headmaster.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: The Prime Minister recently addressed a programme on the 200th birth anniversary of Swami Dayananda Saraswati organized at the birthplace of Swami Dayananda, Tankara in Morbi, Gujarat, via a video message.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: He was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj. Arya Samaj is a reform movement of Vedic dharma and he was the first to give the call for Swaraj as “India for Indian” in 1876. It aims to reestablish the Vedas, the earliest Hindu scriptures, as revealed truth. He rejected all later accretions to the Vedas as degenerate but, in his own interpretation, included much post-Vedic thought.
    Statement 2 is correct: He published his views in the work Satyarth Prakash (The True Exposition).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Swami Vivekananda was Ramakrishna Paramahamsa disciple, a 19th-century saint, who was the founder of the Ramakrishna Order of monks and is regarded as the spiritual founder of the Ramakrishna Movement.
    Additional information:
    • Swami Dayanand Saraswati was born on 12th February 1824 in Tankara, Gujarat in a Brahmin family. His parents, Lalji Tiwari and Yashodhabai were orthodox Brahmin.
    • He was earlier named Mool Shankar Tiwari as he was born during Mool Nakshatra.
    • He wandered as an ascetic for fifteen years (1845-60) in search of truth.
    • The first Arya Samaj unit was formally set up by him at Mumbai (then Bombay) in 1875 and later the headquarters of the Samaj were established at Lahore.
    • His vision of India included a classless and casteless society, a united India (religiously, socially and nationally), and an India free from foreign rule, with Aryan religion being the common religion of all.
    • He took inspiration from the Vedas and considered them to be ‘India’s Rock of Ages’, the infallible and the true original seed of Hinduism. He gave the slogan “Back to the Vedas”.
    • He subscribed to the Vedic notion of chaturvarna system in which a person was not born in any caste but was identified as a brahmin, kshatriya, vaishya or shudra according to the occupation the person followed.
    • He introduced a complete overhaul of the education system and is often considered as one of the visionaries of modern India. The DAV (Dayanand Anglo Vedic) schools came into existence in 1886 to realize the vision of Swami Dayanand Saraswati. The first DAV School was established at Lahore with Mahatma Hansarj as the headmaster.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. The term ‘Weimar triangle’, often mentioned in news, relates to which of the following?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Context: The Foreign Ministers of the three countries— Poland, France and Germany— held discussions recently to revive the so-called Weimar Triangle.
    Explanation:
    It was established in 1991 in the Weimar city of Germany.
    ● It was intended as a forum for trilateral consultations between the foreign ministers of France, the Federal Republic of Germany, and Poland on the future of Europe after the end of the Cold War.
    ● It had three objectives: to involve France in German-Polish reconciliation by building on the Franco-German experience; to strengthen dialogue and political cooperation between the three countries; and to support Poland in its process of integration into NATO and the European Union.
    ● It has no institutional structure and remains a framework of reference at the political level. In recent years, it has remained a dormant unit.
    ● France, Germany and Poland are planning to unveil a new cooperation agreement to combat foreign disinformation operations, particularly those originating in Russia.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Context: The Foreign Ministers of the three countries— Poland, France and Germany— held discussions recently to revive the so-called Weimar Triangle.
    Explanation:
    It was established in 1991 in the Weimar city of Germany.
    ● It was intended as a forum for trilateral consultations between the foreign ministers of France, the Federal Republic of Germany, and Poland on the future of Europe after the end of the Cold War.
    ● It had three objectives: to involve France in German-Polish reconciliation by building on the Franco-German experience; to strengthen dialogue and political cooperation between the three countries; and to support Poland in its process of integration into NATO and the European Union.
    ● It has no institutional structure and remains a framework of reference at the political level. In recent years, it has remained a dormant unit.
    ● France, Germany and Poland are planning to unveil a new cooperation agreement to combat foreign disinformation operations, particularly those originating in Russia.

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INDIAN OCEAN BASIN-WIDE (IOBW) INDEX

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: According to the study, the Indian Ocean basin-wide (IOBW) index exhibits a close association with dengue outbreaks in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres.

EXPLANATION:

  • A collaborative study by Earth scientists, healthcare workers, and meteorologists from several Chinese institutions and international partners has revealed a significant link between sea-surface temperatures in the Indian Ocean and the severity of dengue outbreaks in Asia and South America.
  • This study, published in the journal Science, offers a groundbreaking method for predicting dengue epidemics months before they occur, which could greatly enhance preparedness and response strategies in affected regions.

Dengue Fever

  • Dengue fever is a mosquito-borne flavivirus disease that poses a threat to nearly half the world’s population.
  • It is most prevalent in Asia and South America, particularly during the rainy season when mosquito populations surge.
  • Despite its widespread impact, there are currently few treatments available and no cure for dengue, making prevention and early prediction of outbreaks critical.
  • Traditionally, health officials have relied on weather models to predict the magnitude of dengue outbreaks.
  • These models, however, have proven to be unreliable due to the complex interplay of environmental factors that influence mosquito populations and virus transmission.

New Predictive Model: Sea-Surface Temperatures

  • The new study introduces a novel approach by utilizing the Indian Ocean basin-wide (IOBW) index, a measure of average sea-surface temperatures, as a predictor for dengue outbreaks.
  • The researchers found that sea-surface temperature readings prior to dengue season could accurately forecast both the timing and severity of outbreaks.
  • The research team conducted a comprehensive analysis by comparing 30 years of historical climate data from 46 countries in Southeast Asia and South America with records of dengue outbreak magnitudes.
  • This extensive dataset allowed them to identify patterns and correlations between sea-surface temperatures and dengue incidence.
  • The study revealed that the IOBW index serves as a reliable indicator for predicting dengue outbreaks in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
  • The temperature patterns in the Indian Ocean were found to influence climate conditions that affect mosquito breeding and virus transmission rates, thereby determining the potential severity of dengue outbreaks.

Implications for Public Health

  • The ability to predict dengue outbreaks with greater accuracy can significantly improve public health responses.
  • Health officials can better allocate resources, implement vector control measures, and prepare healthcare systems for potential surges in dengue cases.
  • Early warning systems based on sea-surface temperature data could also guide community awareness campaigns and preventive actions, reducing the overall impact of dengue epidemics.

Future Research Directions

  • The researchers emphasize the need for further studies to establish a clear causal relationship between the IOBW index and dengue outbreak magnitudes in specific regions.
  • Additionally, other local transmission factors must be considered to refine predictive models. Factors such as local climate conditions, mosquito population dynamics, and socio-economic conditions can also influence the development and progression of dengue outbreaks.

About Indian Ocean basin-wide (IOBW) Index:

  • It represents the average sea-surface temperature variations across the tropical Indian Ocean.
  • It has emerged as a key indicator for predicting the magnitude and timing of dengue epidemics in each country.
  • IOBW index’s association with the Southern Hemisphere is stronger than that with the Northern Hemisphere.
  • The index has a more pronounced impact on temperatures in tropical regions. Brazil, for example, bears a higher burden of dengue in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • The Northern Hemisphere witnesses a peak dengue epidemic period between July and October and the Southern Hemisphere in February and April, both in the summers.
  • Further, the amplitude of dengue incidence was high when the index was positive and low when it was negative.
  • The link between the Indian Ocean’s temperature and dengue incidence is likely due to its influence on regional temperatures through teleconnections, large-scale atmospheric patterns that can transfer heat and moisture across vast distances.

SOURCE: https://phys.org/news/2024-05-indian-ocean-sea-surface-temperatures.html#:~:text=The%20researchers%20discovered%20that%20the,the%20northern%20and%20southern%20hemispheres.




WORLD WILDLIFE CRIME REPORT

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Recently the 2024 World Wildlife Crime Report has been released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), highlights the persistent issue of illegal wildlife trade despite two decades of concerted international and national efforts.

EXPLANATION:

  • The report identifies the rhino and the cedar as the most affected animal and plant species, respectively, during the period from 2015 to 2021.

Highlights of the report:

  • The 2024 report, the third edition following those in 2016 and 2020, provides a comprehensive analysis of wildlife trafficking trends, harms, and impacts, along with the effectiveness of interventions.
  • Despite progress in countering the trafficking of iconic species like elephants and rhinos, wildlife traffickers remain highly adaptable, employing various methods to evade detection.
  • The report emphasizes the need for strong coherence and harmonization across the trade chain, along with robust international cooperation.
  • Increased investment in building data and analytical capacity at both national and international levels is crucial to closing knowledge gaps.
  • Corruption undermines regulation and enforcement efforts, while technology enhances traffickers’ capabilities to reach global markets.
  • Modernizing, strengthening, and harmonizing criminal justice responses from source to end markets are essential.
  • Given the vast number of wildlife species affected and the diverse range of markets driving multiple environmental and societal harms, interventions need to be more strategic and prioritized.
  • The report highlights the interconnectedness of wildlife crime with large and powerful organized crime groups operating in fragile ecosystems. Addressing wildlife trafficking effectively requires a broader strategy to combat organized crime as a whole.

Key Markets in Illegal Wildlife Trade

  • The report identifies 15 broad markets that constitute the bulk of the observed illegal wildlife trade based on a standardized seizure index.
  • These markets reveal the critical species targeted by traffickers.
  • Animal Species
    • Rhino Horn: Represents 29% of the illegal wildlife trade, making it the largest market among animal species.
    • Pangolin Scales: Comprise 28% of the market.
    • Elephant Ivory: Accounts for 15% of the trade.
    • Other notable species include eels (5%), crocodilians (5%), parrots and cockatoos (2%), carnivores (2%), turtles and tortoises (2%), snakes (2%), seahorses (2%), and others (8%).
  • Plant Species
    • Cedars and Other Sapindales: Constitute 47% of the illegal plant trade market.
    • Rosewoods: Make up 35% of the market.
    • Agarwood and Other Myrtales: Account for 13% of the trade.
    • Golden Chicken Fern and Orchids: Each represent 1% of the market.
    • Other species make up the remaining 3%.
  • Diversity in Seizures
  • The report underscores the diversity of seizures in illegal wildlife trade products during 2015-2021, indicating a wide range of biodiversity affected by trafficking.
  • Seizure Breakdown
    • Corals: 16% of all seizures.
    • Crocodilians: 9%.
    • Elephants: 6%.
    • Bivalve Molluscs: 6%.
    • Carnivores: 5%.
    • Parrots and Cockatoos: 4%.
    • Orchids: 4%.
    • Turtles and Tortoises: 4%.
    • Snakes: 4%.
    • Rosewood: 4%.
    • Ginsengs and Costus Root: 3% each.
    • Aloes and Other Liliales: 3%.
    • Cacti: 3%.
    • Even-Toed Ungulates: 2%.
    • Sturgeons and Paddlefishes: 2%.
    • Pangolins: 2%.
    • Sea Snails: 2%.
    • Lizards: 2%.
    • Birds of Prey: 1%.
    • Other Species: 16%.

Commodities and Methods

  • The report also details the types of commodities most frequently seized and the methods used by traffickers.
  • Commodities
    • Coral Pieces: 16% of all seizures during 2015-2016.
    • Live Specimens: 15%.
    • Medicines Made of Animal Products: 10%.
    • Animal Meat, Shells, and Small Leather Products: Each constitute 6%.
    • Other commodities include animal bodies (4%), plant roots (3%), extracts (3%), ivory carvings (3%), and others (28%).

United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC):

  • The United Nations Office (UNO) on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is a United Nations office that was established in 1997 as the Office for Drug Control and Crime Prevention by combining the United Nations International Drug Control Program (UNDCP) and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division in the United Nations Office at Vienna, adopting the current name in 2002.
  • It relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of our work.
  • Its headquarters is in Vienna, Austria

Functions of UNODC:

  • It works to educate people throughout the world about the dangers of drug abuse.
  • Strengthen international action against illicit drug production and trafficking and drug-related crime.
  • It also works to improve crime prevention and assist with criminal justice reform in order to strengthen the rule of law, promote stable and viable criminal justice systems and combat the growing threats of transnational organized crime and corruption.
  • In 2002, the UN General Assembly approved an expanded programme of activities for the Terrorism Prevention Branch of UNODC. The activities focus on providing assistance to States, on request, in ratifying and implementing the eighteen universal legal instruments against terrorism.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/rhinos-elephants-pangolins-cedars-rosewoods-agarwood-most-affected-by-illegal-wildlife-trade-unodc-96131




FIRST HUMAN RECIPIENT OF PIG KIDNEY TRANSPLANT DIES

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The first recipient of a genetically modified pig kidney transplant, 62-year-old Richard “Rick” Slayman, passed away on May 11, approximately two months after the surgery.

EXPLANATION:

  • Both the Massachusetts General Hospital, where the procedure was performed, and Slayman’s family did not attribute his death to the transplant operation.
  • This event brings attention to xenotransplantation, its potential, and its complications.

What is Xenotransplantation?

  • Xenotransplantation refers to the transplantation, implantation, or infusion of live cells, tissues, or organs from a nonhuman animal source into a human recipient.
  • This can also involve human body fluids, cells, tissues, or organs that have been in contact with live nonhuman animal cells, tissues, or organs.
  • The goal is to use animal cells and organs to treat human diseases and conditions.
  • The concept of xenotransplantation is driven by the significant gap between the number of patients needing transplants and the availability of human donor organs.
  • In the United States alone, nearly 90,000 people are waiting for a kidney transplant, and over 3,000 die annually while still waiting.
  • Xenotransplantation offers a potential solution to this organ shortage.
  • The first attempts at xenotransplantation involving the heart were made in the 1980s.
  • Over the years, advancements in genetic modification and surgical techniques have renewed interest in this field.
  • The use of pig heart valves for human valve replacements has been successful for over 50 years, showcasing the anatomical and physiological similarities between pigs and humans.

The Procedure of Xenotransplantation

  • The process of xenotransplantation involves several critical steps.
  • Firstly, the animal organ must undergo genetic modifications to reduce the likelihood of rejection by the human immune system.
  • For Slayman’s pig kidney transplant, 69 genomic edits were made using CRISPR-Cas9 technology.
  • This included removing pig genes that produce sugars reactive to human antibodies and adding human genes to enhance compatibility.
  • During the transplantation procedure, sewing the pig kidney into the human body is similar to a regular transplant.
  • Post-surgery, standard immune-suppressing drugs are administered to prevent rejection.
  • Continuous monitoring is essential to assess the body’s response to the transplanted organ.

Why Pigs are Preferred for Xenotransplantation

  • Pigs are commonly used in xenotransplantation due to several factors:
    • Anatomical and Physiological Similarity: Pig organs closely resemble human organs in size and function.
    • Widespread Breeding: Pigs are farmed extensively, making them a readily available and cost-effective source.
    • Variety of Breeds: Different pig breeds allow for matching the size of harvested organs with the specific needs of human recipients.

Notable Xenotransplantation Cases

  • In January 2022, a genetically modified pig heart was transplanted into a human for the first time.
  • The patient survived for two months but eventually died due to various factors, including a latent virus in the pig heart that contributed to transplant dysfunction.

Complications and Challenges in Xenotransplantation

  • Xenotransplantation faces several complications:
    • Organ Rejection: The human body may reject the animal organ. Techniques such as embedding the pig’s thymus gland with the kidney help mitigate immune responses.
    • Infection Risks: There is a risk of infection from recognized and unrecognized infectious agents, potentially affecting not only the recipient but also close contacts and the general population.
    • Cross-Species Infection: Retroviruses from animals can cross species barriers and cause diseases years after the infection, posing significant public health concerns.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/pig-kidney-transplant-death-xenotransplantation-9325986/




INDIA’s STAKES IN IRAN’s CHABAHAR PORT

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: India and Iran have signed a 10-year contract for the operation of a terminal at Chabahar port, a deep water port in Iran’s Sistan-Baluchistan province.

EXPLANATION:

  • This agreement is part of India’s broader strategic and economic vision for Central Asia and beyond.
  • Despite the strategic importance of Chabahar, the project has faced numerous challenges over the years.

Strategic Importance of Chabahar Port

  • Chabahar is the Iranian port closest to India, providing a secure access point for large cargo ships due to its location in the open sea.
  • The port is strategically vital for India as it offers a route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.

  • The concept of modern Chabahar emerged in the 1970s, with its strategic importance realized during the Iran-Iraq war in the 1980s.
  • The idea of developing Chabahar port as a strategic hub was first discussed in 2002 between Iran’s National Security Advisor Hassan Rouhani and India’s Brajesh Mishra.
  • In January 2003, President Mohammad Khatami of Iran and Indian Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee agreed on a strategic cooperation roadmap, recognizing the port’s potential to link South Asia with the Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, Central Asia, and Europe.
  • However, India’s growing relationship with the United States under President George W. Bush, and the US’s designation of Iran as part of the “axis of evil,” hindered the progress of the project.

Revival and Progress After 2015

  • Significant progress was made post-2015 after the Iran nuclear deal framework.
  • In April 2015, Afghan President Ashraf Ghani’s visit to India and his discussions with Prime Minister underscored the importance of Chabahar for regional connectivity.
  • In May 2016, India, Iran, and Afghanistan signed the Trilateral Agreement to establish the International Transport and Transit Corridor. This agreement was aimed at developing Chabahar port as a viable gateway to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
  • Despite the Trump administration’s hostile stance towards Iran, India managed to secure a waiver from the US sanctions for the Chabahar project, citing its importance for Afghanistan’s connectivity.

Recent Developments and Investments

  • India has invested approximately $120 million to equip and operate the port, with an additional credit window of $250 million for infrastructure improvements.
  • IPGL (India Ports Global Ltd) has been operating the port since December 2018, and significant shipments have been handled, including humanitarian assistance during the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • In August 2023, Indian Prime Minister and Iranian President discussed the finalization of a long-term contract at the BRICS Summit, leading to the signing of the 10-year agreement.

Integration with INSTC

  • The Chabahar port is also seen as a critical link in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multi-modal transportation route initiated by Russia, India, and Iran.
  • The INSTC aims to connect the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea and further to northern Europe.
  • Phunchok Stobdan from IDSA noted that INSTC and Chabahar port would complement each other, enhancing India’s connectivity with Russia and Eurasia.
  • However, the geopolitical tensions arising from the Ukraine war have complicated the future of this project.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-are-indias-stakes-in-irans-chabahar-port-9326692/




GANHRI DEFERS NHRC-INDIA ACCREDITATION FOR SECOND CONSECUTIVE YEAR

GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The Geneva-based Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI), a United Nations-linked body, has deferred the accreditation of India’s National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) for the second consecutive year.

EXPLANATION:

  • This decision, taken during the Sub Committee on Accreditation (SCA) meeting on May 1, could significantly impact India’s participation in the Human Rights Council and some United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) bodies.

NHRC-India

  • The NHRC-India was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, passed by the Indian Parliament in 1993.
  • Since the inception of the accreditation process for National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs) in 1999, NHRC-India had consistently maintained its ‘A’ status.
  • It signifies full compliance with the Paris Principles which guide the status and functioning of national human rights institutions globally.
  • This status was upheld in 2006, 2011, and 2017, with a brief deferral in 2016 which was subsequently restored in 2017.

Reasons for Accreditation Deferral

  • Lack of Transparency in Appointments
    • The SCA’s decision to defer accreditation is rooted in several concerns.
    • One primary issue is the lack of transparency in appointing members to the NHRC.
    • The committee’s previous report highlighted this as a significant area needing reform.
  • Conflict of Interest
    • Another major concern is the appointment of police officers to oversee human rights investigations within the NHRC.
    • This practice has been criticized as a conflict of interest, compromising the commission’s ability to function independently and impartially.
    • The involvement of police officers in investigations was described as hindering the NHRC’s capacity to operate free from government interference.
  • Lack of Diversity and Representation
    • The SCA also pointed out the lack of gender and minority representation within the NHRC.
    • The current composition includes only one woman, Vijaya Bharathi Sayani, in the top body.
    • Furthermore, the representation of India’s largest minority religions is notably absent, which does not reflect the diversity of Indian society.
    • While Rajeev Jain, a member of the Jain community, was cited as a minority representative, his tenure is ending soon, adding to the uncertainty about future appointments.

Civil Society and Human Rights Activists’ Concerns

  • The deferral decision was influenced by submissions from civil society organizations and human rights activists, who raised alarms about India’s human rights record.
  • Their concerns were encapsulated in a six-point submission by the SCA in March 2023, which criticized NHRC-India for failing to create conditions for operating independently of government interference.
  • This includes the aforementioned conflict of interest with police officers and insufficient measures to protect marginalized groups.

Implications of the Deferral

  • The deferral of NHRC-India’s ‘A’ status accreditation has significant implications.
  • Primarily, it could affect India’s ability to vote in the Human Rights Council and participate in some UNGA bodies.
  • This status is crucial as it affirms an NHRI’s compliance with international standards and its ability to operate independently and effectively.

Response and Future Steps

  • The NHRC and government officials have acknowledged the deferral, attributing the inability to implement the recommended changes to the ongoing general elections in India.
  • They indicated that the deferral would be reviewed in upcoming meetings, potentially in September this year or again in May next year.

Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI):

  • The Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions is a global network of national human rights institutions (NHRIs) which coordinates the relationship between NHRIs and the United Nations human rights system.
  • GANHRI was known until 2016 as the International Coordinating Committee of National Human Rights Institutions or International Coordinating Committee, abbreviated ICC
  • It is unique as the only non-UN body whose internal accreditation system, based on compliance with the 1993 Paris Principles, grants access to UN committees.
  • Institutions accredited by the Subcommittee for Accreditation (SCA) of GANHRI with “A status”, meaning full compliance with the Paris Principles, are usually accorded speaking rights and seating at human rights treaty bodies and other UN organs, mainly to the Human Rights Council.
  • GANHRI representatives often present statements on behalf of individual NHRIs or the regional groups.
  • GANHRI is constituted as a non-profit entity under Swiss law, and has one member of staff representing it at the United Nations Office at Geneva.
  • Secretariat support is provided to GANHRI by the National Institutions and Regional Mechanisms (NIRM) Unit of the Field Operations and Technical Cooperation Division of the Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR).
  • Additional work devolves on the NHRI elected to chair the network, currently chaired since 2016 by Beate Rudolf from the German Institute for Human Rights, and on the regional chairs of GANHRI’s four regional networks.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/un-linked-body-defers-nhrc-india-accreditation-for-second-year-in-a-row/article68171138.ece