VISION FOR REGIONAL SECURITY

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: For the first time since its inception, the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) announced its ‘Vision for Regional Security’ at a ceremony held in its headquarters in Riyadh.

EXPLANATION:

Key highlights of the Vision for Regional Security:

  • It is based on the principles of shared destiny and indivisible security of the member states and any threat to one is a threat to all.
  • Emphasises joint efforts to avoid use of force and prioritise dialogue and negotiation to resolve their differences.
  • Urges member states to combat terrorism, extremism, and money laundering.
  • It urges member states to support international and regional efforts on non-proliferation and make the region free of weapons of mass destruction.
  • Activate Arab Peace Initiative to reach a just resolution of Palestinian cause in accordance with 2-state solution.
  • Climate change, water and food security, energy security, defending economic resources, and creating investment opportunities have also been prioritised.

Significance of the ‘Vision for Regional Security’

  • It represents a call to action for all parties to collaborate towards a secure and prosperous future.
  • It offers an opportunity to member states to resolve historical regional conflicts such as Palestinian problem, etc.

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):

  • The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf also known as the Gulf Cooperation Council is a regional, intergovernmental, political, and economic union comprising Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.

  • The council’s main headquarters is located in Riyadh, the capital of Saudi Arabia.
  • The Charter of the GCC was signed on 25 May 1981, formally establishing the institution.
  • All current member states are monarchies, including three constitutional monarchies (Qatar, Kuwait, and Bahrain), two absolute monarchies (Saudi Arabia and Oman), and one federal monarchy (the United Arab Emirates, which is composed of seven member states, each of which is an absolute monarchy with its own emir).

SOURCE: https://www.idsa.in/idsacomments/GCCs-Vision-for-Regional-Security-PKPradhan-05042024#:~:text=For%20the%20first%20time%20since,Riyadh%20on%2028%20March%202024




VVPAT AND THE DEBATE SURROUNDING ITS VERIFICATION

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system has emerged as a crucial component in ensuring the transparency and integrity of the electoral process.

EXPLANATION:

  • However, debates persist regarding the extent of verification required for VVPAT slips, with political parties and election authorities offering differing perspectives.

Origins and Functionality of VVPAT:

  • The inception of VVPAT can be traced back to 2010 when the Election Commission of India (ECI) initiated discussions with political parties to enhance the transparency of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
  • The VVPAT system, attached to the ballot unit of EVMs, provides voters with a paper slip displaying their chosen candidate’s details.
  • This slip serves as a tangible record of the vote cast, offering voters and political parties an additional layer of confidence in the electoral process.
  • The demand for increased verification of VVPAT slips stems from the need to ensure the accuracy and fairness of election results.
  • Political parties, civil society organizations, and electoral watchdogs advocate for heightened scrutiny of VVPAT slips to mitigate concerns over potential tampering or malfunctioning of EVMs.
  • Verification of VVPAT slips is perceived as a safeguard against electoral malpractices, enhancing public trust in the democratic process.

Evolution of Verification Norms:

  • Initially, the ECI mandated the counting of VVPAT slips from one randomly selected polling station per Assembly constituency.
  • However, following legal challenges and public pressure, the Supreme Court intervened, directing the ECI to increase the number of polling stations subject to VVPAT verification to five per Assembly seat.
  • This adjustment was made to enhance the robustness of the verification process and address concerns raised by stakeholders regarding the integrity of elections.

Challenges and Considerations for Expanded Verification:

  • Despite calls for increased verification, the ECI has expressed reservations regarding the feasibility and practicality of counting a higher percentage of VVPAT slips.
  • Infrastructure constraints, manpower shortages, and logistical challenges pose hurdles to scaling up VVPAT verification efforts.
  • The ECI emphasizes the need to balance transparency with efficiency, highlighting the potential delays and resource implications associated with broader verification mandates.

Opposition’s Call for Widened Verification:

  • Opposition parties advocate for the verification of a larger percentage, ranging from 50% to 100%, of VVPAT slips to bolster electoral transparency and accountability.
  • The demand for heightened scrutiny reflects concerns over the accuracy and reliability of EVMs, particularly in light of past controversies and legal disputes.
  • Opposition alliances have presented resolutions urging the ECI to prioritize electoral integrity by expanding VVPAT verification protocols.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/why-vvpat-was-brought-in-why-oppn-wants-all-slips-verified-9258995/




SOLAR MYSTERIES: LEVERAGING SOLAR ECLIPSES AND ADITYA L1 FOR SUN STUDY

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The study of the Sun’s inner corona remains a pivotal area of research for solar physicists. Leveraging rare celestial events like solar eclipses and advanced space missions such as India’s Aditya L1, scientists aim to deepen our understanding of the solar atmosphere and its dynamics.

EXPLANATION:

Solar Eclipses as Observational Windows:

  • Solar eclipses provide a unique opportunity for solar physicists to study the Sun’s inner corona.
  • During a total solar eclipse, the Moon acts as a perfect occulting agent, blocking the solar disk and revealing the otherwise elusive corona.
  • This alignment allows for direct observation of important dynamics within the solar atmosphere, offering insights into phenomena like solar flares and coronal mass ejections.

The Role of Indian Solar Physicists in Eclipse Observations:

  • A team of Indian solar physicists is currently in the United States to observe the April 8 total solar eclipse.
  • Led by experts from the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES), the team aims to conduct multiple experiments and observations to capture images of the solar corona, particularly during the totality phase.
  • By analyzing these observations, scientists hope to gain valuable insights into the behavior of the solar atmosphere.

Aditya L1 Mission: Enhancing Solar Study Capabilities:

  • Aditya-L1 is a coronagraphy spacecraft designed and developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to study the solar atmosphere. It is India’s first dedicated solar mission.
  • The spacecraft will be orbiting at about 1.5 million km from Earth in a halo orbit around the L1 Lagrange point between the Earth and the Sun.
  • India’s Aditya L1 spacecraft, positioned at Lagrange Point 1 of the Earth-Sun system, offers a complementary platform for solar study.
  • Equipped with seven payloads, including coronagraphs and spectrometers, Aditya L1 enables continuous and uninterrupted observations of the Sun’s corona.
  • While ground-based observations during eclipses provide valuable data, Aditya L1 enhances our ability to study the Sun’s atmosphere under different conditions and from a unique vantage point.
  • Unlike ground-based observations, Aditya L1’s view remains unobstructed during solar eclipses.
  • Positioned at Lagrange Point 1, approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth, the spacecraft’s orbit ensures that it remains unaffected by the eclipse phenomena occurring on Earth.
  • This uninterrupted view allows scientists to capture crucial data on the solar corona, complementing observations made from terrestrial observatories.

Experiments and Observations during the Eclipse:

  • The Indian team plans to conduct high-cadence narrowband imaging observations of the solar corona using specific emission lines, such as Fe XIV 5303 °A.
  • By capturing both on-band and off-band observations, scientists aim to investigate high-frequency oscillatory and variable phenomena within the solar atmosphere.
  • These experiments not only contribute to our understanding of solar dynamics but also facilitate the calibration of instruments onboard Aditya L1, improving the accuracy of space-based observations.

Unique Insights from Solar Eclipses:

  • Studying the solar atmosphere during a total solar eclipse offers distinct advantages over traditional observations.
  • The natural occultation provided by the Moon allows for clear visualization of the inner corona, which is otherwise challenging to observe due to scattered light in artificial coronagraphs.
  • By capitalizing on these rare events, scientists can uncover new insights into solar phenomena and refine our understanding of the Sun’s behavior throughout its 11-year solar cycle.

Solar Eclipse:

  • Solar eclipses occur when the Sun, the Moon, and Earth line up, either fully or partially. Depending on how they align, eclipses provide a unique, exciting view of either the Sun or the Moon.
  • A solar eclipse happens when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, casting a shadow on Earth that either fully or partially blocks the Sun’s light in some areas.
  • This only happens occasionally, because the Moon doesn’t orbit in the exact same plane as the Sun and Earth do.
  • The time when they are aligned is known as eclipse season, which happens twice a year.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/solar-eclipse-study-sun-aditya-l1-view-india-9258200/




LINK BETWEEN GLYCEMIC INDEX AND TYPE 2 DIABETES: A LANCET STUDY ANALYSIS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Recent research published in The Lancet Diabetes and Endocrinology has provided compelling evidence linking high glycemic index (GI) diets with an increased risk of type 2 diabetes.

EXPLANATION:

  • This comprehensive study, conducted across multiple continents, sheds light on the intricate relationship between dietary choices, GI, and diabetes risk.

Understanding Glycemic Index and Load:

  • Glycemic index (GI) is a measure that ranks carbohydrate-containing foods based on their postprandial blood glucose response.
  • Foods with a higher GI led to a more significant increase in blood sugar levels. Glycemic load (GL), on the other hand, considers both the quality and quantity of carbohydrates in a specific food item.
  • It is calculated by multiplying the GI by the amount of carbohydrate in a serving.

Controversies Surrounding GI and Diabetes:

  • Despite the intuitive connection between high GI diets and blood sugar levels, the association with diabetes has been a subject of debate.
  • Previous evidence has been limited, and the applicability to larger populations has been questioned.
  • The Lancet study seeks to address these controversies by providing robust evidence from a diverse cohort.

Study Design and Participants:

  • The study, part of the Prospective Urban and Rural Epidemiology (PURE) project, involved 127,594 adults aged 35–70 years from 20 countries across different income levels.
  • Participants were free from known diabetes at baseline and were followed up for nearly 12 years.
  • Their dietary intake was assessed using country-specific food frequency questionnaires, and GI and GL were estimated based on carbohydrate intake from seven food categories.

Key Findings:

  • After the follow-up period, 7,326 cases of type 2 diabetes were identified.
  • The analysis revealed a significant association between dietary GI and the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
  • Individuals with diets higher in GI were found to have a heightened risk of diabetes.
  • Moreover, participants with higher GL were also at increased risk compared to those with lower GL.
  • Interestingly, the study observed that the association between GI and diabetes risk was particularly pronounced among individuals with a higher Body Mass Index (BMI).
  • This highlights the interplay between dietary factors and metabolic health, emphasizing the importance of personalized dietary recommendations tailored to individual characteristics.

Implications for Diabetes Prevention:

  • The study’s findings suggest that adopting low GI and low GL diets may serve as a preventive measure against the development of type 2 diabetes.
  • By choosing foods that result in lower postprandial blood glucose levels, individuals can potentially mitigate their diabetes risk, especially those with higher BMIs or family histories of the condition.

Diabetes:

  • Diabetes is a disease that occurs when your blood glucose, also called blood sugar, is too high.
  • Glucose is your body’s main source of energy. Your body can make glucose, but glucose also comes from the food you eat.
  • Insulin is a hormone made by the pancreas that helps glucose get into your cells to be used for energy.
  • If you have diabetes, your body doesn’t make enough—or any—insulin, or doesn’t use insulin properly. Glucose then stays in your blood and doesn’t reach your cells.
  • Diabetes raises the risk for damage to the eyes, kidneys, nerves, and heart. Diabetes is also linked to some types of cancer.
  • Taking steps to prevent or manage diabetes may lower your risk of developing diabetes health problems.

Type 2 diabetes

  • If one has type 2 diabetes, the cells in the body don’t use insulin properly.
  • The pancreas may be making insulin but is not making enough insulin to keep your blood glucose level in the normal range.
  • Type 2 diabetes is the most common type of diabetes. One is more likely to develop type 2 diabetes if you have risk factors, such as overweight or obesity, and a family history of the disease. One can develop type 2 diabetes at any age, even during childhood.
  • Type 2 diabetes can be delayed or prevented by knowing the risk factors and taking steps toward a healthier lifestyle, such as losing weight or preventing weight gain.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/lancet-paper-provides-proof-for-undeniable-link-between-high-glycaemic-index-and-diabetes/article68043423.ece




EVOLUTIONARY MYSTERY OF HUMAN TAIL LOSS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The absence of a tail is a distinctive feature of apes, setting them apart from monkeys. While all mammals develop a tail at some point during embryonic development, apes lose theirs in utero, leaving behind vestigial vertebrae known as the coccyx or tailbone. The evolutionary origin of this phenomenon remained a mystery until recent breakthrough research shed light on a pivotal DNA change occurring 25 million years ago.

EXPLANATION:

Unraveling the Genetic Basis of Tail Loss:

  • Researchers identified a crucial DNA insertion event between segments of the TBXT gene (a gene already known as one of many involved in tail formation in monkeys) that led to the loss of tails in apes.
  • This insertion prevented the production of a functional protein necessary for tail formation.
  • The TBXT gene, known for its role in tail formation in monkeys, became a focal point of investigation.

The Role of ‘Junk’ DNA:

  • Previously dismissed as non-functional, ‘junk’ DNA has emerged as a critical regulator of gene expression and genome stability.
  • Within this non-coding region, primate-specific transposable elements, such as the Alu element, play a significant role.
  • Despite its small size, the Alu element’s ability to insert and replicate within the genome has far-reaching consequences, as demonstrated by its involvement in the tail loss of apes.

The Alu Accident:

  • Approximately 25 million years ago, an Alu insertion event occurred in the zygote of an ancient ape ancestor, altering the genetic code responsible for tail development.
  • This chance event, with a probability of one in a million, became permanently imprinted in the DNA of all subsequent ape species, marking the divergence of apes from their tailed ancestors.

Functional Implications of the TBXT Mutation:

  • The Alu insertion disrupted the stitching together of gene segments, resulting in a defective TBXT protein incapable of promoting tail formation.
  • Experimental evidence using mouse embryos engineered to express the mutated TBXT confirmed its role in tail loss, providing crucial insights into the evolutionary consequences of this genetic alteration.

Beyond Tail Loss:

  • The impact of the TBXT mutation extended beyond tail loss, leading to neural tube defects and necessitating compensatory genomic changes.
  • These adaptations underscore the intricate interplay between genetic mutations and evolutionary pressures, highlighting nature’s ability to capitalize on rare events to drive species divergence and adaptation.

Implications for Human Evolution:

  • The loss of the tail has been linked to the emergence of bipedalism in human ancestors, though the exact evolutionary advantage remains speculative.
  • Nonetheless, the evolutionary significance of the TBXT mutation lies in its role as a catalyst for the divergence of apes, including humans, and their subsequent dominance on Earth.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION, KINDLY REFER TO THE 8TH APRIL 2024 DNA TOPIC.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/a-freak-dna-change-25-million-years-ago-is-why-humans-lack-tails/article68042314.ece/amp/




Day-623 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to ‘technical recession’, consider the following statements:
    1. It occurs when there is a decline in output for three consecutive quarters.
    2. It is generally caused by a single event and is shorter in duration.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: A technical recession is a term used to describe two consecutive quarters of decline in output. In the case of a nation’s economy, the term usually refers to back-to-back contractions in real GDP.
    Statement 2 is correct: It is most often caused by a single event and is generally shorter in duration. For example, covid-19 induced lockdown pushed many countries into technical recession.
    Recently, several countries have again slipped into recession and many are at risk. The UK and Japan, Ireland and Finland are going through the phase of technical recession.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: A technical recession is a term used to describe two consecutive quarters of decline in output. In the case of a nation’s economy, the term usually refers to back-to-back contractions in real GDP.
    Statement 2 is correct: It is most often caused by a single event and is generally shorter in duration. For example, covid-19 induced lockdown pushed many countries into technical recession.
    Recently, several countries have again slipped into recession and many are at risk. The UK and Japan, Ireland and Finland are going through the phase of technical recession.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following:
    1. Increase in the savings rate in the economy
    2. Decrease in consumption activity in the economy
    3. Decrease in socio-economic inequality in the country
    4. Increase in investment activity in the country
    How many of the above are the likely effects of increase in financial inclusion in the country?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Financial inclusion is the process of ensuring access to financial products and services needed by vulnerable groups at an affordable cost in a transparent manner by institutional players.
    ● The term is broadly used to describe the provision of savings and loan services to the poor in an inexpensive and easy-to-use form.
    ● The concept of financial inclusion was first introduced in India in 2005 by the Reserve Bank of India.
    An increase in financial inclusion leads to many positive effects in the economy. These includes:
    ● Increase in the savings rate in the economy.
    ● Decrease in socio-economic inequality in the country.
    ● Increase in investment activity in the country.
    ● Improving access to credit for consumption and production purposes.
    It doesn’t lead to a decrease in consumption activity in the economy. In fact, research has shown that financial inclusion helps in streamlining the consumption activity of the vulnerable class during the times of economic shock as they have savings to fall back on.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Financial inclusion is the process of ensuring access to financial products and services needed by vulnerable groups at an affordable cost in a transparent manner by institutional players.
    ● The term is broadly used to describe the provision of savings and loan services to the poor in an inexpensive and easy-to-use form.
    ● The concept of financial inclusion was first introduced in India in 2005 by the Reserve Bank of India.
    An increase in financial inclusion leads to many positive effects in the economy. These includes:
    ● Increase in the savings rate in the economy.
    ● Decrease in socio-economic inequality in the country.
    ● Increase in investment activity in the country.
    ● Improving access to credit for consumption and production purposes.
    It doesn’t lead to a decrease in consumption activity in the economy. In fact, research has shown that financial inclusion helps in streamlining the consumption activity of the vulnerable class during the times of economic shock as they have savings to fall back on.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to the Prompt Corrective Action Plan, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a framework under which banks with weak financial metrics are put under watch by the RBI.
    2. The RBI monitors majorly five parameters to determine whether it needs to put a bank under the PCA plan.
    3. Lending operations are immediately prohibited for banks which are put under the framework.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: PCA is a system that the RBI imposes on banks showing signs of financial stress. It was introduced in 2002 by the RBI for scheduled commercial banks.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The RBI monitors majorly three parameters to determine whether it needs to put a bank under the PCA plan. These are Capital, Asset Quality and Leverage. Indicators to be tracked for Capital, Asset Quality and Leverage would be CRAR/ Common Equity Tier I Ratio, Net NPA Ratio and Tier-I Leverage Ratio, respectively.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: When a bank is placed under PCA, one or more of the following corrective actions may be prescribed:

    Specifications – Mandatory actions
    Risk Threshold 1 – Restriction on dividend distribution/remittance of profits. Promoters/Owners/Parent (in the case of foreign banks) to bring in capital
    Risk Threshold 2 – In addition to mandatory actions of Threshold 1, i. Restriction on branch expansion; domestic and/or overseas
    Risk Threshold 3 – In addition to mandatory actions of Threshold 1 & 2, Appropriate restrictions on capital expenditure, other than for technological upgradation within Board approved limits
    Lending operations are not immediately prohibited.
    The RBI has recently mandated extending the Prompt Corrective Action plan to government NBFCs from October 2024 onwards.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: PCA is a system that the RBI imposes on banks showing signs of financial stress. It was introduced in 2002 by the RBI for scheduled commercial banks.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The RBI monitors majorly three parameters to determine whether it needs to put a bank under the PCA plan. These are Capital, Asset Quality and Leverage. Indicators to be tracked for Capital, Asset Quality and Leverage would be CRAR/ Common Equity Tier I Ratio, Net NPA Ratio and Tier-I Leverage Ratio, respectively.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: When a bank is placed under PCA, one or more of the following corrective actions may be prescribed:

    Specifications – Mandatory actions
    Risk Threshold 1 – Restriction on dividend distribution/remittance of profits. Promoters/Owners/Parent (in the case of foreign banks) to bring in capital
    Risk Threshold 2 – In addition to mandatory actions of Threshold 1, i. Restriction on branch expansion; domestic and/or overseas
    Risk Threshold 3 – In addition to mandatory actions of Threshold 1 & 2, Appropriate restrictions on capital expenditure, other than for technological upgradation within Board approved limits
    Lending operations are not immediately prohibited.
    The RBI has recently mandated extending the Prompt Corrective Action plan to government NBFCs from October 2024 onwards.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. With reference to financial instruments, consider the following statements:
    1. Under the call money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days.
    2. Under the notice money market, funds are transacted on an overnight basis.
    3. Both are categorized as capital market instruments.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the call money market, funds are transacted on an overnight basis.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days.
    Participants in the call/notice money market currently include banks (excluding RRBs) and Primary Dealers (PDs), both as borrowers and lenders.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Money Market.
    ● The money market is a market for short-term financial assets that are close substitutes of money. The most important feature of a money market instrument is that it is liquid and can be turned over quickly at low cost and provides an avenue for equilibrating the short-term surplus funds of lenders and the requirements of borrowers.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the call money market, funds are transacted on an overnight basis.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the notice money market, funds are transacted for the period between 2 days and 14 days.
    Participants in the call/notice money market currently include banks (excluding RRBs) and Primary Dealers (PDs), both as borrowers and lenders.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The call/notice money market forms an important segment of the Money Market.
    ● The money market is a market for short-term financial assets that are close substitutes of money. The most important feature of a money market instrument is that it is liquid and can be turned over quickly at low cost and provides an avenue for equilibrating the short-term surplus funds of lenders and the requirements of borrowers.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, consider the following statements:
    1. The Green Revolution was introduced in the fifth Five-Year Plan.
    2. The Monopolistic and Restrictive Trade Practices Act was introduced in the fourth Five-Year Plan.
    3. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was introduced in the eighth Five-Year Plan.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Green Revolution as a strategy was introduced during the annual plans of 1966-69. The period was termed as Plan holiday as there was a departure from the five-year plans. The tenure for fifth FYP was 1974-79.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Monopolistic and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 was introduced in the fourth five-year plan (1969-74). It was aimed at preventing the monopolistic and restrictive trade practices that could be detrimental to fair competition and consumer interests.
    It was replaced by the Competition Commission Act, 2002.
    Statement 3 is correct: Mid-day meal scheme was introduced in 1995, which was the eighth plan (1992-97).
    The scheme was introduced under the National Program of Nutritional Support to Primary Education for enhancement of enrolment, retention, improvement of attendance and quality of education and improving nutritional levels among children. By the year 1997-98, the program was introduced in all districts of the country.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Green Revolution as a strategy was introduced during the annual plans of 1966-69. The period was termed as Plan holiday as there was a departure from the five-year plans. The tenure for fifth FYP was 1974-79.
    Statement 2 is correct: The Monopolistic and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 was introduced in the fourth five-year plan (1969-74). It was aimed at preventing the monopolistic and restrictive trade practices that could be detrimental to fair competition and consumer interests.
    It was replaced by the Competition Commission Act, 2002.
    Statement 3 is correct: Mid-day meal scheme was introduced in 1995, which was the eighth plan (1992-97).
    The scheme was introduced under the National Program of Nutritional Support to Primary Education for enhancement of enrolment, retention, improvement of attendance and quality of education and improving nutritional levels among children. By the year 1997-98, the program was introduced in all districts of the country.

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WSDP Bulletin (09/04/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Critically Endangered Javan Rhino Calf Spotted In Indonesia READ MORE

2. A freak DNA change 25 million years ago is why humans lack tails READ MORE

3. Right against climate change a distinct fundamental and human right, SC judgment READ MORE

4. Lancet paper provides proof for undeniable link between high glycaemic index and diabetes READ MORE

5. What is a citizen’s ‘right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change’, underlined by Supreme Court? READ MORE

6. Why VVPAT was brought in, why Opposition wants all slips verified READ MORE

7. How solar eclipse will help study Sun, why Aditya L1’s view will not be blocked READ MORE

8. Remembering Mangal Pandey, and the legacy of the revolt he inspired READ MORE

9. Corals can bounce back after heat waves, but only if there’s enough time between them READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Gone too soon — the subject of youth suicide in India READ MORE

2. How did the seafloor turn into mountains? A tectonic step decoded READ MORE

3. What causes earthquakes in Northeast US, like the magnitude 4.8 that shook New Jersey? A geoscientist explains READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. How anti-money laundering law came to have a vast scope, granting police powers to ED READ MORE

2. Perverse intent: On the Citizenship (Amendment) Act READ MORE

3. How electoral bond verdict puts individual rights at risk READ MORE

4. Heed SC message on climate READ MORE

5. State Funding, Right to Recall and More: Why Electoral Reforms Can’t Wait Any Longer READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Shaping India’s path to inclusive health care READ MORE

2. Global health: Embracing ‘My Health, My Right’ READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Are India-US ties really in a ‘free-fall’, or are sceptics missing the wood for the trees? READ MORE

2. A stabilised or destabilised Europe: After 75 years, NATO must stop expanding READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. A new methodology with some issues READ MORE

2. With Indian economy comfortably placed, it’s time to focus on quality of growth READ MORE

3. Need to focus on market-oriented skill development READ MORE

4. India’s wealth inequality is rising READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. What are wildlife corridors? READ MORE

2. Carbon dioxide in 2023 comparable to 4.3 billion years ago as global greenhouse gas levels hit all-time high: NOAA READ MORE

3. Heat affects India’s aim to move from coal to renewables READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Prioritising health for a sustainable future READ MORE

2. Generative AI creates challenges in intellectual property and epistemology READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Marching ahead with technology absorption READ MORE

2. India is a responsible power, targeting terrorists beyond border is a statement of intent READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Mitigating risks in infrastructure development READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. This Quote Means: ‘An unexamined life is not worth living’, by Socrates READ MORE

2. Let’s embrace imperfections READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. While the Supreme Court’s decision to strike down the electoral bonds scheme represents a significant stride towards heightened transparency in political funding, it is unlikely to solely eliminate the pervasive issue of monetary influence in elections. Critically examine.

2. The right to recall epitomises a more direct and participatory form of democracy, empowering voters while ensuring elected representatives remain answerable. Analyse.

3. India-US ties are subject to a perpetual cycle of optimism and pessimism independent of geopolitical realities. Examine.

4. Digitalisation and increased formalisation appear to have pushed India’s potential higher, but there is now hope for growth that is sustainable and inclusive. Comment.

5. The constitutional right to health is critical to breaking the vicious cycle of poverty and poor health. Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • Anyone who has proclaimed violence as his method inexorably must choose lying as his principle.
  • The Court must declare the CAA as unconstitutional and revoke its implementation because of its arbitrary and selective norms for providing citizenship to migrants.
  • The Indian military is moving in the desired direction but the challenge will be to sustain this with a nuanced understanding of the requirements as applicable. In this context, there are many lessons from recent and ongoing wars, and should not be lost sight of.
  • While the methodology for the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey is more refined now, the survey needs to address some methodological challenges.
  • Digitalisation and increased formalisation appear to have pushed India’s potential higher, but there is now hope for growth that is sustainable and inclusive.
  • Retrospective nature of law-making and subsequent political witch-hunting leads to erosion of people’s faith in system.
  • The rule of law that the highest court has established through the electoral bonds judgment is that the most powerful institutions can strike at individual rights retrospectively by annulling a law.
  • The fundamental difference between government and judiciary is in the accountability of their actions. In an electoral democracy, governments are ultimately accountable to people, and a misjudgement of policies that affect people can result in them being thrown out of power.
  • India and Sri Lanka share a civilisational mutuality. They must be exemplars of it on Katchatheevu, making it a shelter for fishermen from both countries.
  • If the skill gap between the youth and industry is fixed, there will be no dearth of jobs and progress right here.
  • The World Inequality Lab report says India’s top one per cent of the population holds a staggering 40.1 per cent of the nation’s wealth.
  • The Government must ensure that every individual has a constitutional right to access resources that can help reduce poverty and inequality.
  • The definition and identification of BPL families in India need to be reconsidered. The government should focus more on pro-poor policies for domestic resource mobilisation.
  • The escalating threat of water pollution demands collective action and concerted efforts to safeguard our environment. Water conservation must become a cornerstone of our collective ethos, ensuring the sustainable future of Ladakh and its people.
  • While the Supreme Court’s decision to strike down the scheme represents a significant stride towards heightened transparency in political funding, it is unlikely to solely eliminate the pervasive issue of monetary influence in elections.
  • The principle of the right to recall an elected representative in case of contravening the constituency’s interests stands as a robust mechanism for bolstering citizen engagement in the electoral construct.
  • The right to initiate legislation is a crucial mechanism that can empower individuals and communities, potentially ending marginalization. Public referendums and involvement in decision-making processes enhance transparency and accountability significantly.
  • The right to recall epitomises a more direct and participatory form of democracy, empowering voters while ensuring elected representatives remain answerable.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • An unexamined life is not worth living

50-WORD TALK

  • NSA Ajit Doval has called out the elephant in the room by telling China-led SCO to shed double standards and hold accountable those who sponsor, finance and facilitate terrorism. China cannot talk about need to counter terrorism jointly when it works against UNSC designation of wanted terrorists staying in Pakistan.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



IMPACT OF MINING ON AFRICA’s GREAT APES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: A recent study published in the journal Science Advances has shed light on the alarming threat posed by mining activities to Africa’s great apes.

EXPLANATION:

  • It was led by researchers from the German Centre for Integrative Biodiversity Research and Martin Luther University Halle-Wittenberg, in collaboration with the conservation organization Re:wild.
  • The study underscores the significant risk faced by gorillas, chimpanzees, bonobos, and orangutans due to mining operations across the continent.

Extent of Threat

  • The study reveals that nearly 180,000 individuals, representing more than a third of Africa’s great ape population, are either directly or indirectly threatened by mining activities, both currently and in the foreseeable future.
  • The intersection of mining areas with critical habitats, crucial for the biodiversity of these species, is particularly concerning, with approximately 20% of mining areas overlapping with such habitats.

Regional Disparities

  • West Africa emerges as a region of heightened concern, with up to 82% of the great ape population residing near operational or pre-operational mining sites.
  • Countries like Liberia, Sierra Leone, Mali, and Guinea are identified as particularly vulnerable, with high proportional overlaps between ape population abundance and mining areas.
  • For instance, in Guinea, over 23,000 chimpanzees could be impacted, potentially affecting up to 83% of the country’s ape population.

Drivers of Threat

  • The study highlights the burgeoning demand for critical minerals, essential for clean energy transitions, as a key driver behind the mining boom in Africa.
  • This demand incentivizes the exploitation of untapped resources, leading to deforestation and habitat destruction in great ape habitats.
  • Additionally, inadequate protection of sensitive areas, characterized by high ape and mining densities, exacerbates the threat faced by these species.

Methodology and Findings

  • Researchers employed primates as a case study to quantify the impact of industrial mining on wildlife populations, establishing 10-kilometer buffer zones around mining sites to account for direct impacts such as habitat destruction, as well as indirect impacts like light and noise pollution.
  • The study’s findings underscore the significant negative impact of mining activities on ape populations in and around operational and pre-operational mining sites across 17 African countries.

Implications for Conservation

  • The study underscores the urgent need for enhanced conservation efforts to protect Africa’s great apes from the detrimental effects of mining activities.
  • Strengthening environmental regulations and ensuring compliance with international standards, particularly in regions with high ape and mining densities, is imperative.
  • Moreover, proactive measures to mitigate habitat loss and fragmentation, coupled with sustainable mining practices, are essential to safeguarding the long-term survival of these iconic species amidst increasing anthropogenic pressures.

Great Apes:

  • The gorilla, chimpanzee, bonobo, and orangutan are called great apes in recognition of their comparatively large size and humanlike features; the gibbons are called lesser apes.
  • The great apes are much more intelligent than monkeys and gibbons. Great apes, for example, are able to recognize themselves in mirrors (monkeys and other nonhumans cannot, with the exception of bottlenose dolphins).
  • They can also reason abstractly, learn quasi-linguistic communication, at least when taught by humans, and learn in captivity to make simple tools (though some populations of orangutans and chimpanzees make tools in the wild).
  • The great apes were formerly classified in their own family, Pongidae, but, because of their extremely close relation to humans and the fact that orangutans, gorillas, and chimpanzees are not as closely related to each other as chimpanzees are to humans, all are now grouped with humans in the family Hominidae.
  • Within this family, gorillas, chimpanzees, and humans make up the subfamily Homininae, while orangutans are placed in their own subfamily, Ponginae. Within Homininae, humans are often placed in their own “tribe,” Hominini.
  • Also placed in distinct tribes are gorillas (tribe Gorillini) and chimpanzees (tribe Panini).
  • All nonhuman apes have been classified as endangered species.

Great apes

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/nearly-180-000-of-africa-s-great-apes-face-threats-due-to-mining-study-95441




CONSERVATION EFFORTS FOR EASTERN BRISTLEBIRDS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The release of eight captive-bred eastern bristlebirds into the wild at Border Ranges National Park marks a significant milestone in conservation efforts to save this critically endangered species.

EXPLANATION:

  • Led by collaboration between government agencies and wildlife sanctuaries, the program aims to bolster the northern population of eastern bristlebirds, which faces imminent extinction due to habitat loss and fragmentation.

Species Status and Threats

  • The eastern bristlebird population is dwindling, with fewer than 2,500 individuals remaining in the wild.
  • The northern population, particularly vulnerable and critically endangered, is estimated to consist of fewer than 50 individuals.
  • Habitat degradation, habitat loss, and invasive species pose significant threats to their survival.
  • The captive breeding and release program represent a proactive response to mitigate these threats and prevent the extinction of the species.

Collaborative Conservation Initiative

  • The success of the captive breeding and release program hinges on collaboration among various stakeholders, including the NSW Department of Planning and Environment, Queensland’s Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary, and the NSW National Parks and Wildlife Service.
  • Through concerted efforts, the program seeks to augment the genetic diversity and resilience of the northern population of eastern bristlebirds, thereby ensuring the long-term viability of the species.

Release and Monitoring

  • Each released bird is equipped with a radio transmitter and identification bands to facilitate monitoring and tracking in the wild.
  • Early observations reveal promising signs of the captive-bred birds integrating and bonding with the wild population, fostering optimism among conservationists.
  • The program’s success is underscored by the careful preparation and acclimatization of the birds to their natural habitat, ensuring their ability to survive and thrive in the wild.

Preparation for Survival

  • Extensive measures are undertaken to prepare captive-bred birds for life in the wild.
  • These include weaning the birds from parental care, familiarizing them with wild foods and foraging behaviors, and simulating natural habitats to encourage socialization and adaptation.
  • Such preparatory measures enhance the birds’ chances of survival and successful integration into the wild population, contributing to the overall success of the conservation program.

Future Directions

  • The captive breeding and release program are part of a broader conservation strategy aimed at restoring habitat and population levels of eastern bristlebirds.
  • With plans for biannual releases over the next nine years, the program demonstrates a long-term commitment to species recovery and ecosystem restoration.
  • Concurrent efforts to restore grassy understorey habitats are integral to the program’s success, highlighting the importance of habitat restoration in species conservation.

Border Ranges National Park:

  • The Border Ranges National Park is a protected national park that is located in the Northern Rivers region of New South Wales, Australia.
  • A small portion of the national park is also located in South East Queensland. The 31,729-hectare (78,400-acre) park is situated approximately 150 kilometres (93 mi) south of Brisbane, north of Kyogle.
  • The park is part of the Shield Volcano Group World Heritage Site Gondwana Rainforests of Australia inscribed in 1986 and added to the Australian National Heritage List in 2007.
  • The Border Ranges region, which includes the McPherson Range, Tweed Range, Lamington Plateau and Levers Plateau, were formed from the erosion of the Tweed Volcano over many years.
  • A number of volcanic plugs remain in the Border Ranges National Park.

Eastern bristlebird:

  • The eastern bristlebird (Dasyornis brachypterus) is a species of bird in the bristlebird family, Dasyornithidae.
  • It is endemic to Australia. Its natural habitats are temperate forests, temperate shrubland, and temperate grassland. It is threatened by habitat loss.
  • The eastern bristlebird is very territorial and will often use a distinct, loud melodic song to mark its territory.
  • Surveys have found the bird prefers to live in small, localised populations, and prefer to build their nests on the ground in areas of dense, clumped grasses.
  • This species is often found in open woodland, adjacent to rainforest. Preferred habitats tend to be dominated by a Eucalyptus canopy with a dense ground cover.
  • This species feeds predominantly on invertebrates, usually ants, beetles, cockroaches, orthopteran and caterpillars. Individuals also eat a large number of seeds and fruits.
  • It has been listed as Vulnerable as per the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.

SOURCE: https://www.abc.net.au/news/2024-04-07/breeding-program-for-endangered-eastern-bristlebird-nsw/103638762




RESILIENCE OF CORAL REEFS IN THE FACE OF CLIMATE CHANGE

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The study conducted by the Australian Institute of Marine Science (AIMS) sheds light on the remarkable resilience of coral reefs, particularly focusing on the remote Scott Reefs in northwest Australia.

EXPLANATION:

  • Spanning over three decades, the research encompasses various disturbances including cyclones and mass bleaching events triggered by marine heatwaves.
  • By analyzing long-term data, researchers delineate cycles of collapse and recovery within coral populations, elucidating the critical role of time in facilitating reef regeneration.

Resilience and Recovery Dynamics

  • Findings from the study underscore the intrinsic capacity of coral ecosystems to rebound from disturbances, exemplified by the observed patterns of coral regeneration following bleaching events.
  • An Australian Institute of Marine Science (AIMS) coral scientist emphasizes the importance of temporal intervals between disturbances for facilitating recovery.
  • However, the study warns that recurrent and frequent disturbances, as projected in future climate scenarios, pose a grave threat to coral resilience, potentially leading to ecosystem collapse.

Genetic Diversity as a Buffer

  • Genetic analyses conducted as part of the research reveal that coral diversity remains intact over time, a crucial factor in bolstering resilience against climate change.
  • The significance of genetic diversity in fueling adaptation and enhancing the ability of coral reefs to withstand environmental stressors has been highlighted.
  • The study underscores the importance of preserving genetic diversity, especially in remote reef systems like Scott Reefs, to sustain healthy coral populations and promote long-term resilience.

Implications for Larger Reef Systems

  • The insights gleaned from the study hold broader implications for coral reef ecosystems worldwide, including the iconic Great Barrier Reef.
  • By elucidating fundamental ecological processes and evolutionary dynamics, the research offers valuable lessons that can inform conservation and management strategies for larger reef systems.
  • The relevance of understanding resilience mechanisms in isolated reef ecosystems like Scott Reefs has been emphasized, which serve as microcosms for studying broader reef dynamics and informing conservation efforts.

Challenges and Future Projections

  • Despite the current resilience demonstrated by coral reefs, the study underscores the looming threat posed by climate change-induced disturbances.
  • There are challenges posed by recurrent mass bleaching events, exacerbated by factors such as El Niño conditions and climate change.
  • While Western Australia’s coral reefs presently exhibit robust health, the long-term prognosis remains uncertain in the face of escalating climate-related pressures.

Corals and Coral Bleaching

  • Coral reefs are vital ecosystems built by coral polyps, which have a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae algae.
  • When water temperatures rise, corals expel these algae, leading to bleaching—a phenomenon where corals lose their vibrant colors and eventually die.
  • Ocean acidification exacerbates bleaching by reducing calcium mineral availability for coral exoskeletons.

Types of coral reefs in India:

  • Fringing reefs
    • Fringing reefs evolve and develop near the continent and remain close to the coastline. These reefs are separated from the coastline by small, shallow lagoons. They are the most commonly found reefs in the world.
  • Barrier reefs
    • Barrier reefs are found offshore on the continental shelf. They usually run parallel to the coastline at some distance. A deep and wide lagoon is located between the coastline and the barrier reef.
  • Atolls
    • Atolls are formed on mid-oceanic ridges. They are shaped circularly or elliptically and are surrounded by seas on all four sides and have shallow waters in the center called a lagoon.
  • All the three major reef types occur in India. The mainland coast of India has two widely separated areas containing reefs: the Gulf of Kachchh in the northwest, which has some of the most northerly reefs in the world, and Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar in the southeast.
  • In addition to these, there are patches of reef growth on the West Coast, for example, coral reefs at Malvan.
  • The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have fringing reefs around many islands, and a long barrier reef (329 km) on the west coast.
  • Little is known about these reefs, which may be the most diverse and pristine reefs in India. The Lakshadweep also has extensive reefs but these are also poorly explored.

Impact of Climate Change on Coral Reefs

  • Global warming has resulted in widespread coral bleaching events, causing significant damage to coral reefs worldwide.
  • The loss of coral reefs has severe repercussions for coastal communities, including those inhabiting coral islands like Lakshadweep, who rely on these ecosystems for livelihoods and protection from rising sea levels.

SOURCE: https://phys.org/news/2024-04-corals.html#google_vignette




EMERGENCE OF AVIAN INFLUENZA H5N1 IN U.S. DAIRY COWS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The detection of highly pathogenic Avian Influenza H5N1 in dairy cows across six states in the United States heralds a concerning development in the ongoing global battle against avian influenza.

EXPLANATION:

  • This multistate outbreak, initially observed in Texas and subsequently spreading to states like Kansas, Michigan, New Mexico, Idaho, and Ohio, underscores the potential for cross-species transmission of avian influenza viruses.
  • The mild symptoms exhibited by the infected cattle highlight the challenges in early detection and containment, especially considering that cattle are not routinely tested for avian influenza.

Spillover Risk and Human Infections

  • The occurrence of a human infection of H5N1 linked to contact with infected cows in Texas accentuates the looming threat of zoonotic spillover events.
  • While the infected individual experienced mild symptoms and recovered following treatment with antivirals, the incident underscores the potential for human-to-animal transmission and highlights the vulnerability of individuals with prolonged exposure to infected animals, such as farm workers.
  • Despite the relatively low risk of human infections, the sporadic nature of H5N1 outbreaks and the high case-fatality ratio underscore the importance of vigilant surveillance and public health measures.

Global Context and Genomic Insights

  • The genomic sequencing of H5N1 strains from infected cows and the human case sheds light on the genetic makeup of the virus and its potential for adaptation in mammalian hosts.
  • While both strains belong to clade 2.3.4.4b of H5N1, the human strain exhibits a minor mutation possibly associated with adaptation in mammals.
  • However, the current evidence suggests that this mutation does not confer increased transmissibility among humans, mitigating immediate concerns regarding public health implications.
  • Nevertheless, the global circulation of H5N1 in wild birds, coupled with sporadic infections in mammals, underscores the need for continued genomic surveillance and research to elucidate the mechanisms of viral transmission and adaptation across species boundaries.

Implications for Disease Management

  • The outbreak of H5N1 in U.S. dairy cows necessitates a comprehensive and coordinated response to mitigate the spread of the virus and safeguard both animal and human health.
  • Enhanced disease surveillance, coupled with stringent biosecurity measures in farms and livestock facilities, is imperative to prevent further transmission and contain the outbreak.
  • Additionally, proactive measures to educate and protect individuals with occupational exposure to infected animals, such as farmers and veterinarians, are essential to minimize the risk of zoonotic transmission.

Future Directions and Research Imperatives

  • The emergence of H5N1 in dairy cows underscores the dynamic nature of avian influenza viruses and the persistent threat they pose to global health security.
  • Continued research into the epidemiology, transmission dynamics, and host adaptation of H5N1 is essential to inform evidence-based strategies for disease control and prevention.
  • Moreover, international collaboration and data sharing are paramount to monitor the evolution of avian influenza viruses and develop effective countermeasures to mitigate their impact on human and animal populations worldwide.

Bird flu and H5N1:

  • Bird flu, also known as avian flu, refers to an infectious viral illness that mainly infects and spreads among poultry and some wild birds.
  • There are different strains of bird flu virus, which have been circulating for a very long time among at least 100 bird species, including wild waterfowl, such as ducks and geese, without much harming them.
  • From time to time, a form of the flu virus jumps from wild birds to poultry farms, and replicates in cramped warehouses of farmed birds.
  • It then quickly evolves into a highly pathogenic flu virus that causes a larger wave of illness and death than usual among birds.
  • The currently circulating type of H5N1 is one such highly pathogenic flu virus.
  • It has “descended from a virus that caused an outbreak on a goose farm in Guangdong, China, in 1996.
  • That virus — one of a type of virus known as H5N1 — was highly pathogenic and killed more than 40 per cent of the farm birds it infected.
  • The new version of H5N1 first emerged in Europe in 2020 and then rapidly reached Europe, Africa, and Asia.
  • By late 2021, it had spread to North America and in the fall of 2022, it appeared in South America.
  • In February 2024, the virus stormed through mainland Antarctica.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/influenza-a-h5n1-detected-in-dairy-cows-in-six-states-in-the-us/article68032556.ece/amp/




RECOGNITION OF RIGHT AGAINST CLIMATE CHANGE

TAG: GS 2: POLITY, GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: In a groundbreaking judgment, the Supreme Court of India has recognized the right against the adverse effects of climate change as a distinct fundamental right within the framework of the Indian Constitution.

EXPLANATION:

  • Chief Justice eloquently articulated that this right, while closely intertwined with the right to a clean environment, deserves explicit acknowledgment due to the escalating havoc wreaked by climate change.
  • This assertion aligns with the ethos of Articles 14 (right to equality) and 21 (right to life), underpinning the core principles of justice and dignity enshrined in the Constitution.

Interplay of Fundamental Rights

  • The Supreme Court astutely linked the right against climate change to the foundational principles of Articles 21 and 14.
  • By emphasizing that the rights to life and equality inherently necessitate a clean and stable environment, the judiciary underscores the indivisibility of human rights and environmental protection.
  • It elucidated that the right to health, a vital component of Article 21, is imperiled by climate change-induced phenomena such as air pollution, vector-borne diseases, and extreme weather events.
  • The judgment cogently argues that the inability of marginalized communities to adapt to climate change infringes upon their right to life and equality, exacerbating existing socio-economic disparities.

Holistic Approach to Climate Change and Human Rights

  • Furthermore, the court adopted a holistic approach, recognizing the intricate nexus between climate change and a plethora of human rights, including health, indigenous rights, gender equality, and the right to development.
  • This enlightened perspective underscores the universality and interconnectedness of human rights, emphasizing that environmental degradation disproportionately affects marginalized and vulnerable communities.
  • By delineating the right to a healthy environment as a fundamental human right, the judiciary aptly underscores its commitment to safeguarding the dignity and well-being of all citizens.

Solar Power as a Panacea

  • In addressing the urgent imperative of mitigating climate change, the court extolled the virtues of solar power as a sustainable solution.
  • India’s ambitious goal to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil-based electricity generation capacity by 2030 reflects a paradigm shift towards renewable energy sources.
  • The court cogently argues that harnessing India’s vast solar potential not only mitigates environmental degradation but also fosters socio-economic development.
  • By reducing reliance on fossil fuels, India enhances its energy security, curbs air pollution, and catalyzes sustainable growth, thereby reaping multifaceted benefits for its citizens.

Policy Imperatives and Legislative Lacunae

  • While acknowledging governmental efforts to combat climate change through policies and regulations, the judgment underscores the absence of comprehensive legislation specifically addressing climate change in India.
  • However, the judiciary unequivocally affirms that the absence of a dedicated legislative framework does not negate the inherent right of citizens to be protected against the adverse effects of climate change.
  • This assertion reiterates the judiciary’s role as the custodian of constitutional rights, ensuring that the imperatives of environmental protection are enshrined within the legal framework.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/right-against-climate-change-a-distinct-fundamental-and-human-right-sc-judgment/article68041693.ece




Day-622 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GEOGRAPHY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Badwater Basin, seen in the news recently, is located in which one of the following countries?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    About Badwater Basin:
    ● Badwater Basin is an endorheic basin in Death Valley National Park, Death Valley, California (U.S.A).
    ● It is noted as the lowest point in North America and the United States, with a depth of 282 ft (86 m) below sea level.
    ● Near Mount Whitney, the highest point in the contiguous United States.
    ● Badwater Basin’s endorheic nature means water flows into it but not out, typically resulting in rapid evaporation and ephemeral lakes. However, increased precipitation over the past six months has disrupted this pattern.
    Recent phenomenon which has been observed:
    ● Recent heavy rainfall, following Hurricane Hilary in August 2023, has altered the landscape of the region and has resulted in the appearance of a Lake.
    ● The lake initially reduced in size, but surprisingly persisted through the fall and winter seasons. Its recovery in February 2024 was facilitated by a robust atmospheric river that replenished its waters.
    ● Usually, Death Valley recieves an average annual rainfall of only 51 millimetres but a remarkable 125 mm fell in the past half-year alone, primarily due to two significant weather events. The remnants of Hurricane Hilary deposited 55.88 mm precipitation on August 20, 2023, followed by an atmospheric river bringing another 38.1 mm from February 4-7, 2024.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    About Badwater Basin:
    ● Badwater Basin is an endorheic basin in Death Valley National Park, Death Valley, California (U.S.A).
    ● It is noted as the lowest point in North America and the United States, with a depth of 282 ft (86 m) below sea level.
    ● Near Mount Whitney, the highest point in the contiguous United States.
    ● Badwater Basin’s endorheic nature means water flows into it but not out, typically resulting in rapid evaporation and ephemeral lakes. However, increased precipitation over the past six months has disrupted this pattern.
    Recent phenomenon which has been observed:
    ● Recent heavy rainfall, following Hurricane Hilary in August 2023, has altered the landscape of the region and has resulted in the appearance of a Lake.
    ● The lake initially reduced in size, but surprisingly persisted through the fall and winter seasons. Its recovery in February 2024 was facilitated by a robust atmospheric river that replenished its waters.
    ● Usually, Death Valley recieves an average annual rainfall of only 51 millimetres but a remarkable 125 mm fell in the past half-year alone, primarily due to two significant weather events. The remnants of Hurricane Hilary deposited 55.88 mm precipitation on August 20, 2023, followed by an atmospheric river bringing another 38.1 mm from February 4-7, 2024.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Rip currents are one of the most well-known coastal hazards on beaches around the world.
    Statement-II: Rip currents are channeled currents of water flowing away from the shore at surf beaches.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Statement-I is correct:
    ● Rip currents are present on many beaches every day of the year, but they are usually too slow to be dangerous to beachgoers. However, under certain wave, tide, and beach shape conditions they can increase to dangerous speeds. The strength and speed of a rip current will likely increase as wave height and wave period increase.

    ● Rip currents are a potential source of danger for people in shallow water with breaking waves, whether this is in seas, oceans or large lakes.
    ● Rip currents are the proximate cause of 80% of rescues carried out by beach lifeguards.
    Statement-II is correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I:
    ● Rip currents: Rip currents are channeled currents of water flowing away from shore at surf beaches. They typically extend from near the shoreline, through the surf zone and past the line of breaking waves. (The surf zone is the area between the high tide level on the beach to the seaward side of breaking waves.)
    How do rip currents form?
    ● Rip currents form when waves break near the shoreline, piling up water between the breaking waves and the beach. One of the ways this water returns to sea is to form a rip current, a narrow stream of water moving swiftly away from shore, often perpendicular to the shoreline.
    ● Drowning deaths occur when people pulled offshore are unable to keep themselves afloat and swim to shore. This may be due to any combination of fear, panic, exhaustion, or lack of swimming skills.

    ● Rip currents are the greatest surf zone hazard to all beachgoers. They can sweep even the strongest swimmer out to sea. Rip currents are particularly dangerous for weak and non-swimmers.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Statement-I is correct:
    ● Rip currents are present on many beaches every day of the year, but they are usually too slow to be dangerous to beachgoers. However, under certain wave, tide, and beach shape conditions they can increase to dangerous speeds. The strength and speed of a rip current will likely increase as wave height and wave period increase.

    ● Rip currents are a potential source of danger for people in shallow water with breaking waves, whether this is in seas, oceans or large lakes.
    ● Rip currents are the proximate cause of 80% of rescues carried out by beach lifeguards.
    Statement-II is correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I:
    ● Rip currents: Rip currents are channeled currents of water flowing away from shore at surf beaches. They typically extend from near the shoreline, through the surf zone and past the line of breaking waves. (The surf zone is the area between the high tide level on the beach to the seaward side of breaking waves.)
    How do rip currents form?
    ● Rip currents form when waves break near the shoreline, piling up water between the breaking waves and the beach. One of the ways this water returns to sea is to form a rip current, a narrow stream of water moving swiftly away from shore, often perpendicular to the shoreline.
    ● Drowning deaths occur when people pulled offshore are unable to keep themselves afloat and swim to shore. This may be due to any combination of fear, panic, exhaustion, or lack of swimming skills.

    ● Rip currents are the greatest surf zone hazard to all beachgoers. They can sweep even the strongest swimmer out to sea. Rip currents are particularly dangerous for weak and non-swimmers.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements:
    1. River Subansiri is a right bank tributary of the Brahmaputra river.
    2. River Gomati is the left bank tributary of the Ganga river.
    3. River Zanskar is the left bank tributary of the Indus river.
    4. River Vaitarna is a left bank tributary of the Tapi river.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation: Only Statement 4 is incorrect.
    Statement 1 is correct:
    ● Subansiri river also known as the “Gold River” is the largest tributary of the Upper Brahmaputra river.
    ● It originates from the Tibetan Himalayas and makes its way to India via (Miri Hills) Arunachal Pradesh.
    ● It flows through Arunachal Pradesh and joins Brahmaputra as its right bank tributary in Assam.

    ● Subansiri river has been in news for the landslide that took place at Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project on the border of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam after a large part of the hill on the left side of the dam collapsed into its reservoir.
    Statement 2 is correct:
    About Gomati river:
    ● Gomti is a left bank tributary of the Ganga River and an alluvial river of the Ganga Plain.
    ● It originates near Mainkot, from Gomat Taala lake (Fulhar Jheel) in Madhotanda, around 30 kilometers from Pilibhit town.
    ● The river flows through Sitapur, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur, and Jaunpur before meeting the Ganga at Kaithi, Ghazipur district.
    ● Tributaries: Kathina, Bhainsi, Sarayan, Gon, Reth, Sai, Pili, and Kalyani
    ● The total length of the river is about 960 kilometers.
    ● Gomti is the source of drinking water to Lucknow city.
    In news: Recently, over 600 turtles seized from smugglers were released into the Gomti river in forest area of Malihabad near Chandrika Devi Temple.

    Statement 3 is correct:
    Zanskar river:
    ● The Zanskar River is the major left bank tributary of the Indus River.

    ● It flows entirely within Ladakh, India.
    ● It originates northeast of the Great Himalayan range and drains both the Himalayas and the Zanskar Range within the region of Zanskar.
    ● Zanskar River has two main branches, one is Doda with main source near Pansi-La Pass and other branches are formed by Kargyag River (source near Shingo La) and Tsarap River (source near Baralacha La).
    ● The river meanders north –westwards through the dramatic gorge of Zanskar and finally meets the Indus River near Nimmu of Ladakh region.
    In news: The Chief of the Naval Staff recently inaugurated the Indian Navy’s Chadar Trek expedition at INS Shivaji. It takes place on the frozen Zanskar River in Ladakh.
    Statement 4 is incorrect:
    ● The river Vaitarna is one of the west flowing rivers in the region North of Mumbai and South of the Tapi River.
    ● The river rises in the Sahyadri hill range at Trimbak in the Nasik district of Maharashtra State and after traversing a distance of about 120 km in Maharashtra towards west, it joins the Arabian Sea. So, it does not join any other river as a tributary.
    ● Main tributaries: Pinjal, Ganjai, Surya, Daharji, Tansa.
    ● Significance – Vaitarna supplies much of Mumbai’s drinking water. It is the largest river in the Northern Konkan region and drains Maharashtra’s whole Palghar district.
    In news: A fisherman from Maharashtra’s Palghar district was attacked by a bull shark in the Vaitarna river.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation: Only Statement 4 is incorrect.
    Statement 1 is correct:
    ● Subansiri river also known as the “Gold River” is the largest tributary of the Upper Brahmaputra river.
    ● It originates from the Tibetan Himalayas and makes its way to India via (Miri Hills) Arunachal Pradesh.
    ● It flows through Arunachal Pradesh and joins Brahmaputra as its right bank tributary in Assam.

    ● Subansiri river has been in news for the landslide that took place at Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project on the border of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam after a large part of the hill on the left side of the dam collapsed into its reservoir.
    Statement 2 is correct:
    About Gomati river:
    ● Gomti is a left bank tributary of the Ganga River and an alluvial river of the Ganga Plain.
    ● It originates near Mainkot, from Gomat Taala lake (Fulhar Jheel) in Madhotanda, around 30 kilometers from Pilibhit town.
    ● The river flows through Sitapur, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur, and Jaunpur before meeting the Ganga at Kaithi, Ghazipur district.
    ● Tributaries: Kathina, Bhainsi, Sarayan, Gon, Reth, Sai, Pili, and Kalyani
    ● The total length of the river is about 960 kilometers.
    ● Gomti is the source of drinking water to Lucknow city.
    In news: Recently, over 600 turtles seized from smugglers were released into the Gomti river in forest area of Malihabad near Chandrika Devi Temple.

    Statement 3 is correct:
    Zanskar river:
    ● The Zanskar River is the major left bank tributary of the Indus River.

    ● It flows entirely within Ladakh, India.
    ● It originates northeast of the Great Himalayan range and drains both the Himalayas and the Zanskar Range within the region of Zanskar.
    ● Zanskar River has two main branches, one is Doda with main source near Pansi-La Pass and other branches are formed by Kargyag River (source near Shingo La) and Tsarap River (source near Baralacha La).
    ● The river meanders north –westwards through the dramatic gorge of Zanskar and finally meets the Indus River near Nimmu of Ladakh region.
    In news: The Chief of the Naval Staff recently inaugurated the Indian Navy’s Chadar Trek expedition at INS Shivaji. It takes place on the frozen Zanskar River in Ladakh.
    Statement 4 is incorrect:
    ● The river Vaitarna is one of the west flowing rivers in the region North of Mumbai and South of the Tapi River.
    ● The river rises in the Sahyadri hill range at Trimbak in the Nasik district of Maharashtra State and after traversing a distance of about 120 km in Maharashtra towards west, it joins the Arabian Sea. So, it does not join any other river as a tributary.
    ● Main tributaries: Pinjal, Ganjai, Surya, Daharji, Tansa.
    ● Significance – Vaitarna supplies much of Mumbai’s drinking water. It is the largest river in the Northern Konkan region and drains Maharashtra’s whole Palghar district.
    In news: A fisherman from Maharashtra’s Palghar district was attacked by a bull shark in the Vaitarna river.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following pairs:
    Islands in news – Countries
    1. Socotra Island – Turkey
    2. Kuril Island – Japan
    3. Agalega Island – Maldives
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation: None of the pair is matched correctly
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
    About Socotra Island:
    ● Socotra is an island of the Republic of Yemen in the Indian Ocean.

    ● The island of Socotra represents around 95% of the landmass of the Socotra archipelago.
    ● It lies 380 kilometres south of the Arabian Peninsula and 240 kilometres east of Somalia.
    ● Despite being controlled by Yemen, it is geographically part of Africa.
    ● The island is isolated and home to a high number of endemic species. Up to a third of its plant life is endemic. It has been described as “the most alien-looking place on Earth.
    ● The island measures 132 kilometres in length and 42 kilometres in width.
    ● In 2008 Socotra was recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    In news: Recently, a commercial vessel taking tons of fertilizers has sunk in the Southern Red Sea, posing a threat of an environmental catastrophe in the Red Sea including in UNESCO Heritage Site of the Socotra Archipelago.
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    About Kuril Island:
    ● The Kuril Islands are a volcanic archipelago administered as part of Sakhalin Oblast in the Russian Far East.

    ● These are a set of four islands situated between the Sea of Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean near the north of Japan’s northernmost prefecture, Hokkaido.
    ● Japan refers to them as Northern territories, Russia calls them the Kuril Islands and South Korea named them as Dokdo islands.
    ● These are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire belt and have over 100 volcanoes, of which 35 are said to be active volcanoes along with hot springs.
    ● Both Russia and Japan claim sovereignty over them though the islands have been under Russian control since the end of World War II.
    ● The Soviet Union had seized the islands at the end of World War II and by 1949 had expelled its Japanese residents.
    ● Tokyo claims that the disputed islands have been part of Japan since the early 19th century.
    In news: A massive earthquake shook the island recently. Also there is a possibility of a Japan-Russia diplomatic heat-up on the ownership claims over the island amid the Ukraine war.
    Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
    About Agalega Island:
    ● Agalega islands belong to Mauritius and lie approximately 1,050 km north of Mauritius.
    ● It is a group of two islands with a total area of 26 sq km and a native population of about 300 people.

    In news: Recently, India and Mauritius have jointly inaugurated an airstrip and the St James Jetty on North Agaléga Island in the Indian Ocean.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation: None of the pair is matched correctly
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
    About Socotra Island:
    ● Socotra is an island of the Republic of Yemen in the Indian Ocean.

    ● The island of Socotra represents around 95% of the landmass of the Socotra archipelago.
    ● It lies 380 kilometres south of the Arabian Peninsula and 240 kilometres east of Somalia.
    ● Despite being controlled by Yemen, it is geographically part of Africa.
    ● The island is isolated and home to a high number of endemic species. Up to a third of its plant life is endemic. It has been described as “the most alien-looking place on Earth.
    ● The island measures 132 kilometres in length and 42 kilometres in width.
    ● In 2008 Socotra was recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
    In news: Recently, a commercial vessel taking tons of fertilizers has sunk in the Southern Red Sea, posing a threat of an environmental catastrophe in the Red Sea including in UNESCO Heritage Site of the Socotra Archipelago.
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    About Kuril Island:
    ● The Kuril Islands are a volcanic archipelago administered as part of Sakhalin Oblast in the Russian Far East.

    ● These are a set of four islands situated between the Sea of Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean near the north of Japan’s northernmost prefecture, Hokkaido.
    ● Japan refers to them as Northern territories, Russia calls them the Kuril Islands and South Korea named them as Dokdo islands.
    ● These are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire belt and have over 100 volcanoes, of which 35 are said to be active volcanoes along with hot springs.
    ● Both Russia and Japan claim sovereignty over them though the islands have been under Russian control since the end of World War II.
    ● The Soviet Union had seized the islands at the end of World War II and by 1949 had expelled its Japanese residents.
    ● Tokyo claims that the disputed islands have been part of Japan since the early 19th century.
    In news: A massive earthquake shook the island recently. Also there is a possibility of a Japan-Russia diplomatic heat-up on the ownership claims over the island amid the Ukraine war.
    Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
    About Agalega Island:
    ● Agalega islands belong to Mauritius and lie approximately 1,050 km north of Mauritius.
    ● It is a group of two islands with a total area of 26 sq km and a native population of about 300 people.

    In news: Recently, India and Mauritius have jointly inaugurated an airstrip and the St James Jetty on North Agaléga Island in the Indian Ocean.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following pairs:
    Types of plains – Examples
    1. Structural plain – Great Plains of U.S.A.
    2. Depositional plain – Plains of North Canada
    3. Erosional plain – Ganga-Yamuna Plains of India
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Only Pair 1 is matched correctly
    Plains:
    ● Plains are the most important landforms found on the earth surface.
    ● A plain is nothing but a low-lying relatively flat land surface with very gentle slope and minimum local relief.
    ● About 55% of the earth’s land surface is occupied by plains.
    Classification of plains
    On the basis of their mode of formation, plains can be classified as:
    a) Structural plain
    b) Erosional plains
    c) Depositional plains
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    Structural plains:
    ● They are undisturbed plain landforms on the Earth’s surface.
    ● They are structurally depressed areas which make up some of the most expanse natural lowlands on Earth.
    ● Usually, they are formed from horizontally bedded rocks relatively undisturbed by crust movements of the Earth. This type of plain landform is usually created by an uplifting diastrophic movement of a large landmass.
    ● Examples of structural plain landforms are:
    ⮚ The plains of the United States of America
    ⮚ The central lowlands of Australia
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    Depositional Plains:
    This type of plain landform is formed from materials deposited by rivers, glaciers, waves and wind. The type of sediment which constitutes this plain landform has a significant impact on the fertility and economic relevance of the consequent plain formed by deposition.
    Depositional Plains based on the material deposited by rivers: Alluvial plains
    ● Alluvial plains are vast, sweeping stretches of plain land that are formed by the deposition of sediments called alluvium.
    ● An alluvial plain usually includes floodplains as part of its area but extends beyond such plains. An alluvial plain represents the pattern of floodplain shift over geological time. As a river flows down mountains or hills, it carries sediments resulting from erosion and transports the sediments to the lower plain. In this way, floodplains continue growing and adding up to form massive stretches of alluvial plains.
    ⮚ Example – The Indo-Gangetic Plain in India and the Po Valley in Italy are examples of alluvial plains.
    Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
    Erosional plains:
    ● These are plain landforms that are produced from the action of various agents of denudation on an existing landform.
    ● These agents of denudation – River, running water, glacier and wind, wear out the rugged surface on an existing landform and smoothens them, giving rise to low undulating plain landforms.
    ● Two major types of plains result from this mode of formation of plain landforms:
    ⮚ Peneplains (Almost plain): Which results from the action of the various agents of denudation mentioned above, exempting wind.
    ⮚ Pediplains: Erosional plains formed from wind action
    ● Examples of plains in this category include:
    ⮚ Northern Canada plains
    ⮚ Ice eroded plains of Western Africa

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Only Pair 1 is matched correctly
    Plains:
    ● Plains are the most important landforms found on the earth surface.
    ● A plain is nothing but a low-lying relatively flat land surface with very gentle slope and minimum local relief.
    ● About 55% of the earth’s land surface is occupied by plains.
    Classification of plains
    On the basis of their mode of formation, plains can be classified as:
    a) Structural plain
    b) Erosional plains
    c) Depositional plains
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    Structural plains:
    ● They are undisturbed plain landforms on the Earth’s surface.
    ● They are structurally depressed areas which make up some of the most expanse natural lowlands on Earth.
    ● Usually, they are formed from horizontally bedded rocks relatively undisturbed by crust movements of the Earth. This type of plain landform is usually created by an uplifting diastrophic movement of a large landmass.
    ● Examples of structural plain landforms are:
    ⮚ The plains of the United States of America
    ⮚ The central lowlands of Australia
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    Depositional Plains:
    This type of plain landform is formed from materials deposited by rivers, glaciers, waves and wind. The type of sediment which constitutes this plain landform has a significant impact on the fertility and economic relevance of the consequent plain formed by deposition.
    Depositional Plains based on the material deposited by rivers: Alluvial plains
    ● Alluvial plains are vast, sweeping stretches of plain land that are formed by the deposition of sediments called alluvium.
    ● An alluvial plain usually includes floodplains as part of its area but extends beyond such plains. An alluvial plain represents the pattern of floodplain shift over geological time. As a river flows down mountains or hills, it carries sediments resulting from erosion and transports the sediments to the lower plain. In this way, floodplains continue growing and adding up to form massive stretches of alluvial plains.
    ⮚ Example – The Indo-Gangetic Plain in India and the Po Valley in Italy are examples of alluvial plains.
    Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
    Erosional plains:
    ● These are plain landforms that are produced from the action of various agents of denudation on an existing landform.
    ● These agents of denudation – River, running water, glacier and wind, wear out the rugged surface on an existing landform and smoothens them, giving rise to low undulating plain landforms.
    ● Two major types of plains result from this mode of formation of plain landforms:
    ⮚ Peneplains (Almost plain): Which results from the action of the various agents of denudation mentioned above, exempting wind.
    ⮚ Pediplains: Erosional plains formed from wind action
    ● Examples of plains in this category include:
    ⮚ Northern Canada plains
    ⮚ Ice eroded plains of Western Africa

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PERVERSE INTENT: ON THE CITIZENSHIP (AMENDMENT) ACT

THE CONTEXT: The Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA) of 2019 and its subsequent rules notified by the Indian Ministry of Home Affairs have sparked significant controversy and legal challenges due to their selective criteria for granting citizenship. The Act amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 to provide a pathway to Indian citizenship for illegal migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan, but only if they belong to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, or Christian communities and entered India on or before December 31, 2014. This exclusion of Muslims, atheists, and agnostics from the Act’s provisions has led to accusations that the CAA undermines the secular ethos of the Indian Constitution and discriminates based on religion.

ISSUES:

  • Selective Humanitarianism: The CAA’s focus solely on religious persecution as a criterion for granting citizenship while excluding other forms of persecution, such as linguistic or ethnic discrimination, suggests a narrow understanding of humanitarian needs. The exclusion of Muslims, including those facing persecution in neighboring countries and other groups, indicates that other motives may overshadow the Act’s humanitarian pretext.
  • Violation of Constitutional Ethos: By discriminating based on religion, the CAA is argued to go against the principle of secularism, a core value enshrined in the Indian Constitution. Petitioners against the CAA argue that it is prima facie unconstitutional as it introduces a religion-based criterion for citizenship, which could undermine the country’s secular character.
  • Potential for Dual Citizenship: The procedural critique that the CAA does not require applicants to renounce their original citizenship, potentially allowing for dual citizenship, raises concerns about its compatibility with the existing legal framework of the Citizenship Act of 1955. This aspect has been highlighted as a procedural flaw that could have broader implications for citizenship laws in India.
  • International Obligations and Standards: Although India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention or its 1967 Protocol, the principles outlined in these documents emphasize the need for a non-discriminatory approach to providing refuge and citizenship. The CAA’s selective criteria based on religion and country of origin would likely be at odds with these international standards, highlighting a departure from globally accepted principles of refugee protection.
  • Exclusion of Other Persecuted Groups: The Act’s narrow focus on religious persecution excludes other persecuted groups, such as the Rohingya Muslims from Myanmar, who have faced severe discrimination and violence, or the Ahmadiyyas in Pakistan, who are also subject to persecution. This exclusion raises questions about the comprehensiveness and fairness of the Act’s approach to providing asylum and citizenship.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Supreme Court Scrutiny: The Supreme Court of India, which is currently examining the constitutionality of the CAA, plays a crucial role. A thorough judicial review that assesses the Act’s compliance with the Constitution, especially concerning Article 14 (Right to Equality) and the principle of secularism, is essential.
  • Amendments to the Act: Depending on the outcome of the judicial review, amendments may be necessary to ensure that the CAA aligns with constitutional principles. This could involve expanding the eligibility criteria to include persecuted individuals from all religions and nationalities, thereby addressing concerns of discrimination and exclusion.
  • Inclusive Criteria for Asylum: The government could consider broadening the criteria for asylum and citizenship to include individuals facing persecution for reasons beyond religion, such as ethnicity, gender, political beliefs, or sexual orientation. This would align India’s approach with international standards on refugee protection.
  • Comprehensive Refugee Policy: India lacks a comprehensive legal framework for refugees. Developing a national refugee policy that outlines clear criteria for asylum, the rights and obligations of refugees, and a pathway to citizenship in line with international standards could provide a structured approach to handling refugee issues.
  • Protection of Rights: It is crucial to ensure the protection of the rights of all migrants and refugees, regardless of their citizenship status. This involves safeguarding them from discrimination, violence, and exploitation and ensuring access to basic services.
  • Inclusive Public Discourse: Encouraging a more inclusive and informed public discourse around the issues of refugees, migration, and citizenship can help reduce societal tensions and misconceptions. Engaging civil society, media, and educational institutions in spreading awareness and fostering empathy towards refugees and migrants is vital.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act 2019 raises significant constitutional, humanitarian, and legal concerns about its selective and exclusionary approach. Its focus on religious persecution to the exclusion of other forms of persecution and its discriminatory treatment of certain groups, particularly Muslims, is at odds with the principles of equality, secularism, and non-discrimination enshrined in the Indian Constitution and recognized in international human rights norms. Addressing these concerns requires reevaluating the Act’s provisions to ensure they align with India’s constitutional values and obligations under international law.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1 The Constitution of India is a living instrument with enormous dynamism capabilities. It is a constitution made for a progressive society. Illustrate with reference to the expanding horizons of the right to life and personal liberty. 2023

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Critically analyse the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, considering the principles of the Indian Constitution and international norms on refugee protection.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/perverse-intent-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-citizenship-amendment-act/article68043953.ece




WHAT IS THE TECHNOLOGY BEHIND MANUFACTURING A SEMICONDUCTOR CHIP?

THE CONTEXT: Semiconductor chip manufacturing capabilities are limited to few regions worldwide. With supply chain disruptions and geopolitical tensions, many countries, including India, have realized the importance of investing in chip manufacturing infrastructure. The TATA group has partnered with Taiwan’s Powerchip Semiconductor Manufacturing Corporation (PSMC) to set up a 300mm wafer fabrication plant in Gujarat, and the Government of India has recently approved two assembly and test plants in Gujarat and Assam.

ABOUT SEMICONDUCTOR CHIPS:

  • A semiconductor chip is like a tiny brain made from materials that aren’t quite metals (which let electricity flow easily) or insulators (which don’t let electricity flow at all). These materials are in the middle, allowing them to control how much electricity passes under different conditions. To make these chips work the way we want, we add tiny amounts of other materials to change how well they conduct electricity. This process is called “doping. “
  • The process of creating semiconductor devices, like integrated circuits found in electronic devices, through multiple-step photolithographic and chemical processes. It mainly uses silicon, but various compound semiconductors are used for specialized applications. For advanced devices (e.g., 14/10/7 nm nodes), fabrication can take up to 15 weeks, with the industry average being 11-13 weeks.

The manufacturing of these chips is a bit like baking a complex cake, requiring many steps and a clean environment so that not even a speck of dust ruins the process. The “kitchen” for making semiconductor chips is called a fabrication plant or “fab.” Here’s a simplified version of what happens:

  • Start with a Silicon Wafer: Think of this as the base layer of our cake. It’s a thin, round slice of silicon, the same material that makes up sand at the beach, but much purer.
  • Add Patterns with Light: Use a special light to draw tiny patterns on the wafer. This step is like using a stencil to add designs to the cake with powdered sugar, except done with materials that can control electricity.
  • Doping: Tiny amounts of other materials are added to change how well different parts of the silicon wafer conduct electricity. It’s like adding various flavors to different cake layers to make each part taste different.
  • Etching and Layering: Remove unnecessary parts of the material and add new layers to build up the chip. This is like cutting out cake parts and adding new layers of icing and decorations to make it more complex.
  • Testing and Cutting: Once complete, test the wafer to find the sound chips and cut it into pieces. Each piece is a semiconductor chip ready for use in electronic devices.

COMPONENTS OF SEMICONDUCTOR CHIPS:

  • Transistors: These are the fundamental building blocks of semiconductor chips, acting as switches or amplifiers for electrical signals.
  • Diodes: Components that allow current to flow in one direction while blocking it in the opposite direction.
  • Resistors: These are devices that resist the flow of electric current. They are used to control the voltage and current within circuits.
  • Wiring: Conductive pathways that connect the various components on the chip to form a complete circuit.

TRANSISTORS IN SEMICONDUCTOR CHIPS:

  • Transistors in semiconductor chips are tiny devices crucial in controlling and amplifying electrical signals. They are the building blocks of modern electronics, from computers and smartphones to appliances and vehicles. Essentially, transistors work as switches or amplifiers within a chip.
  • A transistor can amplify a small electrical signal, making it stronger, or act as a switch to turn the current on and off. This functionality is fundamental to digital computing, as it allows transistors to represent binary states (0s and 1s), enabling the processing and storage of data.
  • Transistors are made from semiconductor materials, typically silicon, which have the unique property of being able to conduct electricity better than insulators but not as well as conductors. By adding impurities to the silicon in a doping process, manufacturers can control the flow of electricity through the transistor. This process creates two types of semiconductors within a transistor: n-type, which has extra electrons, and p-type, which has extra holes (or missing electrons).

FABRICATION TECHNOLOGY IN SEMICONDUCTOR CHIPS:

  • Fabrication technology in semiconductor chips refers to the complex and highly specialized process of manufacturing semiconductor devices, typically integrated circuits (ICs) such as computer processors, microcontrollers, and memory chips. This process involves a series of photolithographic and physio-chemical steps. Electronic circuits are gradually created on a wafer made of pure single-crystal semiconducting material, with silicon being the most used material.
  • The fabrication process starts with the growth of a high-quality semiconductor crystal, which serves as the base material for producing electronic devices. The most common method for crystal growth in the case of silicon is the Czochralski process. This involves melting high-purity silicon under a controlled atmosphere and cooling it to form a single crystal, extracted from the melt and sliced into thin film wafers. These wafers are then polished and cleaned to create a pristine surface for subsequent processing.

STEPS IN THE SEMICONDUCTOR FABRICATION PROCESS:

  • Photolithography: This involves coating the wafer with a light-sensitive material called photoresist and then exposing it to light through a patterned mask. This creates a pattern on the wafer that matches the electronic circuits to be built.
  • Etching: This step removes parts of the wafer not protected by the photoresist, creating the physical structures of the circuits.
  • Ion Implantation: Here, ions are implanted into the wafer to alter its electrical properties, a process known as doping. This is crucial for creating regions within the semiconductor with different electrical characteristics.
  • Deposition: Various materials are deposited onto the wafer to form the electronic devices and their connections. This can include metals for wiring and insulating materials to separate different parts of the circuit.

WAFERS IN SEMICONDUCTOR CHIPS:

  • Wafers are crucial components in semiconductor manufacturing, providing the physical base upon which electronic circuits are constructed. Their production involves sophisticated techniques to ensure purity, flatness, and the appropriate electrical properties to develop integrated circuits. Wafers are characterized by their diameter and thickness, with the diameter of wafers steadily increasing over the years to improve productivity and reduce the cost per chip. The current standard wafer diameter is 300mm (about 12 inches), although there is ongoing development towards 450mm wafers. The thickness of the wafer is typically a few hundred micrometers.
  • The silicon used in wafers must be highly pure, with a purity level known as “six nines” (99.9999%) to ensure that impurities do not interfere with the operation of the devices built on the wafer. The type and materials of wafers can vary depending on the semiconductor device being produced.

ISSUES IN SEMICONDUCTOR INDUSTRY:

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Investment in Education and Training: To address the shortage of skilled workforce, India could invest in specialized education and training programs to develop a pool of engineers and technicians with expertise in semiconductor manufacturing.
  • Public-Private Partnerships: The high capital investments required for semiconductor manufacturing could be mitigated through public-private partnerships, in which the government and private sector share the financial risks and benefits. India could seek partnerships and collaborations with established semiconductor manufacturing countries to leverage their expertise and technology.
  • Policy and Incentive Structures: The government could create more attractive policies and incentives to encourage global chip manufacturers to operate in India.
  • Infrastructure Development: Developing the necessary infrastructure, such as reliable power and water supply, could make India a more viable location for semiconductor manufacturing.
  • Political and Cultural Adaptation: Overcoming political and cultural hurdles is crucial, and this could involve fostering an environment that supports innovation and cross-border collaboration.
  • Problem-Solving Approach: Adopting a systematic problem-solving approach to define and address the specific challenges faced by the semiconductor industry in India could lead to more effective solutions.

THE CONCLUSION:

India’s strategic partnerships and investments in semiconductor manufacturing, including the TATA group’s collaboration with PSMC and the government’s approval of new assembly and test plants, demonstrate the country’s determination to develop a robust semiconductor ecosystem. By leveraging its design capabilities and offering substantial incentives, India aims to challenge Taiwan, South Korea, and China’s dominance in the semiconductor arena and position itself as a reliable and self-sufficient destination for chip manufacturing.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 How does the 3D printing technology work? List out the advantages and disadvantages of the technology. 2013

Q.2 Why is nanotechnology one of the critical technologies of the 21st century? Describe the salient features of the Indian Government’s Mission on Nanoscience and Technology and the scope of its application in the country’s development process. 2016

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Discuss the critical aspects of semiconductor chip manufacturing, including its technology, the role of transistors, and the current state of India’s semiconductor ecosystem. Also, explain the significance of the recent investments and approvals by the Indian government in this sector.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/what-is-the-technology-behind-manufacturing-a-semiconductor-chip-explained/article68040447.ece/amp/




NCERT REVISIONS: NARROWING THE VIEW

THE CONTEXT: The recent revisions made by the NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) to history, sociology, and political science textbooks for classes 6-12 in India are marred by conspicuous intentions. They raise concerns about the politicization of textbook content, deletions of crucial information, and promotion of a particular ideological narrative. The revisions undermine the principles of objectivity, diversity, and critical thinking in education.

ISSUES:

  • Politicization of Textbooks: The textbooks are used as a medium for political communication and a battleground of competing ideologies, with the ruling party allegedly promoting its political ideology in the NCERT textbooks.
  • Syllabus Rationalization and Deletions: The syllabus rationalization exercise carried out by the NCERT has resulted in the deletion of several chapters and sections, including those on the Emergency, the Cold War, the Naxalite movement, the Industrial Revolution, and references to Dalit writer Omprakash Valmiki.
  • Historical Revisionism: The deletion of content on India’s Muslim rulers, including the Mughal Empire, and the removal of references to Mahatma Gandhi’s unpopularity among Hindu extremists and the ban imposed on the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) in the aftermath of his assassination, are seen as politically motivated.
  • Reduction of Social Science Content: The removal of complete chapters on ‘Democracy and Diversity’, ‘Popular Struggles and Movements’, and ‘Challenges to Democracy’ from Class 10, and sections of Class 12 topics such as ‘The Story of Indian Democracy’, ‘Social Movements’, and ‘Patterns of Social Inequality’ are seen as a reduction of social science content.
  • Lack of Transparency and Consultation: The undisclosed deletions related to Mahatma Gandhi and the Gujarat Riots and the lack of clarity on the decision-making process behind these deletions raise concerns about transparency and consultation in the textbook revision process.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Establishing a transparent and inclusive textbook review process: A transparent and inclusive textbook review process can be established involving a diverse group of experts, educators, and stakeholders. This process can ensure that the textbooks are free from political bias and reflect the latest research and knowledge.
  • Incorporating diverse perspectives and voices: To address historical revisionism and the reduction of social science content, diverse perspectives and voices, including those of marginalized communities and social movements, can be incorporated. This can help students understand the complexities and diversities of Indian society and history.
  • Promoting critical thinking and analysis: To address the lack of transparency and consultation, critical thinking and analysis can be promoted. This can encourage students to question the information presented in the textbooks and seek multiple sources. This can help students develop critical thinking skills and become more informed and engaged citizens.
  • Providing teacher training and support: To ensure that the textbooks are used effectively in the classroom, teacher training and support can be provided, including training on how to teach controversial topics and promote critical thinking and analysis.
  • Encouraging public participation and feedback: To ensure that the textbooks reflect the community’s needs and perspectives, public involvement and feedback, including public hearings and consultations, can be encouraged. This can help ensure that the books are relevant and meaningful to students and educators.

THE CONCLUSION:

The NCERT’s textbook revisions betray the hopes raised by the National Education Policy (NEP) and its ideologically agnostic approach to education reform. Classrooms must provide a grounding in objectivity while alerting students to social complexities, diversities, conflicts, and inequities. The country’s foremost textbook framing body should enable this process, not hinder it with politically motivated revisions.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1 National Education Policy 2020 conforms with Sustainable Development Goal 4 (2030). It intends to restructure and reorient the Indian education system. Critically examine the statement. 2020

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Critically examine the recent revisions made to NCERT textbooks for classes 6-12, particularly in history, sociology, and political science. Discuss the implications of these revisions on the quality of education and the development of critical thinking among students.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/ahead-of-2024-polls-a-gender-manifesto-9256980/




IMPLEMENTING UNIVERSAL HEALTH COVERAGE

THE CONTEXT: Universal Health Coverage (UHC) is a global initiative to ensure access to quality health services for all citizens without financial hardship. India, with its diverse demographic and health challenges, faces various barriers to achieving UHC. These include inadequate public financing, fragmented health services, lack of political demand, and a healthcare workforce shortage.

ISSUES:

  • Constitutional Mandate for Health: There is a vacuum of constitutional mandate for the fundamental right to essential health in India. While the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution provide a basis for the right to health, there is no explicit provision guaranteeing this right. The constitutional amendment may be necessary to elevate health to a fundamental right, ensuring better health outcomes and fulfilling the UHC objectives.
  • Public Financing for Health: The high-level expert group report submitted to the Planning Commission in 2011 recommended increasing public financing for health to 2.5% of India’s GDP during the 12th Plan (2012-17). The National Health Policy 2017 also aligns with this goal, aiming for universal access to good-quality healthcare services without financial hardship.
  • Primary Healthcare and Migrant Population: There is a need to focus on primary healthcare, especially for the large migrant population in India. With a significant number of inter-state migrant workers and a high urban slum population, the availability and accessibility of primary health services for these groups is quintessential. Healthcare services should be portable to accommodate the mobility of the migrant population.
  • Out-of-Pocket Expenditure: Reducing out-of-pocket expenditures is a critical component of UHC policy. Simplifying reimbursement processes and adapting cash transfers in the public healthcare system to better serve migrant and marginalized communities should be realized. This would help alleviate the financial burden on individuals seeking healthcare.
  • Inclusive Health Systems: Create an inclusive health system by integrating health management information system dashboards with public and private systems. This emphasizes the need for better information systems considering language barriers and diversity, particularly in urban areas.
  • Community-Based Primary Healthcare: Implementing community-based primary healthcare in urban and peri-urban areas with seamless referral systems. Integrating services at the primary healthcare level to ensure follow-up and adherence to healthcare is essential for reducing the disease burden and improving the country’s financial health.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Increase Public Financing for Health: A significant increase in public health financing is essential. As envisaged in the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals, at least 5% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) should be earmarked for public health to achieve UHC by 2030. This aligns with the World Health Organization’s advocacy for an increase in Primary Health Care (PHC) spending by at least 1% of the GDP.
  • Establishment of a Public Health Commission: To operationalize multisectoral public health action in a decentralized manner, a Public Health Commission is recommended. This commission would coordinate various initiatives across sectors, ensuring a unified approach to public health.
  • Decentralization and Community Engagement: Decentralization of planning, implementation, and monitoring of health services to build a sustainable system rooted in local sociocultural contexts. Every village or urban ward should have an Arogya Kendra (health center) financed by the state but managed by local volunteers under community guidance.
  • Inter-sectoral Coordination with a “Health in All” Approach: Adopting an inter-sectoral coordination approach ensures that health considerations are integrated into all public policies. This approach can address social determinants of health and promote a healthier population.
  • Regulatory Reforms and Engagement with the Private Sector: Implement regulatory reforms to improve the quality of care and effectively engage the private sector in UHC goals. This includes strategic purchasing and provider payment reforms to ensure efficient resource use.
  • Global Best Practices: Learning from global best practices such as England’s Health and Social Care Act 2012, which reorganized health services to create a more efficient system, and Thailand’s National Health Security Act 2002, which established the right to standard and efficient health service for all citizens.

THE CONCLUSION:

To achieve Universal Health Coverage (UHC) in India, we need constitutional amendments, increased public funding, decentralization of health services, incentivizing medical personnel to work in rural areas, technology, public-private partnerships, inter-sectoral coordination, strategic purchasing, payment reforms, and healthcare industry regulation.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 Appropriate local community-level healthcare intervention is a prerequisite to achieving ‘Health for All ‘in India. Explain. 2018

Q.2 Professor Amartya Sen has advocated necessary reforms in primary education and primary health care. What are your suggestions for improving their status and performance? 2016

Q.3 The public health system has limitations in providing universal health coverage. Do you think that the private sector could help in bridging the gap? What other viable alternatives would you suggest? 2015

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Discuss the challenges and potential solutions to achieve Universal Health Coverage (UHC) in India, focusing on strengthening primary healthcare, reducing out-of-pocket expenditure, and ensuring equitable access to health services for all citizens, including the migrant population.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/implementing-universal-health-coverage/article68039225.ece




ESCALATION LADDER: ON ISRAEL’S OFFENSIVE, AND THE DANGER AHEAD

THE CONTEXT: The complex and escalating conflict between Israel and Iran, particularly highlighted by the April 1 attack on an annex of the Iranian embassy in Damascus, underscores a critical juncture in West Asian geopolitics. This incident, marked by the targeting of a diplomatic facility—a move that diverges from conventional norms of international conflict—signals a significant escalation. The attack, which resulted in the death of 13 Iranians, including a high-ranking commander of the Quds Force, has been perceived by many in Iran as an act of war, given the protected status of diplomatic premises under international law.

ISSUES:

  • Escalation of Conflict: The attack represents a significant escalation in the ongoing conflict between Israel and Iran in West Asia. The targeting of a diplomatic facility is a departure from Israel’s previous operations, which have typically focused on military and nuclear figures within Iran’s Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps (IRGC).
  • Violation of International Law: The strike on the embassy complex is seen as a violation of international law, which generally affords protection to diplomatic premises. Historical precedents, such as the sparing of diplomatic sites during World War II and the U.S. apology for the accidental bombing of the Chinese embassy in Belgrade in 1999, underscore the gravity of this breach.
  • Act of War Perception: Many in Iran perceive the precision strike on the embassy annex, which resulted in the death of IRGC figures, including a top commander, as an act of war. This perception is fueled by the fact that diplomatic sites are typically off-limits for direct attacks.
  • Shadow War and Regional Influence: The ongoing shadow war between Israel and Iran intensified after the October 7 attack by Hamas. Israel’s offensive actions in Gaza and strikes against Iranian interests in Syria and Lebanon are part of its broader strategy to counter Iran’s influence through its support of non-state militias in the region.
  • Humanitarian Crisis: The conflict has resulted in a humanitarian crisis, particularly in Gaza, where six months of fighting have led to a high death toll and significant destruction, affecting civilians disproportionately.
  • Political Pressure: Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu is facing increasing pressure both domestically and internationally to cease military actions and step down, particularly considering the humanitarian situation in Gaza and the potential for further regional escalation.
  • Risk of Wider War: There is a concern that an open war between Israel and Iran could involve the United States and lead to a broader security disaster in the region, as well as an economic impact on the global stage.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Diplomatic Engagement: International actors, including the United States and European Union, should intensify diplomatic efforts to mediate between Israel and Iran, encouraging dialogue over military confrontation. This includes leveraging diplomatic channels to advocate for restraint and strategic patience from both sides, particularly urging Iran not to retaliate in a manner that could escalate the conflict further.
  • Revisiting Sanctions and Agreements: To reduce tensions, the international community, particularly the United States, should consider revisiting sanctions and previous agreements, such as the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA). The gradual lifting of sanctions in exchange for compliance with nuclear non-proliferation measures could serve as an incentive for Iran to engage constructively.
  • Humanitarian Assistance and Ceasefire in Gaza: Immediate efforts should be made to broker a ceasefire in Gaza, coupled with humanitarian assistance, to address the dire situation. International organizations and countries should collaborate to ensure aid delivery and support for reconstruction efforts.
  • Strengthening International Norms: The international community must reaffirm the inviolability of diplomatic premises and personnel as established under international law. This includes holding accountable those who violate these norms, thereby deterring future attacks on diplomatic facilities.
  • Regional Cooperation: Encouraging regional cooperation and dialogue among Middle Eastern countries, including through platforms like the Arab League and the Gulf Cooperation Council, could help address underlying tensions and foster a more stable regional order. This includes addressing the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, a core issue contributing to regional instability.

THE CONCLUSION:

The attack on the Iranian embassy annex in Damascus marks a significant escalation in the ongoing conflict between Israel and Iran, challenging international norms regarding the sanctity of diplomatic premises. This incident, coupled with the broader regional conflict, risks drawing in major powers and exacerbating the crisis. Strategic patience and international intervention are crucial to prevent further escalation and ensure regional stability.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 How would the ongoing US-Iran Nuclear Pact Controversy affect India’s national interest? How should India respond to this situation? 2018

Q.2 India’s relations with Israel have, of late, acquired a depth and diversity, which cannot be rolled back.” Discuss. 2018

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Analyze the implications of the April 1 attack on the Iranian embassy annex in Damascus for international relations and the principle of diplomatic immunity under international law. Discuss the potential consequences of such actions on the ongoing conflict in West Asia and the role of global diplomacy in mitigating escalations.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/escalation-ladder-on-israels-offensive-and-the-danger-ahead/article68032794.ece




RBI MUST RECTIFY AND STRENGTHEN ITSELF BEFORE TURNING 100

THE CONTEXT: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) commemorates its 90th year, a significant milestone in its history, closely intertwined with India’s economic development. However, in recent years, it has seen challenges to its autonomy and governance, including government policies that have bypassed the central bank’s advice and a central board that is not fully constituted. As the RBI approaches its centennial, it faces the task of strengthening its autonomy, improving governance, and focusing on financial stability.

ISSUES:

  • Strengthening of RBI’s Autonomy: The significance of the Reserve Bank of India’s autonomy is noteworthy. Although it has not been a recent topic of debate, it is not legally safeguarded and has faced pressures in the past. The RBI’s capability to manage its relationship with the government is critical. There have been instances where the RBI’s autonomy was challenged, such as during demonetization, the transfer of RBI reserves to the government, and the introduction of electoral bonds.
  • Introspection on Governance: According to the RBI Act of 1934, the central board is responsible for the governance of RBI. The board should ideally consist of 21 members, but it currently has only 15. The senior management of RBI should consult with the government to fill these vacancies. One should question whether RBI would allow its regulated entities to operate without a complete board for an extended period.
  • Clarity in Appointments to the RBI Board: It is essential to establish clear and consistent appointment conditions for the board members of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), including the governors and deputy governors. This emphasizes the need for greater consistency in the tenure and reappointment of these positions, as there have been examples of varying term lengths and reappointments for past and present deputy governors.
  • Focus on Financial Stability: While the RBI has a Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) tasked with maintaining inflation targets, there is a need for a greater focus on financial stability. This includes the regulation of non-banks and digital players. A body within the RBI to communicate on financial stability issues, the reconstitution of the MPC to include monetary policy, or the establishment of a new economic policy committee would be helpful.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strengthening Autonomy: The RBI Act of 1934 should be amended to protect the RBI’s autonomy explicitly. This could include provisions that limit government interference in monetary policy decisions and ensure that the RBI’s advice is considered in financial matters affecting the country. Establish a transparent and formal consultation process between the RBI and the government for policies affecting the monetary and banking system.
  • Improving Governance: The RBI should actively engage with the government to fill the vacancies on its central board promptly. This could involve setting appointment deadlines and publicizing these vacancies to attract qualified candidates. Encourage appointing directors from diverse backgrounds to the RBI board to bring various perspectives to its governance. This could include experts in economics, finance, technology, and public policy.
  • Clarity in Appointments: The RBI Act should be amended to standardize the tenure and reappointment process for governors, deputy governors, and board members. This could include setting fixed terms for all positions and clear reappointment criteria to ensure consistency and stability. Implement a transparent and merit-based appointment process for all positions within the RBI, including public disclosure of the criteria used for selection and the reasons for reappointment decisions.
  • Establishing a Financial Stability Committee: Create a Financial Stability Committee (FSC) within the RBI, like the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), to focus on financial stability issues. This committee should include experts from various sectors of the economic system and be tasked with monitoring and addressing risks to financial stability.
  • Enhanced Communication on Financial Stability: Develop a dedicated communication strategy for financial stability issues, including regular reports and press briefings by the FSC. This would help educate the public and market players about financial stability risks and the RBI’s mitigation actions.

THE CONCLUSION:

RBI must not become complacent but instead proactively work to safeguard its autonomy and enhance its governance structures. By addressing these core issues with explicit legal protections, transparent processes, and a focus on financial stability, the RBI can ensure it remains a robust and effective central bank capable of navigating the complexities of the modern financial landscape and supporting India’s continued economic growth.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:

Q.1 To achieve the desired objectives, it is necessary to ensure that the regulatory institutions remain independent and autonomous.” Discuss this considering the experiences in the recent past. 2015

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Considering the evolving challenges in the Indian banking sector and the role of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in ensuring financial stability, critically analyze the measures the RBI should take to enhance its autonomy and governance as it approaches its centennial anniversary.

SOURCE:

https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/rbi-must-rectify-and-strengthen-itself-before-turning-100-2966326