WSDP Bulletin (06/03/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. North America’s Great Lakes, Earth’s largest freshwater store, record ‘historically low’ ice levels READ MORE

2. Frog with a mushroom sprouting from skin discovered in Western Ghats, researchers

3. Arctic could go without ice for first time by 2030 under all emission scenarios: Study READ MORE

4. AI has a big and growing carbon footprint, but algorithms can help READ MORE

5. As Indian troops pull out, Maldives signs defence pact with China READ MORE

6. Meet MethaneSAT, a satellite which will ‘name and shame’ methane emitters READ MORE

7. What is India’s disability law; how accessible are govt buildings to PwD? READ MORE

8. Erythraean Sea: Why Rubymar’s sinking in the southern Red could be an environmental catastrophe READ MORE

9. Excess snowfall, avalanche in Himachal block Chenab river flow READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Green jobs and the problem of gender disparity READ MORE

2. Rising against odds: The resilience of women entrepreneurs READ MORE

3. Exploring linguistic identities amid pluralism READ MORE

4. Tackling mental health crises in medical students READ MORE

5. At peak value of 2°C above average sea surface temperature, 2023-24 El Nino among strongest on record READ MORE

6. Most of Greater Horn of Africa to see excess rain till May thanks to El Nino, climate change READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Law and disorder: On Manipur, its ethnic polarisation and its law and order READ MORE

2. Deprivileging bribe: On overruling the majority verdict in P.V. Narasimha Rao vs State READ MORE

3. No privilege to be corrupt READ MORE

4. A wrong ruling overturned READ MORE

5. Reinvigorating deliberative democracy in India READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. What ASER 2023 reveals about the gender gap in confidence READ MORE

2. An insidious threat to India’s nutrition security READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. With Shehbaz Sharif at its head, a vulnerable new government forms in Pakistan READ MORE

2. The limits of India-US strategic partnership READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. The dynamics of household consumption READ MORE  

2. Rocky road ahead at WTO READ MORE

3. Reimagine MSP regime to secure farm future READ MORE

4. GDP growth robust, but sluggish consumption is worrisome READ MORE

5. WTO deadlock over agricultural subsidies READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Modernisation threatens livelihoods in the Himalayas READ MORE

2. Mountains of plastic are choking the Himalayan States READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. A vaccine that prevents six cancers READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. India and Israel’s counterterror experiences and the idea of ‘defeating’ terror groups READ MORE  

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Mitigating risks in infrastructure development READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Probity in public life READ MORE

2. Two kinds of renunciation READ MORE

3. Bulldozer tyranny, in the name of law READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. Although gender gaps in school enrolment have fallen over the years, girls still lag behind in terms of access to and use of digital technologies. Comment on the statement in the light of recent ASER Survey report.

2. Gram Sabhas, notwithstanding many challenges, have brought a semblance of deliberative democracy in India. Critically examine.

3. The WTO Ministerial Conference has failed to make progress and continues to struggle to foster free and fair trade on key issues. Examine in the light of recent meeting outcomes.

4. The Supreme Court related to the stripped of immunity judgement is a significant step towards curbing the rampant role of money power in horse-trading and other legislative malpractices. Critically Analyse.

5. In a welfare state, the government should act as an ideal employer and pay decent pensions to its employees, setting a good example for the private sector. Analyse whether the govt should revive OPS?

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • The potential for such misuse is neither enhanced nor diminished by recognising the court’s jurisdiction to prosecute a member for bribery.
  • Increasing women’s representation in green jobs will lead to benefits such as boosting a low-carbon and environmentally sustainable economy.
  • As India embraces a green transition, empowering women and advancing gender equity in climate actions will be one of the keys to unlock the co-benefits of a low-carbon and environmentally sustainable economy.
  • Increasing women’s representation in green jobs can address the gender biases in the Indian labour market and improve women’s labour force participation rates.
  • There is need to build evidence on the present and future impact of low-carbon transitions on women workers and entrepreneurs while considering the hidden and invisible roles played by women across different sectors and geographies.
  • Gender-focused financial policies and products catering to the requirements of women entrepreneurs can spur their ability to enter the green transition market.
  • Bringing in more women into leadership positions to incorporate gender-specific needs in low-carbon development strategies can promote women’s integration in green jobs.
  • A gender-just transition demands a multi-pronged strategy that focuses on employment, social protection, reduces the burden of care work, and enables skill development.
  • The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey 2022-23 is a testament to India’s commitment to a resilient statistical system embracing both tradition and innovation.
  • Policy flexibility is crucial to prevent market prices from dipping below MSP due to cheaper imports.
  • With increasing urbanisation pressure, there was a need to step up investment in green transport solutions.
  • Although gender gaps in school enrolment have fallen over the years, girls still lag behind in terms of access to and use of digital technologies.
  • The US-India relationship is set to be one of the most defining ones of the 21st century.
  • India is the only country which has a scale matching China’s and can emerge as its peer rival. But it has always been clear that India is unlikely to participate in possible hostilities which might erupt between the US and China.
  • With crores in damages and a tragic loss of lives, there is an urgent need for sustainable infrastructure strategies.
  • The recent infrastructure incidents and challenges faced should serve as a compelling call to action, prompting the nation to revisit its construction practices.
  • At the WTO Ministerial Conference, India stood firm on its stance on public stock-holding programme, drawing strong opposition from the developed countries.
  • Development is simultaneously robbing the rural population of their livelihoods, demanding timely interventions and policies that allow both development and local employment in the villages.
  • Gram Sabhas, notwithstanding many challenges, have brought a semblance of deliberative democracy in India.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Passivity is fatal to a soldier.

50-WORD TALK

  • An important opportunity to reform medical education has now been deferred by two years by the health ministry for being ‘unrealistic’. The National Medical Commission had introduced stricter norms for colleges, courses and MBBS seats last year. It’s a pity because the new measures would have improved standards and quality.
  • Calcutta HC Justice Abhijit Gangopadhyay’s decision to join BJP right after stepping down from office revives the debate on having a cooling-off period for judges. A political role this soon after resignation affects the judiciary’s credibility, undermines public confidence. It’s important that the judiciary be seen as a non-partisan institution.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



ENSURING LEGISLATIVE FREEDOM: SUPREME COURT’s EMPHATIC STAND ON PARLIAMENTARIANS’ RIGHTS

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court, in a landmark decision on March 4, highlighted the pivotal role of elected legislators in a democratic polity.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Constitution Bench emphasized that the representative character of Parliament and State legislatures could be compromised if Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs) faced harassment or intimidation while performing their duties.
  • Chief Justice of India, speaking for the seven-judge Bench, underscored the essential link between deliberative democracy and the freedom of elected legislators to express their views on the floor of the House.
  • The ability of legislators to discuss and debate matters without fear of coercion or intimidation was deemed a fundamental aspect of a parliamentary form of government.

Overruling Previous Judgment on Legislative Immunity:

  • The judgment overruled a significant 1998 decision in the JMM bribery case that granted legislators immunity from prosecution in case of bribery.
  • The current Bench clarified that parliamentary privilege and immunity would only be invoked if legislators faced threats of prosecution for their official actions or speeches given in the House, aimed at enhancing the dignity and authority of the legislature.

Limited Scope of Legislative Privilege:

  • The Bench delineated the boundaries of legislative privilege, specifying that it would only extend as far as necessary for the effective functioning of the House.
  • The court emphasized that these privileges were not a blanket immunity from criminal law but were essential to enable legislators to fulfill their duties without fear of legal repercussions.

Freedom of Speech: A Crucial Legislative Privilege:

  • Chief Justice emphasized the paramount importance of freedom of speech in the functioning of legislative institutions.
  • The ability of MPs and MLAs to express their opinions in Parliament and its committees was deemed a “necessary privilege” crucial for the effective discharge of their duties.
  • The court recognized this freedom as core to the democratic legislative process.

Extension of Speech to Voting Rights:

  • The court further extended its protection of freedom of speech to the act of voting by legislators.
  • It asserted that a member of Parliament’s vote was an extension of their speech, emphasizing the interconnectedness of various legislative activities in safeguarding democratic values.

Constitutional Safeguards for Legislative Independence:

  • The judgment positioned the freedom of elected representatives as a constitutionally secured right, essential for preserving the democratic essence of the legislative process.
  • It underscored that the privilege and immunity granted to legislators were not absolute but contingent on the protection of their ability to function independently and express their views without undue influence.

Upholding Democratic Values:

  • The Supreme Court’s decision reinforces the democratic principles embedded in the Indian Constitution.
  • By safeguarding the freedom of elected legislators to speak without fear, the judiciary reaffirms the importance of preserving the representative character of Parliament and State legislatures in the country’s democratic fabric.
  • The ruling acts as a robust defense against potential infringements on legislative independence and ensures that elected representatives can fulfill their duties without hindrance.

Parliamentary Privileges:

  • Parliamentary privileges are the rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament (MPs) in India to enable them to discharge their duties and functions without interference or intimidation.
  • These privileges are derived from the Constitution of India, parliamentary conventions, laws made by the Parliament, rules of Lok sabha and Rajya sabha, and judicial interpretations.
  • The privileges are claimed only when the person is a member of the house. As soon as he ends to be a member, the privileges are said to be called off.
  • These privileges are essential so that the proceedings and functions can be made in a disciplined and undisturbed manner.
  • In India, the privileges of members of Parliament are specified in the Constitution, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, and the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha.

Constitutional provisions related to parliamentary privileges:

  • According to the Constitution of India, Articles 105 and 122 outline the privileges of Parliament, while Articles 194 and 212 pertain to the privileges of state governments.
    • Article 105: There shall be freedom of speech in Parliament. No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof.
    • Article 122: The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question in court on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
    • Article 194: There shall be freedom of speech in the State Legislature. No member of the State Legislature shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the State Legislature or any committee thereof.
    • Article 212: The validity of any proceedings in the State Legislature shall not be called in question in court on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/allow-mps-mlas-to-speak-in-house-without-fear-of-harassment-says-supreme-court/article67913648.ece




INDIA’s NATIONAL DOLPHIN RESEARCH CENTRE

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: India marked a significant achievement in wildlife conservation with the inauguration of the National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC) in Patna on March 4, 2024.

EXPLANATION:

  • The project, aimed at studying and conserving the endangered Gangetic River dolphin, had been in the pipeline for a decade, facing multiple delays.
  • Bihar Chief Minister officially opened the center, situated strategically near the Ganga River on a 4,400 square meter plot at Patna University.

Objectives and Operations:

  • The NDRC’s primary goal is to facilitate comprehensive research on Gangetic dolphins.
  • The center aims to delve into various aspects of their lives, including behavior, survival skills, food habits, causes of death, and more.
  • The overarching objective is to establish the NDRC as a center of excellence for dolphin research and conservation.
  • Operational now, the NDRC will serve as a hub for scientists and researchers dedicated to studying these freshwater mammals.
  • A notable aspect of the NDRC’s mission is to provide training to fishermen on effective dolphin conservation practices during fishing activities.
  • This hands-on approach aligns with the broader goal of mitigating human-induced threats to the Gangetic river dolphin population.

Project Timeline and Delays:

  • The initiative received approval in 2013, and the foundation stone was laid by CM Kumar in 2020.
  • However, bureaucratic hurdles and delays in securing necessary approvals resulted in a two-year postponement.
  • Despite the challenges, the NDRC is now fully functional, contributing to the collective effort of safeguarding Gangetic dolphins.

Gangetic Dolphin: A National Treasure and Endangered Species:

  • The Gangetic River dolphin holds a special place in India as the country’s national aquatic animal.
  • It is a Schedule I animal under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and has been classified as an endangered species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
  • Once abundant in Bihar, it now faces habitat threats, and the establishment of the NDRC becomes crucial for its survival.

Global Context and Unique Traits of Gangetic Dolphins:

  • The Gangetic river dolphin is one of four freshwater dolphin species globally, with the other three found in the Yangtze river in China (now extinct), the Indus River in Pakistan, and the Amazon river in South America.
  • These dolphins possess unique characteristics, such as echolocation, enabling them to navigate and locate prey in river waters.
  • With approximately half of India’s estimated 3,000 Gangetic dolphins residing in Bihar, the NDRC’s focus on studying their behavior and habitat is of paramount importance.

Habitat Characteristics and Conservation Challenges:

  • Gangetic dolphins prefer water that is five to eight feet deep, typically found in turbulent waters rich in fish.
  • They thrive in zones with minimal or no current to conserve energy, diving into deeper waters when sensing danger.
  • The NDRC’s location near the Ganga provides researchers with an ideal setting to closely observe these dolphins in their natural habitat.

National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC):

  • The National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC) is India’s first research institute dedicated to the study and conservation of the endangered Gangetic dolphin.
  • It is located near the Ganges River in Patna, Bihar, and was inaugurated on March 4, 2024.
  • The NDRC is a significant development in the conservation efforts for the Gangetic dolphin, which is listed as endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  • The centre will serve as a hub for scientists and researchers to study various aspects of dolphin behavior, ecology, and the threats they face.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/india-s-first-national-dolphin-research-centre-finally-a-reality-94790




INTRODUCING FEMALE TIGERS TO SIMILIPAL TIGER RESERVE: ENHANCING GENETIC DIVERSITY

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Odisha government has proposed the introduction of female tigers to the Similipal Tiger Reserve, Asia’s second-largest biosphere and the only habitat for melanistic royal Bengal tigers in India.

EXPLANATION:

  • This move aims to bolster the gene pool and address concerns about inbreeding among the unique lineage of pseudo-melanistic tigers in Similipal.
  • The request to the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) reflects a strategic conservation effort to maintain the ecological balance and long-term viability of the tiger population.

Uniqueness of Similipal’s Tigers

  • The Similipal Tiger Reserve sprawls across 2,750 square km in Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district.
  • It is Asia’s second largest biosphere, and the country’s only wild habitat for melanistic royal Bengal tigers.
  • The tigers of Similipal belong to a unique lineage with higher-than-normal levels of melanin, which gives them black-and-yellow-interspersed stripes on their coats.
  • These tigers are not entirely black and are therefore more accurately described as pseudo-melanistic.
  • Genetic analyses of other tiger populations in India and computer simulations suggest that the Similipal black tigers may have arisen from a very small founding population of tigers and are inbred.
  • These cats live isolated from other tigers, because of which they breed among themselves.
  • The Odisha Tiger Estimation conducted recently found that out of the total 24 adult tigers in Similipal, 13 are pseudo-melanistic.
  • The recent Odisha Tiger Estimation revealed a total of 24 adult tigers in Similipal, with 13 being pseudo-melanistic. Of these, there are 10 males and 14 females, indicating a sex ratio imbalance.
  • Isolation of Similipal’s tigers has resulted in breeding within the same population, raising concerns about genetic diversity and the overall health of the tiger community.

Rationale for Bringing Female Tigers from Central India

  • The Odisha government proposes bringing in female tigers from the Central Indian landscape, encompassing states like Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Maharashtra.
  • The similarity in landscapes and climate between Similipal and Central India enhances the likelihood of successful adaptation.
  • Some tiger reserves in Central India face challenges of overcrowding, leading to territorial disputes and insufficient prey.
  • Relocating tigers from such areas not only addresses the overcrowding issue but also contributes to conservation efforts in Similipal.

Conservation Intervention Process

  • NTCA Approval Process: The National Tiger Conservation Authority’s approval is essential for any tiger relocation in India. The Odisha government’s proposal triggers a technical committee visit to Similipal to assess factors such as landscape, climate, prey availability, and other ecological aspects before granting approval.
  • Ensuring Genetic Diversity: The relocation strategy emphasizes introducing tigers from geographically proximate regions with high heterozygosity, ensuring increased genetic diversity in Similipal.

Learnings from Previous Attempts

  • Satkosia Tiger Reserve Attempt: In 2018, the Odisha government attempted tiger relocation in Satkosia Tiger Reserve, which had no resident tigers. The introduction of a male and female tiger faced challenges, with the male falling victim to poachers and the female being sent back to its original habitat after alleged human fatalities.

Similipal Tiger Reserve:

  • Similipal, which derives its name from ‘Simul’ (Silk Cotton) tree, is a national park and a Tiger Reserve situated in the northern part of Orissa’s Mayurbhanj district.
  • The tiger reserve is spread over 2750 sq km and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani.
  • The park is surrounded by high plateaus and hills, the highest peak being the twin peaks of Khairiburu and Meghashini (1515m above mean sea level).
  • At least twelve rivers cut across the plain area, all of which drain into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The prominent among them are Burhabalanga, Palpala Bandan, Salandi, Kahairi and Deo.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/similipals-black-tigers-female-big-cats-9194056/




PUNJAB-HIMACHAL DISPUTE OVER SHANAN HYDROPOWER PROJECT

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Shanan hydel project, located in Mandi, has become the center of a dispute between Punjab and Himachal Pradesh, both staking claims over the 110-MW hydropower project.

EXPLANATION:

  • The historical context, the expiry of a 99-year lease, and competing assertions have led to legal actions and intervention by the central government, creating a complex situation.

Historical Lease Agreement

  • The British-era 110-MW hydel project, situated at Jogindernagar in Mandi district, was leased to Punjab in 1925.
  • The lease agreement was signed between the then ruler of Mandi, Raja Joginder Bahadur, and Col BC Batty, a British representative and Chief Engineer of Punjab.
  • The 99-year-old lease came to an end on March 2.
  • In the past few years, Himachal has contended that the project should stay with it once the lease ends.
  • State Chief Minister had stated they would not allow Punjab to stake claim on the project after the lease period.
  • He had written to his Punjab counterpart Bhagwant Mann last year and also taken up the issue with the Union ministry of power.

Competing Claims and Legal Context

  • Post-Partition Scenario: After partition, the supply of power from the Shanan project to Lahore was discontinued, and the transmission line was halted at Verka village in Amritsar.
  • Reorganization of States (1966): During the reorganization of states in 1966, the hydel project was allocated to Punjab, as Himachal Pradesh was then a Union Territory. A central notification in 1967 affirmed Punjab’s legal control under the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966.
  • Himachal’s Contentions: Himachal Pradesh, in recent years, contends that the Shanan project should revert to its control after the expiry of the lease. Chief Minister Sukhvinder Sukhu has expressed the state’s firm stance against Punjab claiming the project post-lease.

Allegations and Counter-Claims

  • Poor Condition Allegations: Himachal Pradesh alleges that the Shanan project is in poor condition due to Punjab’s purported lack of repair and maintenance efforts. This claim adds an environmental and infrastructure dimension to the dispute.
  • Punjab’s SC Plea: Punjab, in response, has moved the Supreme Court, asserting ownership and lawful possession of the Shanan Power House Project. The state argues that the assets are under the control of the Punjab State Power Corporation Ltd (PSPCL).
  • SC Plea Details: Punjab’s plea seeks a “permanent Prohibitory Injunction” against Himachal Pradesh, restraining interference with the lawful possession and functioning of the project. The Centre is also made a party in the legal proceedings.

Central Government’s Intervention

  • In response to the escalating dispute, the central government, a day before the lease expiration, issued an order directing both Himachal Pradesh and Punjab to maintain status quo regarding the functioning of the Shanan Power House.
  • This order, an interim measure, is aimed at ensuring the uninterrupted operation of the 110 MW project until a final decision is reached.
  • The order invokes Sections 67 and 96 of the Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966, along with Section 21 of the General Clause Act, 1887, emphasizing that the maintenance of status quo is in the public interest.

Shanan hydropower project:

  • The Shanan hydropower project in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh is one of the oldest and most important hydroelectric projects in India. It was built by the British in 1925.
  • The project harnesses the power of the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas River, and generates 110 MW of electricity.
  • The project consists of a dam, a powerhouse, a reservoir and a network of canals and tunnels. The project is also a source of irrigation and drinking water for the surrounding areas.
  • The project was leased to the Punjab Government for 99 years by Raja Joginder Singh Bahadur, the then-ruler of Mandi state.
  • The lease agreement will expire in March 2024, and both Himachal Pradesh and Punjab are claiming their rights over the project.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/punjab-himachal-dispute-over-the-shanan-hydropower-project-9195344/




POPULATION ESTIMATION OF INDIAN BISON IN PAPIKONDA NATIONAL PARK AND SURROUNDING FORESTS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Forest Department officials have conducted a comprehensive scientific survey over the past three months to estimate the population of the Indian Bison, also known as gaur, in the Papikonda National Park and nearby forests.

EXPLANATION:

  • The survey employed a combination of camera traps and on-ground foot patrolling for accurate population estimation.
  • Forest Range Officers, Range Officers, and other personnel conducted foot patrols in specific sectors to ensure a thorough count of the Indian Bison.
  • The use of camera traps added a technological dimension to the survey, capturing visuals of the bison population in their natural habitat.
  • According to the survey results, the estimated population of Indian Bison in the surveyed areas is 375.
  • This count includes both adults and calves.
  • The distribution of the population across specific regions is as follows:
    • Polavaram (119 Bison): The highest count was recorded in Polavaram, indicating a significant presence of Indian Bison in this region.
    • Chintur (101 Bison): Chintur follows closely with a substantial population of Indian Bison, contributing to the overall biodiversity of the area.
    • Paderu (84 Bison): The survey identified 84 Indian Bison in the Paderu region, signifying a notable concentration in this particular forest area.
    • Chintapalli (37 Bison): Chintapalli showed a relatively lower count, but still plays a role in sustaining the Indian Bison population in the broader ecosystem.

Geographical Coverage

  • The survey covered a diverse range of forests, including those in Kukunur, Maredumilli, Rajavommangi, Kunavaram, Lakkavaram, Nillipaka, Jeebadu, Marripakala, Pedavalasa, Chintur, and V.R. Puram areas.
  • This extensive coverage ensures a representative sample of the Indian Bison population across various ecosystems, contributing to a more accurate estimation.

Wildlife Conservation Significance

  • The study holds significance for wildlife conservation efforts, providing crucial data on the Indian Bison population.
  • The Papikonda National Park, along with the surrounding forests, emerges as a stronghold for the Indian Bison, emphasizing the importance of preserving these habitats.
  • The presence of calves indicates a stable and sustainable population, essential for the long-term health of the species.

Ecological Impact and Challenges

  • The Indian Bison, being a wild member of the buffalo family, plays a vital role in maintaining the ecological balance of the Eastern and Western Ghats.
  • However, the report highlights that these animals, especially the males, can pose a danger to humans and may exhibit aggressive behavior.
  • The need for implementing effective conservation strategies that consider both the protection of wildlife and the safety of human populations residing near these habitats has been stressed.

Papikonda National Park:

  • It is located in Andhra Pradesh.
  • The area is mostly is inaccessible with hilly terrain with high slopes & valleys.
  • The area plays a key role in high precipitation and the consequent origin of various small streams and rivulets which drain and enrich the perennial River Godavari.
  • The park exists in the Eastern Ghats which is known for rich floristic diversity with more than 2531 species under 700 genera and 125 families constituting about 13% of the flowering plants of India.
  • The moist deciduous forests have maximum number of endemic species (173 taxa), followed by dry deciduous (121 taxa).
  • A unique dwarf breed of goat known locally as the “kanchu mekha” originates in this region.
  • The national park has been recognized as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area by BirdLife International.
    • An Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) is an area identified using an internationally agreed set of criteria as being globally important for the conservation of bird populations.
    • IBA was developed and sites are identified by BirdLife International. There are over 13,000 IBAs worldwide.
    • These sites are small enough to be entirely conserved and differ in their character, habitat or ornithological importance from the surrounding habitat.

Bison:

  • The gaur also known as the Indian bison, is a bovine native to South Asia and Southeast Asia and has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List since 1986.
  • The global population was estimated at a maximum of 21,000 mature individuals in 2016, with the majority of those existing in India.
  • It is the largest species among the wild cattle and the Bovidae.
  • The domesticated form of the gaur is called gayal (Bos frontalis) or Mithun.
  • They prefer evergreen forests and moist deciduous forests. However, they can survive in dry deciduous forests also.
  • They are not found in the Himalayas with an altitude greater than 6,000 ft. They generally stick to the foothills only.
  • The Indian Bison is a grazing animal and generally feeds in the early morning and in the late evenings.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/375-indian-bison-inhabiting-papikonda-national-park-nearby-forests/article67910635.ece/amp/#amp_tf=From%20%251%24s&aoh=17096116909919&csi=0&referrer=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com




Day-606 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: ‘Crowding in’ occurs when higher government spending leads to higher private investment.
    Statement-II: Higher government spending can stimulate aggregate demand.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Crowding-in refers to the situation where an increase in government spending leads to an increase in private sector investment.
    The mechanism behind it works like this:
    ● A rise in government spending can boost aggregate demand (C+I+G+X-M) which can lead to increased real economic growth, higher employment and higher real incomes.
    ● This, in turn, can increase consumer and business confidence (an improvement in animal spirits) leading to increased private investment in new projects and businesses.
    ● The phenomenon is more likely to occur when the government expenditure is in the form of capital expenditure, targeted at infrastructure projects, etc, that increases the productivity of the economy.
    ● An opposite of this phenomenon is ‘crowding-out’. It occurs when higher government spending results in driving out the private sector from borrowing, thus effectively reducing private investment.
    ● This occurs because higher spending by the government requires the government to borrow from the market. This leaves less funds available for the private sector to borrow. A high demand for funds increases the interest rate in the market. An interest rate can be defined as the cost of the funds. Thus, crowding out of private investment happens.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Crowding-in refers to the situation where an increase in government spending leads to an increase in private sector investment.
    The mechanism behind it works like this:
    ● A rise in government spending can boost aggregate demand (C+I+G+X-M) which can lead to increased real economic growth, higher employment and higher real incomes.
    ● This, in turn, can increase consumer and business confidence (an improvement in animal spirits) leading to increased private investment in new projects and businesses.
    ● The phenomenon is more likely to occur when the government expenditure is in the form of capital expenditure, targeted at infrastructure projects, etc, that increases the productivity of the economy.
    ● An opposite of this phenomenon is ‘crowding-out’. It occurs when higher government spending results in driving out the private sector from borrowing, thus effectively reducing private investment.
    ● This occurs because higher spending by the government requires the government to borrow from the market. This leaves less funds available for the private sector to borrow. A high demand for funds increases the interest rate in the market. An interest rate can be defined as the cost of the funds. Thus, crowding out of private investment happens.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. With reference to ‘Debentures’, consider the following statements:
    1. An individual’s investment in debentures represents the proportional stake in the company’s ownership.
    2. They are entitled to periodic interest payments at a predetermined rate.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: A debenture is a type of a long-term debt instrument, and not equity representing a stake in the company, issued by a company or organisation to raise funds from the public or institutional investors. It is a loan that investors provide to the issuer, typically a corporation or a government entity.
    Statement 2 is correct: A debenture holder is entitled to interest at the fixed rate.
    There exist different types of debentures:
    ● Convertible debentures: They are bonds that can convert into equity shares of the issuing corporation after a specific period. Convertible debentures are hybrid financial products with the benefits of both debt and equity.
    ● Non-convertible debentures: They are traditional debentures that cannot be converted into equity of the issuing corporation. To compensate for the lack of convertibility investors are rewarded with a higher interest rate when compared to convertible debentures.
    ● Redeemable debentures: They are debentures that come with a specific maturity date. The issuer is obligated to repurchase them from debenture holders at face value upon maturity.
    ● Irredeemable debentures: These do not have a fixed maturity rate. They continue indefinitely and the issuer has no obligation to repurchase them.
    ● Registered debenture: It is a debenture for which the issuer maintains a register of debenture holders. These debentures are linked to specific investors.
    ● Unregistered debenture: These debentures do not have a specific record of individual debenture holders.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: A debenture is a type of a long-term debt instrument, and not equity representing a stake in the company, issued by a company or organisation to raise funds from the public or institutional investors. It is a loan that investors provide to the issuer, typically a corporation or a government entity.
    Statement 2 is correct: A debenture holder is entitled to interest at the fixed rate.
    There exist different types of debentures:
    ● Convertible debentures: They are bonds that can convert into equity shares of the issuing corporation after a specific period. Convertible debentures are hybrid financial products with the benefits of both debt and equity.
    ● Non-convertible debentures: They are traditional debentures that cannot be converted into equity of the issuing corporation. To compensate for the lack of convertibility investors are rewarded with a higher interest rate when compared to convertible debentures.
    ● Redeemable debentures: They are debentures that come with a specific maturity date. The issuer is obligated to repurchase them from debenture holders at face value upon maturity.
    ● Irredeemable debentures: These do not have a fixed maturity rate. They continue indefinitely and the issuer has no obligation to repurchase them.
    ● Registered debenture: It is a debenture for which the issuer maintains a register of debenture holders. These debentures are linked to specific investors.
    ● Unregistered debenture: These debentures do not have a specific record of individual debenture holders.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Direct monetisation of fiscal deficit leads to inflationary pressure in the economy.
    Statement-II: The central bank purchases government securities in the secondary market.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Direct monetization of deficit refers to a scenario where a central bank prints currency to the tune of accommodating massive deficit spending by the government. The central bank, the RBI in India, does so by purchasing government securities directly in the primary market and not secondary market. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Direct monetisation of the deficit leads to inflationary pressure in the economy as there is increase in money supply in the economy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Direct monetisation process used to be automatic in India only until 1997, when it was later decided to end this practice by entrusting RBI to conduct such OMOs (Open Market Operations) only in the secondary market.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Direct monetization of deficit refers to a scenario where a central bank prints currency to the tune of accommodating massive deficit spending by the government. The central bank, the RBI in India, does so by purchasing government securities directly in the primary market and not secondary market. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    Direct monetisation of the deficit leads to inflationary pressure in the economy as there is increase in money supply in the economy. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    Direct monetisation process used to be automatic in India only until 1997, when it was later decided to end this practice by entrusting RBI to conduct such OMOs (Open Market Operations) only in the secondary market.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. With reference to the Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
    1. It has been falling in the urban areas, while it has been rising in the rural areas.
    2. Rise in rural FLFPR is marked by a rise in the share of self-employment and agriculture among working women.
    3. Overall, it has risen to more than 35%.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The government has taken various steps to improve women’s participation in the labour force and quality of their employment. Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) has been rising for at least six years now. While urban FLFPR has also been rising, the rural FLFPR has seen a sharp growth. Hence, both the urban as well as rural areas have registered an increase in participation.
    Statement 2 is correct: The rise in rural female LFPR has been accompanied by a rise in the share of self-employment and agriculture among working women. The rise in rural female employment has been contributed by both own account worker/employer category (share rising from 19 per cent in 2017-18 to 27.9 percent in 2022-23) and the unpaid helper category (share rising from 38.7 percent to 43.1 per cent, which is a relatively smaller rise), indicating a rising contribution of females to rural production.
    Statement 3 is correct: Overall, FLFPR rose from 23.3 per cent in 2017-18 to 37 per cent in 2022-23.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The government has taken various steps to improve women’s participation in the labour force and quality of their employment. Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) has been rising for at least six years now. While urban FLFPR has also been rising, the rural FLFPR has seen a sharp growth. Hence, both the urban as well as rural areas have registered an increase in participation.
    Statement 2 is correct: The rise in rural female LFPR has been accompanied by a rise in the share of self-employment and agriculture among working women. The rise in rural female employment has been contributed by both own account worker/employer category (share rising from 19 per cent in 2017-18 to 27.9 percent in 2022-23) and the unpaid helper category (share rising from 38.7 percent to 43.1 per cent, which is a relatively smaller rise), indicating a rising contribution of females to rural production.
    Statement 3 is correct: Overall, FLFPR rose from 23.3 per cent in 2017-18 to 37 per cent in 2022-23.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: India is less vulnerable to the sovereign debt crisis.
    Statement-II: US dollar-denominated debt remained the largest component of India’s external debt.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Statement 1 is correct: India is less vulnerable to the sovereign debt crisis.
    ● Sovereign default or debt crisis occurs when a country fails to repay its debt, or its debt-to-GDP ratio becomes unsustainably high.
    ● As stated by the Finance Ministry, India’s public debt-to-GDP ratio has barely increased from 81% in 2005-06 to 84% in 2021-22, and is back to 81% in 2022-23.
    ● According to a recent IMF report (International Monetary Fund), India’s general government debt, including the Centre and States, could be 100% of GDP under adverse circumstances by fiscal 2028. This created a controversy, with the government refuting the IMF projections as “a worst-case scenario and is not fait accompli”.
    ● According to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) monthly bulletin, India’s debt-to-GDP ratio could decline to 73.4% by 2030-31 from an estimated 81.6% in 2023-24.
    ● On the external debt front, at end-September 2023, India’s external debt was placed at $635.3 billion, recording an increase of $ 6.4 billion over its level at end-June 2023.
    ● The external debt to GDP ratio stood at 18.61% as at end-September 2023, as against 18.58% as at end-June 2023. It was 20% in 2022.
    ● In a 2020 research paper, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) economists noted that India’s external vulnerability remained minimal. In a 2022 note, RBI economists said the threshold level of external debt is 23-24% of GDP, implying India could raise growth maximizing external debt.

    Statement 2 is correct: The US dollar denominated debt remained the largest component of India’s external debt with a share of 54.7% at end-September 2023, followed by Indian Rupee (30.5%), SDR (5.7%), Japanese Yen (5.6%), and Euro (2.9%).

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Statement 1 is correct: India is less vulnerable to the sovereign debt crisis.
    ● Sovereign default or debt crisis occurs when a country fails to repay its debt, or its debt-to-GDP ratio becomes unsustainably high.
    ● As stated by the Finance Ministry, India’s public debt-to-GDP ratio has barely increased from 81% in 2005-06 to 84% in 2021-22, and is back to 81% in 2022-23.
    ● According to a recent IMF report (International Monetary Fund), India’s general government debt, including the Centre and States, could be 100% of GDP under adverse circumstances by fiscal 2028. This created a controversy, with the government refuting the IMF projections as “a worst-case scenario and is not fait accompli”.
    ● According to the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) monthly bulletin, India’s debt-to-GDP ratio could decline to 73.4% by 2030-31 from an estimated 81.6% in 2023-24.
    ● On the external debt front, at end-September 2023, India’s external debt was placed at $635.3 billion, recording an increase of $ 6.4 billion over its level at end-June 2023.
    ● The external debt to GDP ratio stood at 18.61% as at end-September 2023, as against 18.58% as at end-June 2023. It was 20% in 2022.
    ● In a 2020 research paper, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) economists noted that India’s external vulnerability remained minimal. In a 2022 note, RBI economists said the threshold level of external debt is 23-24% of GDP, implying India could raise growth maximizing external debt.

    Statement 2 is correct: The US dollar denominated debt remained the largest component of India’s external debt with a share of 54.7% at end-September 2023, followed by Indian Rupee (30.5%), SDR (5.7%), Japanese Yen (5.6%), and Euro (2.9%).

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WSDP Bulletin (05/03/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. 375 Indian Bison inhabiting Papikonda National Park, nearby forests READ MORE

2. NBBL asked to start interoperable system for net banking in 2024 READ MORE

3. PM Modi witnesses commencement of core loading at India’s first indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor at Kalpakkam READ MORE

4. What is India’s disability law; how accessible are govt buildings to PwD? READ MORE

5. What is the Punjab-Himachal dispute over the Shanan hydropower project READ MORE

6. Warming up to climate change: What is carbon capture and can it help save the planet? READ MORE

7. National leopard survey shows count up, but fewer animals outside tiger reserves: What this means READ MORE

8. Why Odisha wants to introduce Similipal’s black tigers to female big cats from central India READ MORE

9. India records 1,036 species for backyard bird count — third highest globally READ MORE

10. India’s first National Dolphin Research Centre finally a reality READ MORE

11. Poor regulation of aquaculture endangers human health READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Addressing Tripura’s indigeneity concerns READ MORE

2. Exploring linguistic identities amid pluralism READ MORE

3. Tackling mental health crises in medical students READ MORE

4. Uttrakhand’s Uniform Civil Code Is a Mere Extension of Highly Controlled Lives Indian Women Lead READ MORE

5. Most of Greater Horn of Africa to see excess rain till May thanks to El Nino, climate change READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Stripped of immunity: SC shows zero tolerance for corrupt lawmakers READ MORE

2. A welcome amendment READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. All is not well: Unintended consequences of maternity leave policy in India READ MORE

2. India’s pink economy READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Why Shehbaz Sharif as PM does not signal a new beginning in India-Pakistan ties READ MORE

2. Finding a better way to shape our future READ MORE

3. UN’s new improved human rights vision READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Is India finally entering stage II of its nuclear programme? | Explained READ MORE  

2. Consumption survey decoded READ MORE

3. Financial planning comes of age in India READ MORE

4. Tepid trade-offs: On the WTO 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) in Abu Dhabi READ MORE

5. Is this the beginning of the end of WTO? READ MORE

6. Old pension and new challenges READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. UNEA-6 delegates want more action on plastics, Paris Agreement READ MORE

2. Mountains of plastic are choking the Himalayan States READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. A vaccine that prevents six cancers READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. What is grey zone warfare, mentioned by India’s Chief of Defence Staff recently? READ MORE  

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Dilemmas in disaster management: SAARC under scrutiny READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. What’s in a surname?: On a woman’s right to choose her own identity READ MORE

2. UN’s new improved human rights vision READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. The WTO Ministerial Conference has failed to make progress and continues to struggle to foster free and fair trade on key issues. Examine in the light of recent meeting outcomes.

2. The Supreme Court related to the stripped of immunity judgement is a significant step towards curbing the rampant role of money power in horse-trading and other legislative malpractices. Critically Analyse.

3. To address the crisis of mental health among medical students, concerted efforts are needed at both institutional and systemic levels. Comment in the light of mental health challenges faced by students.

4. In a welfare state, the government should act as an ideal employer and pay decent pensions to its employees, setting a good example for the private sector. Analyse whether the govt should revive OPS?

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • Without continual growth & progress, such words as improvement, achievement & success have no meaning.
  • HPV vaccination and screening for precancerous lesions are two major strategies for prevention and early detection of cervical and other cancers.
  • The WTO itself must do much more to stay relevant in an increasingly polarised world.
  • The World Trade Organization continues to struggle to foster free and fair trade.
  • The greatest human rights challenge in the world right now is achieving gender equality and empowering women and girls.
  • A society that is already battling caste-based hierarchies should not add to the discrimination by giving an upper hand to anyone in a relationship, but work towards safer spaces without gender bias, difference and humiliation.
  • Bilateral engagement is a high-cost and low-reward exercise. The costs are higher in Pakistan, where the new government is weak and hobbled by multiple domestic challenges.
  • The latest consumption survey is not comparable with earlier ones. But preliminary results point to significant inequality.
  • WTO Ministerial Conference fails to make progress on key issues like fisheries subsidies, reflecting serious divisions among 166 member countries.
  • Identity politics revolving around questions of ethnicity, language and faith has been central to the Northeast.
  • The latest judgement is a significant step towards curbing the rampant role of money power in horse-trading and other legislative malpractices.
  • The SC annulled the electoral bond scheme, saying that it violated the constitutional right to freedom of speech and expression as well as the right to information.
  • While economists debate how much GDP is required to create adequate employment, we are losing the ground that supports our economic growth and our lives.
  • Social, environmental, economic and political systems must work together to improve the wellbeing of the whole.
  • The world is going deeper into darkness by pursuing data sciences rather than the science of dialogue. And, in a mad competition for more for ourselves, we are destroying our common ground and ourselves.
  • Certified financial planning is ideal for individuals seeking professional management of their portfolios. It is a great career option, too.
  • The emergence of financial planning as a career option holds immense promise, both for the aspiring professionals and the nation at large.
  • With the demand for financial expertise on the rise and the potential to make a tangible difference in people’s lives, financial planning presents a win-win scenario for both the country and its youth.
  • The essence of upholding human rights lies in fostering collective cooperation among diverse social entities.
  • Despite the existential threats posed by environmental degradation, governments often prioritise short-term economic gains over long-term sustainability.
  • In a welfare state, the government should act as an ideal employer and pay decent pensions to its employees, setting a good example for the private sector.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Passivity is fatal to a soldier.

50-WORD TALK

  • In a welfare state, the government should act as an ideal employer and pay decent pensions to its employees, setting a good example for the private sector. The goal should be to revert to the OPS in government and to work towards a similar scheme in the private sector, but it should not be to reduce the existing benefit anywhere.
  • Gangrape of Brazilian biker-tourist in Jharkhand tells us what we already know but are largely apathetic about. We do a poor job of keeping public spaces free of molesters, rapists. Even after Nirbhaya, outrage over rapes is episodic, not sustained. Women’s safety isn’t just a ‘women problem’, it is India’s.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



INAUGURATION OF NATIONAL URBAN COOPERATIVE FINANCE AND DEVELOPMENT CORPORATION LIMITED (NUCFDC)

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation inaugurated the National Urban Cooperative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC) recently.

EXPLANATION:

  • This marks a significant step towards the establishment of an umbrella organization for urban cooperative banks.

National Urban Cooperative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC):

  • The National Urban Cooperative Finance and Development Corporation Limited (NUCFDC) is an umbrella organization established to support and promote Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) in India.
  • It was inaugurated by the Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation, Shri Amit Shah, on March 2, 2024.

Objectives of NUCFDC:

  • To provide specialized functions and services to UCBs, including financial assistance, capacity building, and technological upgradation.
  • To facilitate communication and coordination between UCBs and regulators, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • To address the challenges faced by UCBs, such as financial instability, governance issues, and lack of professionalism.
  • To promote the modernization and strengthening of the Urban Cooperative Banking Sector in India.

Benefits of NUCFDC

  • The establishment of NUCFDC is expected to benefit both UCBs and their customers in several ways:
    • Enhanced financial stability: NUCFDC can provide financial assistance to UCBs in distress, thereby helping to improve their financial health and stability.
    • Improved governance: NUCFDC can promote good governance practices among UCBs by providing training and capacity building programs for directors and employees.
    • Increased efficiency: NUCFDC can help UCBs to adopt new technologies and improve their operational efficiency.

Urban Cooperative Banks:

  • Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are registered as cooperative societies under the provisions of, either the State Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned or the Multi State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
  • They are regulated and supervised by the Registrar of Cooperative Societies (RCS) of State concerned or by the Central Registrar of Cooperative Societies (CRCS), as the case may be.
  • They primarily operate in urban and semi-urban regions of India.
  • These entities cater to banking requirements of small businesses, individuals, and communities.
  • Services include deposit accounts, loans, remittances, and other financial products and services.
  • At present, there are over 1,500 scheduled and non-scheduled Urban Cooperative Banks in India.

Strength and Impact of Cooperative Banks:

  • Cooperative banks collectively boast a significant strength, with 11,000 branches spread across 1,500 banks and deposits amounting to Rs 5 lakh crore.
  • Urban cooperative banks have achieved a commendable reduction in their Net Non-Performing Assets (NPA), currently standing at 2.10%.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/amit-shah-launches-umbrella-body-for-urban-co-op-banks-9192673/lite/




PRESS & REGISTRATION OF PERIODICALS ACT (PRP ACT), 2023

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Government of India has notified the historic Press & Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023 and its Rules in its Gazette and consequently the Act has come into force from 1st March, 2024.

EXPLANATION:

  • From now on, the registration of periodicals shall be governed by the provisions of the Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023 and the Press and Registration of Periodicals Rules.
  • As per the notification, the office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.

Press & Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:

  • The new Act removes the procedural obstacles involving multiple approvals at various stages for starting a newspaper/printed publication in India.
                    PRB Act, 1867                PRP Act, 2023
  • The 1867 Act provides for the registration of newspapers, periodicals, and books.
  • It also provides for the cataloguing of books.
  • The 2023 Act provides for the registration of periodicals, which include any publication containing public news or comments on public news.
  • Periodicals do not include books or scientific and academic journals.
  • The 1867 Act provides that a declaration specifying the printer/publisher be made to the DM.
  • The DM sends the declaration to the Press Registrar, who then issues a certificate of registration.
  • Making such declaration and authentication by the DM is necessary for the publication of the newspaper.
  • The 2023 Act allows the publisher of a periodical to obtain a registration certificate by filing an online application with the Press Registrar General (PRG) and specified local authority.
  • A person who has been convicted of a terrorist act or unlawful activity, or has acted against the security of the State will not be allowed to publish a periodical.
  • The 1867 Act requires a printing press to be declared before the DM.
  • The PRP Act, 2023 allows for information regarding printing presses to be submitted through an online portal.

Appellate authority:

  • The new Bill also provides for an appellate authority.
  • The Appellate Board (Press and Registration Appellate Board) will comprise the Chairperson, Press Council of India (PCI), and two members of PCI to hear an appeal against refusal of grant of registration, imposition of any penalty or suspension/cancellation of registration by PRG.
  • Such appeals may be filed before the Press and Registration Appellate Board within 60 days.

Press Council of India (PCI):

  • The PCI was first set up in 1966 by the parliament on the recommendations of the First Press Commission under the chairmanship of Justice J.R Mudholkar.
  • The present council functions under the Press Council Act 1978.
    • It is an act to establish a Press Council for the purpose of preserving the freedom of the Press and of maintaining and improving the standards of newspapers and news agencies in India.
  • It is a statutory, quasi-judicial body that acts as a watchdog of the press in India.

SOURCE: https://newsonair.gov.in/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=478321#:~:text=The%20Government%20has%20notified%20the,other%20periodicals%20in%20the%20country




HANGUL’s REMARKABLE REVIVAL

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The elusive and critically endangered hangul, a native species of deer in Kashmir, has displayed a robust rutting or mating season, offering hope for its population resurgence.

EXPLANATION:

  • Experts are optimistic about the hangul population surpassing 300 this spring, marking a significant achievement after over three decades of decline.
  • To facilitate undisturbed rutting, Dachigam National Park, the habitat of hangul, was temporarily closed to visitors between September 25 and October 18 previous year, highlighting the conservation efforts to protect the critical mating period.

Historical Decline and Recent Resurgence:

  • Population Decline Since 1947: Since 1947, the hangul population faced a sharp decline, dwindling from around 2000 to 384 by 1968.
  • The population plummeted further in the 1990s due to political turmoil, with an estimated 140 to 160 hanguls in 1992.
  • Despite challenges, recent years have seen a steady increase, with the population rising from 183 in 2015 to 261 in 2021.

Conservation Efforts and Environmental Challenges:

  • Habitat Preservation: Efforts by the Wildlife department include securing corridors, especially the Wangath-Naranag corridor, and regulating traffic on highways to ensure the safe movement of hangul groups.
  • Male-Female Ratio Imbalance: Challenges include a skewed male-female ratio, with 19.2 males per 100 females, falling significantly below the ideal ratio of 40-50 males per 100 females.
  • Predator Threats: Hangul faces threats from leopards and Asiatic Black Bears, with research suggesting they constitute about 25% of the leopard diet in Dachigam.
  • Climate Impact: Global warming and reduced snow cover in Upper Dachigam have led to dried-up drainages and potential habitat disturbances.
  • Water Scarcity Concerns: Dried-up drainages may force hanguls, especially lactating females, to move towards disturbed habitats, increasing vulnerability to predators or sheep dogs.

Conservation Initiatives and Future Plans:

  • Protection Mechanism: The J&K Wildlife department has identified 10 hangul sites for enhanced protection and sustenance.
  • Captive Breeding: A captive breeding facility has been established at Shikargah Tral, with plans to use assisted reproductive techniques (ART) to augment the hangul population.
  • Genome Resource Banking: Radio-collaring initiatives in 2013 and 2020 have paved the way for genome resource banking and the establishment of an embryo bank, crucial for conservation efforts.

Hangul:

  • The hangul also called as Kashmir stag is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to Kashmir and surrounding areas.
  • It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh.
  • In Kashmir, it is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park where it receives protection.
  • A small population has also been witnessed in Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary in south Kashmir.
  • It has been is classified as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List, as its population has declined drastically over the years due to habitat loss, overgrazing by domestic livestock, poaching, predation, diseases and human-wildlife conflicts.

Dachigam National Park:

  • The actual beauty of the park lies in the deep valleys, rocky outcrops, steep wooded slopes and rolling alpine pastures.
  • Being located in a mountainous area, Dachigam National Park faces a huge variation in altitude that ranges from 1600 m to 4200 m above sea level.
  • This variation in altitude categorises Dachigam National Park into two regions- the upper region and the lower region.
  • It is extremely rich in Wild Cherry, Pear, Plum, Peach, Apple, Apricot, Walnut, Chestnut, Oak, Willow, Poplar, Chinar, Birch, Pine and Elm.
  • Fauna: Hangul (Kashmir Stag), Musk deer, Brown Bear, Leopards, Jungle Cats, Himalayan black bear, and a few species of wild goats like the markhor and ibex.

Genome Resource Banking:

  • Genome resource banking is the systematic collection, storage, and redistribution of biomaterials in an organized, logistical, and secure manner.
  • Genome cryobanks usually contain biomaterials and associated genomic information essential for progression of biomedicine, human health, and research.
  • Many developed and developing countries have allocated substantial resources to establish genome resources banks which are responsible for safeguarding scientifically, economically, and ecologically important wild type, mutant, and transgenic plants, fish, and local livestock breeds, as well as wildlife species.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/mating-calls-of-endangered-hangul-in-kashmir-indicate-record-uptick-in-population/article67908211.ece  




TRIPURA’s RISA RECEIVES GEOGRAPHICAL INDICATION (GI) TAG

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Tripura’s indigenous handwoven cloth, Risa, has recently been granted the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag, marking a significant milestone for the state’s rich cultural heritage.

EXPLANATION:

  • Chief Minister of Tripura proudly announced this achievement, acknowledging the artisans, particularly those from the Killa Mahila cluster in Gomati district, for their commendable contribution.

Historical and Cultural Significance:

  • Risa, a handwoven cloth, has been an integral part of the indigenous communities in Tripura for generations.
  • It holds cultural significance and is commonly worn during festivals and social gatherings.
  • The cloth serves multiple purposes, functioning as a headgear, stole, or upper garment, showcasing its versatility and adaptability to various occasions.

  • The GI tag is expected to open doors for international recognition, showcasing Tripura’s unique handwoven textile tradition on a global platform.

Artisan Collaboration and Heritage Preservation:

  • The Tripura Rural Livelihood Mission (TRLM) played a crucial role in promoting and supporting artisans, particularly in the Killa Mahila Cluster, contributing to the success of Tripura Risa.
  • Risa, with its heritage value, has attracted support from various agencies and self-help groups (SHGs), contributing to the preservation and promotion of this traditional craft.
  • The collaboration with NABARD to secure the GI tag highlights the strategic efforts made by governmental and non-governmental entities to protect and enhance the heritage value of Risa.

FOR FURTHER INFORMATION PLEASE REFER TO 1ST ARTICLE ON GI TAGs.

SOURCE: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/tripura/tripuras-handwoven-cloth-risa-gets-gi-tag-cm-manik-saha-announces-2920193




GEOGRAPHICAL INDICATION (GI) TAGS AWARDED

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, a number of products has been awarded Geographical Indication tags.

EXPLANATION:

Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi (Silver Filigree) – A Symbol of Craftsmanship and Tradition

  • The renowned Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi, known for its exquisite Silver Filigree work, has been granted the prestigious Geographical Indication (GI) tag by the Geographical Indications Registry in Chennai.
  • It was filed by the Odisha State Co-operative Handicrafts Corporation Limited and supported by the Department of Textile and Handicrafts, Government of Odisha.
  • This acknowledgment recognizes the traditional association of filigree with fine craftsmanship and opulent design in classical jewelry.
  • Archaeological evidence suggests the incorporation of filigree into jewelry as early as 3500 BCE in Mesopotamia, persisting today as Telkari work.
  • The filing alludes to the possibility of Tarakasi work reaching Cuttack from Persia through Indonesia around 500 years ago, facilitated by sea trade.
  • Literary references, such as the story of Ta-Poi, indicate historical maritime activities involving the exchange of jewelry and gems between Kalinga and Indonesia, hinting at Indonesia as a potential origin of Silver Filigree in Odisha.

Banglar Muslin – Bengal’s Traditional Handloom Craft

  • Banglar muslin, a traditional handloom craft of Bengal, has secured a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
  • This fine muslin is crafted from cotton threads, spun to maintain tensile strength at counts ranging from 300 to 600, surpassing other cotton products.

Narasapur Crochet Lace Products – Global Acclaim for Intricate Craftsmanship

  • Narasapur in West Godavari, Andhra Pradesh, has gained international acclaim for its intricate crochet lace craftsmanship.
  • Missionaries introduced crochet skills to Narsapur, making it a prominent center for handmade crocheted lace work.

Kutch Rogan Craft – A Distinctive GI Craft

  • Kutch Rogan Craft is among the products awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
  • Kutch Rogan Craft, also known as Rogan painting, is a unique and beautiful art form practiced in the Kutch region of Gujarat, India.
  • It involves the creation of intricate designs and patterns on fabrics using a special resist painting technique.

Other Distinguished GI-Tagged Products:

Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun (Garlic) – Madhya Pradesh’s Culinary Gem

  • Origin: Ratlam Riyawan Lahsun is named after Riyawan village in the Ratlam district of Madhya Pradesh, India.
  • Culinary Gem: This variety of garlic is renowned for its unique taste, aroma, and medicinal properties, making it a culinary gem in Madhya Pradesh.

Ambaji White Marble – Formed Under Intense Pressure and Heat

  • Origin: Ambaji White Marble comes from the Ambaji region, known for its marble quarries, situated in the state of Gujarat, India.
  • It is formed through the re-crystallization of limestone under the earth’s crust due to intense pressure and heat.
  • Ambaji White Marble is highly valued for its purity, luster, and suitability for various artistic and architectural applications.

Hyderabad Lac Bangles – Craftsmanship from the City of Pearls

  • Hyderabad Lac Bangles are traditional bangles crafted in Hyderabad, Telangana, known as the “City of Pearls.”
  • Craftsmanship: These bangles are crafted using lac, a natural resin, and are known for their intricate designs and vibrant colors, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of the region.

Majuli Mask of Assam – Varied Categories Reflecting Cultural Significance

  • Majuli Masks are crafted in the Majuli district of Assam, the largest river island in the Brahmaputra River.
  • Cultural Significance: These masks, categorized as ‘Mukha bhaona,’ ‘Lotokoi,’ and ‘Cho Mukha,’ play diverse roles in Assamese culture, representing various themes and characters.

Assam Majuli Manuscript Painting – Depicting Hindu Epics and Bhagavata Purana

  • Assam Majuli Manuscript Paintings hail from the Majuli district in Assam, India.
  • Depiction of Epics: These paintings illustrate stories and chapters taken from Hindu epics like Ramayana, Mahabharata, and the Bhagavata Purana, showcasing the artistic heritage of Assam.

Geographical Indication (GI) tag:

  • It came into force with effect from 15th September 2003.
  • The Geographical Indication (GI) tag is given to products so that only authorized people can use the popular product’s name.
  • It is given to products having a specific geographical origin and qualities or reputation associated with that origin.
  • It was given to products related to agriculture, handicrafts, foodstuffs, spirit drinks, and industrial products.
  • The first product to receive this tag is Darjeeling Tea.
  • The rules and regulations of the GI tag are governed by the WTO’s agreement on trade-related aspects of intellectual property rights.
  • In India, GI products are governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
  • This tag is valid for 10 years and can be renewed.

GI Registration:

  • In December 1999, Parliament passed the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act 1999.
  • This Act seeks to provide for the registration and protection of Geographical Indications relating to goods in India.
  • This Act is administered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks, who is the Registrar of Geographical Indications. The Geographical Indications Registry is located at Chennai.
  • The Registrar of Geographical Indication is divided into two parts. Part ’A’ consists of particulars relating to registered Geographical indications and Part ‘B’ consists of particulars of the registered authorized users.
  • The registration process is similar to both for registration of geographical indication and an authorized user which is illustrated below:

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/cuttack-rupa-tarakasi-banglar-muslin-get-gi-tag/article67910811.ece




Day-605 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GEOGRAPHY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following pairs:
    International borders – Countries sharing these borders
    1. 49th Parallel – North Korea and South Korea
    2. Mannerheim Line – Russia and Ukraine
    3. Blue Line – Israel and Lebanon
    4. Green Line – Republic of Cyprus and Turkish Cyprus
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
    The 49th Parallel is the border shared between the USA and Canada.
    This open border between two countries has been in news due to the influx of illegal refugees into the USA through Canada.
    The border between South Korea and North Korea is known as the 38th Parallel.
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    The Mannerheim Line is the border between Russia and Finland.
    The border has been in the news since Finland joined the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
    Pair 3 is matched correctly:
    The Blue Line is the border between Israel and Lebanon.
    It has been in the news due to ongoing conflict between Hezbollah and Israel.
    Pair 4 is matched correctly:
    Border between the Republic of Cyprus and Turkish Cyprus is known as the Green Line.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
    The 49th Parallel is the border shared between the USA and Canada.
    This open border between two countries has been in news due to the influx of illegal refugees into the USA through Canada.
    The border between South Korea and North Korea is known as the 38th Parallel.
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    The Mannerheim Line is the border between Russia and Finland.
    The border has been in the news since Finland joined the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
    Pair 3 is matched correctly:
    The Blue Line is the border between Israel and Lebanon.
    It has been in the news due to ongoing conflict between Hezbollah and Israel.
    Pair 4 is matched correctly:
    Border between the Republic of Cyprus and Turkish Cyprus is known as the Green Line.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following countries:
    1. Myanmar
    2. Laos
    3. Thailand
    4. Cambodia
    5. Vietnam
    6. China
    How many of the above countries are part of the Lancang-Mekong Cooperation?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Lancang-Mekong Cooperation:
    Lancang-Mekong Cooperation is a multilateral format established in 2016 for cooperation between the riparian states of the Lancang River and Mekong River.
    The Lancang is the part of the Mekong that flows through China.
    Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam and Thailand are five downstream countries of the Mekong River.
    The central purpose of the format is for China to manage water flow from its hydropower dams with the other riparian states.
    LMC Special Fund was created in 2016 to aid in small and medium-sized projects by the Lancang-Mekong countries.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Lancang-Mekong Cooperation:
    Lancang-Mekong Cooperation is a multilateral format established in 2016 for cooperation between the riparian states of the Lancang River and Mekong River.
    The Lancang is the part of the Mekong that flows through China.
    Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Vietnam and Thailand are five downstream countries of the Mekong River.
    The central purpose of the format is for China to manage water flow from its hydropower dams with the other riparian states.
    LMC Special Fund was created in 2016 to aid in small and medium-sized projects by the Lancang-Mekong countries.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following pairs:
    Islands in news – Countries
    1. Canary Islands – Portugal
    2. Snake Island – Ukraine
    3. Macquarie Islands – Australia
    4. Orkney Islands – United Kingdom
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
    The Canary Islands are part of Spain in the Atlantic Ocean, situated 115 km west of the Moroccan coast.
    It is a volcanic island.
    It has been in the news due to the influx of illegal refugees from conflict-ridden areas of Africa and Asia.
    Pair 2 is matched correctly:
    Snake or Serpent Island, also known as Zmiinyi Island is a small piece of rock less than 700 metres from end to end, that has been described as being X-shaped.
    Location:
    It is located 35 km from the coast in the Black Sea, to the east of the mouth of the Danube and roughly southwest of the port city of Odessa.
    The island is marked on the map by the tiny village of Bile that is located on it, belongs to Ukraine.

    Pair 3 is matched correctly:
    Macquarie Island is located around 1,500km southeast of Tasmania which belongs to Australia.
    It is the exposed crest of the 1,600 km-long undersea Macquarie Ridge.
    This is the only piece of land in the world formed entirely of oceanic crust.
    The area is also designated as a World Heritage Area.
    It has been in the news because the Federal government of Australia proposed the expansion of the marine park covering Macquarie Island’s Economic Exclusion Zone.
    Pair 4 is matched correctly:
    It is an archipelago consisting of 70 individual islands, of which only 20 are inhabited.
    The Orkney Islands can be found roughly 10 miles off the north coast of Scotland (which is part of the United Kingdom).
    The islands have been inhabited since prehistoric times and are home to numerous archaeological sites, including Neolithic stone circles, chambered tombs (such as Maeshowe).
    The four monuments that make up the Heart of Neolithic Orkney are unquestionably among the most important Neolithic sites in Western Europe.
    These are the Ring of Brodgar, Stones of Stenness, Maeshowe and Skara Brae.
    The Heart of Neolithic Orkney is designated as a UNESCO world Heritage site.
    It has been in news because Orkney Islands is looking at ways to split off from the U.K. and potentially become a self-governing territory of Norway.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched incorrectly:
    The Canary Islands are part of Spain in the Atlantic Ocean, situated 115 km west of the Moroccan coast.
    It is a volcanic island.
    It has been in the news due to the influx of illegal refugees from conflict-ridden areas of Africa and Asia.
    Pair 2 is matched correctly:
    Snake or Serpent Island, also known as Zmiinyi Island is a small piece of rock less than 700 metres from end to end, that has been described as being X-shaped.
    Location:
    It is located 35 km from the coast in the Black Sea, to the east of the mouth of the Danube and roughly southwest of the port city of Odessa.
    The island is marked on the map by the tiny village of Bile that is located on it, belongs to Ukraine.

    Pair 3 is matched correctly:
    Macquarie Island is located around 1,500km southeast of Tasmania which belongs to Australia.
    It is the exposed crest of the 1,600 km-long undersea Macquarie Ridge.
    This is the only piece of land in the world formed entirely of oceanic crust.
    The area is also designated as a World Heritage Area.
    It has been in the news because the Federal government of Australia proposed the expansion of the marine park covering Macquarie Island’s Economic Exclusion Zone.
    Pair 4 is matched correctly:
    It is an archipelago consisting of 70 individual islands, of which only 20 are inhabited.
    The Orkney Islands can be found roughly 10 miles off the north coast of Scotland (which is part of the United Kingdom).
    The islands have been inhabited since prehistoric times and are home to numerous archaeological sites, including Neolithic stone circles, chambered tombs (such as Maeshowe).
    The four monuments that make up the Heart of Neolithic Orkney are unquestionably among the most important Neolithic sites in Western Europe.
    These are the Ring of Brodgar, Stones of Stenness, Maeshowe and Skara Brae.
    The Heart of Neolithic Orkney is designated as a UNESCO world Heritage site.
    It has been in news because Orkney Islands is looking at ways to split off from the U.K. and potentially become a self-governing territory of Norway.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements about ocean relief:
    1. A seamount never reaches the sea surface like guyots.
    2. Ocean trenches are a result of tectonic activity, which describes the movement of the Earth’s lithosphere.
    3. The continental slope is the seaward extension of the continent from the shoreline to the continental edge.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation: All statements are correct
    Statement 1 is correct:
    Seamount:
    It is a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean. Seamounts are volcanic in origin.
    These can be 3,000-4,500 m tall. The Emperor seamount, an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in the Pacific Ocean, is a good example.

    Guyots:
    It is a flat topped seamount. They show evidence of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains.
    They develop under the sea surface.
    It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone.

    Statement 2 is correct:
    Ocean trenches are long, narrow depressions on the seafloor.
    These chasms are the deepest parts of the ocean—and some of the deepest natural spots on Earth.
    Ocean trenches are a result of tectonic activity, which describes the movement of the Earth’s lithosphere.
    In particular, ocean trenches are a feature of convergent plate boundaries, where two or more tectonic plates meet.
    At many convergent plate boundaries, dense lithosphere melts or slides beneath less-dense lithosphere in a process called subduction, creating a trench.

    Statement 3 is correct:
    The continental shelf is the seaward extension of the continent from the shoreline to the continental edge. Whereas, the continental slope connects the continental shelf and continental rise.
    Continental shelf ends where there is a sharp increase in the slope angle.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation: All statements are correct
    Statement 1 is correct:
    Seamount:
    It is a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean. Seamounts are volcanic in origin.
    These can be 3,000-4,500 m tall. The Emperor seamount, an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in the Pacific Ocean, is a good example.

    Guyots:
    It is a flat topped seamount. They show evidence of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains.
    They develop under the sea surface.
    It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone.

    Statement 2 is correct:
    Ocean trenches are long, narrow depressions on the seafloor.
    These chasms are the deepest parts of the ocean—and some of the deepest natural spots on Earth.
    Ocean trenches are a result of tectonic activity, which describes the movement of the Earth’s lithosphere.
    In particular, ocean trenches are a feature of convergent plate boundaries, where two or more tectonic plates meet.
    At many convergent plate boundaries, dense lithosphere melts or slides beneath less-dense lithosphere in a process called subduction, creating a trench.

    Statement 3 is correct:
    The continental shelf is the seaward extension of the continent from the shoreline to the continental edge. Whereas, the continental slope connects the continental shelf and continental rise.
    Continental shelf ends where there is a sharp increase in the slope angle.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Jammu and Kashmir has emerged as the powerhouse of ‘Purple Revolution’ in India.
    Statement-II: Lavender cultivation is suitable for temperate regions.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Statement-I is correct:
    The Purple Revolution or Lavender Revolution, launched by the Ministry of Science & Technology, aims to promote the indigenous aromatic crop-based agro economy through the ‘aroma mission’ of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).

    Aim: The mission aims to increase the income of the farmers and promote lavender cultivation on a commercial scale.
    Lavender oil, which sells for, at least, Rs. 10,000 per liter, is the main commodity. Other popular products include medicines, incense sticks, soaps, and air fresheners.
    The cultivation of lavender is very cost-effective as it yields revenue immediately.
    Under the One District One Product-Districts as Export Hubs (ODOP-DEH) initiative, lavender cultivation in Jammu and Kashmir has experienced a significant boom. Lavender has been designated by the central government as a “Doda brand product” to promote the rare aromatic plant and boost the morale of farmers, entrepreneurs, and agribusinesses involved in its cultivation as part of this Aroma Mission.
    Statement-II is correct and also the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Jammu and Kashmir climatic conditions are conducive to lavender cultivation, since the aromatic plant can withstand both chilly winters and pleasant summers.
    Apart from the requirement of temperate climatic conditions, efforts from CSIR have made it possible that Jammu and Kashmir has emerged as a top destination.
    Jammu and Kashmir climatic conditions are conducive to lavender cultivation, since the aromatic plant can withstand both chilly winters and pleasant summers.
    Additionally, it is a low maintenance crop, which can be used from its second year of plantation and blossoms for fifteen years.
    In its entirety, lavender production gives better returns when compared to other traditional crops.
    CSIR has developed an elite variety of lavender suitable for cultivation in temperate regions of J&K and provided free saplings and end-to-end agro-technologies to farmers and also installed distillation units for essential oil extraction in several regions of J&K.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Statement-I is correct:
    The Purple Revolution or Lavender Revolution, launched by the Ministry of Science & Technology, aims to promote the indigenous aromatic crop-based agro economy through the ‘aroma mission’ of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).

    Aim: The mission aims to increase the income of the farmers and promote lavender cultivation on a commercial scale.
    Lavender oil, which sells for, at least, Rs. 10,000 per liter, is the main commodity. Other popular products include medicines, incense sticks, soaps, and air fresheners.
    The cultivation of lavender is very cost-effective as it yields revenue immediately.
    Under the One District One Product-Districts as Export Hubs (ODOP-DEH) initiative, lavender cultivation in Jammu and Kashmir has experienced a significant boom. Lavender has been designated by the central government as a “Doda brand product” to promote the rare aromatic plant and boost the morale of farmers, entrepreneurs, and agribusinesses involved in its cultivation as part of this Aroma Mission.
    Statement-II is correct and also the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Jammu and Kashmir climatic conditions are conducive to lavender cultivation, since the aromatic plant can withstand both chilly winters and pleasant summers.
    Apart from the requirement of temperate climatic conditions, efforts from CSIR have made it possible that Jammu and Kashmir has emerged as a top destination.
    Jammu and Kashmir climatic conditions are conducive to lavender cultivation, since the aromatic plant can withstand both chilly winters and pleasant summers.
    Additionally, it is a low maintenance crop, which can be used from its second year of plantation and blossoms for fifteen years.
    In its entirety, lavender production gives better returns when compared to other traditional crops.
    CSIR has developed an elite variety of lavender suitable for cultivation in temperate regions of J&K and provided free saplings and end-to-end agro-technologies to farmers and also installed distillation units for essential oil extraction in several regions of J&K.

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WSDP Bulletin (04/03/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Amit Shah launches umbrella body for urban co-op banks READ MORE

2. Govt notifies Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023 and its rules READ MORE

3. Mating calls of endangered hangul in Kashmir indicate record uptick in population READ MORE

4. Several OPEC+ nations extend oil cuts to boost prices READ MORE

5. Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi, Banglar muslin get GI tag READ MORE

6. PM to witness initiation of core loading of fast breeder reactor READ MORE

7. NDSA expert panel to examine Kaleshwaram project on March 6: Telangana Irrigation Minister READ MORE

8. Why Thailand’s now-replaced WTO Ambassador questioned India’s agriculture subsidies, what India argued READ MORE

9. Bribes for votes: SC says MLAs and MPs not immune from prosecution. What was the case? READ MORE

10.  What the 2022 Status of Leopards in India report suggests about the big cat’s population estimates READ MORE

11.  COM 2024: Climate financing hurdles take centrestage at African economic ministers’ conference READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. ‘Gender gap’ between tall talk and action READ MORE

2. Uttrakhand’s Uniform Civil Code Is a Mere Extension of Highly Controlled Lives Indian Women Lead READ MORE

3. Most of Greater Horn of Africa to see excess rain till May thanks to El Nino, climate change READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Dire need to stem the rot plaguing democracy READ MORE

2. Bonds, not black money, gone: All eyes now on EC READ MORE

3. Why Simultaneous Polls May Reduce India to ‘World’s Largest Democracy’ Only in Name READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. All is not well: Unintended consequences of maternity leave policy in India READ MORE

2. India’s pink economy READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Can’t let war become work for Indian youth READ MORE   

2. Need to reflect on WTO’s mandate READ MORE

3. The Greek presence at Raisina Dialogue READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. A women’s urban employment guarantee act READ MORE

2. Facts and statistics: On the national income data released by the National Statistical Office READ MORE

3. What it would mean to give farmers a fair deal READ MORE

4. It’s time to shut WTO down READ MORE

5. GDP growth numbers show robust optimism READ MORE

6. India’s widening economic disparity, food security READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. UNEA-6 delegates want more action on plastics, Paris Agreement READ MORE

2. Mountains of plastic are choking the Himalayan States READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. AI developers must keep an eye out for bias READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. What is grey zone warfare, mentioned by India’s Chief of Defence Staff recently? READ MORE  

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. Dilemmas in disaster management: SAARC under scrutiny READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. The complexity of communication READ MORE

2 Business of busy-ness and the absent self READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. Supreme Court’s striking down of electoral bonds underscores the need for comprehensive reforms to combat corruption. Comment.

2. Discuss the importance of the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) and Smart Cities Scheme to address the issue of scientific waste management and make cities in the Indian Himalayan Region free of plastic.

3. The WTO has become like the UN, and it is important as a forum but of marginal usefulness in real situations. Comment in the light of recent developments.

4. WTO has always been a bargaining table for the Global North and South to balance their interests without jeopardising rules-based global trade but in recent times, it is increasingly failing to make the global trade regime equitable and rules-based. Comment.

5. Maternity leave policies have the potential to reduce the motherhood penalty faced by women in the labour market but past experience shows that correct policy design is critical to ensure that such women-centric policies benefit the targeted group. Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • It is true that we have won all our wars, but we have paid for them.
  • Empowering local bodies and creating the necessary infrastructure for waste management in the Indian Himalayan Region need immediate attention.
  • Unscientific plastic disposal is causing soil and water pollution in the Indian Himalayan Region and impacting its biodiversity, which is having an adverse impact on the fresh water sources that communities downstream depend on.
  • The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) and Smart Cities Scheme under which many cities in the Indian Himalayan Region are selected, could also work in convergence on the issue of scientific waste management and making cities in the Indian Himalayan Region free of plastic.
  • To address overall urban unemployment, some States have an urban employment programme. While these are not restricted to women, early evidence suggests a higher participation rate for women.
  • Social audits would require an array of skill sets and this could be an important avenue for women who have completed Class 12 to join part time or full time and improve their job readiness.
  • Legalising MSP would mean eliminating the urban consumer bias that always wants lower and lower prices, often at the cost of farmers.
  • The discovery of the sense of self which is not in the past tense, or the future tense, but in the present, tense perfect.
  • Free trade agreements are proliferating because they are beneficial and allow participants to hide behind the thick curtain of sovereignty.
  • The WTO has become like the UN and it is important as a forum but of marginal usefulness in real situations.
  • WTO has always been a bargaining table for the Global North and South to balance their interests without jeopardising rules-based global trade but in recent times, it is failing to make the global trade regime equitable and rules-based.
  • Maternity leave policies have the potential to reduce the motherhood penalty faced by women in the labour market but past experience shows that correct policy design is critical to ensure that such women-centric policies benefit the targeted group.
  • Menstrual rights encompass not only access to hygiene products but also the eradication of discriminatory practices surrounding this natural biological phenomenon.
  • Changing cultural norms and ensuring menstrual rights are essential for a society free from shame and secrecy.
  • India and Greece must build a Strategic Partnership by upgrading their bilateral ties further and forging cooperation in dimensions of economic, defence, maritime, shipping and cultural fields as they have a common interest in international and regional developments.
  • Limited access to quality healthcare and education, often linked to economic disadvantage, can further exacerbate the existing inequalities, and perpetuate the cycle of poverty.
  • Supreme Court’s striking down of electoral bonds underscores the need for comprehensive reforms to combat corruption.
  • Letting loose the criminal justice system to defend the rights of animals has already victimised the most vulnerable in our society.
  • The primary intention behind pushing simultaneous polls is to weaken multi-party democracy under which different parties govern in states and replace it with a one-party system with absolute power.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Passivity is fatal to a soldier.

50-WORD TALK

  • Air pollution, women’s safety aren’t hot-button political issues. But brand India is taking a hard knock. ThePrint now reports a sharp drop in foreign tourists. Diplomats, expats list these as red flags on their ease-of-living index. Vishvaguru talk will sound hollow if informal whisper networks continue to rate India poorly.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



UNEA-6: OVERVIEW AND RESOLUTIONS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Sixth United Nations Environmental Assembly (UNEA-6) is reaching its conclusion after a week-long deliberation on March 1, 2024.

EXPLANATION:

  • During this crucial assembly, at least 12 resolutions are set to be adopted, with a focus on addressing the pressing global issues of climate change, biodiversity loss, and pollution.

Resolutions and Their Origin

  • Draft Resolutions:
    • The Committee of Whole (CoW), a pivotal component of the UNEA structure, has already endorsed 12 draft resolutions, with nine being new.
    • These resolutions aim to urge member states to take concrete actions against the triple threats of climate change, loss of biodiversity, and pollution.
  • Withdrawn Resolutions:
    • Out of the 24 initially tabled drafts, five have been withdrawn by their proponents.
    • The remaining are undergoing further deliberations.
  • Funding Mechanisms:
    • Three resolutions are dedicated to the administration of funds and funding mechanisms, including those related to the Global Environmental Facility and the organization of UNEA-7 in 2025.

International Deliberations

  • Open-Ended Informal Meetings:
    • Various countries, including Ukraine, Costa Rica, Saudi Arabia, the Netherlands, Ethiopia, and the European Union, hosted “open-ended informal meetings” on the penultimate day.
    • These discussions centered around different resolutions, fostering international cooperation.
  • Clusters of Emphasis:
    • The draft resolutions are divided into four clusters, emphasizing the need for “environmental multilateralism” – collaborative actions and approaches to combat the climate crisis by diverse actors.

Key Resolutions Set for Adoption

  • Chemicals and Waste Management:
    • A resolution on sound management of chemicals and waste is among those set for adoption.
  • Air Quality Improvement:
    • Another resolution focuses on promoting regional cooperation on air pollution to enhance air quality globally.
  • Combatting Sand and Dust Storms:
    • UNEA-6 is also set to consider a new resolution on combating sand and dust storms, recognizing their environmental impact.
  • National Action for Environmental Challenges:
    • A draft resolution calls for fostering national action through increased cooperation between different actors to address environmental challenges.

Additional Endorsements by CoW

  • Role of Regional Forums:
    • The CoW has endorsed a draft emphasizing the role and viability of regional environment ministerial forums and regional offices in achieving multilateral cooperation.
  • Synergies and Cooperation:
    • Another endorsed draft focuses on promoting synergies, cooperation, or collaboration for national implementation of multilateral environmental agreements and other relevant instruments.

Pending Resolution on Environmental Assistance

  • Ukraine’s Proposal: Ukraine has sponsored a resolution calling for environmental assistance and recovery in areas affected by armed conflicts. This resolution is yet to reach the CoW for adoption.

Legal Status of Resolutions

  • While the resolutions play a critical role in guiding the actions of the 180+ member countries, it’s essential to note that they are not legally binding.
  • Instead, they serve as guides for member states in implementing activities and plans impacting the environment and the planet’s wellbeing.

Finalization and Exact Wording

  • The final wording of the resolutions is expected to be determined during their tabling on March 1, marking the official conclusion of UNEA-6.

United Nations Environmental Assembly:

  • It is the governing body of the UN Environment Programme.
  • It is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment.
  • The Assembly is made up of the 193 UN Member States and convenes every two years to advance global environmental governance.
  • It was created in June 2012, during the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, also referred to as RIO+20.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/unea-6-to-consider-12-draft-resolutions-on-its-final-day-94755




GDP VS GVA GROWTH RATES IN Q3

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The recently released data by the National Statistical Office (NSO) on India’s economic performance in the third quarter of 2023-24 has sparked discussions due to a notable divergence between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross Value Added (GVA) growth rates.

EXPLANATION:

  • This divergence, reaching a 10-year high, has raised questions and concerns among economists and policymakers.

Background of the Divergence

  • The 190 Basis Points Gap:
    • In Q3, the gap between GDP and GVA growth rates widened to 190 basis points, the highest in a decade.
    • This divergence is primarily attributed to a significant increase in net taxes and a simultaneous decrease in subsidies.

Surprising GDP Growth in Q3

  • GDP Exceeds Expectations:
    • India’s GDP growth in Q3 reached a six-quarter high of 8.4%, surpassing estimates by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and economists.
    • The unexpected surge in GDP influenced the upward revision of the full-year GDP estimate to 7.6%.
  • Sectoral Growth Highlights:
    • Several sectors, including manufacturing, mining, construction, trade, hotels, transport, and communication, witnessed robust growth.
    • Agriculture, however, experienced a contraction in Q3.

Reasons Behind the Divergence

  • GVA Growth Lags Behind GDP:
    • GVA growth in Q3 was 190 basis points lower than GDP growth, raising suspicions of potential overestimation of GDP.
    • GVA measures national income from the output side, excluding taxes and subsidies, while GDP adds these components.
  • Impact of Lower GDP Deflator:
    • A lower-than-usual annual GDP deflator (1.4% in FY24) has contributed to potentially overstating real growth.
    • The deflator, based on the wholesale price index (WPI), influences the comparison of real economic activity across years.

Factors Contributing to Q3 GDP Surge

  • Sectoral Contributions:
    • Except for agriculture, all major sectors showed substantial growth in Q3, contributing to the overall GDP surge.
    • Manufacturing, mining, and construction witnessed notable expansions.
  • Expenditure Side Support:
    • Investments, particularly in real estate, played a crucial role in supporting GDP growth during Q3.
    • Gross fixed capital formation, indicating investment levels, recorded a growth of 10.6%.

Revisions and Historical Context

  • Revised Growth Rates:
    • Previous financial years’ growth rates underwent revisions, benefiting from a favorable base effect.
    • GDP growth estimates for the current fiscal year were revised upwards, showcasing improved economic performance.
  • Historical Divergence:
    • The divergence between GVA and GDP growth rates is not only limited to Q3 but extends to the full financial year.
    • GVA is expected to grow at sub-7%, while GDP is projected at 7.6% in FY24.

Expectations and Concerns Going Forward

  • Focus on Consumption and Investments:
    • Analysts emphasize the need for a broad-based improvement in consumption growth and private investments.
    • GDP growth, primarily supported by investments, faces challenges with subdued private consumption growth.
  • GDP Deflator Impact on FY25:
    • The GDP deflator’s anticipated growth in FY25 may influence real GDP growth, potentially slowing down economic expansion.
    • Profit growth, input cost dynamics, and government capital expenditure are critical factors to monitor in the coming quarters.

GDP:

  • The GDP measures the monetary measure of all “final” goods and services— those that are bought by the final user— produced in a country in a given period.
  • GDP = private consumption + gross investment + government investment + government spending + (exports-imports)

GVA:

  • The GVA calculates the same national income from the supply side.
  • It does so by adding up all the value added across different sectors.
  • According to the RBI, the GVA of a sector is defined as the value of output minus the value of its intermediary inputs. This “value added” is shared among the primary factors of production, labour and capital.
  • GDP = (GVA) + (Taxes earned by the government) — (Subsidies provided by the government)

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/why-have-gdp-and-gva-growth-rates-diverged-in-q3-9191086/




DISPUTE OVER SHANAN HYDROPOWER PROJECT: PUNJAB’S LEGAL MOVE

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The ongoing legal tussle between Punjab and Himachal Pradesh over the Shanan Hydropower Project has escalated, with the Punjab government urgently approaching the Supreme Court to intervene in the matter.

EXPLANATION:

  • The dispute centers around the impending expiration of a 99-year lease for the Shanan Hydropower Project located in Himachal Pradesh.
  • The Punjab government has filed a suit under Article 131 of the Constitution, seeking the Supreme Court’s intervention to prevent the Himachal Pradesh government from taking control of the Shanan Hydropower Project upon the expiry of the lease.
  • The 99-year lease for the Shanan Hydropower Project is set to expire this month, prompting the urgency in legal proceedings to avoid the Himachal Pradesh government taking over the project.

Historical Background of Shanan Hydropower Project

  • The Shanan Hydropower Project, situated in Jogindernagar, Himachal Pradesh, dates back to 1925.
  • It was constructed during the British era under a lease agreement between Raja Joginder Sen and Col BC Batty.
  • The hydropower project played a crucial role in supplying electricity to undivided Punjab, Lahore, and Delhi before India gained Independence.
  • The Punjab government claims that the Shanan Hydropower Project is in a state of disrepair, alleging that maintenance work was halted by the Punjab government.
  • Punjab asserts ownership and lawful possession of the project, currently under the formative control of the Punjab State Power Corporation Ltd (PSPCL).
  • The legal action is taken under Article 131, which deals with the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction in disputes between states or between the Centre and states.

Legal Demands and Injunctions Sought by Punjab

  • Permanent Prohibitory Injunction: Punjab seeks a permanent injunction, preventing the Himachal Pradesh government from disturbing the lawful possession and smooth functioning of the Shanan Hydropower Project.
  • Mandatory Injunction: Additionally, Punjab urges the Supreme Court to issue a mandatory injunction, directing Himachal Pradesh not to deploy any officer or team to take over the project’s management and control.

Chief Minister’s Advocacy and Historical Injustice Claim

  • Chief Minister of HP raised the issue during his recent visit to Delhi, demanding the immediate transfer of the project to Himachal Pradesh.
  • He also asserted that the project’s allocation to Punjab in 1966, during the reorganization of states, was unjust, given Himachal Pradesh’s status as a Union Territory at the time.

Shanan hydropower project:

  • The Shanan hydropower project in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh is one of the oldest and most important hydroelectric projects in India. It was built by the British in 1925.
  • The project harnesses the power of the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas River, and generates 110 MW of electricity.
  • The project consists of a dam, a powerhouse, a reservoir and a network of canals and tunnels. The project is also a source of irrigation and drinking water for the surrounding areas.
  • The project was leased to the Punjab Government for 99 years by Raja Joginder Singh Bahadur, the then-ruler of Mandi state.
  • The lease agreement will expire in March 2024, and both Himachal Pradesh and Punjab are claiming their rights over the project.

Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:

  • The Supreme Court has original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction.
  • Its exclusive original jurisdiction extends to any dispute
    • between the Government of India and one or more States or
    • between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or
    • between two or more States,
  • if and insofar as the dispute involves any question (whether of law or of fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

SOURCE: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/punjab/punjab-moves-supreme-court-against-himachal-pradeshs-attempt-to-take-control-of-shanan-hydropower-project-596130




GENOME INDIA PROJECT: DECODING THE BLUEPRINT OF DIVERSITY

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The Genome India Project, spearheaded by the Department of Biotechnology, has successfully completed the monumental task of sequencing 10,000 Indian genomes.

EXPLANATION:

  • This ambitious initiative aims to unravel the intricate genetic makeup of a diverse population, offering insights into health, disease, and the unique genetic landscape of the Indian subcontinent.

Creating a Reference Indian Genome

  • Significance of Genome Sequencing: The project’s completion implies the comprehensive analysis of DNA blueprints from 10,000 individuals, establishing a ‘reference’ Indian human genome. This can be likened to creating a detailed map of India, with specificity comparable to political units, geography, and topography.
  • Representativity Challenges: Acknowledging that 10,000 individuals may not fully represent a nation of over a billion, the dataset serves as an essential template, providing a foundation for further exploration and insights.

Applications in Disease Combatting

  • Historical Context: Highlighting India’s earlier foray into genetic research, the article references the discovery in 2009 that identified a genetic variant linked to a high risk of heart failure. The prevalence of such variants is underscored by India’s intricate population structure and caste-based endogamy.
  • Complex Genetic Landscape: The article emphasizes the persistence of rare, harmful genetic variants due to historical factors, emphasizing that the genome sequencing efforts can shed light on diseases influenced by multiple factors.

Challenges and the Path Forward for Genome India

  • Population Diversity and Complexity: Acknowledging India’s close to 4,500 population groups and the historical impact of endogamy, the article underscores the complexity of India’s genetic landscape.
  • Democratizing Genetic Insights: Proposing a democratic approach, the article calls for the findings not to be confined to academia. Instead, it advocates for collaborations with scientists, students, technology companies, ethicists, and social scientists to democratize and advance India’s understanding of its genetic diversity.

Genome India Project:

  • It is a scientific initiative inspired by the Human Genome Project (HGP), an international effort that successfully decoded the entire human genome between 1990 and 2003.
  • The project was started in 2020, aiming to better understand the genetic variations and disease-causing mutations specific to the Indian population, which is one of the most genetically diverse in the world.
  • By sequencing and analyzing these genomes, researchers hope to gain insights into the underlying genetic causes of diseases and develop more effective personalized therapies.
  • The project involves the collaboration of 20 institutions across India and is being led by the Centre for Brain Research at the Indian Institute of Science in Bangalore.
  • The project involved around 20 institutions across India, with the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Hyderabad, serving as lead institutions.
  • The primary goal was to establish a representative genomic database that reflects the genetic diversity of India’s 1.3 billion population, which comprises over 4,600 distinct population groups, many of which are endogamous.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/decoding-the-script-on-the-genome-india-project-and-its-sequencing-10000-indian-genomes/article67899979.ece




INDIA’s INITIATIVE: INTERNATIONAL BIG CAT ALLIANCE (IBCA)

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Union Environment Ministry of India has proposed the establishment of an International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), aiming to address the conservation challenges faced by ‘big cats’ globally.

EXPLANATION:

  • Drawing inspiration from the successful International Solar Alliance, the IBCA is set to play a pivotal role in disseminating conservation practices and creating a collaborative platform.

Global Significance

  • India’s Leadership in Tiger Conservation: India’s prowess in tiger conservation has been globally recognized, positioning the country as a leader in big cat conservation efforts.
  • Scope of Big Cats: The IBCA encompasses iconic species like tigers, lions, leopards, snow leopards, pumas, jaguars, and cheetahs. Except for pumas and jaguars, all these species are found in India.

IBCA Structure and Funding

  • Headquarters and Funding: The IBCA will be headquartered in India, with an initial commitment of ₹150 crore for five years. This financial support underscores India’s dedication to the cause.
  • Corpus Fund: A corpus fund will be established, ensuring a sustainable source of financial support for conservation initiatives. This is a crucial aspect to address the resource gap in many big cat countries.

Membership and Global Participation

  • Current Members: As of now, 16 countries have formally joined the IBCA. With 96 countries worldwide hosting big cats, the alliance is open to additional participants, including conservation organizations, scientific bodies, businesses, and corporates interested in supporting big cats.
  • Collaborative Approach: The IBCA aims to facilitate collaboration and knowledge exchange on an international scale, leveraging India’s experience in evolving effective conservation practices.

Conservation Strategies and Training

  • Technical Know-How Repository: One of the benefits for member countries is access to a central repository for technical know-how. This repository will serve as a valuable resource for implementing successful conservation strategies.
  • Strengthening Initiatives: The IBCA will strengthen existing species-specific intergovernmental platforms, networks, and transnational initiatives on conservation and protection.
  • Training Programs: Frontline staff in member countries will receive training in garnering local support for big cat conservation. This includes research and development in wildlife monitoring, emphasizing a holistic approach.

Community Engagement and Eco-Tourism

  • Empowering Local Communities: The alliance recognizes the importance of involving local communities living near forests. Training programs will encourage and empower them to participate in eco-tourism initiatives and sustainable livelihood opportunities.

Ongoing Initiatives and Future Prospects

  • India-Cambodia Collaboration: An example cited is the memorandum between India and Cambodia to revive Cambodia’s extinct tiger population. This initiative showcases the practical implementation of the alliance’s goals.
  • Potential Tiger Transfer: While discussions about transferring tigers from India to Cambodia have taken place, concrete plans are yet to be finalized, according to Minister Bhupendra Yadav.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-to-set-up-international-big-cat-alliance/article67903303.ece




Day-604 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | POLITY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. The 5th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1954 added Article 35A into the Constitution of India.
    2. The 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023 provided for 33 percent reservation to women in Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry Legislative Assemblies.
    Which of the above-given statements is/are incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 35A was added into the Constitution through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order 1954. Article 35A empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define the State’s ‘permanent residents’ and their special rights and privileges. It was specially devised to save the State subject laws that had already been defined under the Dogra ruler Maharaja Hari Singh’s regime and notified in 1927 and 1932. Under the 1952 Delhi Agreement between Sheikh Abdullah and Jawaharlal Nehru, several provisions of the Constitution were extended to Jammu and Kashmir through the 1954 Presidential Order. Article 35A, not a part of the original Constitution, was conceived under the 1952 Delhi Agreement entered into by Jammu and Kashmir with India. In other words, it is a byproduct of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the 106th CAA, 2023 provided for 33 percent reservation to women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies including Delhi, it did not include such provisions for Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry. On December 12, 2023, the Lok Sabha passed two Bills that provide 33% reservation for women in the Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry Legislative Assemblies. The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation (Second Amendment) Act 2023 reserves one-third of all elected seats in the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly for women. The reservation for women will also apply to the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the J&K Assembly.
    The reservation will be effective once the census conducted after the commencement of the Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be in place for 15 years. However, it will continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. The Constitution bars delimitation before the first census post 2026. Similarly, the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill 2023 reserves one third of all elected seats in the Puducherry Legislative Assembly for women.
    Hence, option C is the correct answer.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 35A was added into the Constitution through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order 1954. Article 35A empowered the Jammu and Kashmir State Legislature to define the State’s ‘permanent residents’ and their special rights and privileges. It was specially devised to save the State subject laws that had already been defined under the Dogra ruler Maharaja Hari Singh’s regime and notified in 1927 and 1932. Under the 1952 Delhi Agreement between Sheikh Abdullah and Jawaharlal Nehru, several provisions of the Constitution were extended to Jammu and Kashmir through the 1954 Presidential Order. Article 35A, not a part of the original Constitution, was conceived under the 1952 Delhi Agreement entered into by Jammu and Kashmir with India. In other words, it is a byproduct of Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Although the 106th CAA, 2023 provided for 33 percent reservation to women in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies including Delhi, it did not include such provisions for Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry. On December 12, 2023, the Lok Sabha passed two Bills that provide 33% reservation for women in the Jammu and Kashmir and Puducherry Legislative Assemblies. The Jammu & Kashmir Reorganisation (Second Amendment) Act 2023 reserves one-third of all elected seats in the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly for women. The reservation for women will also apply to the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the J&K Assembly.
    The reservation will be effective once the census conducted after the commencement of the Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be in place for 15 years. However, it will continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. The Constitution bars delimitation before the first census post 2026. Similarly, the Government of Union Territories (Amendment) Bill 2023 reserves one third of all elected seats in the Puducherry Legislative Assembly for women.
    Hence, option C is the correct answer.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Parliament has the power to take irreversible legislative and non-legislative actions with respect to a state under the Presidential rule.
    2. The Presidential rule is an immediate and a necessary consequence of the imposition of Article 355 in a state.
    3. The President can impose Article 356 in a state only after the recommendation of the governor of that state.
    How many of the above given statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The SC in Article 370 judgment has held that the Parliament has the authority to take actions, legislative or otherwise with irreversible consequences with respect to a state under Presidential rule. The court approved the power of the Parliament to make irreversible and fundamental changes to a state’s polity when it is placed under the President’s rule. The significant executive and legislative alterations concerning Jammu and Kashmir—such as the repeal of its special status, the separation of Ladakh, and its conversion into a Union territory—all transpired during the period of President’s rule.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It is generally held that when Art 355 is imposed in a state, it is followed by imposition of Art 356. But in the case of Manipur, this did not happen. The Manipur CM has told an All Party meeting that Article 355 has been imposed in the state when the violence started. But despite the imposition of Art 355, 356 was not imposed in Manipur. Article 355 of the Constitution says the Centre must protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance to ensure government stability. It allows the Centre to take charge of a state’s law and order enforcement. It is considered a step towards the President’s rule, which gives full control to the President. The fact of the matter is Art 356 is not an immediate and a necessary consequence of 355 imposition.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Art 356 deals with provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States. It says that the President can impose Art 356 on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise,. He can do it when he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
    Hence, the answer is A

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The SC in Article 370 judgment has held that the Parliament has the authority to take actions, legislative or otherwise with irreversible consequences with respect to a state under Presidential rule. The court approved the power of the Parliament to make irreversible and fundamental changes to a state’s polity when it is placed under the President’s rule. The significant executive and legislative alterations concerning Jammu and Kashmir—such as the repeal of its special status, the separation of Ladakh, and its conversion into a Union territory—all transpired during the period of President’s rule.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It is generally held that when Art 355 is imposed in a state, it is followed by imposition of Art 356. But in the case of Manipur, this did not happen. The Manipur CM has told an All Party meeting that Article 355 has been imposed in the state when the violence started. But despite the imposition of Art 355, 356 was not imposed in Manipur. Article 355 of the Constitution says the Centre must protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance to ensure government stability. It allows the Centre to take charge of a state’s law and order enforcement. It is considered a step towards the President’s rule, which gives full control to the President. The fact of the matter is Art 356 is not an immediate and a necessary consequence of 355 imposition.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Art 356 deals with provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States. It says that the President can impose Art 356 on receipt of a report from the Governor of a State or otherwise,. He can do it when he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.
    Hence, the answer is A

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following pairs:
    Features of the Constitution – Countries of Influence
    1. Concurrent List – Australia
    2. Rule of Law – Britain
    3. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency – USSR
    4. Joint sitting of two houses – Canada
    How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Features of the Constitution – Countries of Influence
    1. Concurrent List – Australia
    2. Rule of Law – Britain
    3. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency – Weimar Republic
    4. Joint sitting of two houses – Australia

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Features of the Constitution – Countries of Influence
    1. Concurrent List – Australia
    2. Rule of Law – Britain
    3. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency – Weimar Republic
    4. Joint sitting of two houses – Australia

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used to determine which of the following?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is a legal principle that is used to determine the true nature or purpose of a law, in order to determine which level of government has the authority to enact it. It is a legal doctrine used to determine under which head of power, a piece of legislation falls. Literally Pith means ‘true nature’ and substance means ‘the essential part of something’ as a whole it defines the true nature of the most important part of something. The Doctrine of Pith and Substance comes into picture where the question of separation of powers of legislation arises.
    The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is based on the idea that a law should be evaluated based on its substance or purpose, rather than its form or incidental effects. This means that when a court is determining the validity of a law, it will consider the law’s true purpose or subject matter, rather than any incidental effects that it may have. If a law is found to be within the constitutional authority of the enacting government, it will be upheld as valid. If it is found to be outside the constitutional authority of the enacting government, it will be struck down as invalid. In the State of Bombay and Another V. F.N. Balsara 1951, the SC upheld the Doctrine of Pith and Substance and said that it is important to ascertain the true nature and character of a legislation for the purpose of determining the List under which it falls.
    Hence, option A is correct.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is a legal principle that is used to determine the true nature or purpose of a law, in order to determine which level of government has the authority to enact it. It is a legal doctrine used to determine under which head of power, a piece of legislation falls. Literally Pith means ‘true nature’ and substance means ‘the essential part of something’ as a whole it defines the true nature of the most important part of something. The Doctrine of Pith and Substance comes into picture where the question of separation of powers of legislation arises.
    The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is based on the idea that a law should be evaluated based on its substance or purpose, rather than its form or incidental effects. This means that when a court is determining the validity of a law, it will consider the law’s true purpose or subject matter, rather than any incidental effects that it may have. If a law is found to be within the constitutional authority of the enacting government, it will be upheld as valid. If it is found to be outside the constitutional authority of the enacting government, it will be struck down as invalid. In the State of Bombay and Another V. F.N. Balsara 1951, the SC upheld the Doctrine of Pith and Substance and said that it is important to ascertain the true nature and character of a legislation for the purpose of determining the List under which it falls.
    Hence, option A is correct.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following:
    1. Contempt of court
    2. Incitement to sedition
    3. Anti-national activity
    4. Threat to law and order
    In how many of the above given grounds, the legislature of a state has the power to make laws to put reasonable restrictions on the fundamental rights to freedom of speech and expression given in Article 19 of the Constitution?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Art. 19. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.-
    (1) All citizens shall have the right-
    (a) to freedom of speech and expression
    (2) Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
    Incitement to sedition, Anti national activity, and Threat to law and order are not reasonable grounds under Art 19(2). For contempt of court, both the Parliament and the state legislatures have power to make laws. Entry 14 in concurrent list provides for the power to make laws to states in relation to Contempt of Court excluding that of Supreme Court.
    Hence, the answer is option A.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Art. 19. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.-
    (1) All citizens shall have the right-
    (a) to freedom of speech and expression
    (2) Nothing in sub-clause (a) of clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right conferred by the said sub-clause in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
    Incitement to sedition, Anti national activity, and Threat to law and order are not reasonable grounds under Art 19(2). For contempt of court, both the Parliament and the state legislatures have power to make laws. Entry 14 in concurrent list provides for the power to make laws to states in relation to Contempt of Court excluding that of Supreme Court.
    Hence, the answer is option A.

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TEPID TRADE-OFFS: ON THE WTO 13TH MINISTERIAL CONFERENCE (MC13) IN ABU DHABI

THE CONTEXT: The WTO’s 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) took place from 26 February to 2 March 2024 in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates. Ministers from across the world attended the meeting to review the functioning of the multilateral trading system and to take action on the future work of the WTO, however, it concluded with little progress on key issues that affect global trade.

OUTCOMES:

Ministers representing WTO Members met to discuss a plethora of important topics, ranging from food security and e‑commerce to fisheries subsidies and reform of the WTO, as well as domestic regulations of services and investment facilitation.

I. Accessions: On the first day of MC13, ministers endorsed the accession to the WTO of two least-developed countries—Comoros and Timor-Leste. This brings the organization’s Membership to 166, representing 98 percent of world trade.

II. WTO reform: At MC13, ministers endorsed progress on the WTO reform process, which covers the organization’s deliberative, negotiating and dispute settlement functions.

A. Dispute settlement reform: At MC13, ministers reviewed the valuable contributions made towards fulfilling the commitment of reform. This includes a 36-page draft, setting out reforms to the WTO’s dispute settlement system.

B. Reform of the deliberative and negotiating functions: At MC13, ministers welcomed the work already undertaken to

1. improve the functioning of WTO Councils, Committees and Negotiating Groups

2. enhance the organization’s efficiency and effectiveness

3. facilitate Members’ participation in WTO work

III. E-commerce: At MC13, ministers decided to renew the e‑commerce moratorium until MC14 or 31 March 2026, whichever is earlier.

IV. TRIPS non-violation and situation complaints: The ministers decided to extend also a moratorium on so-called “non-violation” and “situation” complaints under the TRIPS Agreement.

V. Covid 19 related TRIPS waiver: At MC13, ministers took note of the work undertaken and the lack of a consensus on expanding the product scope. Accordingly, these special rules are not going to apply to compulsory licenses for the production of Covid‑19 diagnostics and therapeutics.

VI. Special and differential treatment: Ministers adopted a decision to improve the use of special and differential treatment (S&DT) provisions, particularly those in the Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade and the Agreement on Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures. The decision enhances training opportunities and endorses steps to make the S&DT provisions more effective and operational.

VII. Plurilateral agreements and initiatives: At MC13, Members failed to reach consensus on agriculture and food security as well as further disciplines fisheries subsidies. Plurilateral initiatives (covering less than the full Membership) are, therefore, becoming more prominent.

VIII. Fisheries subsidies: At MC13, ministers welcomed the progress over the past 20 months towards the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (AFS)’s entry into force. As of 1 March 2024, 71 Members have ratified the agreement. A further 39 ratifications are needed to reach the threshold of 110 for the agreement’s entry into force.

IX. Agriculture and food security: Although updating WTO disciplines on agriculture has been on the agenda of Members since 2000, little progress had been made. Prior to MC13, there appeared to be a more positive dynamic. Yet, ministers failed again to reach consensus on the scope, balance and timeline of agriculture negotiations.

ISSUES

  • Shocks to global trading architecture: The world has witnessed significant shocks to the global trading architecture. It includes the ripple effects of conflicts in some parts of the world, the disruptions on critical shipment routes and recalibrations in supply chains to reduce dependence on single suppliers such as China.
  • Issue of free and fair trade: There was rising hope for the 13th Ministerial Conference of WTO to deliver on its mandate amid an increasingly fractious environment for the rules of trade it seeks to enforce. However, the World Trade Organization continues to struggle to foster free and fair trade.
  • Inward looking tendencies: An increasing inward-looking tendency among nations has also catalysed isolationist, tariff-heavy trade policies that is in contrast of WTO’s primary purpose of open trade for the benefit of all. The Abu Dhabi declaration does refer to some of the challenges, such as the need to ensure open, inclusive and resilient supply chains, but not much has been achieved.
  • Divergence among members: Divergences between the WTO’s 164 member-countries persisted on most issues carried forward from Geneva (MC12), including areas of particular interest to India, such as a permanent solution in agriculture for public stock holding to ensure domestic food security or subsidies to the fisheries sector.
  • Issue over Dispute Resolution Body: Prospects for the reform of WTO’s dispute resolution body has remained defunct for four years. With countries such as India pushing for a two-tier dispute settlement system, the ministerial meeting ended with countries deciding to have a fully and well-functioning dispute settlement system accessible to all members by the end of 2024.
  • No consensus on several issues: Despite intense negotiations over five days, the 13th Ministerial Conference (MC13) of the World Trade Organization (WTO) ended without consensus on some of the key issues.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Reformative Approach: A permanent long-term solution based on reformative approach having a rule-based order for members is the need of the hour to preserve global trade governance.
  • Regular Meeting of the Members: The other long-term solutions include regular meetings of the WTO members with the Appellate body to ensure effective communication and immediate redressal mechanism. It is essential for countries to collaborate and engage in constructive dialogue to address the challenges and opportunities in the evolving global trade landscape.
  • Dispute resolution Restoration: Developing countries, including India should advocate for the restoration of the WTO’s dispute settlement mechanism (DSM) to its previous functional state.
  • Consensus based decision: Any discussion on WTO reforms must incorporate consensus-based decision-making. Unilateral decisions should not constitute as a means of arbitrary or unjustifiable discrimination for restriction on international trade.
  • India’s role: India should actively participate in advocating for reforms in order to achieve its ambition to become a global leader in international trade. It will reflect its commitment to foster a thriving and inclusive global trade environment.

THE CONCLUSION:

The 13th ministerial meeting of the WTO grapples with the critical issue of the crippled dispute settlement mechanism (DSM), lack of consensus on key issues and many more. In this context there is an urgent need for WTO reforms with concerted efforts and global attention to ensure the fairness, transparency, and effectiveness of the multilateral trading system.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q. What are the direct and indirect subsidies provided to farm sector in India? Discuss the issues raised by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in relation to agricultural subsidies. (2023)

Q. What have been the recent issue related to dispute settlement at WTO? Have the policies at WTO worked against the interest of emerging economies like India? (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q. The recent WTO’s 13th Ministerial Conference has failed to reach consensus on many key issues which is reflecting serious division among the institutions and has raised questions about its relevance in today’s world. Comment.

Q. Discuss the reforms needed for the World Trade Organisation (WTO) to address challenges as WTO members fail to narrow differences on reforming dispute settlement system.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/tepid-trade-offs-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-wto-13th-ministerial-conference-mc13-in-abu-dhabi/article67913727.ece




THE LONG ROAD TO REFORMING INDIA’S POLITICAL PARTY SYSTEM

THE CONTEXT: The recent political defections and factional recognition in India have raised concerns about the effectiveness of the country’s anti-defection law. Deliberate efforts are needed to enhance party discipline, promote inner-party democracy, and address loopholes in the legal framework. The Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Speaker’s decisions and the call for reviewing the anti-defection law are crucial steps to ensure the smooth functioning of democracy.

ISSUES:

  • Efficacy of the Anti-Defection Law: The political events in Maharashtra, Bihar, and Andhra Pradesh have raised questions about the effectiveness of the anti-defection law. The mass defection of MLAs and recognition of factions within parties without disqualifications have cast doubt on the ability of the law to curb political defections and maintain party discipline.
  • Interpretation and Application of the Law: The Maharashtra Speaker’s understanding of the anti-defection law shows difficulties in enforcing it. The Speaker’s recognition of factions as legitimate parties reveals a potential loophole in the law.
  • Inner-Party Democracy: Party defections raise concerns about the lack of democracy. Motivations include personal ambition and issues with decision-making, governance, and democratic processes. Addressing these problems could reduce defections.
  • Need for Political Party Reform: The text highlights the need for political parties to implement reforms that promote democracy. The Law Commission of India’s recommendations, which include mandatory internal elections and greater accountability, are suggested solutions to ensure more democratic practices within parties.
  • Review and Reform of the Anti-Defection Law: The Speaker’s review of the anti-defection law presents an opportunity for comprehensive reform. This could better reflect India’s political realities and preserve the integrity of democratic institutions.
  • Preservation of Inner-Party Dissent vs. Party Discipline: The issue of preserving inner-party dissent raises questions about balancing individual legislators’ rights to dissent and the need for party discipline.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Clear Guidelines for “Split” vs. “Merger“: Reinstating clear and stringent criteria for a split or merger under the anti-defection law is necessary to prevent opportunistic defections. The Dinesh Goswami Committee’s recommendations should be followed to ensure these terms are clearly defined and not misused.
  • Empowering the Election Commission: The 170th Report of the Law Commission of India recommends that the Election Commission be given the power to settle defection cases. This would ensure that such disputes are resolved in a neutral and timely manner instead of being left to Speakers affiliated with political parties.
  • Mandatory Internal Elections and Structures: Political parties must conduct internal elections and adhere to democratic practices within their structure, as the 255th Law Commission of India proposed. This includes selection processes for candidates and executive committees.
  • Transparency and Accountability: Political parties should release yearly reports detailing their internal democratic processes, executive committee decisions, and outcomes of internal elections. This can promote transparency and accountability within parties.
  • Penalties for Non-compliance: Political parties failing to comply with democratic processes should face clear penalties, including fines and de-registration, to ensure compliance.
  • Expediting Judicial Review: Create a fast-track system for judicial review of anti-defection decisions to resolve such cases quickly and prevent prolonged political uncertainty or misuse of the law for political purposes.

THE CONCLUSION:

It is imperative to reform India’s anti-defection law to address the complications associated with political defections. To effectively uphold democratic values, it is crucial to scrutinize the inner-party democracy and transparent processes within political parties. The Speaker’s role in reviewing the law provides a timely opportunity to make significant changes in legislative frameworks.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) Discuss the role of Presiding Officers of state legislatures in maintaining order and impartiality in conducting legislative work and in facilitating best democratic practices. (2023)

Q.2) ‘Once a speaker, always a speaker’! Do you think this practice should be adopted to impart objectivity to the office of the Speaker of Lok Sabha? What could be its implications for the robust functioning of parliamentary business in India? (2020)

Q.3) “There is a need to simplify procedures for disqualifying persons found guilty of corrupt practices under the Representation of Peoples Act”. Comment. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) Discuss the challenges of political defections in India and their implications on the anti-defection law. How can promoting inner-party democracy and implementing legal reforms enhance the integrity of the legislative process?

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-long-road-to-reforming-indias-political-party-system/article67910936.ece