DISCOVERY OF 50,000-YEAR-OLD MAGNETOFOSSILS IN THE BAY OF BENGAL
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT: Scientists at the CSIR-National Institute of Oceanography, Goa, recently unearthed a significant discovery in the Bay of Bengal—a 50,000-year-old sediment containing giant magnetofossils.
EXPLANATION:
This finding, published in the journal Nature in February, represents one of the youngest giant magnetofossils discovered to date.
Magnetofossils:
Magnetofossils are fossilized remnants of magnetic particles produced by magnetotactic bacteria, also known as magnetobacteria.
These bacteria align themselves along Earth’s magnetic field lines, utilizing tiny crystals of iron-rich minerals like magnetite or greigite to navigate changing oxygen levels in their aquatic environments.
First described in the 1960s and 1970s, magnetotactic bacteria and their fossilized remains provide insights into ancient environmental conditions.
Needle, spindle, bullet and spearhead shape-magnetofossils
Characteristics of the Sediment
The sediment core retrieved from the southwestern Bay of Bengal consisted primarily of pale green silty clays.
High-resolution transmission electron microscopy revealed the presence of magnetofossils shaped like needles, spindles, bullets, and spearheads, alongside conventional magnetofossils.
The unique characteristics of this sediment core shed light on the environmental conditions prevailing in the late Quaternary period.
Implications of the Discovery
The discovery challenges previous assumptions about the origins of giant magnetofossils, which were often attributed to events like hyperthermal vents or comet impacts.
Unlike earlier finds dating back millions of years, this discovery suggests that giant magnetofossils also formed during the late Quaternary period, a mere 50,000 years ago.
Role of Environmental Factors
Analysis of the sediment sample indicated fluctuations in monsoon activity during the last Glacial Maximum-Holocene period, approximately 29,000 to 11,700 years ago.
The presence of magnetic minerals from distinct geological periods suggests the influence of rivers like the Godavari, Mahanadi, Ganga-Brahmaputra, Cauvery, and Penner, which discharge into the Bay of Bengal.
Environmental Conditions Favorable for Magnetotactic Bacteria
The nutrient-rich sediment carried by these rivers provided an abundant supply of reactive iron, which, combined with organic carbon in suboxic conditions, created a conducive environment for magnetotactic bacteria to thrive.
Additionally, freshwater discharge from rivers and oceanographic processes like eddy formation contributed to oxygenation levels conducive to bacterial growth.
NIO is headquartered at Dona Paula, Goa, and has regional centres at Kochi, Mumbai and Visakhapatnam.
NIO was established in 1966 following the International Indian Ocean Expedition (IIOE) in the 1960s.
It is a multi-disciplinary oceanographic research institute. The major research areas include the four traditional branches of oceanography – biological, chemical, geological/geophysical, and physical – as well as ocean engineering, marine instrumentation and marine archaeology.
PROGRESS IN TUBERCULOSIS CONTROL IN INDIA: ACHIEVEMENTS AND STRATEGIES
TAG: GS 2: SOCIAL JUSTICE AND GOVERNANCE
THE CONTEXT: The India TB Report 2024, released by the Union Health Ministry on March 27, highlights significant progress in tuberculosis (TB) control efforts in the country since 2015.
EXPLANATION:
The report emphasizes reductions in TB incidence and mortality rates, along with increased notification rates and improvements in healthcare sector engagement.
Reduction in TB Incidence and Mortality Rates
According to the report, India has achieved a commendable 16% decline in TB incidence and an 18% reduction in mortality due to TB since 2015.
This progress is reflected in the decline of incidence rates from 237 per lakh population in 2015 to 199 per lakh population in 2022, and mortality rates from 28 per lakh population in 2015 to 23 per lakh population in 2022.
Healthcare Sector Engagement
A noteworthy development highlighted in the report is the increased involvement of the private healthcare sector in TB case notifications.
In 2023, nearly 32% of TB cases were notified by the private sector, marking a 17% increase from the previous year.
This indicates improved collaboration between public and private healthcare providers in TB detection and reporting.
Regional Disparities in Notification Rates
While overall TB case notifications have improved by over 50% in the last nine years, the report identifies regional variations in notification rates.
Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest increase in notifications, with a 21% rise compared to the previous year, followed by Bihar with a 15% increase.
These disparities underscore the importance of targeted interventions and resources allocation in high-burden areas.
The NTEP is guided by the NSP 2017–25, which provides a framework for comprehensive TB control efforts.
Diagnostic Services:
The NTEP continues to provide free diagnostic services, conducting approximately 1.89 crore sputum smear tests and 68.3 lakh nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) in 2023.
These efforts enhance early detection and prompt treatment initiation.
Financial Support:
The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) under the Nikshay Poshan Yojana provides financial assistance to TB patients.
Approximately ₹2,781 crore was disbursed to approximately one crore beneficiaries, ensuring access to essential resources for TB care.
Community Engagement:
More than 1.5 lakh Nikshay Mitras have committed to supporting persons affected by TB, emphasizing the importance of community engagement in TB control efforts.
Tuberculosis (TB):
TB is caused by a bacterium (mycobacterium tuberculosis) that mostly affect the lungs.
It can spread when people with TB expel bacteria into the air, for example, by coughing.
According to the Report, most people who develop the disease are adults. In 2021, men accounted for 56.5% of the TB burden, adult women (32.5%) and children (11%).
TB is preventable and curable and around 85% of people who develop the disease can be successfully treated with a 4 to 6 months drug treatment.
Several Initiatives by the government for TB eradication:
‘Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan’ to eliminate TB by 2025.
National Strategic Plan for Tuberculosis Elimination 2017-2025.
National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)- Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
TB Harega Desh Jeetega Campaign.
Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccine included in the Indradhanush program.
National TB Elimination Programme to meet the goal of ending the TB epidemic by 2025 the country, five years ahead of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) for 2030
Two vaccines VPM (Vaccine Projekt Management) 1002 and MIP (Mycobacterium Indicus Pranii) have been developed and are under Phase-3 clinical trial.
Ni-kshayPoshan Yojana: It provides Rs 500 support through direct benefit transfer to the patients.
The government has also focused on utilizing technology and creating digital health IDs for TB patients under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Health Mission to ensure proper diagnostics and treatment are available.
SOUTHEAST AFRICA MONTANE ARCHIPELAGO (SEAMA): A HUB OF UNDOCUMENTED BIODIVERSITY
TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT
THE CONTEXT: The South East Africa Montane Archipelago (SEAMA) is a newly recognized ecoregion situated across northern Mozambique and encompassing Mount Mulanje in Malawi, southern Africa’s second-highest mountain.
EXPLANATION:
Despite its recent recognition, SEAMA has already revealed itself as a treasure trove of previously undocumented biodiversity, drawing attention from researchers and conservationists alike.
A recent study published in Nature Scientific Reports sheds light on the remarkable biodiversity of SEAMA.
Through extensive research into the region’s geology and climate, the study unveiled hundreds of previously undescribed species across various taxonomic groups, including plants, vertebrates, and invertebrates.
Surveyed Sites and Species Documentation
The study identified at least 30 sites within the core of the SEAMA ecoregion, with nine in Malawi and 21 in Mozambique.
These sites, previously unexplored by scientific inquiry, provided critical insights into the region’s rich biodiversity.
The documentation includes 127 plant species, 45 vertebrates (including amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals), and 45 invertebrate species.
Notably, SEAMA harbors 22 strictly endemic reptile species, with 19 of them dependent on forests, making them highly vulnerable to habitat loss.
Biological Surveys in Mozambique
While Mount Mulanje in Malawi has been subject to numerous biological surveys, the mountains in northern Mozambique remained largely unstudied until recent decades.
The aftermath of protracted conflicts hindered scientific exploration in the region until the past 20 years.
Scientific expeditions in Mozambique uncovered numerous species new to science and highlighted the levels of shared endemism among different sites.
Unique Ecological Characteristics
SEAMA exhibits distinct ecological characteristics, including higher annual rainfall and humidity compared to surrounding regions.
Mount Mabu, identified as the most extensive mid-elevation rainforest in southern Africa, contributes significantly to the region’s biodiversity.
These ecological nuances underscore SEAMA’s global biological importance and justify its recognition as a new ecoregion.
Conservation Challenges and Urgent Need
Despite its ecological significance, SEAMA faces severe deforestation threats, primarily driven by slash-and-burn agricultural practices and charcoal production.
Since 2000, the ecoregion has experienced a significant loss of primary humid forest cover, highlighting the urgent need for conservation initiatives.
Conservation agriculture practices and sustainable livelihood alternatives are essential to mitigate these threats and safeguard SEAMA’s biodiversity.
Ecoregion: An ecoregion is a geographical area characterized by distinct assemblages of plants, animals, and ecological features.
SEAMA:
The South East Africa Montane Archipelago (SEAMA) is a recently recognized ecoregion located in southern Africa, spanning across northern Mozambique and incorporating Mount Mulanje in Malawi.
SEAMA is distinguished by its mountainous terrain, encompassing diverse habitats such as montane forests, grasslands, and rock faces.
Despite its relatively recent recognition, SEAMA has been identified as a hub of biodiversity, hosting numerous species of plants, vertebrates, and invertebrates.
Mount Mabu:
Mount Mabu is a mountain in northern Mozambique, famous for its old-growth rain forest.
Mount Mabu is approximately 1,700 metres (5,600 feet) high and the forest covers about 7,000 hectares (27 square miles).
While well known locally, the Mount Mabu forest and its extremely diverse wildlife were unknown to plant and animal scientists until 2005.
There are communities living around Mount Mabu, the closest being Nangaze, Nvava, and Limbue.
The mountain plays a crucial role in the lives of the communities, and in the cosmology of the Nangaze leader, Mount Mabu belongs to a kinship network in which Mabu is the oldest brother, Mount Muriba is the youngest brother and River Mugue is the middle sister.
THE CONTEXT: Since its emergence in 2020, the highly pathogenic H5N1 bird flu virus has posed a significant threat to both avian and mammalian species worldwide.
EXPLANATION:
The virus has led to mass mortality events among various bird populations and has also affected mammals, particularly marine species, raising concerns about its potential impact on biodiversity and ecosystem health.
Spread and Impact of H5N1 Virus
The H5N1 bird flu virus has spread rapidly across the globe, infecting birds in over 80 countries by December 2023.
Originating from China in 1996, the virus has evolved into a highly pathogenic form, causing significant mortality among domestic poultry and wild bird populations.
In recent years, the virus has also crossed species barriers, affecting mammals such as seals, sea lions, and even mainland Antarctica, signaling an unprecedented threat to wildlife.
Impact on Birds
Wild bird populations have borne the brunt of the H5N1 outbreak, with reports of mass mortality events among various species.
Particularly affected are waterfowl like ducks and geese, as well as seabirds such as gulls and terns.
Notably, endangered species like the California condor have also suffered losses, raising concerns about the conservation status of already vulnerable populations.
Impact on Mammals
The spread of H5N1 to mammals poses significant risks to both marine and terrestrial species.
Marine mammals, including sea lions, dolphins, and seals, have experienced devastating mortality rates, with tens of thousands of deaths reported in regions like Chile, Peru, and the United States.
The infection has also affected terrestrial mammals, including foxes, pumas, skunks, and bears, highlighting the broad reach of the virus across different ecosystems.
Unique Vulnerability of Marine Mammals
Among mammals, marine species are particularly vulnerable to H5N1 infection due to their close proximity in densely populated coastal areas and their dependence on healthy marine ecosystems for survival.
The mass mortality events observed among sea lions, dolphins, and seals underscore the severity of the threat posed by the virus to marine biodiversity and ecosystem functioning.
Factors Driving Spread
While the exact factors driving the large-scale spread of H5N1 remain under investigation, scientists have suggested that climate change may play a role.
Rising global temperatures alter bird behavior and distribution patterns, facilitating the spread of the virus across different regions.
Additionally, warmer sea temperatures can weaken marine mammals, making them more susceptible to diseases like H5N1.
Human Health Risks
While humans rarely contract bird flu, there is a risk of transmission, particularly among individuals working in close proximity to infected birds in poultry farms.
Although human cases are relatively rare, the potential for zoonotic transmission underscores the importance of vigilant surveillance and biosecurity measures to prevent outbreaks among both animals and humans.
Bird flu and H5N1:
Bird flu, also known as avian flu, refers to an infectious viral illness that mainly infects and spreads among poultry and some wild birds.
There are different strains of bird flu virus, which have been circulating for a very long time among at least 100 bird species, including wild waterfowl, such as ducks and geese, without much harming them.
From time to time, a form of the flu virus jumps from wild birds to poultry farms, and replicates in cramped warehouses of farmed birds.
It then quickly evolves into a highly pathogenic flu virus that causes a larger wave of illness and death than usual among birds.
The currently circulating type of H5N1 is one such highly pathogenic flu virus.
It has “descended from a virus that caused an outbreak on a goose farm in Guangdong, China, in 1996.
That virus — one of a type of virus known as H5N1 — was highly pathogenic and killed more than 40 per cent of the farm birds it infected.
The new version of H5N1 first emerged in Europe in 2020 and then rapidly reached Europe, Africa, and Asia.
By late 2021, it had spread to North America and in the fall of 2022, it appeared in South America.
In February 2024, the virus stormed through mainland Antarctica.
THE CONTEXT: In a significant move to enhance efficiency and flexibility in the Indian securities market, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced the T+0 settlement cycle.
EXPLANATION:
This initiative aims to streamline processes, reduce settlement times, and provide various benefits to investors and the market ecosystem.
SEBI issued operational guidelines for the introduction of the T+0 settlement cycle, which was launched initially on an optional basis for a select group of securities and brokers.
T+0 trading settlement cycle:
The capital markets regulator SEBI proposed to introduce a facility for clearing and settlement of funds and securities on T+0 (same day) on an optional basis, in addition to the existing T+1 settlement cycle.
The regulator has also proposed to introduce optional instant settlement at a later stage.
Under the T+0 trade cycle, the settlement of trades will happen on the same day after the closure of the T+0 market.
If investors sell a share, they will get the money credited to their account the same day, and the buyer will also get the shares in their demat account on the very day of the transaction.
Initially, the T+0 settlement cycle was introduced for a select group of 25 securities, including prominent companies such as Ambuja Cements Ltd, Bajaj Auto Ltd, Cipla Ltd, and State Bank of India, among others.
These securities were chosen to pilot the T+0 settlement cycle, with plans for potential expansion in the future.
All investors are eligible to participate in the T+0 settlement cycle provided they meet the prescribed timelines, processes, and risk requirements outlined by Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs).
This inclusive approach aims to ensure broad access to the benefits of same-day settlement while maintaining prudent risk management standards.
Trading Timings and Price Band
During the optional T+0 settlement cycle, trading occurs within a single continuous session from 09:15 AM to 1:30 PM.
Settlement of funds and securities is completed on the same day by 4:30 PM.
Price bands in the T+0 segment operate with a range of +100 basis points from the price in the regular T+1 market, with recalibration after every 50 basis points movement.
Benefits of T+0 Trade Settlement
The T+0 settlement cycle offers several advantages for investors and the securities market ecosystem:
Cost and Time Efficiency:
By enabling same-day settlement of trades, investors can realize cost savings and expedite the deployment of capital, leading to greater efficiency in the market.
Transparency in Charges:
The shortened settlement cycle promotes transparency in charges levied on investors, enhancing trust and confidence in the market infrastructure.
Risk Management Enhancement:
The move towards T+0 settlement strengthens risk management practices at clearing corporations and across the securities market.
Trades are backed by upfront funds and securities, mitigating counterparty risk.
Flexibility and Control:
Investors gain greater control over their funds and securities with faster pay-out mechanisms.
This flexibility empowers investors to manage their portfolios more effectively.
Market Efficiency:
By freeing up capital and reducing settlement times, the T+0 settlement cycle enhances overall market efficiency, facilitating smoother operations and trading activities.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
SEBI is a statutory body established on April 12, 1992 in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
The basic functions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market.
Before SEBI came into existence, Controller of Capital Issues was the regulatory authority; it derived authority from the Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947.
Initially SEBI was a non statutory body without any statutory power.
The headquarters of SEBI is situated in Mumbai. The regional offices of SEBI are located in Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Chennai and Delhi.
IT IS TIME FOR COMPREHENSIVE REFORMS TO MUNICIPAL ELECTIONS
THE CONTEXT: Recent Supreme Court judgment on the Chandigarh mayoral election points to issues in elections to municipalities. Elections to local governments, i.e. panchayats and municipalities, is another matter altogether. The Court intervention is only primary step and a lot more remains to be done to strengthen local governments in India.
ISSUES:
Delay in municipal elections: One of the major issues with respect to municipal elections is that they are not being held on time. The CAG’s audit reports of 17 States on the implementation of the 74th Constitution Amendment Act (74th CAA) observes that over 1,500 municipalities did not have elected councils in place during the audit period of 2015-2021 across states. Among larger cities, the Greater Chennai Corporation had elections in 2022 after a gap of nearly six years, and the Municipal Corporation of Delhi had elections after a delay of seven months. While the municipal corporations of Mumbai and Bengaluru are awaiting elections for over one and a half years and three years after the expiry of the term of their previous elected councils.
Delay in formation of elected councils: Even if elections to urban local governments were held there is delay in councils which led to delay in elections of mayors, deputy mayors and standing committees. For example, in Karnataka, there was a delay of 12-24 months in the formation of elected councils after the declaration of election results in most of the 11 city corporations.
Undermine trust in electoral process: When elections are not well-managed, transparent, and held in time they can undermine trust and legitimacy in the electoral process and the outcome. It can also increase polarization, resentment, or hostility among different groups in society.
Impede Development and Stability: Irregularities in municipal elections can disrupt economic activities, public services, or infrastructure. It can also create insecurity, uncertainty, or instability that can deter investment, growth, or cooperation.
Challenges with Functioning of state election commissions: Although the state election commission (SEC) on many occasions tried to exercise its duties enshrined in the constitution of India, they struggled to assert their independence. There are issue of lack of autonomy and lack of safeguard for There is also non-uniform service conditions for SECs as Article 243K(2) states that the tenure and appointment will be directed as per the law made by the state legislature and thus each SEC is governed by a separate state Act. Though municipal legislation across 35 States and UTs reveals that except Meghalaya, all States have constituted SECs but only 11 have empowered them to conduct ward delimitation. The Court has emphasised that in the domain of elections to panchayats and urban local governments under Part IX and Part IXA of the Constitution, SECs enjoy the same status as the Election Commission of India.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Holding timely elections: The challenge of holding timely elections requires determined enforcement with the Supreme Court’s intervention. There is a need to follow constitutional provision related to holding of regular elections. Article 243U of the 74th CAA stipulates that the duration of urban local governments is five years and that an election to constitute an urban local government should be completed “before the expiry of its duration”. Further, in case of dissolution of the elected council by the State, the election should be held before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution. The Supreme Court states in Suresh Mahajan v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2022) that this constitutional mandate is unchallengable.
Government policy intervention: There is a need for greater policy attention in at least the following aspects:
1. Discretion of government officials in scheduling elections on time
2. Possibility of the State government exercising undue influence on officials to delay elections
3. Discretion of officials in identifying the presiding officer
4. Possibility of conflict of interest as the presiding officer may not be independent
5. Manual ballot paper-based process.
Roadmap for free and fair election: A reform road map for timely, free, and fair elections is much-needed. The terms of mayors, deputy mayors and standing committees being less than five years furthers this challenge by necessitating frequent elections, sometimes even annually. In India, 17% of cities including five of the eight largest ones have mayoral terms less than five years. There is a need for standardisation of mayoral terms of five years.
Strengthening role of SEC: To deal with challenges with respect to the conduct of municipal elections, State Election Commissions need to play a far more significant role. Articles 243K and 243ZA of the Constitution state that the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to panchayats and urban local governments shall be vested in SECs. Strengthening state election commission can help in improving the quality and credibility of local elections.
Unlike the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, where there is a clear distinction between the legislature and the executive, in the case of a municipality, the mayor heads both the elected and the administrative wings of the city government. Given the reluctance of State governments to strengthen SECs, it is high time that Supreme Court needs to bring greater significance to municipal elections.
THE CONCLUSION:
Electoral reforms to the local bodies are much needed democratic exercises in terms of timeliness of elections, the manner in which they are convened, and the nature in which power is transferred from one government to another. In this respect, it is time to evaluate a potential role for the SECs in the local body elections by providing required finance and autonomy for free and fair election.
UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1 Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. (2022)
Q.2 There is a dire need for electoral reforms in India, discuss various challenges related to elections in India and suggest some measures to resolve them. (2023)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Q.1 Local body elections are an important aspect of democracy in India as they empower the people at the grassroots level to participate in governance and development. Comment
Q.2 Irregularities in local body elections undermine the democratic process and the rule of law. Critically analyse the statement.
TIMELY RESTATEMENT: ON PRE-TRIAL INJUNCTIONS AGAINST THE MEDIA AND COURT ORDER
THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court of India has recently issued a cautionary order against the granting of pre-trial injunctions to the media in defamation cases, emphasizing the potential threat to freedom of speech and the public’s right to information. This order comes in response to a lower court’s directive to Bloomberg to remove an allegedly defamatory article about Zee Entertainment Enterprises Ltd., which was upheld by the Delhi High Court. The Supreme Court’s directive serves as a reminder of the importance of adhering to the constitutional mandate to protect journalistic expression and the established three-fold test for interim injunctions.
ISSUES:
Interim Injunctions and Freedom of Speech: The Supreme Court highlighted the potential negative impact of interim injunctions on freedom of speech and public debate. The Court emphasized that granting such injunctions without careful consideration can lead to the suppression of journalistic expression.
Three-fold Test for Granting Injunctions: The Court reiterated the standard three-fold test for granting interim injunctions, which includes assessing whether there is a prima facie case, whether the balance of convenience favors an interim restraint, and whether not granting the injunction would cause irreparable loss or harm to the plaintiff. The Court criticized the mechanical application of this test without proper analysis of the facts.
Judicial Orders Against Media: The three types of judicial orders that have been criticized for imposing questionable restrictions on journalistic publications: gag orders that prevent the publication of information related to ongoing cases, broad prior restraint orders based on a plaintiff’s concerns about defamation, and pre-trial orders directing media houses to remove content and refrain from further publication.
Bonnard vs Perryman Principle: The common law principle established in Bonnard vs Perryman, which states that an injunction in a defamation suit should only be granted if the court is convinced that the content is defamatory and that there is no possible justification for its publication during the trial, such as a defense of truth and public interest.
Early Injunctions as a ‘Death Sentence’: The Court warned that granting an early injunction in what could be a prolonged trial can act as a ‘death sentence’ for the material that is to be published, effectively censoring the content before it can be fully examined in court.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Judicious Granting of Injunctions: Courts should exercise exceptional caution when granting pre-trial injunctions, especially ex parte ones, against media platforms. Injunctions should not be granted without establishing that the content is malicious or palpably false.
Adherence to the Three-fold Test: The three-fold test for granting interim injunctions—assessing prima facie case, balance of convenience, and irreparable loss or harm—must be applied rigorously and not merely recorded as a mantra. Courts must apply their mind to the facts of the case and provide reasoned orders.
Protection of Free Speech: The constitutional mandate of protecting journalistic expression must be underscored. Courts must balance the fundamental right to free speech with the right to reputation and privacy, and tread cautiously while granting pre-trial interim injunctions.
Recognition of SLAPP Suits: Courts should be cognizant of the use of SLAPP suits by powerful entities to stifle free speech and public participation. The potential of using prolonged litigation to prevent free speech must be kept in mind by the courts.
Full-fledged Trials: Injunctions against the publication of material should be granted only after a full-fledged trial is conducted or after the respondent is given a chance to make their submissions.
Reasoned Orders: Courts granting an injunction are expected to record reasons by analyzing the facts, rather than issuing unreasoned orders that amount to censorship.
Appellate Intervention: Appellate courts must intervene if the discretion to grant an interim injunction has been exercised capriciously, perversely, or without regard to settled principles of law. The impact of the injunction on the right of free speech further warrants intervention.
Avoiding Unnecessary Restraints: Courts should avoid issuing outright gag orders, omnibus prior restraint orders, and pre-trial orders to take down articles, except in exceptional cases where the defense advanced by the respondent would be indefensible.
THE CONCLUSION:
The Supreme Court’s admonition serves as a critical check on the issuance of judicial orders that could unduly restrict journalistic freedom, highlighting the need for courts to thoroughly assess the facts before granting injunctions. The Court’s order also addresses the misuse of ‘SLAPP’ suits by powerful entities to suppress public discourse and underscores the severe consequences of early injunctions in defamation cases, which can act as a ‘death sentence’ for the concerned publication.
UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:
Q.1 Starting from inventing the ‘basic structure’ doctrine, the judiciary has played a highly proactive role in ensuring that India develops into a thriving democracy. Considering the statement, evaluate the role played by judicial activism in achieving the ideals of democracy. (2014)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q.1 Discuss the impact of judicial orders on media freedom in India, with a special focus on pre-trial injunctions in defamation cases. Analyze the Supreme Court’s recent caution against such injunctions, considering the balance between protecting reputation and ensuring freedom of speech and information.
THE CONTEXT: The Kerala government has filed a petition in the Supreme Court challenging the President’s withholding of assent to four bills passed by the state legislature. This action is part of an ongoing legal battle over the Governor’s refusal to approve bills passed by the assembly. The bills in question relate to state universities and cooperative societies, falling within the state’s jurisdiction.
ISSUES:
Unconstitutional Action: The Kerala government has challenged the President’s withholding of assent to four bills passed by the Kerala Assembly, arguing that this action is unconstitutional and lacks good faith.
Violation of Constitution: The state government contends that the actions of the Governor and President violate Articles 14, 200, and 201 of the Constitution, as they pertain to state universities and cooperative societies falling within the state’s domain of law-making.
Delay and Avoidance: The Governor kept the decision on the bills pending for an extended period, referring them to the President after two years to avoid a Supreme Court direction, which is seen as an unreasonable delay without valid reasons.
Federal Structure Violation: The state argues that withholding assent by the President based on Union cabinet advice is an encroachment into the state’s domain, violating the federal spirit and structure of governance in India.
Role of President: The President, as the constitutional head of the country, is expected to act above political considerations. However, her refusal to give assent has raised concerns about partisan and unconstitutional actions.
Governors’ Role: Governors in opposition-ruled states have been accused of obstructionist behavior, overstepping their powers, and acting like politicians, leading to frequent interventions by the Supreme Court to resolve conflicts between Governors and state governments.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Judicial Intervention: The Kerala government has already approached the Supreme Court under Article 131 to challenge the President’s actions as unconstitutional. The Supreme Court can provide a ruling that clarifies the constitutional boundaries and powers of the Governor and President in the legislative process.
Constitutional Amendments: The Sarkaria Commission recommended amending the Constitution to specify time limits and clearer criteria for the Governor and President’s decision-making on state bills. This could prevent indefinite delays and ensure accountability in the legislative process.
Dialogue and Negotiation: Engaging in dialogue with the central government and the President’s office to find common ground and resolve the issues out of court. This cooperative approach could foster better centre-state relations.
Sarkaria Commission Recommendations: Appoint experienced individuals to key positions, empower states, promote cooperative federalism, ensure sufficient financial resources for states, and establish a permanent Inter-State Council to resolve disputes.
Punchhi Commission Recommendations: Establishing a National Integration Council, Amending Articles 355 and 356 to safeguard states’ interests, Consulting states on concurrent list subjects through the Inter-State Council, involving state Chief Ministers in Governor appointments and removals, Regulating the union’s law-making power to ensure state representation.
THE CONCLUSION:
The state government argues that the actions of both the Governor and the President violate key constitutional articles, including Articles 14, 200, and 201. The delay in decision-making by the Governor, followed by a sudden referral to the President, raises concerns about political motives rather than constitutional duties. This situation highlights a growing trend of Governors overstepping their roles, leading to constitutional conflicts that require judicial intervention.
UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTION:
Q.1 Discuss the essential conditions for the exercise of the legislative powers by the Governor. Discuss the legality of the re-promulgation of ordinances by the Governor without placing them before the Legislature. (2022)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q.1 Analyze the role of the Supreme Court of India in addressing disputes between the central and state governments, concerning its jurisdiction and powers. Discuss how this role impacts the federal structure of the country.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Thin coal seams endowed with low-sulphur coal makes rat-hole mining a viable option in the Northeastern India.
2. Rat-hole mining in Meghalaya has enhanced the pH levels in the Kopili river.
3. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) imposed a ban on rat-hole mining in 2014.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer. A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rat-hole mining involves digging of very small tunnels, usually only 3-4 feet deep, in which workers, more often children, enter and extract coal. It is practiced in the Northeastern States of India because the coal seams are thin and the coal quality is bad: having high sulphur content. These factors make open mining an unfeasible option in such regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Since rat-hole mining is illegal, it is practiced behind closed doors. The water in the Kopili River (flows through Meghalaya and Assam) has turned acidic (i.e. the pH levels in the river have dropped). The entire roadsides in and around mining areas are for piling of coal. This is a major source of air, water and soil pollution.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has banned rat-hole mining in 2014, and retained the ban in 2015. The ban was on grounds of the practice being unscientific and unsafe for workers.
Incorrect
Answer. A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rat-hole mining involves digging of very small tunnels, usually only 3-4 feet deep, in which workers, more often children, enter and extract coal. It is practiced in the Northeastern States of India because the coal seams are thin and the coal quality is bad: having high sulphur content. These factors make open mining an unfeasible option in such regions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Since rat-hole mining is illegal, it is practiced behind closed doors. The water in the Kopili River (flows through Meghalaya and Assam) has turned acidic (i.e. the pH levels in the river have dropped). The entire roadsides in and around mining areas are for piling of coal. This is a major source of air, water and soil pollution.
Statement 3 is correct: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has banned rat-hole mining in 2014, and retained the ban in 2015. The ban was on grounds of the practice being unscientific and unsafe for workers.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2. Consider the following pairs:
Space Missions – Purpose
1. Artemis – Creating a permanent base on Moon
2. XRISM – Demonstration of precise lunar landing
3. Euclid – Exploration of Dark Universe
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Artemis programme is a series of missions planned by NASA with an aim to establish a permanent base on the Moon. The lunar base will eventually be utilised as a launching pad for various manned Mars missions in future.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is the SLIM mission, which is a small-scale exploration lander designed for pinpoint landings on the Moon’s surface. Both the missions (XRISM and SLIM) have been initiated by the Japanese Space Agency (JAXA). The X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM) is an X-ray space telescope mission to provide breakthroughs in the study of structure formation of the universe and outflows from galaxy nuclei.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Euclid mission is a space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe. It is a mission by the European Space Agency (ESA). Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched: Artemis programme is a series of missions planned by NASA with an aim to establish a permanent base on the Moon. The lunar base will eventually be utilised as a launching pad for various manned Mars missions in future.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is the SLIM mission, which is a small-scale exploration lander designed for pinpoint landings on the Moon’s surface. Both the missions (XRISM and SLIM) have been initiated by the Japanese Space Agency (JAXA). The X-Ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission (XRISM) is an X-ray space telescope mission to provide breakthroughs in the study of structure formation of the universe and outflows from galaxy nuclei.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Euclid mission is a space telescope designed to explore the composition and evolution of the dark Universe. It is a mission by the European Space Agency (ESA). Euclid will explore how the Universe has expanded and how structure has formed over cosmic history, revealing more about the role of gravity and the nature of dark energy and dark matter.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
3. With reference to different types of vitamins, consider the following statements:
1. Vitamin B plays a pivotal role in the synthesis of collagen, which is essential for maintaining healthy skin.
2. Vitamin H, also known as biotin, is essential for hair growth.
3. Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Vitamin C which helps in the synthesis of collagen. Collagen is the primary building block of body’s skin, muscles, bones, tendons and ligaments, and other connective tissues. It’s also found in our organs, blood vessels and intestinal lining.
Statement 2 is correct: Biotin is also known as Vitamin H. It is a water-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the growth of hair. Along with this it also helps in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and amino acids. It was initially called “H” from the German word “Haar und Haut,” meaning hair and skin.
Statement 3 is correct: Basking in the sun isn’t just for relaxation; it triggers the skin to produce a vital vitamin known as Vitamin D. The sun’s energy turns a chemical in the skin into vitamin D3, which is carried to the liver and then to kidneys to transform it to active vitamin D.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is Vitamin C which helps in the synthesis of collagen. Collagen is the primary building block of body’s skin, muscles, bones, tendons and ligaments, and other connective tissues. It’s also found in our organs, blood vessels and intestinal lining.
Statement 2 is correct: Biotin is also known as Vitamin H. It is a water-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the growth of hair. Along with this it also helps in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and amino acids. It was initially called “H” from the German word “Haar und Haut,” meaning hair and skin.
Statement 3 is correct: Basking in the sun isn’t just for relaxation; it triggers the skin to produce a vital vitamin known as Vitamin D. The sun’s energy turns a chemical in the skin into vitamin D3, which is carried to the liver and then to kidneys to transform it to active vitamin D.
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Cores are the hardware-based processing units within a Central Processing Unit (CPU).
2. Threads are the software-based instructions that can be processed by a CPU.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A core is a physical component of the CPU that can execute instructions. Thus, it is a hardware-based processing unit within a CPU. A CPU performance will depend upon the number of cores on the machine and the speed at which the individual cores can execute instructions.
Statement 2 is correct: Thread is a single sequential flow of control in a program that allows multiple activities within a single process. Thus, it is the software-based instruction. In other words, a single thread is like one command that runs at a time.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: A core is a physical component of the CPU that can execute instructions. Thus, it is a hardware-based processing unit within a CPU. A CPU performance will depend upon the number of cores on the machine and the speed at which the individual cores can execute instructions.
Statement 2 is correct: Thread is a single sequential flow of control in a program that allows multiple activities within a single process. Thus, it is the software-based instruction. In other words, a single thread is like one command that runs at a time.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Machine Learning models are suitable for solving simple problems, while Deep Learning models are used to solve complex problems.
2. Machine Learning is a subset of Deep Learning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation
Machine Learning and Deep Learning are the two main concepts of Data Science and the subsets of Artificial Intelligence.
Machine Learning allows the computers to learn from the experiences by its own, use statistical methods to improve the performance and predict the output without being explicitly programmed.
Deep Learning is inspired by the functionality of human brain cells, which are called neurons, and leads to the concept of artificial neural networks. It is also called a deep neural network or deep neural learning.
● Statement 1 is CORRECT: Machine Learning algorithm is data driven. It follows a structured format for solving problems and thus is mainly employed for simpler tasks like predicting customer choice on e-commerce site. But, Deep Learning mimics complex neural schemas of human brain. It is adept at solving complex problems which require parallel processing.
● Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Deep Learning is a subset of Machine Learning. Deep Learning is a special case of machine learning in which each step is checked in a more elaborated manner.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation
Machine Learning and Deep Learning are the two main concepts of Data Science and the subsets of Artificial Intelligence.
Machine Learning allows the computers to learn from the experiences by its own, use statistical methods to improve the performance and predict the output without being explicitly programmed.
Deep Learning is inspired by the functionality of human brain cells, which are called neurons, and leads to the concept of artificial neural networks. It is also called a deep neural network or deep neural learning.
● Statement 1 is CORRECT: Machine Learning algorithm is data driven. It follows a structured format for solving problems and thus is mainly employed for simpler tasks like predicting customer choice on e-commerce site. But, Deep Learning mimics complex neural schemas of human brain. It is adept at solving complex problems which require parallel processing.
● Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Deep Learning is a subset of Machine Learning. Deep Learning is a special case of machine learning in which each step is checked in a more elaborated manner.
THE CONTEXT: Coral islands, such as India’s Lakshadweep, face significant threats due to climate change, primarily caused by global warming.
EXPLANATION:
The extraction and burning of fossil fuels, deforestation, and other anthropogenic activities contribute to rising temperatures, ocean acidification, and extreme weather events, leading to the destruction of coral reefs.
Corals and Coral Bleaching
Coral reefs are vital ecosystems built by coral polyps, which have a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae algae.
When water temperatures rise, corals expel these algae, leading to bleaching—a phenomenon where corals lose their vibrant colors and eventually die.
Ocean acidification exacerbates bleaching by reducing calcium mineral availability for coral exoskeletons.
Types of coral reefs in India:
Fringing reefs
Fringing reefs evolve and develop near the continent and remain close to the coastline. These reefs are separated from the coastline by small, shallow lagoons. They are the most commonly found reefs in the world.
Barrier reefs
Barrier reefs are found offshore on the continental shelf. They usually run parallel to the coastline at some distance. A deep and wide lagoon is located between the coastline and the barrier reef.
Atolls
Atolls are formed on mid-oceanic ridges. They are shaped circularly or elliptically and are surrounded by seas on all four sides and have shallow waters in the center called a lagoon.
All the three major reef types occur in India. The mainland coast of India has two widely separated areas containing reefs: the Gulf of Kachchh in the northwest, which has some of the most northerly reefs in the world, and Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar in the southeast.
In addition to these, there are patches of reef growth on the West Coast, for example, coral reefs at Malvan.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have fringing reefs around many islands, and a long barrier reef (329 km) on the west coast.
Little is known about these reefs, which may be the most diverse and pristine reefs in India. The Lakshadweep also has extensive reefs but these are also poorly explored.
Impact of Climate Change on Coral Reefs
Global warming has resulted in widespread coral bleaching events, causing significant damage to coral reefs worldwide.
The loss of coral reefs has severe repercussions for coastal communities, including those inhabiting coral islands like Lakshadweep, who rely on these ecosystems for livelihoods and protection from rising sea levels.
The Role of Sound in Coral Recovery
Recent research suggests that sound may play a crucial role in coral reef recovery.
Scientists conducted a study in the Virgin Islands, where they observed that healthy reef sounds attracted coral polyps, leading to increased settlement rates on degraded reefs.
By using underwater speaker systems to replay healthy reef sounds, researchers saw a positive impact on coral settlement rates, indicating a potential avenue for coral restoration efforts.
Challenges and Considerations
While the study offers promising results, it is essential to acknowledge its limitations and potential challenges.
Scaling up this approach for large-scale coral reef restoration requires further research and testing.
Factors such as sound volume, frequency, and other environmental parameters need to be carefully considered to ensure the success of coral settlement initiatives.
Additionally, unforeseen complications may arise during implementation, underscoring the need for continued scientific inquiry and adaptive management strategies.
THE CONTEXT: The Sundarbans are facing multifaceted challenges, ranging from environmental degradation to socio-economic disparities. However, through nature-based solutions, sustainable development initiatives, and inclusive policies, there is hope for preserving this invaluable ecosystem and improving the livelihoods of its inhabitants.
EXPLANATION:
The Sundarbans is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and Ramsar site.
It is a vast mangrove forest delta spread across India and Bangladesh.
Sundarbans is situated in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna (GBM) delta and depends on the tidal rivers and mangroves.
The rivers are mostly saline as they disconnect from the ‘parent river’.
The scarcity of freshwater is the burning issue in the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve.
It provides shelter for 84 species of flora, including 26 mangrove species, 453 species of fauna, 120 species of fish, 290 species of birds, 42 species of mammals, 35 reptiles and eight amphibian species.
More than 12 million people — 4.5 million in India and 7.5 million in Bangladesh — live in this estuarine ecosystem.
Its ecological significance extends to its role as a habitat for millions of people who depend on its resources for sustenance.
Challenges Facing the Sundarbans Ecosystem
Freshwater Scarcity:
The Sundarbans face freshwater scarcity due to the saline nature of tidal rivers and reduced flow from upstream, posing a significant challenge to the ecosystem’s health.
Environmental Pollution:
Pollution, including microplastic contamination from nearby rivers, chemical pollutants from industrial sources like Mongla Port and India’s Leather Estate, and hydrocarbon contamination, threatens the delicate balance of the Sundarbans ecosystem.
Human-Wildlife Conflicts and Exploitation:
Issues such as conflicts between humans and animals, trafficking, hunting, and unsustainable exploitation of forest resources exacerbate the challenges faced by the Sundarbans and its inhabitants.
Climate Change Impacts:
Rising temperatures, changing sea levels, coastal erosion, and extreme weather events attributed to climate change pose significant threats to the Sundarbans’ stability and biodiversity.
Urbanization and Land Encroachment:
Coastal erosion and sea-level rise have led to the encroachment of lands by saline waters, displacing communities and forcing migration to urban areas, putting further pressure on resources.
Nature-Based Solutions for Sundarbans
Promoting Sustainable Agriculture: Encouraging the cultivation of salt-tolerant crop varieties and promoting organic farming practices can mitigate the impact of freshwater scarcity and enhance agricultural productivity.
Economic Diversification and Livelihood Enhancement: Establishing agro-based enterprises, promoting medicinal plant cultivation, and supporting women-led self-help groups can create alternative livelihood opportunities and reduce dependency on fragile ecosystems.
Wastewater Treatment and Ecosystem Restoration: Utilizing indigenous aquatic plants, mangrove seedlings, and beneficial bacteria for wastewater treatment and pond ecosystem restoration can improve water quality and support aquatic biodiversity.
Clean Energy Initiatives: Implementing solar and bio-energy policies can provide sustainable energy solutions, reducing dependence on fossil fuels and mitigating environmental degradation.
Gender-Inclusive Development: Prioritizing women’s participation in development initiatives and ensuring their representation in decision-making processes can foster inclusive and sustainable development in the Sundarbans.
Healthcare Infrastructure and Disaster Preparedness: Establishing well-equipped healthcare facilities and disaster preparedness policies are essential for safeguarding the health and safety of Sundarbans inhabitants in the face of climate-related risks and natural disasters.
Cultural Preservation and Tourism Development: Promoting the unique culture and cuisine of the Sundarbans can attract tourism, contributing to economic growth while ensuring the preservation of local traditions and heritage.
World heritage site and UNESCO:
A World Heritage site is a landmark or area with legal protection by an international convention administered by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO).
World Heritage sites are designated by UNESCO for having cultural, historical, scientific or other forms of significance.
The sites are judged to contain “cultural and natural heritage around the world considered being of outstanding value to humanity.”
The concept of World Heritage emerged after WWII amid concerns over the widespread destruction of cultural sites and nature.
Efforts to remedy this led to the drafting of the 1972 Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage, commonly known as the World Heritage Convention.
It established the framework to preserve the world’s outstanding heritage.
Ramsar Sites:
Any wetland site which has been listed under the Ramsar Convention that aims to conserve it and promote sustainable use of its natural resources is called a Ramsar Site.
Ramsar Convention is known as the Convention of Wetlands.
It was established in 1971 by UNESCO and came into force in 1975.
India is a party to the Ramsar Convention. India signed under it on 1st February 1982.
The Ramsar Convention works closely with six organizations known as International Organization Partners(IOPs). These are:
Birdlife International
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
IIT GUWAHATI’s BREAKTHROUGH IN SWINE FEVER VACCINE TECHNOLOGY TRANSFER
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT: The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati has achieved a significant milestone by successfully transferring technology for the production of India’s first recombinant virus-based vaccine for classical swine fever.
EXPLANATION:
This breakthrough represents a pivotal development in combating the highly contagious disease affecting pigs and wild boars.
IIT Guwahati has facilitated the transfer of pioneering vaccine technology to BioMed Pvt Ltd, a manufacturing company specializing in high-quality vaccines.
This transfer enables commercial production of the vaccine, offering a swift and cost-effective solution for pig vaccination.
The vaccine developed at IIT Guwahati utilizes a recombinant virus-based platform, which is a novel approach in India for combating classical swine fever.
This method represents a significant advancement in vaccine technology, ensuring effective protection against the disease.
The development of this vaccine is the result of collaborative efforts between researchers from the Department of Biosciences and Bioengineering at IIT Guwahati and Assam Agricultural University in Guwahati.
The collaboration underscores the importance of interdisciplinary cooperation in scientific breakthroughs.
The successful transfer of vaccine technology to a leading company in the veterinary vaccine sector marks a remarkable achievement.
It demonstrates the potential for academia-industry collaboration in addressing pressing health challenges and translating research into practical solutions.
Swine Fever:
Classical swine fever is a highly infectious and often fatal viral disease of swine.
Swine infected with classical swine fever virus usually develop fever, hemorrhages, lethargy, yellowish diarrhea, vomiting, and purple skin discoloration of the ears, lower abdomen, and legs.
Neurological signs, reproductive failures, and abortion may also be observed.
Diagnostic tests for the disease include RT-qPCR assay, virus isolation, immunofluorescence assay, and detection of antibodies by serological tests such as ELISA and virus neutralization.
Swine fever poses a significant threat in various states across India, particularly in the northeastern states, Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, Gujarat, and Kerala.
The availability of an indigenous vaccine holds promise for controlling the spread of the disease and safeguarding the livestock industry.
Innovative Methodology:
The vaccine development process involves harnessing a reverse genetic platform, a method widely used for developing vaccines against influenza.
This innovative approach leverages the Newcastle disease virus (NDV) as a carrier for essential proteins of the classical swine fever virus, ensuring efficient immunity development.
Reverse genetics offers several advantages, including speed and cost-effectiveness, in vaccine development.
By utilizing NDV as a carrier, researchers can expedite the vaccine production process while maintaining affordability, crucial for widespread adoption and implementation.
Future Prospects and Regulatory Process:
Currently, the vaccine is undergoing the process of filing test and analysis licenses. Once approved, it will be ready for commercial distribution, marking a significant step forward in disease prevention and control strategies for the livestock industry.
PROFESSOR JAYANT MURTHY: A DISTINGUISHED INDIAN ASTROPHYSICIST
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT: Professor Jayant Murthy is a renowned Indian astrophysicist known for his significant contributions to space missions, ultraviolet astronomy, and the study of the interstellar medium.
Previously cataloged as 2005 EX296, the asteroid is now officially designated as (215884) Jayantmurthy.
The asteroid (215884) Jayantmurthy was discovered by MW Buie in 2005 at the Kitt Peak National Observatory in Arizona, USA.
It orbits the Sun between Mars and Jupiter, completing a full orbit every 3.3 years.
Contributions of Professor Murthy:
NASA’s New Horizons Mission:
Professor Murthy played a crucial role in NASA’s New Horizons Science Team.
The New Horizons mission, NASA’s first venture in the New Frontiers programme, was launched in 2006.
The mission gained global attention with its historic flyby of Pluto in 2015, providing unprecedented views and data of the dwarf planet and its moons.
Its objective is to conduct a detailed study of the surface features, geological structures, and morphology of Pluto and its moons. This includes mapping the surface composition of Pluto and Charon.
The mission reshaped our understanding of distant celestial objects by expanding the boundaries of space exploration.
Contributions to Understanding Cosmic Phenomena:
Professor Murthy’s work on studying ultraviolet background radiation far out in the Solar System has been instrumental in advancing our understanding of cosmic phenomena.
His observations, free from interference from the Sun and interplanetary medium, have provided valuable insights.
Recognition and Gratitude:
Expressing his gratitude for the honor of having an asteroid named after him, Professor Murthy highlighted his involvement in the New Horizons team led by Dr. Alan Stern.
He expressed his thrill at the recognition of his contributions to the mission.
Retirement and Continued Impact:
In 2021, Professor Murthy retired from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) but continues to serve as an Honorary Professor.
He previously served as the acting Director of IIA from July 2018 to October 2019.
Global Impact of Research:
The naming of the asteroid after Professor Murthy signifies the global impact of his research and contributions to the field of astrophysics.
His work has earned recognition not only within India but also internationally.
Asteroid:
Asteroids, sometimes called minor planets, are rocky, airless remnants left over from the early formation of our solar system about 4.6 billion years ago.
The current known asteroid count is at least 1,351,400.
Most of this ancient space rubble can be found orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter within the main asteroid belt.
Asteroids range in size from Vesta – the largest at about 329 miles (530 kilometers) in diameter – to bodies that are less than 33 feet (10 meters) across.
The total mass of all the asteroids combined is less than that of Earth’s Moon.
International Astronomical Union:
The International Astronomical Union (IAU) was founded in 1919.
Its headquarters is in Paris, France.
Its mission is to promote and safeguard the science of astronomy in all its aspects, including research, communication, education and development, through international cooperation.
Its Individual and Junior Members — structured in Divisions, Commissions, and Working Groups — are professional astronomers from all over the world, at the Ph.D. level and beyond, active in professional research and education in astronomy.
The IAU has 12753 Individual and Junior Members in 110 countries worldwide.
Of those countries 85 are National Members. In addition, the IAU collaborates with various scientific organizations all over the world.
TRANSITION FROM MINIMUM WAGE TO LIVING WAGE IN INDIA BY 2025
TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY
THE CONTEXT: India is poised to shift from its traditional minimum wage system to a more comprehensive living wage system by 2025.
EXPLANATION:
This transition signifies a significant departure from the existing framework and aims to address the challenges faced by millions of workers in the country.
The assistance is intended to develop a robust framework for estimating and implementing the living wage system effectively.
The move aligns with the recent endorsement of the living wage concept by the ILO.
This endorsement, achieved during a Meeting of Experts on wage policies in February, underscores the global recognition of the importance of ensuring fair wages for workers worldwide.
The primary objective behind this transition is to accelerate efforts to lift millions of Indian workers out of poverty and ensure their overall well-being.
This shift is particularly crucial given the large proportion of the workforce employed in the unorganised sector, estimated to be around 90%.
Challenges with Minimum Wage System:
Despite the existence of minimum wage regulations, challenges persist, including wage payment discrepancies and stagnation in the national wage floor since 2017.
These issues underscore the limitations of the current system in ensuring adequate compensation for workers across various sectors and regions.
Code on Wages (2019):
India’s commitment to wage reform is evidenced by the passing of the Code on Wages in 2019.
This legislation proposes a universal wage floor that will apply uniformly across all states once implemented, addressing the disparities and inconsistencies prevalent in the current wage structure.
Utilizing ILO Assistance for Capacity Building:
India’s decision to seek assistance from the ILO for capacity building and systemic data collection reflects its commitment to effectively implement the living wage system.
By leveraging international expertise and best practices, India aims to streamline the transition process and achieve tangible outcomes.
Definition of Living Wage:
A living wage is defined as the wage level necessary to afford a decent standard of living for workers and their families, taking into account the country’s socio-economic conditions.
It is calculated based on the cost of essential goods and services required to maintain a reasonable quality of life.
India’s transition to a living wage system aligns with its broader commitment to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by 2030. In particular, it contributes to the goal of promoting decent work and economic growth, emphasizing the importance of equitable remuneration for all workers.
Economic Capacity and Growth Implications:
India’s robust economic growth, evidenced by a growth rate of 8.4%, suggests the country’s capacity to support higher wages.
By implementing living wages, India aims to not only improve the standard of living for its workers but also stimulate economic growth through increased consumer spending and reduced income inequality.
International Labour Organization (ILO):
The only tripartite U.N. agency, since 1919 the ILO brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 Member States, to set labour standards, develop policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
It was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I, to reflect the belief that universal and lasting peace can be accomplished only if it is based on social justice.
The Constitution of the ILO was drafted in early 1919 by the Labour Commission
It became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946.
Its headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland
Its founding mission is “social justice is essential to universal and lasting peace”.
It promotes internationally recognized human and labour rights.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Regenerative agriculture emphasizes on revitalising the soil health and biodiversity.
Statement II: Intensive farming releases carbon dioxide (CO2) into the atmosphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer. A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The key to regenerative agriculture is that it not only “does no harm” to the land but actually improves it, using technologies that regenerate and revitalize the soil and the environment. Regenerative agriculture leads to healthy soil, capable of producing high quality, nutrient dense food while simultaneously improving, rather than degrading land, and ultimately leading to productive farms and healthy communities and economies. It is dynamic and holistic, incorporating permaculture and organic farming practices, including conservation tillage, cover crops, crop rotation, composting, mobile animal shelters and pasture cropping, to increase food production, farmers’ income and especially, topsoil.
Statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1: When land is degraded due to intensive farming, soil carbon can be released into the atmosphere along with nitrous oxide, making land degradation one of the biggest contributors to climate change. An estimated two-thirds of all terrestrial carbon stored in soils and vegetation have been lost since the 19th century through land degradation.
Incorrect
Answer. A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The key to regenerative agriculture is that it not only “does no harm” to the land but actually improves it, using technologies that regenerate and revitalize the soil and the environment. Regenerative agriculture leads to healthy soil, capable of producing high quality, nutrient dense food while simultaneously improving, rather than degrading land, and ultimately leading to productive farms and healthy communities and economies. It is dynamic and holistic, incorporating permaculture and organic farming practices, including conservation tillage, cover crops, crop rotation, composting, mobile animal shelters and pasture cropping, to increase food production, farmers’ income and especially, topsoil.
Statement 2 is correct and explains statement 1: When land is degraded due to intensive farming, soil carbon can be released into the atmosphere along with nitrous oxide, making land degradation one of the biggest contributors to climate change. An estimated two-thirds of all terrestrial carbon stored in soils and vegetation have been lost since the 19th century through land degradation.
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2. With reference to the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, consider the following statements:
1. It led to the establishment of ‘Animal Welfare Board of India’.
2. It does not allow the dehorning of cattle by its owner.
3. It legalises the clinical trials on animals in the country.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer. B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on animal welfare which was established in 1962 by the central government under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 60 years. It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
Headquarters of AWBI are located in Ballabhgarh, Haryana (since 2018). Previously, it was based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct: According to the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960-
Experiments involving operations on animals for the purpose of advancement by new discovery of physiological knowledge or of knowledge which will be useful for saving or for prolonging life or alleviating suffering or for combating any disease, whether of human beings, animals or plants, shall not be unlawful. Thus, clinical trials on animals for medicinal advancements are allowed. (Chapter IV deals with experimentation on animals).
The penalties and prohibitions under the said Act do not apply in the following cases:
● the dehorning of cattle, or the castration or branding or nose-roping of any animal, in the prescribed manner; or
● the destruction of stray dogs in lethal chambers or [by such other methods as may be prescribed]; or
● the extermination or destruction of any animal under the authority of any law for the time being in force; or
● any matter dealt with in Chapter IV.
Therefore, the above-mentioned activities are permitted under the Act.
Incorrect
Answer. B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on animal welfare which was established in 1962 by the central government under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 60 years. It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.
Headquarters of AWBI are located in Ballabhgarh, Haryana (since 2018). Previously, it was based in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2 is incorrect but statement 3 is correct: According to the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960-
Experiments involving operations on animals for the purpose of advancement by new discovery of physiological knowledge or of knowledge which will be useful for saving or for prolonging life or alleviating suffering or for combating any disease, whether of human beings, animals or plants, shall not be unlawful. Thus, clinical trials on animals for medicinal advancements are allowed. (Chapter IV deals with experimentation on animals).
The penalties and prohibitions under the said Act do not apply in the following cases:
● the dehorning of cattle, or the castration or branding or nose-roping of any animal, in the prescribed manner; or
● the destruction of stray dogs in lethal chambers or [by such other methods as may be prescribed]; or
● the extermination or destruction of any animal under the authority of any law for the time being in force; or
● any matter dealt with in Chapter IV.
Therefore, the above-mentioned activities are permitted under the Act.
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
3. Consider the following statements about ‘Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs)’:
1. They are clearly defined under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. Wastelands and grasslands are part of the ONEs.
3. They play a crucial role in carbon sequestration.
4. They are facing a growing threat from renewable energy.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer. C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs)’ is not mentioned or defined in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. A clear definition of ONEs is lacking in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Across the world, open natural ecosystems (also called ONEs) include cold and hot deserts, rock outcrops, boulder and rubble fields, wetlands and marshes, and diverse grasslands and savanna ecosystems. By some estimates, they occupy about two-thirds of land on Earth. Nearly 70% of the areas with open natural ecosystems overlap with those the government calls ‘wastelands’. This included ravines, grasslands, shrublands, waterlogged and marshy areas, pastures and even coastal areas.
Statement 3 is correct: Grasslands, part of open natural ecosystems, sequester 146 tonnes of carbon per hectare per year and support 500 million livestock and over 20 nomadic tribes in India.
Statement 4 is correct: Land-use change such as intensive agriculture, afforestation drives and renewable energy projects threaten open natural ecosystems (ONEs).
Incorrect
Answer. C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Open Natural Ecosystems (ONEs)’ is not mentioned or defined in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. A clear definition of ONEs is lacking in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Across the world, open natural ecosystems (also called ONEs) include cold and hot deserts, rock outcrops, boulder and rubble fields, wetlands and marshes, and diverse grasslands and savanna ecosystems. By some estimates, they occupy about two-thirds of land on Earth. Nearly 70% of the areas with open natural ecosystems overlap with those the government calls ‘wastelands’. This included ravines, grasslands, shrublands, waterlogged and marshy areas, pastures and even coastal areas.
Statement 3 is correct: Grasslands, part of open natural ecosystems, sequester 146 tonnes of carbon per hectare per year and support 500 million livestock and over 20 nomadic tribes in India.
Statement 4 is correct: Land-use change such as intensive agriculture, afforestation drives and renewable energy projects threaten open natural ecosystems (ONEs).
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Ethylene-vinyl acetate (EVA) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC) are commonly used in the footwear industry.
2. The recycled plastic bottles and rubber tyres can make the footwear industry more eco-friendly.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Answer. D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The dominance of petrochemical-based plastics in the footwear segment is a major challenge in approaching footwear with circularity. The main byproducts of petrochemicals used in shoes for soles are polyurethane (PU), ethylene-vinyl acetate (EVA) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC), all known for value, durability and resistance. Be it EVA or PVC, these are non-biodegradable toxic materials, which after disintegration produce harmful material that goes into the soil.
Statement 2 is correct: In recent years, footwear made of vegan material, recycled plastic bottles or upcycled rubber tyres with cork soles, has introduced a new vocabulary for footwear design among conscious fashion-goers.
Incorrect
Answer. D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The dominance of petrochemical-based plastics in the footwear segment is a major challenge in approaching footwear with circularity. The main byproducts of petrochemicals used in shoes for soles are polyurethane (PU), ethylene-vinyl acetate (EVA) and polyvinyl chloride (PVC), all known for value, durability and resistance. Be it EVA or PVC, these are non-biodegradable toxic materials, which after disintegration produce harmful material that goes into the soil.
Statement 2 is correct: In recent years, footwear made of vegan material, recycled plastic bottles or upcycled rubber tyres with cork soles, has introduced a new vocabulary for footwear design among conscious fashion-goers.
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
5. With reference to the Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules of 2010, consider the following statements:
1. It is compulsory for the state governments to identify, demarcate and officially designate all wetlands across the state within a stipulated period of two years.
2. These rules led to the establishment of Wetland Authority at national and state levels for the conservation and management of wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer. A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules of 2010, enacted under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, make it compulsory for the state government to identify, demarcate and officially designate all wetlands across the state within a stipulated period of two years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules amended in 2017 shifted the emphasis of wetland management from a central authority to state-level bodies. These rules provided for the establishment of National Wetland Authority and State Wetland Authorities to ensure more effective conservation and management of wetlands in the state.
Incorrect
Answer. A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules of 2010, enacted under the Environment Protection Act of 1986, make it compulsory for the state government to identify, demarcate and officially designate all wetlands across the state within a stipulated period of two years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules amended in 2017 shifted the emphasis of wetland management from a central authority to state-level bodies. These rules provided for the establishment of National Wetland Authority and State Wetland Authorities to ensure more effective conservation and management of wetlands in the state.
STOP THE WAR: ON THE U.N. SECURITY COUNCIL’S CALL FOR A GAZA CEASEFIRE
THE CONTEXT: The resolution, known as Resolution 2728, was tabled by the UN Security Council’s 10 non-permanent members (E-10) and was adopted recently. The resolution came five and half months after Israel’s assault on Gaza began, in which thousands of Palestinians have been killed and more than 90% of the enclave’s population displaced and facing hunger crisis.
KEY PROVISIONS OF RESOLUTION 2728
The United States, which has vetoed every U.N. resolution earlier that called for an immediate ceasefire in Gaza did not vote in favour this time. This signals a change in the USA administration’s policy towards the war.
All other members of the UNSC, including Britain voted for the resolution.
PROVISIONS OF RESOLUTION 2728:
Resolution 2728 includes several key provisions aimed at ending the violence and addressing the humanitarian crisis in Gaza:
Immediate ceasefire during the month of Ramadan
Immediate and unconditional release of hostages
Urgent need to expand the flow of aid into Gaza
The resolution emphasizes the importance of ensuring humanitarian access to Gaza to alleviate the suffering of the Palestinian population.
ISRAEL STANCE:
Israel responded in anger by cancelling a planned visit Prime Minister’s close cabinet aides to Washington but this indicates Israel’s weakness.
Israeli leaders have repeatedly said in recent weeks that an invasion of Rafah, the southernmost town where some 1.4 million Palestinians have been attacked was unavoidable.
Background:
The latest war was triggered by Hamas’s October 7, 2023 cross-border attack where at least 1,200 Israelis were killed. But what Israel did in subsequent months was to punish the entire population of Gaza for what Hamas did turned international public opinion against it.
After months-long fighting, Israel has turned much of Gaza into rubble, but has neither destroyed Hamas nor rescued hostages.
The prolonged war has made Prime Minister immensely unpopular and his coalition partners are at war with one another.
The war has also increased Israel’s isolation, with tensions rising in its ties even with its close partners, including the U.S. If Israel continues the war with no clear end in sight, it will only worsen the domestic and international challenges.
BROADER ISSUES:
Regional Instability: The conflict in Gaza has contributed to regional instability and heightened tensions. It has the potential to spill over into neighbouring countries and rise in existing regional conflicts
Humanitarian Crisis: The conflict has led to a humanitarian crisis in Gaza, with casualties, displacement, and infrastructure damage. The international community has been called upon to address the immediate humanitarian needs of the Palestinian population.
Displacement and Destruction: Both sides harbour mutual suspicions and apprehensions of violence, such as missile strikes from Gaza and Israeli defence actions. Outside political agendas and preconceptions can occasionally intensify tensions.
Financial inequalities: Economic restrictions and imbalances lead to escalation of tensions and provoke more disputes.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Israel stand: Israel must adhere to the UNSC resolution for a ceasefire by making an objective assessment of the situation. The October 7 attack itself was a massive intelligence and security failure for which Israeli Prime Minister should take responsibility. Israel should take the message from the UNSC seriously to stop the war, allow urgent humanitarian assistance into Gaza and continue talks with Hamas through international mediators for both the release of all hostages and the withdrawal of his troops from the enclave.
Collective efforts: The ongoing conflict has escalated geopolitical tensions. Achieving a peaceful resolution of the issue requires collective efforts from the international community. A balanced approach is crucial, not only for fostering favourable relations with Arab countries but also for maintaining a constructive engagement with
India’s approach: India’s role in multilateral organizations requires efforts in cooperation with all related parties to achieve security and stability in the Middle East and West Asia. India should use multilateral forums to act as a mediator to resolve the Israel-Palestine issue.
Abraham accords: The recent normalization agreements between Israel and the UAE, Bahrain, Sudan, and Morocco, known as the Abraham Accords, are the steps in the right direction. All regional powers should envisage peace between the two countries on line of Abraham Accords.
THE CONCLUSION:
The adoption of the UN Security Council resolution is only the first step in the process of achieving a lasting ceasefire and peace in Gaza. The UN, member states, and parties to the conflict must now work together to implement the resolution’s provision and create conditions conducive to a negotiated settlement.
UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1 “India’s relations with Israel have, of late, acquired a depth and diversity, which cannot be rolled back.” Discuss. (2018)
Q.2 ‘Too little cash, too much politics, leave UNESCO fighting for life.’ Discuss the statement in the light of the US’ withdrawal and its accusation of the cultural body as being ‘anti-Israel bias’.(2019)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION
Q.1 The recent adoption of resolution for immediate ceasefire in Gaza by UN Security Council reflects its balanced approach to international conflicts and underscores its commitment to principles of diplomacy and negotiated resolution to complex global issues. Comment.
THE CONTEXT: Recently, Delhi Chief Minister and Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) leader Arvind Kejriwal’s arrest by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) raises disturbing questions about the direction of India’s democracy and federalism. This arrest is a reminder of the dangers of misusing enforcement agencies.
WHAT IS THE ISSUE?
Delhi Excise policy case: The Delhi Excise policy case, in which CM has been arrested, was registered by the CBI in August 2022, based on which the ED launched its money laundering probe. Several other AAP leaders are in jail under the case.
Against rule of law: If the ED had evidence of corruption, it should have taken the case to trial on a war footing. Keeping the accused in jail, while investigators continue their expedition is against rule of law.
Impairing democracy: When the accused are political opponents of the ruling party, the arrests is being seen as selective enforcement of the law impairing public confidence in democracy itself.
Issue with Supreme court: The Supreme Court of India had earlier asked the ED to provide an unbroken chain of evidence showing that ill-gotten money had flowed from the liquor lobby to Mr. Sisodia. The Court had remarked that the competence of the ED lay in bringing to the fore uninterrupted proof linking an accused with the crime proceeds. Later, the Court went on to deny bail to Mr. Sisodia.
Misuse of central agencies: It is found that democratic politics of this country can be brought to a standstill by central agencies, even as the Court and the Election Commission of India continue to consider all this as routine law enforcement. Also, this is not the first time a central agency has gone after a constitutional functionary as Hemant Soren resigned as Chief Minister of Jharkhand before his arrest by the ED.
Political Propaganda: The pretext that the law is taking its course will not be convincing to any reasonable mind. It is not a coincidence that central agencies are arresting only Opposition leaders on charges of corruption. The political intent of the arrest of a key leader of the Opposition, and a serving Chief Minister in the run-up to the general election is controversial.
DELHI EXCISE POLICY 2021-22
It is also known as the new liquor policy and was implemented on November 17, 2021.
It changed how liquor was sold in the city with the government withdrawing from the business and allowing only private operators to run liquor shops to improve customer experience and stop black marketing.
However, after the whole controversy around the new excise policy, Delhi reverted to the old excise regime.
Allegations made in the report
Before the implementation, the policy had first to be examined by the Chief Secretary (CS) of Delhi. The CS allegedly found procedural lapses and irregularities in the new policy.
In the report, Delhi Deputy CM Sisodia, who heads the excise department, was accused of making changes to the excise policy without the approval of the L-G.
This report was referred to the CBI, and which led to the arrest of the then Delhi Dy CM Manish Sisodia.
Two cases, one by CBI and one on alleged money laundering being investigated by ED, have been registered in relation to the excise policy.
The ED told a court that the alleged proceeds of crime amounted to more than Rs 292 crore, and that it was necessary to establish the modus operandi.
It also alleged that AAP leaders received kickbacks to the tune of Rs 100 crore from a group of individuals identified as the South Group.
ENFORCEMENT DIRECTORATE (ED)
ED is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with investigation of offences of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws. It is a non-statutory body under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
The statutory functions of the agency include enforcement of following Acts:
The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA): ED has been given the responsibility to enforce the provisions of the PMLA. It conducts investigation to trace the assets derived from proceeds of crime and ensures prosecution of the offenders and confiscation of the property by the Special court.
The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA):The ED has been entrusted with the responsibility of investigating suspected violations of foreign exchange laws and regulations. Additionally, it has the authority to adjudicate cases and impose penalties on those found to have contravened these laws.
The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): Under this law, the agency is mandated to seize the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have fled from India to evade arrest.
Sponsoring agency under COFEPOSA: Under the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA), the ED is empowered to sponsor cases of preventive detention regarding contraventions of FEMA.
WHAT ARE THE ISSUES RELATED TO ED?
Misuse of Power: The office of ED has a lot of power and discretion in investigating economic crimes like money laundering, and they don’t need permission from the government to prosecute politicians or government officials. However, this power has been misused, as even minor crimes have been brought under the purview
Lack of Transparency: There is also a lack of transparency in how the ED selects cases to investigate, and they have been known to target opposition parties.
Malign reputation: Convictions in cases by the ED are minimal but media trials have already ruined the accused’s reputation.
Political Bias: There have been allegations that political figures who have switched to the ruling party have been given favorable treatment by the ED. These allegations have raised concerns about potential political bias and lack of independence in the ED’s actions.
THE WAY FORWARD
Transparency and Accountability: The central agencies need to be more transparent in its operations and accountable to the public. Regular reporting on its activities and proactive communication can help address concerns and build trust. Fighting corruption requires reforming investigations and ensuring transparency and fairness in the adjudication process.
Strengthening Institutional Frameworks: Robust legal frameworks and independent oversight mechanisms are essential to prevent misuse of the ED and uphold its impartiality. The agency can be made an autonomous body to enhance its independence and improve the ED’s image as a reputed agency against economic offenses in our country.
Collaborative Approach: Fostering a spirit of cooperation and dialogue between the Centre and states is crucial to addressing concerns about federal overreach and building trust in the system.
Judicial Intervention: The judiciary can play a crucial role in upholding federalism and ensuring due process in ED investigations. Clear guidelines and principles established by the courts can help prevent misuse of the agency.
Expert Committee Formation: An expert committee comprising legal, constitutional, and administrative experts can be formed to provide recommendations on resolving the issue. This committee should thoroughly analyze the legal and administrative aspects and propose practical solutions that uphold democratic principles.
Respect for Constitutional Principles: Throughout the resolution process, it is vital for all stakeholders to demonstrate a commitment for upholding constitutional principles, including democratic governance, separation of powers, and the rights of elected representatives.
THE CONCLUSION:
The recent ED-state tussle and arrest of chief minister of Delhi is a complex issue to deal with. However, there is a need to maintain the delicate balance of power between the central government and the elected government of Delhi. Respecting the constitutional framework will provide a solid foundation for resolving the issue in a fair and transparent manner.
UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
Q.1 Discuss how emerging technologies and globalisation contribute to money laundering. Elaborate measures to tackle the problem of money laundering both at national and international levels. (2021)
Q.2 Resorting to ordinances has always raised concern on violation of the spirit of separation of powers doctrine. While noting the rationales justifying the power to promulgate ordinances, analyze whether the decision of the Supreme Court on the issue have further facilitated resorting to this power. Should the power to promulgate the ordinances be repealed? (2015)
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION
Q.1 Enforcement Directorate (ED) has been criticized for targeting political opponents of the government. How can the agency effectively investigate financial crimes across states while respecting the constitutional provisions?
THE CONTEXT: India’s general elections, involving 969 million voters, have begun and will span 80 days. The world is watching India’s democracy, which has been both uplifting and contentious in the past decade. Consensus-based processes have weakened, leading to a breakdown of dialogue between the ruling party and the opposition. Nonetheless, India’s democracy remains strong and defies theoretical perspectives.
ISSUES:
The Essence of Pluralism in Indian Democracy: Pluralism and tolerance define Indian civilization and form the foundation of its democracy. India’s strength lies in its diversity, which includes multiple languages, religions, and cultures. Unfortunately, the selfish interests of some individuals threaten to undermine this fabric. It is crucial to preserve our pluralistic heritage and stand firm against any compromise.
Addressing the Normative Deficit in Constitutional Framework: India’s constitution recognizes group-specific rights but lacks normative fraternity. Leaders must respond to the challenges of secularism and religious pluralism to maintain goodwill among communities.
Socioeconomic Deprivation and Intersectional Oppression: India’s growth towards global power must be accompanied by a sense of responsibility. Intersectional oppression affects people across class, caste, gender, and religion, leading to deep-seated deprivation. A new social contract is needed, where the state plays a pivotal role in income distribution and risk management to ensure progress benefits everyone.
The Imperative for Scientific Temper: A modern and progressive society requires scientific temper, open-mindedness to new knowledge, critical thinking, and discarding superstitions. Education liberates society from oppression and injustice, but we must overcome unscientific thought patterns that still influence significant populations.
Electoral Democracy as a Reflection of Public Will: India’s democratic elections are characterized by high voter turnout, frequent changes in incumbents, and robust political competition. Upholding the values of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity is crucial. The general elections allow citizens to shape their country’s future, reinforcing India’s reputation as a progressive and pluralistic society.
The Role of Education in Shaping Democracy: Education is crucial in shaping a democratic society. It fosters individual and community agency, which is fundamental for freedom of choice. The democratization of knowledge is necessary to overcome the barriers of unscientific thought and superstition that impede societal progress.
THE WAY FORWARD:
Fostering Inclusivity and Tolerance: India must actively foster an environment of inclusivity and tolerance to preserve its precious heritage of pluralism. Educational institutions should emphasize the importance of diversity and civic engagement programs can bridge divides. Celebrating diversity and encouraging open dialogue can strengthen India’s democracy and promote mutual understanding among different groups.
Strengthening Constitutional Values: India’s Constitution has a normative deficit, particularly in terms of fraternity. We need to reinforce values of fraternity, equality, and justice through legal reforms, public awareness campaigns, and engaging civil society organizations. Together, we can ensure that the constitutional framework is a living embodiment of India’s democratic ethos.
Addressing Socioeconomic Disparities: India needs a multifaceted approach to combat socioeconomic deprivation and intersectional oppression, including policy reforms, social welfare programs, and inclusive economic development strategies. Land reforms, increased access to quality education and healthcare, and targeted economic policies can reduce inequalities. Public-private partnerships can provide opportunities for marginalized communities. Prioritizing social justice and equitable growth will help India become more inclusive.
Promoting Scientific Temper and Rational Thought: To advance scientific temper, education reform, public awareness, and critical thinking skills are crucial. Prioritizing scientific literacy and critical thinking from an early age is essential. Media and public awareness campaigns can also promote rationality and evidence-based decision-making. Cultivating a society that values scientific temper can lead India towards progress and innovation.
Enhancing Electoral Participation and Representation: To strengthen India’s electoral democracy, we need increased voter participation and representation. Voter education campaigns can inspire higher turnout, while electoral reforms can guarantee fair representation of all segments of society. By fostering an engaged and informed electorate, we can ensure that our political system remains responsive to the needs and aspirations of its citizens.
Leveraging Education for Democratic Engagement: Education promotes democratic engagement. Programs that emphasize civic responsibility, democratic values, and active participation can empower citizens to shape society. Critical thinking skills and debate platforms prepare students for democracy. India can build a stronger democracy by investing in education for an informed, responsible, and active citizenry.
THE CONCLUSION:
India’s democracy excels in voter turnout, incumbents’ turnover, and political contestation. The upcoming general elections are a chance to carefully choose leaders for a just, fair, and constitutional society. Every citizen’s small effort can contribute to a more inclusive and modern India. Let’s approach the elections with positivity and shape a brighter future for the country.
UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:
Q.1) The Indian party system is passing through a phase of transition which looks to be full of contradictions and paradoxes.” Discuss. 2016
Q.2) Are tolerance, assimilation, and pluralism the key elements in the making of an Indian form of secularism? Justify your answer. 2022
Q.3) It is believed that adherence to ethics in human actions would ensure in smooth functioning of an organization/system If so, what does ethics seek to promote in human life? How do ethical values assist in the resolution of conflicts faced by him in his day-to-day functioning? 2022
MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q.1) Analyze the challenges faced by India’s democracy in preserving pluralism, fostering equitable growth, and transitioning to a modern, rational society. Suggest measures to address these challenges.
THE CONTEXT:World Earth Hour Day is celebrated annually on the last Saturday in March, initiated by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) as a global movement to raise awareness about environmental issues.
EXPLANATION:
Earth Hour is the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF)’s annual initiative that began in 2007
During Earth Hour, individuals and communities are encouraged to turn off non-essential lights for 60 minutes from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time.
The primary objective of Earth Hour is to highlight the importance of environmental conservation and sustainability.
By symbolically switching off lights, participants demonstrate their commitment to reducing energy consumption and combating climate change.
Earth Hour serves as a reminder of our collective responsibility to protect the planet and inspire positive action towards a more sustainable future.
Earth Hour aims to increase awareness and spark global conversations on protecting nature, tackling the climate crisis, and working together to shape a brighter future for humans.
18th Edition:
The upcoming Earth Hour in 2024 marks the 18th edition of the event, themed as the ‘Biggest Hour for Earth.’
It aims to mobilize a larger audience and promote greater engagement with environmental issues, particularly among individuals who may not be fully aware of the environmental crisis.
WWF India is actively involved in coordinating Earth Hour activities within the country, including the release of an Earth Day anthem composed by Shantanu Moitra and sung by Papon, urging people to conserve nature.
Celebrity Endorsements:
Earth Hour receives support from various personalities and influencers, such as popular baker and cookbook author Shivesh Bhatia and renowned fashion designer Rahul Mishra.
Their participation in turning off non-essential lights during Earth Hour helps amplify the message and encourage broader participation in the global environmental movement.
Global Participation:
Earth Hour is observed in over 190 countries and territories worldwide, with millions of individuals and organizations participating each year.
The event symbolizes unity and solidarity in addressing environmental challenges on a global scale.
Impact and Outreach:
Earth Hour goes beyond a mere symbolic gesture; it serves as a catalyst for action and mobilizes communities to adopt sustainable practices beyond the designated hour.
The event inspires individuals, businesses, and governments to commit to reducing carbon emissions, conserving energy, and protecting biodiversity.
Previous Observances in India:
In previous years, Earth Hour was observed across various cities in India, including Mumbai, Kolkata, and New Delhi. Public places and landmarks, such as Rashtrapati Bhavan and Akshardham temple, participated by turning off lights for an hour.
This collective action underscores India’s commitment to environmental conservation and sustainability.
INDIA’s INTEREST IN AFRICAN MINERALS AND OFFSHORE BLOCKS AUCTION
TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY, GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT
THE CONTEXT:India is actively seeking critical minerals, including cobalt, from African countries such as Zambia, Namibia, Congo, Ghana, and Mozambique.
EXPLANATION:
These minerals, such as lithium and cobalt, are essential for various industries, particularly technology and manufacturing sectors.
While India looks towards Africa for cobalt and other critical minerals, it continues to engage with Australia for lithium blocks.
This dual approach reflects India’s strategy to diversify its sources of critical minerals and secure a stable supply chain.
Ten offshore blocks are slated to be put on sale, with the auction scheduled to take place after the elections.
This indicates a proactive approach by the Indian government to tap into offshore mineral resources.
The result of the first round of auction for critical minerals will be announced within ten days.
Additionally, the lithium block in Jammu and Kashmir, which received only two bids in the first round, will be auctioned in the third tranche.
This demonstrates the government’s commitment to optimizing the auction process and maximizing participation.
The government recently launched the third tranche of auction for critical and strategic minerals, with seven blocks up for sale.
These blocks are being auctioned under specific rules outlined in the Mineral (Auction) Rules 2015, indicating regulatory clarity and transparency in the auction process.
So far, the Indian government has initiated the auction of 38 critical and strategic mineral blocks, reflecting its determination to harness domestic and international mineral resources effectively.
This underscores India’s strategic focus on securing a sustainable supply of essential minerals to fuel its economic growth and industrial development.
Critical Minerals:
Critical minerals are those minerals that are essential for economic development and national security, the lack of availability of these minerals or concentration of extraction or processing in a few geographical locations may lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and even disruption of supplies.
Rare earth elements and other critical minerals, found abundantly in Africa, have drawn widespread attention amid calls issued by multilateral bodies, including the United Nations and its affiliates, to switch to emission-free sources of energy.
Reducing the carbon footprint is seen as essential to slow down the pace of global warming.
The following critical minerals are in focus to build a decarbonised energy infrastructure:
Rare earth elements: They are used in offshore wind turbine generators and electric vehicle motors.
Lithium, cobalt, and high-purity nickel: They are used in energy storage technologies.
Platinum group metals: They are used in catalysts for automotive, chemical, fuel cell, and green hydrogen products.
Gallium and germanium: They are used in developing semiconductors.
Some of the most critical minerals found in Africa include:
Cobalt: The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is the world’s leading producer of cobalt, which is a key component of lithium-ion batteries.
Lithium: Lithium is used in electric vehicle batteries and is becoming increasingly in demand. Africa has significant lithium reserves in countries like Zimbabwe, Namibia, and Mali.
Copper: Copper is a vital mineral for electrical wiring and is also used in renewable energy technologies. Africa has large copper reserves in countries like Zambia, the DRC, and South Africa.
Graphite: Graphite is used in lithium-ion batteries and is also a key component of solar panels. Africa has significant graphite reserves in countries like Mozambique, Madagascar, and Tanzania.
Rare earth elements: Rare earth elements are used in a wide variety of products, including electric vehicles, wind turbines, and consumer electronics. Africa has significant rare earth element reserves in countries like Burundi, Madagascar, and South Africa.
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION PLEASE REFER TO THE CA MONTHLY MAGAZINE OF MARCH.
NGT ACTION ON NETRAVATI WATERFRONT PROMENADE DEVELOPMENT PROJECT
TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY, GS 2: POLITY
THE CONTEXT:The Netravati Waterfront Promenade Development Project in Mangaluru has come under scrutiny due to alleged violations of Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) norms and environmental regulations.
EXPLANATION:
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has taken suo motu cognisance of these concerns and initiated action to investigate the project’s impact.
Concerns Raised by NECF:
The local chapter of the National Environmental Conservation Foundation (NECF) raised concerns about the project’s adverse effects on the environment and the livelihoods of local communities.
This includes violations of CRZ norms, destruction of mangroves, and lack of clearances for heavy earthwork.
NGT Intervention:
Recognizing the seriousness of the environmental and social issues associated with the project, the NGT has directed the formation of a joint committee to submit a detailed report.
This committee is tasked with assessing the project’s environmental impact, adherence to CRZ regulations, and measures taken for stakeholder rehabilitation.
Alleged Violations:
The NECF alleges that the project promoters violated environmental norms by undertaking heavy earthwork without proper permissions and clearances.
They point to actions such as destroying mangroves, filling soil in the intertidal zone, and creating artificial embankments without conducting an environmental impact assessment (EIA).
Lack of Clearances and Feedback:
There have been numerous letters from environmental activists highlighting the violations to authorities such as the Deputy Commissioner, MSCL, CRZ authorities, forest department, and pollution control board.
Despite numerous letters there has been no feedback or action from the district administration or regulatory bodies.
Demands for Halt and Joint Inquiry:
NECF and other environmental organizations demand an immediate halt to the project due to violations of CRZ-2011 norms and conditional CRZ clearance granted by KSCZMA.
They call for a joint inquiry involving MSCL, CRZ officers, forest departments, pollution control board officers, and NECF members to investigate the violations.
Focus on Environmental Protection:
The appeal made to the state minister for Forest and Environment emphasizes the importance of protecting the Netravati River, which serves as a lifeline for the coastal district.
They argue that taxpayer money should not be wasted on projects without proper planning, sketches, public hearings, or EIAs, especially when it poses risks to the environment and local livelihoods.
Netravati Waterfront Promenade Development Project:
The Netravati Waterfront Promenade Development Project in Mangaluru is being undertaken by the Mangaluru Smart City Limited (MSCL), a special-purpose vehicle created under the Smart City Mission.
The project aims to transform a 5km stretch along the Netravati river into an active recreational and commercial hub, featuring gardens, parks, pedestrian-friendly walkways, a bicycle track, boardwalks, a nature park, and adventure sports facilities to promote tourism.
The project includes the development of gardens, parks, a biodiversity park, a bird-watching area near the Netravati railway bridge, and a pathway.
However, stakeholders have raised concerns about transparency and clarity regarding the project, with delays in obtaining clearances affecting its progress.
The project cost is estimated at around ₹60 crore for the promenade development component.
Netravati river:
The Netravati River flows through Mangaluru. The river has its origins at Gangamoola and flows through the Mangalore city after which it joins the Kumaradhara River and flows into the Arabian Sea.
The river flows through the Dharamsthala which is a famous pilgrimage.
The origin of the river lies in the Western Ghats in Banagrabalike forest valley in the Karnataka state.
Netravati River is also known as the Bantwal River.
National Green Tribunal (NGT):
It is a specialised body set up under the National Green Tribunal Act (2010) for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialised environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
The NGT has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.
HEPATITIS B AWARENESS AND VACCINATION STUDY IN INDIA
TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
THE CONTEXT:Hepatitis B is a significant public health concern in India, as highlighted by a study conducted by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital, New Delhi.
EXPLANATION:
Despite its potential to cause severe liver diseases such as cirrhosis and liver cancer, public knowledge and awareness regarding the disease remain inadequate.
Highlights of the Study:
The study revealed that only 25% of respondents had sufficient knowledge about Hepatitis B, including its transmission methods, effects on the liver, and the importance of vaccination.
This lack of awareness underscores the need for targeted information campaigns to address misconceptions and educational gaps surrounding the disease.
Globally, Hepatitis B infection affects around 296 million people annually, leading to approximately 887,000 deaths due to complications.
In India, where socio-demographic indices are lower, infection rates remain high despite the availability of an effective vaccine for over three decades.
The prevalence of Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) positivity, indicating HBV infection, ranges from 2% to 8% in India.
Recent meta-analyses suggest an overall prevalence of 3.70%, translating to about 37 million HBV carriers in the country.
These statistics highlight the urgent need for increased awareness and vaccination efforts.
Study Methodology:
The study conducted by Sir Ganga Ram Hospital involved a cross-sectional survey of over 3,500 participants to assess their knowledge and vaccination practices related to Hepatitis B.
The survey evaluated four critical domains:
cause and spread of the disease,
affected organs and consequences,
available treatments, and
vaccination information.
Vaccination Coverage and Disparities:
Alarmingly, only 22.7% of participants had completed the full Hepatitis B vaccination course.
The study also identified disparities in vaccination uptake influenced by factors such as gender, education levels, and urban-rural divide.
These disparities underscore the importance of ensuring accessibility to vaccination initiatives for all segments of the population.
Recommendations and Public Health Interventions:
The need for targeted public health interventions to improve awareness and vaccination coverage has been emphasized.
Educational campaigns should particularly focus on vulnerable populations, including women, older individuals, those with lower education levels, and rural residents.
The importance of completing the full vaccination schedule for adequate efficacy has been stressed.
It is common for individuals to miss the last dose of vaccination, which can compromise protection against Hepatitis B.
Hepatitis:
Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver that is caused by a variety of infectious viruses and noninfectious agents leading to a range of health problems, some of which can be fatal.
There are five main strains of the hepatitis virus, referred to as types A, B, C, D and E.
While they all cause liver disease, they differ in important ways including modes of transmission, severity of the illness, geographical distribution and prevention methods.
In particular, types B and C lead to chronic disease in hundreds of millions of people and together are the most common cause of liver cirrhosis, liver cancer and viral hepatitis-related deaths.
An estimated 354 million people worldwide live with hepatitis B or C, and for most, testing and treatment remain beyond reach.
Hepatitis B is a liver infection caused by the hepatitis B virus.
Some people with hepatitis B are sick for only a few weeks (known as “acute” infection), but for others, the disease progresses to a serious, lifelong illness known as chronic hepatitis B.
THE CONTEXT:The Bhojshala/Kamal Maula Mosque complex, situated in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, has been a subject of contention between Hindus and Muslims due to its historical and religious significance.
EXPLANATION:
Hindus believe it to be a temple of Goddess Vagdevi (Saraswati), while Muslims regard it as Kamal Maula Mosque.
The Madhya Pradesh High Court issued a directive on March 11, instructing the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to conduct a ‘scientific survey’ of the Bhojshala complex within six weeks.
The ASI initiated the survey on March 22, forming a 15-member team accompanied by local police and district administration officials.
Despite the sensitive nature of the site, arrangements were made to ensure security during the survey.
The Muslim community continued their Friday prayers at the site amidst tight security arrangements.
Additionally, the customary practices of Hindu worship on Tuesdays and Muslim prayers on Fridays were assured to continue undisturbed by the local authorities.
The ASI utilized modern technologies such as GPS and carbon-dating equipment for the survey, as directed by the High Court.
These technologies are crucial for scientific assessments of historical sites, aiding in accurate data collection and analysis.
Legal Challenges and Supreme Court Petition:
While the survey was underway, a Special Leave Petition (SLP) was filed by the Muslim community in the Supreme Court challenging the High Court order.
However, due to scheduling, the SLP was not taken up for an urgent hearing and was listed for April 1.
There were concerns raised regarding the absence of authorized Muslim representatives during the survey.
‘Shahar Qazi’ Waqar Sadiq highlighted historical records and court responses affirming the site’s identity as a mosque.
He referred to ASI reports from 1902 and 1903, which documented the site as a mosque, and cited previous court proceedings supporting this claim.
Historical Context and Legal Precedents:
Sadiq pointed out historical documentation and court responses dating back to 1998, which acknowledged the site as Kamal Moula Mosque.
He referred to a reply filed during Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s tenure as Prime Minister, asserting the mosque’s existence and the mystery surrounding Bhojshala’s identity.
Despite setbacks in the Supreme Court, legal representatives expressed determination to pursue the matter.
Lawyer stated that since the Supreme Court did not hear the case, the survey would continue according to the High Court’s directive.
Bhojshala Temple-Kamal Maula Mosque Complex:
The Bhojshala Temple-Kamal Maula Mosque complex was originally a temple of goddess Sarasvati built by Parawara King Bhoja in 11th Century AD.
The mosque is built using structural members of the temple. The monument also retains some slabs inscribed with Sanskrit and Prakrit literary works.
Noted as a great patron of art and literature, King Bhoja is said to have established a school, now known as Bhojashala.
The controversy revolves around the original status of the site as a temple.
The petitioner cites an ASI report claiming that the original Bhojshala and Vagdevi temples were demolished to build a mosque. A survey was requested to determine the actual history of the site.
