WSDP Bulletin (20/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Bacteria could help turn CO2 to rock under extreme conditions READ MORE

2. A recently formed ocean inside Saturn’s moon Mimas READ MORE

3. Go back to dictionary meaning of ‘forest’: Supreme Court READ MORE

4. Ladakh leaders call off hunger strike as MHA agrees to discuss Statehood, constitutional safeguards READ MORE

5. Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act 2023: States, UTs must act as per definition in TN Godavarman judgement, says SC READ MORE

6. Only 32 Indian cities had clean air this January, Delhi, Bhagalpur most polluted READ MORE

7. Central Asian Flyway recognised to protect over 600 migratory bird species READ MORE

8. ISRO’s latest launch: Why is the GSLV rocket nicknamed ‘naughty boy’? READ MORE

9. Gemini Pro 1.5 with 1 million tokens surpasses GPT-4 Turbo: What does that mean? READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. The tribal communities of central India: Challenges and way forward READ MORE

2. Gender disparity in Indian science READ MORE

3. La Nina impacted air quality in India in the winter of 2022: What a new study says READ MORE

4. Bangladesh experienced 185 extreme weather events between 2000 and 2019: ICCCAD report READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Uttarakhand UCC pits vulnerable young couples against the might of the state READ MORE

2. Transparency in poll funding remains a challenge READ MORE

3. Undermining the right to learn READ MORE

4. The implications of the Supreme Court ruling READ MORE

5. Tamil Nadu: The power struggle intensifies READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Can safe drinking water improve children’s educational outcomes? READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Ties across the sea: On the India-UAE close relationship READ MORE

2. The rise of ‘intelligence diplomacy’ in a time of global security challenges READ MORE

3. India-UAE relations look beyond the diaspora READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Denying MSP legal guarantee threat to India’s food security READ MORE

2. What does a guaranteed MSP mean? READ MORE

3. MSP proposal: Govt’s offer fails to convince farmer leaders READ MORE

4. Farmers’ demands are impractical and unrealistic READ MORE

5. Agriculture Infrastructure Fund: A catalyst for India’s agri-future READ MORE

6. Skill development: Key to India’s shifting job market READ MORE

7. Balancing welfare and fiscal responsibility READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Warming up to climate change: How does climate change impact extreme weather events? READ MORE

2. Air pollution needs decentralised, micro solutions READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Hundred years ago, Satyendra Nath Bose changed physics forever READ MORE

2. Recalibrating merit in the age of Artificial Intelligence READ MORE

3. Why big data is becoming small READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Misplaced priorities: On the scrapping of the Free Movement Regime between India and Myanmar READ MORE    

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Chandigarh mayor polls: Presiding officer admitted he tampered ballots, must be prosecuted, orders Supreme Court READ MORE

2. The Role of Discipline in Education READ MORE

3. Basant asks us to shift from wanting to giving READ MORE

4. ‘Triple A’ personality: Anant, Akash, Anand READ MORE

5. The mind and soul READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. As the benefits are more than the cost of the free movement regime between India and Myanmar hence, it should not be scrapped. Critically examine.

2. The Supreme Court is right in striking down electoral bonds for not being transparent, but it does not help bring transparency into electoral funding in any manner. Examine.

3. The larger objectives of enhancing food security, increasing farmers’ income and reducing dependence on imports can be achieved if the glaring anomalies in the MSP regime are removed. Comment.

4. Discuss the importance of skill-based education to bridging the gap between potential and realisation in a job market increasingly favouring specialised technical skills.

5. The distribution of power between the Centre and states as put forth by the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution has created a fiscal gap and led to a vertical fiscal imbalance. Examine.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.
  • India-UAE ties are also built on a bedrock of history and cultural engagement that includes centuries-old maritime trade and a diaspora that contributes about 18% of India’s global remittances.
  • While India’s technological prowess and the UAE’s positioning as a trade and industry hub bring complementarities, the changes in their polity and societies bring possible friction points.
  • The free movement regime between India and Myanmar had more benefits than costs.
  • The idea of neighbourly relations and borders was tied not just to the interest of national security for the post-colonial nation-state but also to the interests of the people in border areas and their imagined histories.
  • The Agreement for an Intergovernmental Framework on the India-Middle East Economic Corridor paves the way for multilateral cooperation between India and the UAE.
  • Recalibrating meritocracy in the face of AI advancements demands a sophisticated understanding of the interplay between technology and societal structures.
  • The Supreme Court is right in striking down electoral bonds for not being transparent, but it does not help bring transparency into electoral funding in any manner.
  • Governments (States and Centre) have to find comprehensive long-term solutions to the problems confronting farmers and their livelihoods, climate change, food inflation and the demands of food and nutrition security.
  • The larger objectives of enhancing food security, increasing farmers’ income and reducing dependence on imports can be achieved if the glaring anomalies in the MSP regime are removed.
  • India needs to think of alternative initiative(s) to ensure its place in the international domain, as it has come up with the idea of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, which seems to be gaining momentum.
  • To prevent the influence of money in elections in the future, we need regulations for donations, spending limits, public funding, and disclosure.
  • The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund aims to improve India’s agricultural infrastructure by providing incentives and financial support for medium to long-erm debt financing.
  • Skill-based education is paramount to bridging the gap between potential and realisation in a job market increasingly favouring specialised technical skills.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.

50-WORD TALK

  • As India stands on the brink of an era of transformation, it is vital to rethink education, give priority to on-the-job training, and embrace apprenticeships to shape a workforce that not only possesses theoretical knowledge but also has the practical tech-based skills necessary to gain a competitive advantage and thrive in the dynamic landscape of the country’s economy.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



ASHOK GULATI WRITES ON FARMERS’ PROTEST: POLICIES FAVOUR THE CONSUMER, NOT THE PRODUCER

THE CONTEXT: Farmers in India, particularly from Punjab, are protesting for higher income stability through demands such as legally binding minimum support prices based on the Swaminathan formula. They also seek loan waivers, pensions, and wage reforms. The situation is fraught with economic and political complexities, especially during elections.

THE ISSUES:

  • Demand for Legal Guarantee of MSP: Farmers demand that the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) be legally binding to ensure they receive a fair price for their produce. They want MSPs fixed according to the Swaminathan formula, which suggests a 50% profit over the comprehensive cost (Cost C2).
  • Current MSP Formula: The current government policy sets MSP at a minimum of 50% margin over the Cost A2+FL, which does not include imputed rent on owned land or interest on owned capital. Farmers are demanding a shift to the Cost C2 calculation, which would raise MSPs by approximately 25 to 30% for most crops.
  • Additional Economic Demands: Beyond MSP, farmers are also demanding loan waivers, pensions for farmers and agricultural laborers, a minimum wage rate of Rs 700/day, and the inclusion of MGNREGA workers to work on farmers’ fields.
  • Fiscal and Economic Implications: Accepting the farmers’ demands could significantly affect the government’s finances (fiscal pressure) and lead to food inflation.
  • Need for Diversification: The future of Indian agriculture and the potential for increasing farmers’ incomes lies in diversifying into sectors like livestock, fisheries, and horticulture, which have been growing without MSP support.
  • Policy Reforms: Removing bans on agri-exports, stocking limits on private trade, and selling wheat and rice below the economic cost of the Food Corporation of India (FCI) are considered anti-farmer policies.
  • Subsidy Reorientation: There is a call to reorient subsidies towards producers rather than consumers, suggesting that a more significant portion of subsidies should support farmers directly, for example, through a price stabilization fund or policies like PM-Kisan.
  • Balancing Interests: Policymakers need to balance the interests of producers and consumers, especially in election times when various groups exert pressure on their economic well-being.
  • Rational Policy Making: Rational policy-making is advised to keep emotions and politics out of negotiations and focuses on the long-term sustainability of the agricultural sector and the economy.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Legalization of MSPs: While making MSPs legally binding has been proposed, the government must carefully evaluate the fiscal implications. This could be selectively implemented for crops where market volatility is extremely high, providing a safety net for farmers while avoiding blanket policies that might strain the economy.
  • Implementing the Swaminathan Committee Recommendations: This involves fixing MSPs at levels that ensure a fair profit margin for farmers based on the comprehensive cost of production (Cost C2), thus incentivizing farming as a profession.
  • Expanding MSP to More Crops: MSP could be cautiously expanded to include additional crops, potentially even beyond the traditional 23 crops, to ensure a wider safety net for farmers.
  • Rationalizing Subsidies: Redirect subsidies from consumer-focused to producer-focused, ensuring a larger share of financial support is directed toward farmers, thereby aiding them in lowering production costs and increasing income.
  • Investment in Agriculture Infrastructure: Improve storage, transportation, and marketing infrastructure to reduce post-harvest losses, give farmers better market access, and get better prices for their produce.
  • Strengthening Farmer Organizations: Encourage the formation and strengthening of farmer cooperatives and producer organizations that can empower farmers to have greater control over their products’ production, processing, and marketing.

THE CONCLUSION:

Reorienting policies to support agricultural diversification, productivity, and market access is the way forward to increasing farmer incomes sustainably. Rationalizing subsidies, investing in infrastructure, and creating equitable trade policies could balance farmer demands with economic pragmatism.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) What are the main bottlenecks in India’s upstream and downstream processes of marketing agricultural products? (2022)

Q.2) What are the challenges and opportunities of the food processing sector in the country? How can the farmers’ income be substantially increased by encouraging food processing? (2020)

Q.3) Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non-farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India (2015)

Q.4) Given the declining average size of land holdings in India, which has made agriculture non-viable for most farmers, should contract farming and land leasing be promoted in agriculture? Critically evaluate the pros and cons. (2015)

Q.5) There is also a point of view that agriculture produce market committees (APMCs) set up under the state acts have not only impeded the development of agriculture but also have been the cause of food inflation in India. Critically examine. (2014)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) Critically assess India’s current agricultural subsidies regime concerning its producer vs. consumer focus. Discuss a reoriented subsidy policy that could align to double farmers’ incomes while ensuring food affordability for consumers.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/faremer-protest-farmer-income-haryan-punjab-farmers-at-delhi-borders-msp-legal-guarantee-9168348/




AFTER SC ELECTORAL BOND VERDICT, TIME TO CLEAN UP

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court’s judgment on electoral bonds highlights the need for electoral finance reform, addressing money’s political influence and the legal regime’s dichotomy. The judgment emphasizes the importance of transparency and consultation in the democratic process.

THE ISSUES:

  • Influence of Money on Politics: The Supreme Court’s judgment highlights money’s direct and indirect influence on electoral politics, which can create barriers to entry for new candidates and political parties, particularly those representing marginalized communities.
  • Regulation Discrepancies: There is a dichotomy in the legal regime where contributions to political parties are regulated but not to individual candidates. Conversely, the law regulates expenditures by candidates but not by political parties.
  • Need for Comprehensive Regulation: Experts suggest that future regulation must address four key aspects: regulation of donations, expenditure limits, public financing, and disclosure requirements.
  • International Comparisons: Different countries have different norms and experiments with electoral finance. For example, the US restricts contributions based on the donor type but does not regulate political party expenditure, whereas the UK does the opposite.
  • Public Financing: The text mentions Germany’s model of public financing based on a party’s importance and the “democracy vouchers” experiment in Seattle, US, as innovative approaches to campaign finance.
  • Disclosure vs. Anonymity: The balance between transparency and anonymity is a contentious issue, as seen in the rejection of electoral bonds in India, which aimed to anonymize donations to political parties.
  • Lack of Consultation: The government’s decision to implement electoral bonds without consultation with other political parties or the public is seen as a significant oversight.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Regulation of Donations: There should be clear rules on who can donate and how much they can donate to political parties to prevent undue influence by a few large donors. This could include limiting contributions from individuals and corporations and banning certain types of donors, such as foreign entities.
  • Expenditure Limits: Implementing expenditure limits for political parties can prevent a financial arms race and ensure a level playing field. For example, the UK has a cap on how much political parties can spend per seat, which could be a model to consider.
  • Public Financing: Exploring public financing options, such as the German model, where parties receive funds based on their importance in the political system or the “democracy vouchers” system used in Seattle, US, where voters are given vouchers to donate to candidates of their choice.
  • Disclosure Requirements: Strengthening disclosure requirements to ensure transparency in political donations. This would involve making it mandatory for political parties to disclose their funding sources, allowing voters to make informed decisions. The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (IDEA’s) Political Finance Database is a global resource that includes comparative political finance data. It covers regulations on political finance, including disclosure requirements. The database outlines rules on financial reporting, oversight of political finance regulations, and sanctions available for breaches, providing a comprehensive view of disclosure practices in various countries.
  • Strengthening Electoral Institutions: Increasing funding for the Election Commission of India (ECI) and changing its funding status to ensure its independence and effectiveness in overseeing elections and enforcing regulations. The legal backing of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) could be enhanced to make its provisions enforceable by law, allowing for appropriate penalties for violations by political parties or candidates.
  • Addressing Populism and Vote-Buying: Introducing legislation to cap populist announcements by political parties, like the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, could help create a level playing field and prevent unsustainable populist measures. The popular initiative was undertaken in the Philippines to combat vote-selling. This initiative involved asking voters to make a simple, unenforceable promise not to accept money from politicians or to promise to vote according to their conscience, even if they do accept money.

THE CONCLUSION:

The ruling against electoral bonds calls for a comprehensive approach to electoral finance reform, including regulation of donations, expenditure limits, public financing, and disclosure requirements. Broad consultations with stakeholders are crucial to ensure the continued health of India’s democracy.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 To enhance the quality of democracy in India, the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms, and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (2017)

Q.2 In light of the recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (2018)

Q.3 Judicial Legislation is antithetical to the doctrine of separation of powers as envisaged in the Indian Constitution. In this context, justify filing many public interest petitions praying for issuing guidelines to executive authorities. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Considering the Supreme Court’s recent judgment on electoral bonds, critically examine the role of transparency in election financing in India. Evaluate the impact of this judgment on the existing legal framework for political donations and expenditures.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-after-sc-electoral-bond-verdict-time-clean-up-9165700/https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/40-years-ago/february-17-forty-years-ago-ambush-on-crpf-9165720/




Day-595 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMICS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Which of the following statements describes the term ‘de minimis’, which is often heard in the news in context to economy?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The World Trade Organisation (WTO) defines de minimis as the “minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing”.
    The present rules and commitments on agriculture are often called the “Uruguay Round reform programme” — they were negotiated in the Uruguay Round and they include reductions in subsidies and protection as well as other disciplines on the trade.
    The main conceptual consideration is that there are basically two categories of domestic support —
    ● Green Box: Support with no, or minimal, distortive effect on trade.
    ● Amber Box: Trade-distorting support
    Other than that, there is:
    Blue Box: Direct payments under production limiting programmes (often referred to as “Blue Box” measures) are exempt from commitments if such payments are made on fixed areas and yield or a fixed number of livestock.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The World Trade Organisation (WTO) defines de minimis as the “minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing”.
    The present rules and commitments on agriculture are often called the “Uruguay Round reform programme” — they were negotiated in the Uruguay Round and they include reductions in subsidies and protection as well as other disciplines on the trade.
    The main conceptual consideration is that there are basically two categories of domestic support —
    ● Green Box: Support with no, or minimal, distortive effect on trade.
    ● Amber Box: Trade-distorting support
    Other than that, there is:
    Blue Box: Direct payments under production limiting programmes (often referred to as “Blue Box” measures) are exempt from commitments if such payments are made on fixed areas and yield or a fixed number of livestock.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following conditions:
    1. Increase in expenditure by the government.
    2. Reduction in the interest rates on loans.
    3. Increase in crude oil prices.
    4. Increase in income tax.
    How many of the above-mentioned conditions may result in demand-pull inflation?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Demand-pull inflation’ is caused by developments on the demand side of the economy, while ‘cost-push inflation’ is caused by the effect of higher input costs on the supply side of the economy.
    As demand for a particular good or service increases, the available supply decreases. When fewer items are available, consumers are willing to pay more to obtain the item—as outlined in the economic principle of supply and demand. The result is higher prices due to demand-pull inflation.
    On the other hand, the cost-push inflation occurs when prices increase due to increases in production costs, such as raw materials and wages. The demand for goods is unchanged while the supply of goods declines due to the higher costs of production. As a result, the added costs of production are passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices for the finished goods.

    ● Increase in government expenditure may result in stimulating the aggregate demand in the economy and that can drive up the prices of the goods.
    ● Reduction in the interest rate on loan, a form of expansionary monetary policy, would also create demand-pull inflation in the economy due to increased demand for goods and services.
    ● Increase in crude oil price would increase the raw material cost. Thus, it is a form of cost-push inflation that indicates supply-side bottlenecks.
    ● An increase in income tax is likely to result in decrease in the aggregate demand as it would reduce the disposable income available with an individual. Thus, it would not lead to demand-pull inflation.
    Factors leading to cost-push inflation:
    Thus, while demand-pull inflation influences the demand-side dynamics, resulting in price increase, cost-push inflation influences the supply-side dynamics.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Demand-pull inflation’ is caused by developments on the demand side of the economy, while ‘cost-push inflation’ is caused by the effect of higher input costs on the supply side of the economy.
    As demand for a particular good or service increases, the available supply decreases. When fewer items are available, consumers are willing to pay more to obtain the item—as outlined in the economic principle of supply and demand. The result is higher prices due to demand-pull inflation.
    On the other hand, the cost-push inflation occurs when prices increase due to increases in production costs, such as raw materials and wages. The demand for goods is unchanged while the supply of goods declines due to the higher costs of production. As a result, the added costs of production are passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices for the finished goods.

    ● Increase in government expenditure may result in stimulating the aggregate demand in the economy and that can drive up the prices of the goods.
    ● Reduction in the interest rate on loan, a form of expansionary monetary policy, would also create demand-pull inflation in the economy due to increased demand for goods and services.
    ● Increase in crude oil price would increase the raw material cost. Thus, it is a form of cost-push inflation that indicates supply-side bottlenecks.
    ● An increase in income tax is likely to result in decrease in the aggregate demand as it would reduce the disposable income available with an individual. Thus, it would not lead to demand-pull inflation.
    Factors leading to cost-push inflation:
    Thus, while demand-pull inflation influences the demand-side dynamics, resulting in price increase, cost-push inflation influences the supply-side dynamics.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements about the types of unemployment:
    1. In Structural unemployment, the marginal productivity of labour becomes zero.
    2. Disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector.
    3. Frictional unemployment is a temporary period of joblessness resulting from voluntary employment transitions.
    How many of the above statements are incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the jobs that are available and the people looking for work. This mismatch could be because jobseekers don’t have the skills required to do the available jobs, or because the available jobs are a long way from the jobseekers.
    Disguised unemployment” or “hidden unemployment” describes a section of the labour force engaged in duplicate activity with little to no production. In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed but are actually not making a meaningful contribution to the economy. Thus, the marginal productivity of labour is zero. Disguised unemployment does not affect an economy’s aggregate economic output.
    Statement 2 is correct: In developing economies, the disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector, where a greater number of workers are employed than required.
    Statement 3 is correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
    Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job. Businesses also spend time searching for suitable candidates to fill job vacancies. As a result, people looking for jobs are not matched immediately with vacancies and may experience a period of temporary unemployment.
    This type of unemployment is generally for a shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the jobs that are available and the people looking for work. This mismatch could be because jobseekers don’t have the skills required to do the available jobs, or because the available jobs are a long way from the jobseekers.
    Disguised unemployment” or “hidden unemployment” describes a section of the labour force engaged in duplicate activity with little to no production. In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed but are actually not making a meaningful contribution to the economy. Thus, the marginal productivity of labour is zero. Disguised unemployment does not affect an economy’s aggregate economic output.
    Statement 2 is correct: In developing economies, the disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector, where a greater number of workers are employed than required.
    Statement 3 is correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
    Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job. Businesses also spend time searching for suitable candidates to fill job vacancies. As a result, people looking for jobs are not matched immediately with vacancies and may experience a period of temporary unemployment.
    This type of unemployment is generally for a shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), consider the following statements:
    1. The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “debtors in possession”, as opposed to the previous position of “creditors in control’.
    2. The loan recovery rate of large corporates has substantially increased under this system.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the umbrella legislation for insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals.
    The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “creditors in control” as opposed to the previous position of “debtors in possession,”, and as a result, management control is transferred from the hands of the current owners to a new management headed by interim resolution professional (IRP) who practically acts under the supervision and control of Committee of Creditors (CoC) for all purposes.
    The CoC is formed by the Interim Resolution Professional once the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is initiated against a Corporate Debtor. The CoC is a committee consisting of financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
    A time-bound resolution of insolvency was the main objective. It aimed to resolve insolvency proceedings within 180 days (extendable by 90 days).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the objective of the resolution, the recovery rate of loans has been quite low.
    ● The Financial Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 28, 2023 summarises the Corporate Insolvency Process (CIRP): “Since the inception of the IBC, a total of 2,808 corporate debtors (CDs) have been rescued and 2,249 CDs have been referred for liquidation till September 2023. The total admitted claims till September 23 are 7,058. As many as 2,001 are pending, of which 36 (out of 37) for seven years, 502 for six years. During the resolution plan approval, only about 15% is paid by the purchaser and the repayment takes years without any further interest collected by the banks.”
    ● The FSR report mentions that realizable value to the creditors is only 16.9% in 2020-21, 22.4% in 2021-22 and 37.1% in 2022-23.
    ● Banks or financial creditors are recovering an average of just 10-15% in NCLT-settled cases of large corporates.
    ● As of September 2023, 67% of ongoing CIRP cases have crossed the timeline of 270 days. The average time taken for admission during FY21 and FY22 was 468 days and 650 days, respectively.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the umbrella legislation for insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals.
    The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “creditors in control” as opposed to the previous position of “debtors in possession,”, and as a result, management control is transferred from the hands of the current owners to a new management headed by interim resolution professional (IRP) who practically acts under the supervision and control of Committee of Creditors (CoC) for all purposes.
    The CoC is formed by the Interim Resolution Professional once the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is initiated against a Corporate Debtor. The CoC is a committee consisting of financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
    A time-bound resolution of insolvency was the main objective. It aimed to resolve insolvency proceedings within 180 days (extendable by 90 days).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the objective of the resolution, the recovery rate of loans has been quite low.
    ● The Financial Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 28, 2023 summarises the Corporate Insolvency Process (CIRP): “Since the inception of the IBC, a total of 2,808 corporate debtors (CDs) have been rescued and 2,249 CDs have been referred for liquidation till September 2023. The total admitted claims till September 23 are 7,058. As many as 2,001 are pending, of which 36 (out of 37) for seven years, 502 for six years. During the resolution plan approval, only about 15% is paid by the purchaser and the repayment takes years without any further interest collected by the banks.”
    ● The FSR report mentions that realizable value to the creditors is only 16.9% in 2020-21, 22.4% in 2021-22 and 37.1% in 2022-23.
    ● Banks or financial creditors are recovering an average of just 10-15% in NCLT-settled cases of large corporates.
    ● As of September 2023, 67% of ongoing CIRP cases have crossed the timeline of 270 days. The average time taken for admission during FY21 and FY22 was 468 days and 650 days, respectively.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the ‘fiscal drag’, government revenue increases without an explicit increase in tax rates.
    Statement-II: Inflation and earnings growth may push more taxpayers into higher tax brackets, thus undermining spending.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Fiscal Drag occurs when earnings growth and inflation push more earners into higher tax brackets. Consequently, the government’s tax revenue rises without any increases in tax rates. If earners pay a higher percentage of income in tax, their spending declines.
    This fiscal drag has the effect of reducing (or limiting increase) the aggregate demand. The greater tax burden on incomes dampens spending, i.e., it undermines demand. This is a drag on the economy caused by taxation, i.e., it is a fiscal drag.
    It works as automatic brakes that a progressive tax system applies to aggregate demand. Fiscal drag slows down or tames a rapidly expanding economy.
    Progressive tax is a system that taxes higher earners more than lower earners. In other words, higher earners pay a greater percentage of their income in tax than lower earners.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Fiscal Drag occurs when earnings growth and inflation push more earners into higher tax brackets. Consequently, the government’s tax revenue rises without any increases in tax rates. If earners pay a higher percentage of income in tax, their spending declines.
    This fiscal drag has the effect of reducing (or limiting increase) the aggregate demand. The greater tax burden on incomes dampens spending, i.e., it undermines demand. This is a drag on the economy caused by taxation, i.e., it is a fiscal drag.
    It works as automatic brakes that a progressive tax system applies to aggregate demand. Fiscal drag slows down or tames a rapidly expanding economy.
    Progressive tax is a system that taxes higher earners more than lower earners. In other words, higher earners pay a greater percentage of their income in tax than lower earners.

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SAFEGUARDING AVIAN MIGRANTS: INDIA’s CENTRAL ASIAN FLYWAY INITIATIVE RECOGNIZED

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The recently concluded Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP 14) witnessed a landmark development with the adoption of the Initiative for the Central Asian Flyway.

EXPLANATION:

  • Propelled by India and supported by BirdLife International and 30 other nations spanning from Russian Siberia to the Maldives, this initiative marks a crucial step towards the conservation of over 600 migratory bird species.

India’s Leadership in Conservation:

  • Introduced by India during CMS COP 14, the Initiative for the Central Asian Flyway showcases India’s commitment to environmental conservation.
  • Led by the Inspector General of Forests, Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, the initiative garnered widespread support as a comprehensive effort to protect the diverse migratory bird populations traversing the Central Asian Flyway.

Objectives of the Initiative:

  • Central Asian Flyway (CAF) covers a large area of Eurasia between the Arctic and Indian Oceans.
  • This flyway comprises several important migration routes of birds.
  • Including India, there are 30 countries under the Central Asian Flyway.
  • The primary goal of the Central Asian Flyway initiative is to restore and maintain the favorable conservation status of migratory species populations and facilitate their ecological connectivity within the flyway.
  • The ambitious initiative aims to address the alarming decline in populations of over 240 migratory bird species within the Central Asian Flyway.
  • Notably, 48 of these species are classified as Globally Threatened or Near Threatened.

Key Threats to Migratory Birds:

  • BirdLife International highlighted critical threats faced by migratory birds, including severe habitat loss, overexploitation, and illegal killing.
  • Additionally, the rapid development of energy infrastructure poses a significant risk, leading to collisions and electrocutions.
  • These threats make coordinated conservation efforts imperative to safeguard both the ecological balance and the cultural significance of migratory birds to local communities.

Scope of the Central Asian Flyway:

  • Encompassing a vast geographical range, the Central Asian Flyway includes countries from Russian Siberia to the Maldives.
  • The list comprises Afghanistan, India, China, Iran, Kazakhstan, the Maldives, and 25 other nations.
  • The migratory bird species relying on this flyway connect various ecosystems and contribute to the cultural heritage of communities that have coexisted with them for centuries.

Capacity Building and Collaborative Conservation:

  • The Central Asian Flyway initiative is envisioned as a platform for capacity building, knowledge sharing, research, and coordination among all participating countries.
  • The initiative seeks to foster collaboration to address the diverse challenges faced by migratory bird populations, emphasizing the importance of joint efforts in conservation.

Programme of Work and Future Outlook:

  • The initiative commits to developing and enforcing a Programme of Work aligned with CMS resolutions, decisions, and plans.
  • As it progresses, the initiative aims to provide a robust framework for coordinated action, ensuring the sustainable conservation of the 600+ species of migratory birds utilizing the Central Asian Flyway.

CMS:

  • It is an intergovernmental treaty under the UNEP- popularly known as Bonn Convention.
  • It aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and avian migratory species throughout their range.
  • It lays the legal foundation to conduct conservation measures on a global scale.
  • It was signed in 1979 and in force since 1983.
  • As of 1 March 2022, the CMS has 133 Parties.
  • India is also a party to CMS since 1983.
  • The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (COP14) was hosted by the Government of Uzbekistan, in Samarkand from 12-17 February 2024.

Birdlife International:

  • It is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources
  • It is world’s largest conservation partnerships for conservation of birds and their habitats.
  • It was earlier known as International Committee for Bird Preservation.

Conclusion:

  • India’s leadership in championing the Central Asian Flyway initiative reflects a shared commitment to protecting biodiversity and preserving the invaluable contributions of migratory birds. As nations collaborate under this initiative, it not only addresses the immediate threats faced by these birds but also lays the foundation for a sustainable and harmonious coexistence between migratory species and the diverse landscapes they traverse. The Central Asian Flyway initiative is a testament to the global community’s recognition of the urgency to protect and conserve our interconnected ecosystems.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/central-asian-flyway-recognised-to-protect-over-600-migratory-bird-species-94513




GOOGLE’s CUTTING-EDGE AI: EXPLORING GEMINI 1.5 PRO AND IT’S BREAKTHROUGHS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: In the rapidly evolving landscape of artificial intelligence, Google’s latest revelation, the Gemini 1.5 Pro, has garnered significant attention.

EXPLANATION:

  • Positioned as a pioneering model within the Gemini 1.5 line, this AI marvel introduces advancements that set it apart from its predecessors.
  • We will look into the intricacies of Gemini 1.5 Pro and its groundbreaking features.

Gemini 1.5 Pro: A Leap Ahead in AI Technology

  • Google’s Gemini 1.5 Pro is the latest addition to its repertoire of AI models, boasting advancements built on the Mixture-of-Experts (MoE) architecture.
  • This mid-size multimodal model, optimized for scalability, marks a significant leap forward in the realm of artificial intelligence.

Contextual Understanding and Token Processing:

  • One standout feature of Gemini 1.5 Pro is its unparalleled long-context understanding across modalities.
  • The model achieves comparable results to the previously launched Gemini 1.0 Ultra but with notably less computing power.
  • What sets it apart is its ability to process a staggering one million tokens consistently—a remarkable feat in the domain of large-scale foundation models.
  • To contextualize, Gemini 1.0 models handle up to 32,000 tokens, GPT-4 Turbo manages 1,28,000 tokens, and Claude 2.1 operates with 2,00,000 tokens.

Mixture-of-Experts (MoE) Architecture:

  • The underlying technology of Gemini 1.5 Pro is the MoE architecture, a collective approach dividing complex problems into sub-tasks.
  • These sub-tasks are then trained by clusters of experts, providing a comprehensive coverage of different input data with distinct learners.
  • Google emphasizes that this architectural shift enhances the efficiency of training and serving the Gemini 1.5 Pro model.

Use Cases and Multimodal Capabilities:

  • Gemini 1.5 Pro showcases impressive capabilities across various applications. It can process up to 7,00,000 words or approximately 30,000 lines of code—35 times more than Gemini 1.0 Pro.
  • Furthermore, the model can handle up to 11 hours of audio and 1 hour of video in multiple languages.
  • Demonstrations on Google’s official YouTube channel exhibit the model’s adeptness in understanding extensive context, including a 402-page PDF, a 44-minute video, and interactions with 100,633 lines of code through multimodal prompts.

Preview, Pricing, and Availability:

  • During the preview phase, Google offers the Gemini 1.5 Pro with a one million-token context window for free.
  • While Google has not introduced pricing tiers yet, future plans may include different tiers starting at 1,28,000 context windows and scaling up to one million tokens.

Gemini Series: A Continuum of Excellence:

  • Gemini 1.5 Pro follows the introduction of Google’s Gemini 1.0 series in December.
  • Comprising Gemini Ultra, Gemini Pro, and Gemini Nano, these models showcase state-of-the-art performances on diverse benchmarks, encompassing coding and text.
  • The Gemini series, known for its multimodal capabilities, represents a new frontier in Google’s AI endeavors.

Conclusion:

  • The unveiling of Gemini 1.5 Pro underscores Google’s commitment to advancing AI technology.
  • With its extended context understanding, token processing capabilities, and innovative MoE architecture, Gemini 1.5 Pro positions itself as a frontrunner in the evolving landscape of artificial intelligence.
  • As developers explore its potential through Google’s AI Studio and Vertex AI, Gemini 1.5 Pro paves the way for a new era of sophisticated reasoning and multimodal AI applications.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/google-gemini-pro-1-5-1-million-tokens-9166398/




GSLV’s JOURNEY: OVERCOMING CHALLENGES IN ROCKETRY FOR ISRO’s AMBITIOUS MISSIONS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The recent launch of the INSAT-3DS satellite by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) marked a significant achievement, not just for the satellite but also for the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) rocket.

EXPLANATION:

  • Despite its previous struggles, GSLV successfully delivered the satellite into its intended orbit, showcasing a momentous accomplishment for ISRO.
  • The GSLV rocket, a vital component of ISRO’s launch fleet, has earned the nickname ‘naughty boy’ due to its track record, characterized by a high failure rate compared to its counterparts.
  • Out of 15 previous launches, four ended unsuccessfully, raising concerns about its reliability.
  • The recent success, however, has shifted the narrative around GSLV.

Comparative Performance with PSLV and LVM3:

  • GSLV’s historical performance stands in contrast to the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle), which, despite its 60 launches, has only faced two failures since its inaugural flight in 1993.
  • LVM3, also known as GSLV-MkIII, with seven successful launches, further emphasizes the contrast, having never encountered a failure.

Cryogenic Engine Challenges:

  • GSLV’s challenges stem primarily from its cryogenic engine, located in the third and final stage of the rocket.
  • This engine utilizes liquid hydrogen, known for its efficiency as a rocket fuel, but requires handling at extremely low temperatures.
  • The GSLV’s cryogenic engine is a reverse-engineered version of a Russian design, initially part of a deal disrupted by U.S. objections under the Missile Technology Control Regime.

Indigenous Cryogenic Technology Success:

  • In the pursuit of self-reliance, ISRO developed its indigenous cryogenic engine, distinct from the GSLV’s.
  • This engine, employed in the LVM3 rocket, has showcased remarkable reliability and successful launches, including missions like Chandrayaan-2 and Chandrayaan-3.
  • The indigenously developed cryogenic technology reflects ISRO’s mastery in rocketry.

The GSLV’s Road to Redemption:

  • Despite past setbacks, GSLV’s recent flawless flight has bolstered confidence in its capabilities.
  • The successful launch of INSAT-3DS, emphasizing GSLV’s prowess, marks a pivotal moment in its journey.
  • The rocket’s upcoming mission, carrying the NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) satellite, presents a crucial test that could solidify GSLV’s reputation as a reliable vehicle for ambitious collaborative endeavors.

INSAT-3DS:

  • INSAT-3DS, is an exclusive meteorological satellite realized by ISRO.
  • Its primary objective is to provide continuity of services to the existing in-orbit INSAT-3D and 3DR satellites and significantly enhancing the capabilities of INSAT system is flagged off to SDSC-SHAR launch port on January 25, 2024 for the launch onboard GSLV F14.
  • The Satellite had successfully completed Satellite Assembly, Integration & Testing activities at U R Rao Satellite Centre, Bengaluru.
  • Pre-Shipment Review (PSR) was held with the participation of members from user community on January 25, 2024.
  • The satellite is a user funded project with Ministry of Earth Science (MoES), configured around ISRO’s well proven I-2k bus platform with a Lift-Off Mass of 2275 kg. Indian Industries have significantly contributed in the making of the Satellite.

GSLV:

  • The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is a remarkable class of expendable launch systems operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • Since its inception in 2001, GSLV has been involved in fifteen launches.
  • The project was initiated in 1990 with the goal of establishing an Indian launch capability for geosynchronous satellites.
  • GSLV utilizes components that have already proven successful in the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), including the S125/S139 solid rocket booster and the liquid-fueled Vikas engine.

NISAR:

  • NISAR has been built by space agencies of the US and India under a partnership agreement signed in 2014. The 2,800 kilograms satellite consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite.
  • While NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to store data, and a payload data subsystem, ISRO has provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch system and spacecraft.
  • According to NASA, another important component of the satellite is its large 39-foot stationary antenna reflector. Made of a gold-plated wire mesh, the reflector will be used to focus “the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure”.

Conclusion:

  • ISRO’s resilience and commitment to advancing rocket technology are evident in GSLV’s evolving narrative. From being dubbed the ‘naughty boy’ to overcoming challenges and delivering successful missions, GSLV stands as a testament to India’s space exploration capabilities. As it prepares for the significant NISAR mission, GSLV’s journey exemplifies the triumphs and learnings in the dynamic field of space exploration.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/gslv-rocket-naughty-boy-why-9166963/




JNANPITH HONORS LITERARY EXCELLENCE

TAG: GS:1 ART AND CULTURE

THE CONTEXT: The prestigious Jnanpith Award, India’s highest literary honor, has been conferred upon celebrated Urdu poet and Bollywood filmmaker Gulzar (Sampooran Singh Kalra) and distinguished Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya.

EXPLANATION:

  • The 58th edition of the award, presented by Bharatiya Jnanpith, acknowledges outstanding contributions to Indian literature, marking the second time it honors Sanskrit and the fifth time Urdu.

Gulzar’s Contribution to Literature and Film:

  • Gulzar, born in 1934, has garnered numerous accolades throughout his illustrious career.
  • These include the Sahitya Akademi Award for Urdu (2002), the Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2013), Padma Bhushan (2004), and multiple National Film Awards.
  • His song “Jai Ho” from the film Slumdog Millionaire earned him an Oscar in 2009 and a Grammy in 2010.
  • The Jnanpith Award, with a cash component of ₹11 lakh, a Vagdevi statue, and a citation, adds another jewel to Gulzar’s impressive collection of honors.
  • Apart from his acclaimed film career, Gulzar has made significant literary contributions.
  • Known for his pioneering work in Urdu poetry, he introduced the ‘Triveni’ genre—a non-mukaffa poem of three lines.
  • The maestro’s versatility extends to children’s poetry, reflecting his commitment to exploring diverse literary realms.

Jagadguru Rambhadracharya’s Multifaceted Achievements:

  • Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, a polyglot fluent in 22 languages, stands out as a Hindu spiritual leader, educator, and prolific author with over 240 books and texts to his credit, including four epics.
  • Leading the Tulsi Peeth in Chitrakoot, Madhya Pradesh, he has been a prominent figure in the Ramananda sect since 1982. His linguistic prowess spans Sanskrit, Hindi, Awadhi, Maithili, and more.
  • The Padma Vibhushan recipient (2015) adds the Jnanpith Award to his distinguished achievements.

Jnanpith Award:

  • Jnanpith Award is an Indian literary award presented annually by the BharatiyaJnanpith to an author for their “outstanding contribution towards literature”.
  • The Jnanpith Award was established in 1944.
  • It acknowledges the literary prowess of individuals who have left an indelible mark on Indian literature.
  • The award’s cash component, a Vagdevi statue, and a citation make it a symbol of literary excellence.
  • The award is bestowed only on Indian writers writing in Indian languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India and English, with no posthumous conferral.
  • The selection committee, headed by Odia writer Pratibha Rai, made the decision to honor writers from two languages—Sanskrit and Urdu.
  • It is sponsored by the cultural organization Bharatiya Jnanpith.

Conclusion:

  • The Jnanpith Award’s recognition of Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya underscores the diversity and richness of Indian literature. It celebrates not only the literary achievements of these eminent personalities but also the cultural and linguistic tapestry that defines India’s literary landscape. As the nation applauds their contributions, the Jnanpith Award continues to stand as a beacon of honor for those who illuminate the world through the power of words.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gulzar-sanskrit-scholar-rambhadracharya-selected-for-jnanpith-award/article67857170.ece/amp/




UNUSUAL AIR QUALITY TRENDS IN INDIA: A RARE TRIPLE-DIP LA NIÑA PHENOMENON

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY

THE CONTEXT: In the winter season of 2022-23, India experienced an anomalous air quality trend, attributed to a rare “triple-dip” La Niña phenomenon, as revealed by a recent study led by Chair Professor Gufran Beig and his team at the National Institute of Advanced Studies.

EXPLANATION:

  • The study, published in the Elsevier Journal, sheds light on the intricate interplay of climate change and local emissions in influencing air quality across the subcontinent.

Triple-Dip La Niña Phenomenon:

  • The study highlights the occurrence of three consecutive years (2020-23) of La Niña conditions, a rare “triple-dip” event.
  • ‘Triple Dip’ La Niña is a period where the La Niña period extends for up to three consecutive winters and results in multiyear cooling of the surface temperature of the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  • For example, the current La Niña episode was started in September 2020, prevailed for the last 24 months, and looks set to continue for another six months, and has thus been classified as a ‘triple dip’ La Niña.
  • La Niña, known for impacting ocean and climate patterns globally, took an unprecedented turn, leading to diverse consequences in India’s air quality during the winter season.
  • Contrasting Trends in North and Peninsular India: Contrary to the established trends of air quality in recent decades, the 2022-23 winter season witnessed a unique phenomenon where northern India experienced improved air quality, while peninsular India faced escalating pollution levels.

North India’s Air Quality Improvement:

  • Among the northern cities, Ghaziabad exhibited the most significant progress with a remarkable 33 percent reduction in 5 levels.
  • Rohtak and Noida followed closely with reductions of 30 percent and 28 percent, respectively.
  • Even the capital city, Delhi, displayed a positive shift with a 10 percent gain.

Peninsular India’s Deteriorating Air Quality:

  • In stark contrast, peninsular Indian cities experienced a deterioration in air quality during the same period.
  • Mumbai led the unfortunate trend with a substantial 30 percent increase in PM2.5 levels.
  • Other cities like Coimbatore, Bengaluru, and Chennai witnessed rises of 28 percent, 20 percent, and 12 percent, respectively.

Meteorological Factors Influencing Air Quality:

  • The study identifies meteorological factors as crucial contributors to these divergent trends.
  • Higher northerly winds at the transport level in peninsular India led to the trapping of pollutants, causing an increase in PM2.5 concentration.
  • This condition was exacerbated by slower winds near the surface in peninsular regions.
  • Conversely, north India experienced improved air quality due to weak western disturbances, unusual wind patterns, and the absence of rain and clouds, facilitating faster ventilation.

Climate Change as a Significant Factor:

  • The research underscores the role of rapidly changing climate as a significant factor influencing air quality.
  • The triple-dip La Niña event, exacerbated by climate change, created a complex interplay of meteorological conditions, impacting pollution levels in distinct ways across the country.

La Nina:

  • La Niña is the opposite of El Niño.
  • La Niña sees cooler than average sea surface temperature (SST) in the equatorial Pacific region.
  • Trade winds are stronger than usual, pushing warmer water towards Asia.
  • On the American west coast, upwelling increases, bringing nutrient-rich water to the surface.
  • Pacific cold waters close to the Americas push jet streams — narrow bands of strong winds in the upper atmosphere — northwards.
  • This leads to drier conditions in Southern U.S., and heavy rainfall in Canada.
  • La Niña has also been associated with heavy floods in Australia.
  • Two successive La Niña events in the last two years caused intense flooding in Australia, resulting in significant damage.

Conclusion:

  • The findings of this study not only unravel the intricate dynamics of a rare triple-dip La Niña event but also emphasize the need for a comprehensive understanding of local emissions and global climate patterns to predict and manage air quality in the face of a changing climate. The anomalous trends observed in the 2022-23 winter season serve as a stark reminder of the interconnectedness of natural phenomena and human-induced factors in shaping environmental conditions.

SOURCE: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-rare-triple-dip-la-nina-phenomenon-behind-unusual-air-quality-trend-in-india-in-2022-23-finds-a-study-3397692/lite/#amp_tf=From%20%251%24s&aoh=17082686188916&csi=0&referrer=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com




SC’S ELECTORAL BONDS JUDGMENT: A VITAL VERDICT

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bond (EB) scheme of political funding, declaring it to be “unconstitutional” because it completely anonymized contributions made to political parties. It is being welcomed especially because it is anchored in the citizen’s right to know.

ELECTORAL BONDS:

  • These are bearer banking instruments that do not carry the name of the buyer or payee, go for sale in 10-day windows in the beginning of every quarter in January, April, July and October besides an additional 30-day period specified by the central government during the Lok Sabha election years.
  • It was introduced in 2018 and are available for purchase at any SBI branch in multiples of ₹1,000, ₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore and can be bought through a KYC-compliant account.
  • There is no limit on the number of electoral bonds that a person or company can purchase. Donations made under this scheme by corporate and even foreign entities through Indian subsidiaries enjoy 100% tax exemption while identities of the donors are kept confidential both by the bank as well as the recipient political parties. The public sector bank is obligated under the scheme to disclose the details only pursuant to a court order or a requisition by law enforcement agencies.

THE SUPREME JUDGEMENT ON ELECTORAL BONDS

  • The five bench SC judgment headed by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud is based on petitions filed by Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR), non-profit Common Cause, Congress leader Jaya Thakur, and the CPI (M), among others.
  • The petitioners had argued that either the scheme must go on account of violating people’s right to know and affecting free and fair elections, or the court must direct for full disclosure of the purchasers and donors of EBs.

POINTS MADE IN THE JUDGEMENT:

  • The judgement ruled that amendments made in the Representation of the People Act, Income Tax Act, and Companies Act through the 2017 Finance Act violated the constitutional right of the electors.
  • Violates Article 14: Permitting unlimited corporate contributions to political parties was violative of Article 14 (right to equality) as it highlighted that it authorized unconstrained influence of companies in the electoral process.
  • Violates free and fair election: This is violative of the principle of free and fair elections and political equality captured in the value of one person-one vote.
  • Violate Article 19(1)(a): The electoral bond scheme is violative of Article 19(1)(a) as it infringes upon the right to information of the voter by anonymizing contributions through electoral bonds.
  • Nexus between money and politics: Contradicting the government statement that donor anonymity was necessary to shield contributors from potential retribution, the judgement noted that that financial contributions to a political party would lead to a close nexus between money and politics.
  • Fails proportionality test: The judgment underscored that voters’ right to know supersedes anonymity in political party funding, and that the EB scheme fails to meet the balancing prong of the proportionality test.
  • Violates the right to information: The scheme hides the source of funding of political parties from the public, which is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a). The scheme also enables black money, foreign funding, and corporate influence in politics, which harm the public interest and the sovereignty of the nation.
  • Violates the principle of equality: The scheme discriminates between different political parties based on their vote share, giving an unfair advantage to the ruling party and the major opposition parties, while excluding the smaller and regional parties. The scheme also creates a disparity between the donors and the voters, as the former can sway the policies and decisions of the political parties, while the latter are kept in the dark.
  • Violates the constitutional scheme of electoral reforms: The scheme goes against the constitutional aim of curbing corruption and criminalization of politics. The scheme is also contrary to the recommendations of various committees and commissions that have called for more transparency and disclosure in political funding.

SIGNIFICANCE OF JUDGEMENT:

  • Transparency and accountability of political funding: The judgment will ensure that the public will have access to the information about the source and amount of funding received by the political parties through electoral bonds. This will enable the public to scrutinize and hold the political parties accountable for their performance and conduct.
  • Reduce the influence of money: The judgment will curb the influence of money and corporate power in politics, as the donors will no longer be able to hide their identity and agenda behind the veil of anonymity.
  • Level playing field for all political parties: The judgment will level the playing field for all political parties, as they will no longer be discriminated against based on their vote share or popularity. This will enable the smaller and regional parties to compete with the ruling party and the major opposition parties on an equal footing and offer a genuine choice to the voters.
  • Democratic setup: “The voters’ right to know and access to information is too important in a democratic set-up so as to curtail and deny ‘essential’ information on the pretext of privacy and the desire to check the flow of unaccounted for money to the political parties. While secret ballots are integral to fostering free and fair elections, transparency not secrecy in funding of political parties is a prerequisite for free and fair elections. The confidentiality of the voting booth does not extend to anonymity in contributions to political parties.
  • Undo corruption: The bench held that the information about funding of political parties is essential for the effective exercise of the choice of voting to identify corruption and governance information. It ordered full disclosure of donors and recipients of EBs issued since April 2019 on the website of the Election Commission of India (ECI) by March 13, 2024. It directed the State Bank of India the only designated EB-issuing bank to stop the issuance of EBs, adding the bank will submit details of EBs purchased since April 12, 2019, till date to the poll body by March 6.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • State funding: The Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections has supported partial state funding of recognised political parties. State funding has proved its effectiveness in a number of countries like Germany, Japan, Canada, Sweden etc.
  • Stringent legislations: There is a need for effective regulation of political financing along with bold reforms to break the vicious cycle of corruption and erosion of quality of democratic polity. It is crucial to plug the loopholes in the current laws to make the entire governance machinery more accountable and transparent.
  • Strengthening Election commission: There is a need to strengthen the role of Election Commission by enabling suitable laws and creating healthy political environment. The EC should increase its own capacity in terms of empowering staff and developing infrastructural and logistical strength.
  • Political party auditing: Venkatachaliah Committee Report (2002) recommended strict regulatory frameworks for auditing and disclosure of party income and expenditure along with state funding.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Supreme Court’s judgment on scrapping of electoral bonds is a historic and landmark verdict that upholds the constitutional rights and values of the citizens and the democracy. This decision will enhance the transparency and accountability of political funding and reduce the influence of money and corporate power in politics and will create level playing field for all political parties.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. Whether electoral bonds are effective in ensuring fair, just and open elections? Discuss the various concerns regarding electoral bonds. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. Court striking down the electoral bond scheme is a landmark moment as it affirms principles of transparency and probity, and the people’s right to know. Comment.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-scs-electoral-bonds-judgment-a-vital-verdict-9164121/




WHY 2024 COULD BE THE ‘MAKE-OR-BREAK’ YEAR FOR DEMOCRACY

THE CONTEXT: The forthcoming year is being cast as a pivotal moment for global democracy, as elections in nearly 60 countries are posed to test the resilience of democratic institutions. Rising autocratic tendencies and misinformation’s pervasive impact on the electoral process’s sanctity have exacerbated tensions.

THE ISSUES:

  • Global Democratic Trends and Election Impact on International Relations: The global democratic trajectory is under considerable strain, as indicated by the upcoming elections in about 60 countries. These electoral battles in nations like the USA, Russia, India, and Taiwan are set to influence internal political landscapes, international alliances, and economic ties—particularly the impact of democratic backsliding and the rise of authoritarianism on global governance.
  • Role of Superpowers in Shaping World Democracy: The U.S. elections, potentially featuring a contest between Joe Biden and Donald Trump, could significantly affect global democratic norms with implications on multinational agreements, human rights issues, and the liberal world order. In contrast, Russia’s election appears to continue Putin’s governance, which could further affect its foreign policy stance—these developments concern international law, trade policies, and geopolitical strategies.
  • Influence of Regional Powers on Regional Stability: Elections in neighbouring countries like Bangladesh, Bhutan, and, crucially, Pakistan, where democratic institutions face challenges, have direct implications for India’s foreign policy and regional stability in South Asia. The nature of governance in these countries affects bilateral relations, cross-border security, and economic interactions, forming an essential aspect of regional geopolitics.
  • The Test for Democracies in South Asia and Africa: Scrutiny has been directed towards the elections in South Asia, including the recent polls in Pakistan, which have reportedly been marred by disruptions and controversies, casting a shadow over the democratic credentials of the region. Additionally, the legislative elections in South Africa, with the ANC facing numerous challenges, are pivotal. These political developments could critically influence the stability and democratic fabric of their respective regions.
  • Euroscepticism and the Shift in European Union Politics: The European parliamentary elections are portrayed as a battleground where the surge of right-wing populism is testing the core democratic values of the European Union. It has been outlined that political changes in countries like the Netherlands, Hungary, and Italy may foreshadow broader shifts in the EU’s political spectrum, with potential implications for its governance and unity.
  • The State of Electoral Democracy and Civil Liberties: Democracy Index ratings highlight how different governance models are categorized and allow for comparative analysis of political freedoms, civil liberties, and legitimate electoral processes. For instance, Britain remaining a full democracy while others like Mexico face democratic backsliding is a crucial point in the spectrum of political systems and their conformity to democratic norms.
  • Autocracy and Misinformation: The surge in disinformation and the misuse of social media have become widespread, contributing to a global environment where the truth is often manipulated. Democracies have been shown to be particularly vulnerable, with countries like the U.S., Brazil, Germany, and Sweden mentioned as examples where ‘fake news’ is becoming more prevalent.
  • Gender and Politics in Mexico: The upcoming presidential elections in Mexico, anticipated to result in appointing the nation’s first female president, highlight gender dynamics in leadership roles. The evolving political landscape in Mexico has been characterized by democratic backsliding, underlining the challenges emerging economies face in maintaining the democratic ethos.
  • Cases of Indonesia and Taiwan: In Indonesia, corrupt practices and concerns regarding civil liberties have been implied to erode the quality of democracy, as reflected in the Democracy Index. Similarly, Taiwan’s elections under external pressure underscore the island’s complex political situation and its broader implications for regional security.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • International Standards of Electoral Integrity: Countries can collaborate with international bodies like the United Nations to invite independent election monitors. These monitors would abide by international election standards to certify processes are free, fair, and transparent. Establishing clear guidelines and consequences for electoral malpractice can help deter fraudulent activities.
  • Civic Education: Strengthening civil society through education about democratic rights and responsibilities can empower citizens to demand greater accountability. Civic education programs could focus on understanding electoral processes, the importance of voting, and the role of dissent in a democracy.
  • Media Regulation and Oversight: Governments can collaborate with independent watchdogs to regulate the spread of misinformation. Transparent oversight mechanisms need to be established where flagged content is reviewed and, if found violating civic standards, accordingly, addressed without infringing on freedom of speech.
  • Inclusive Governance: To address the underlying issues that drive populism, such as economic inequality and cultural anxieties, policies that focus on inclusive governance are vital. These might include progressive tax systems, increased funding in social services, and investment in communities left behind by globalization.
  • Regional Alliances: Strengthening regional alliances with a democracy clause for membership, such as the European Union, can serve as a collective bulwark against the rising tide of authoritarianism and ensure a regional approach to upholding democratic norms.
  • Legislative Quotas: Legal frameworks that mandate a minimum representation of women in political positions can ensure gender diversity. These quotas could be implemented within government bodies and the political parties themselves. Initiatives aimed at training women for leadership roles in public service can help overcome gender barriers. By providing mentorship and advocacy training, these programs could bolster women’s participation in the highest echelons of political decision-making.
  • Economic Reform Policies: Implementing economic reforms that address the wealth gap can create a more equitable society, which is the bedrock of a stable democracy. Economic stability and Constructing job creation strategies can combat the disenfranchisement that often leads to anti-democratic sentiments.

THE CONCLUSION:

Considering electoral autocracy and disinformation challenges, steadfast measures must be advocated and implemented to safeguard democratic values. The onus is placed on international coalitions and domestic mechanisms to fortify the foundational principles of free and fair elections, ensuring that democracy not only endures but thrives.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) Evaluate the economic and strategic dimensions of India’s Look East Policy in the context of the post-Cold War international scenario. (2016)

Q.2) Strength, peace, and security are pillars of international relations. Elucidate. (2017)

Q.3) The will to power exists, but it can be tamed and be guided by rationality and principles of moral duty.’ Examine this statement in the context of international relations. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) 2024 is anticipated to be a decisive moment for global democracy as numerous countries are scheduled to conduct primary electoral contests. Discuss the role that international organizations can play in mitigating the challenges posed by the rise in authoritarianism and misinformation.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/world-democracy-elections-us-biden-trump-explained-india-mexico-pakistan-europe/article67744886.ece




Day-594 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Day-594

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. In the context of cloud seeding, consider the following statements:
    1. Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that guarantees a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds.
    2. Table salt, silver iodide, calcium chloride and potassium nitrate are the chemicals commonly used for seeding the clouds.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that improves (not guarantees) a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds. The effectiveness and success of cloud seeding is often a topic of hot debate. There is no evidence so far that cloud seeding will be successful in non-monsoon months; also, ‘not all clouds are seedable, not all clouds will make rain’.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The chemicals commonly used in seeding the clouds include table salt, silver iodide, calcium chloride, propane and potassium iodide (not potassium nitrate).

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that improves (not guarantees) a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds. The effectiveness and success of cloud seeding is often a topic of hot debate. There is no evidence so far that cloud seeding will be successful in non-monsoon months; also, ‘not all clouds are seedable, not all clouds will make rain’.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The chemicals commonly used in seeding the clouds include table salt, silver iodide, calcium chloride, propane and potassium iodide (not potassium nitrate).

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Global Warming Potential* (GWP*) is a better means of determining if the world is on track to temperature targets, compared to GWP100.
    Statement II: Global Warming Potential * (GWP*) takes into account the removal of short-lived gases from the atmosphere.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer. A
    Explanation: Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.
    Essentially, Global Warming Potential (GWP) measures how potent a gas is as a contributor to climate change. The most commonly used metric to quantify greenhouse gas emissions is known as GWP100. This metric looks at the GWP of the greenhouse gases over 100 years. For example, methane has a GWP of 34. This means 1 ton of methane is equal to 34 tons of CO2 and therefore captures more heat per molecule compared to CO2.
    However, a flaw in GWP100 measurements was assessed a few years ago by researchers based at the University of Oxford. GWP100 assumed that all greenhouse gases were stagnant in the atmosphere, meaning they remained there for centuries. What GWP100 did not account for was that methane, as a short-lived gas, was actively removed from the atmosphere relatively soon after being emitted.
    While GWP100 does consider short-lived gases like methane, it does not account for removal from the atmosphere. Since methane is removed in about 12 years through a natural process, stable emissions do not increase warming after those 12 years.
    Today, GWP* represents a new means of measuring carbon in the atmosphere, taking short-lived gas removal from the atmosphere into consideration. GWP* is a better means of determining if the world is on track to temperature targets, compared to GWP100. Methane should be treated a temporary pulse, rather than a constant agent of warming.
    Additional information
    The established metric under the 2015 Paris Agreement for measuring the global warming potential of a gas over a 100-year period is GWP100, which is the global warming potential evaluated over a 100-year timeline. It focuses on the absolute level of emissions.
    GWP* was developed in 2016 by a team of researchers from Oxford University, led by two academics who argued it was more accurate than the current systems used to report national methane emissions at the international level. It was then introduced in 2018 at 24th Conference of Parties (COP24) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (held at Katowice, Poland).
    GWP100 measures the warming effect of a quantity of a non-carbon dioxide (CO2) GHG, emitted at a given point in time, relative to an equal amount of CO2. On the other hand, GWP* focuses on changes in emissions over decadal timescales rather than absolute levels.

    Incorrect

    Answer. A
    Explanation: Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.
    Essentially, Global Warming Potential (GWP) measures how potent a gas is as a contributor to climate change. The most commonly used metric to quantify greenhouse gas emissions is known as GWP100. This metric looks at the GWP of the greenhouse gases over 100 years. For example, methane has a GWP of 34. This means 1 ton of methane is equal to 34 tons of CO2 and therefore captures more heat per molecule compared to CO2.
    However, a flaw in GWP100 measurements was assessed a few years ago by researchers based at the University of Oxford. GWP100 assumed that all greenhouse gases were stagnant in the atmosphere, meaning they remained there for centuries. What GWP100 did not account for was that methane, as a short-lived gas, was actively removed from the atmosphere relatively soon after being emitted.
    While GWP100 does consider short-lived gases like methane, it does not account for removal from the atmosphere. Since methane is removed in about 12 years through a natural process, stable emissions do not increase warming after those 12 years.
    Today, GWP* represents a new means of measuring carbon in the atmosphere, taking short-lived gas removal from the atmosphere into consideration. GWP* is a better means of determining if the world is on track to temperature targets, compared to GWP100. Methane should be treated a temporary pulse, rather than a constant agent of warming.
    Additional information
    The established metric under the 2015 Paris Agreement for measuring the global warming potential of a gas over a 100-year period is GWP100, which is the global warming potential evaluated over a 100-year timeline. It focuses on the absolute level of emissions.
    GWP* was developed in 2016 by a team of researchers from Oxford University, led by two academics who argued it was more accurate than the current systems used to report national methane emissions at the international level. It was then introduced in 2018 at 24th Conference of Parties (COP24) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (held at Katowice, Poland).
    GWP100 measures the warming effect of a quantity of a non-carbon dioxide (CO2) GHG, emitted at a given point in time, relative to an equal amount of CO2. On the other hand, GWP* focuses on changes in emissions over decadal timescales rather than absolute levels.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Recently, there was a growing concern in our country about the use of Monocroptophos, Dicofol, and Dinocap. These are widely used as:

    Correct

    Answer. D
    Explanation: The Central government has prohibited the use of four insecticides from the initial list of 27. This list includes the controversial monocrotophos (MCP). It is a broad-spectrum organophosphate insecticide with applications in agricultural crops like rice, maize, sugarcane, cotton, soybeans, groundnut and vegetables. MCP solubilizes in water readily and thus reduced sorption occurs in soil. This leads to MCP leaching into the groundwater and poses a significant threat of contamination.
    Due to its toxicology and ill-effects on the health of humans, it has been banned by the European Union as well as India.
    Along with monocrotophos, three other insecticides—Dicofol, Dinocap, and Methomyl—have also been banned in India recently.
    Monocrotophos causes abnormality, ranging from mild to severe confusion, agitation, hypersalivation, convulsion, pulmonary failure, senescence in mammals and insects. MCP affects humans by inhibiting the activity of the acetylcholine esterase enzyme. MCP is accountable for the catalytic degradation of acetylcholine and affects the neurotransmission between neurons. In India, monocrotophos continues to be produced, used and exported. The perception that monocrotophos is cheap and necessary, have prevented the product from being taken off the market. Another cause of concern is the use of MCP for suicide attempts in the country.
    Additional information:
    The government of India regulates the manufacture, registration, sale, transport, distribution, use, import and export of pesticides through the Insecticides Act 1968 and the Insecticides Rules 1971.

    Incorrect

    Answer. D
    Explanation: The Central government has prohibited the use of four insecticides from the initial list of 27. This list includes the controversial monocrotophos (MCP). It is a broad-spectrum organophosphate insecticide with applications in agricultural crops like rice, maize, sugarcane, cotton, soybeans, groundnut and vegetables. MCP solubilizes in water readily and thus reduced sorption occurs in soil. This leads to MCP leaching into the groundwater and poses a significant threat of contamination.
    Due to its toxicology and ill-effects on the health of humans, it has been banned by the European Union as well as India.
    Along with monocrotophos, three other insecticides—Dicofol, Dinocap, and Methomyl—have also been banned in India recently.
    Monocrotophos causes abnormality, ranging from mild to severe confusion, agitation, hypersalivation, convulsion, pulmonary failure, senescence in mammals and insects. MCP affects humans by inhibiting the activity of the acetylcholine esterase enzyme. MCP is accountable for the catalytic degradation of acetylcholine and affects the neurotransmission between neurons. In India, monocrotophos continues to be produced, used and exported. The perception that monocrotophos is cheap and necessary, have prevented the product from being taken off the market. Another cause of concern is the use of MCP for suicide attempts in the country.
    Additional information:
    The government of India regulates the manufacture, registration, sale, transport, distribution, use, import and export of pesticides through the Insecticides Act 1968 and the Insecticides Rules 1971.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Net primary productivity is a measure of the biomass available for the consumption from the primary producers.
    Statement II: A large part of the sunlight gets absorbed, reflected and scattered through the layers of the atmosphere, leaving roughly 2% of sunlight to be captured by plants for photosynthesis.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis (i.e. biomass generated from primary producers through photosynthesis). But it must be noted that a considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
    GPP – R = NPP
    Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
    Statement 2 is correct but does not explain statement 1: 50% of light from the sunlight supports the process of photosynthesis. Out of which 2-10% is captured by plants, which is absorbed through chlorophyll and utilised in photosynthesis.
    The atmosphere of the earth comprises different layers having varying density and composition. The sunlight, therefore, gets either absorbed or reflected or scattered through the atmosphere.

    Incorrect

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis (i.e. biomass generated from primary producers through photosynthesis). But it must be noted that a considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
    GPP – R = NPP
    Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
    Statement 2 is correct but does not explain statement 1: 50% of light from the sunlight supports the process of photosynthesis. Out of which 2-10% is captured by plants, which is absorbed through chlorophyll and utilised in photosynthesis.
    The atmosphere of the earth comprises different layers having varying density and composition. The sunlight, therefore, gets either absorbed or reflected or scattered through the atmosphere.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Megaherbivores have a direct bearing on the spread of invasive species.
    2. Some tribals in India use invasive plants to make sculptures.
    3. While mangroves can be affected by invasive species, they can never turn invasive themselves.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Megaherbivores unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by dispersing their seeds.
    By virtue of their size and varied diets, the megaherbivores such as Indian bison, sambar deer, elephant, rhinoceros etc. can clear swathes of vegetation, including invasive plants, creating opportunities for new growth. In places like Kaziranga and Manas, this “gardening” has led to a reduction in invasive species. However, in drier regions, invasive trees like Lantana camara and Prosopis juliflora have established an impenetrable fortress. Unable to break through these thorny thickets, megaherbivores turn to native plants, adding pressure on already struggling population. Even worse, some, like elephants, unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by eating on their fruits and dispersing their seeds.
    Statement 2 is correct: The sculptures of elephants were skillfully crafted by tribal artisans hailing from Gudalur in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve from lantana camara, an invasive species. These elephant sculptures were brought to Chennai for display at the Tamil Nadu Global Investors Meet 2024.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Many salt-tolerant aquatic and terrestrial plants as well as epiphytes can colonize and persist in mangrove forests. Many opportunistic invaders can also invade mangrove forests during periodic reduced soil and water salinity.
    The rising temperatures and sea level due to climate change are allowing mangroves to expand their ranges farther away from the equator and encroach on temperate wetlands, like salt marshes. Also, on some isolated tropical islands, such as Hawaii and Tahiti, mangroves are not native and are sometimes considered invasive species.

    Incorrect

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Megaherbivores unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by dispersing their seeds.
    By virtue of their size and varied diets, the megaherbivores such as Indian bison, sambar deer, elephant, rhinoceros etc. can clear swathes of vegetation, including invasive plants, creating opportunities for new growth. In places like Kaziranga and Manas, this “gardening” has led to a reduction in invasive species. However, in drier regions, invasive trees like Lantana camara and Prosopis juliflora have established an impenetrable fortress. Unable to break through these thorny thickets, megaherbivores turn to native plants, adding pressure on already struggling population. Even worse, some, like elephants, unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by eating on their fruits and dispersing their seeds.
    Statement 2 is correct: The sculptures of elephants were skillfully crafted by tribal artisans hailing from Gudalur in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve from lantana camara, an invasive species. These elephant sculptures were brought to Chennai for display at the Tamil Nadu Global Investors Meet 2024.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Many salt-tolerant aquatic and terrestrial plants as well as epiphytes can colonize and persist in mangrove forests. Many opportunistic invaders can also invade mangrove forests during periodic reduced soil and water salinity.
    The rising temperatures and sea level due to climate change are allowing mangroves to expand their ranges farther away from the equator and encroach on temperate wetlands, like salt marshes. Also, on some isolated tropical islands, such as Hawaii and Tahiti, mangroves are not native and are sometimes considered invasive species.

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ED’s FINDINGS ON PAYTM PAYMENTS BANK

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has concluded its inquiry into Paytm Payments Bank Limited (PPBL) transactions, stating that there were no violations under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).

EXPLANATION:

  • However, concerns related to Know Your Customer (KYC) compliance and other issues have been identified, prompting potential action by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
  • On January 31, the RBI issued a circular prohibiting PPBL from accepting further deposits, top-ups, or conducting credit transactions into customer accounts, wallets, FASTags, and National Common Mobility Cards (NCMC) after February 29.
  • The action was based on the Comprehensive System Audit report and compliance validation reports, indicating persistent non-compliance and supervisory concerns.

ED’s Investigation and Findings:

  • FEMA Violation:
    • The ED found no FEMA violations during its inquiry into PPBL transactions.
  • PMLA Exclusion:
  • KYC Compliance Concerns:
    • The investigation focused on KYC compliance, revealing areas of concern related to user and merchant onboarding processes, document collection and authentication, anti-money laundering measures, merchant category code assignment, and National Payments Corporation of India’s regulatory compliance.
  • Observations Submitted to RBI:
    • ED findings, along with certain observations regarding other payment banks, third-party application providers, and payment aggregators, have been reported to the RBI for potential regulatory action.

Key Areas of Concern Identified:

  • KYC Processes:
    • Slackness in adherence to KYC norms, particularly in user and merchant onboarding.
  • Anti-Money Laundering Measures:
    • Lack of robust measures to prevent money laundering.
  • Regulatory Compliance:
    • Issues related to the assignment of merchant category codes and adherence to regulatory requirements by the National Payments Corporation of India.
  • Ownership Identification:
    • Inadequacies in processes for identifying ultimate beneficial ownership and politically exposed persons.
  • Virtual Account KYC:
    • Lack of KYC adherence related to the setup of virtual accounts.
  • Monitoring and Reporting:
    • Inefficient monitoring and periodic reporting of suspect transactions to authorized agencies.

Recommendations for Improvement:

  • IT Audit Framework Adoption:
    • The ED recommends the full-fledged adoption of the Information Technology audit framework as prescribed by relevant authorities.
  • Mitigating Vulnerabilities:
    • Addressing vulnerabilities, including the possible misuse of Application Programming Interfaces (API) keys and URL spoofing to prevent financial fraud.

Enforcement Directorate (ED):

  • The Directorate of Enforcement is a multi-disciplinary organization mandated with an investigation of offenses of money laundering and violations of foreign exchange laws.
  • The statutory functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:
    • The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)
    • The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA)
    • The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA):

  • It is a civil law enacted to consolidate and amend the laws relating to facilitate external trade and payments and to and maintenance of foreign exchange market in India.
  • ED has been given the responsibility to conduct investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA):

  • It is a criminal law enacted to prevent money laundering and to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-laundering.
  • ED has been given the responsibility to enforce the provisions of the PMLA by conducting investigation to trace the assets derived from proceeds of crime.

Conclusion:

  • While the ED found no FEMA violations in the case of PPBL, the identified concerns related to KYC compliance underscore the need for regulatory vigilance.
  • The RBI is expected to take appropriate action based on the findings, emphasizing the importance of adherence to financial regulations and consumer protection in the digital payment sector.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/ed-finds-no-fema-violation-in-paytm-payments-bank-case/article67854556.ece




DISCOVERY OF CLIFFSIDE BAMBOOTAIL: A NEW DAMSELFLY SPECIES IN PONMUDI HILLS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: In a significant breakthrough, a team of researchers has unearthed a new species of damselfly in the Ponmudi hills of Thiruvananthapuram district, Kerala.

EXPLANATION:

  • The discovery is particularly noteworthy as it challenges the long-standing belief that the genus Phylloneura was monotypic, with only one described species for over 160 years.
  • The findings have been published in the International Journal of Odonatology.

Cliffside Bambootail (Phylloneura rupestris):

  • The damselfly belongs to the bambootails group, named for their elongated abdomen resembling bamboo stalks.
  • Unlike the previously known Myristica Bambootail, this new species lays its eggs in moss beds found in seasonal rills flowing over rock cliffs.
  • This distinct behaviour sets Cliffside Bambootail apart, as opposed to the Myristica Bambootail, which lays eggs on the surface roots of riparian trees.
  • The Ponmudi hills, situated at the southernmost tip of the Western Ghats in the Agasthyamalai landscape, have proven to be a hotspot for biodiversity.
  • This discovery marks the third damselfly species identified in this region, emphasizing its ecological richness.
  • For more than 160 years, the genus Phylloneura was considered monotypic, with the Myristica Bambootail being the sole described species.
  • The discovery of Cliffside Bambootail challenges this notion, showcasing the diversity within the genus.
  • The contrasting egg-laying behaviour of Cliffside Bambootail, choosing moss beds in seasonal rills, distinguishes it from the Myristica Bambootail.
  • Understanding such behavioural nuances is crucial for comprehending the ecological roles and adaptations of damselfly species.

Conservation Implications:

  • The Myristica Bambootail, endemic to the Western Ghats, was considered near-threatened.
  • The discovery of a new species emphasizes the need for comprehensive studies to safeguard the biodiversity of the southern Western Ghats.

Conclusion:

  • The identification of Cliffside Bambootail expands our understanding of damselfly diversity in the Western Ghats and calls for increased conservation efforts. This discovery underscores the importance of continuous research to unravel the complexities of biodiversity and ecological interactions in specific regions, contributing to effective conservation strategies.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/new-species-of-damselfly-discovered-in-ponmudi/article67852949.ece




DRAFT GUIDELINES TO CURB MISLEADING ADS BY COACHING CENTRES: CCPA

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has introduced draft guidelines to regulate misleading advertisements by coaching centres, emphasizing the need to protect consumers from false claims and deceptive practices.

EXPLANATION:

  • The guidelines aim to bring transparency, prevent misinformation, and ensure accountability within the coaching sector.

Context and Background:

  • Government Initiative:
    • The move comes in the wake of the government’s commitment to address issues related to coaching centres.
    • Guidelines have been drafted prohibiting enrolment of students below 16 and restricting misleading promises.
  • CCPA’s Call for Public Feedback:
    • The CCPA has actively sought public feedback on the ‘Draft Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisement in Coaching Sector,’ demonstrating a commitment to inclusivity and a collaborative approach.

Scope and Definition:

  • Definition of Coaching:
    • The guidelines define ‘coaching’ broadly, encompassing tuition, academic support, learning programs, or guidance provided by any person.
  • Conditions for Misleading Advertisements:
    • The draft outlines specific conditions that classify an advertisement as misleading within the coaching sector, focusing on claims related to success rates, student selections, and rankings in competitive exams.

Prohibited Practices:

  • Concealment of Information:
    • Coaching centres are discouraged from concealing essential information related to course details and duration, influencing a consumer’s decision.
  • False Claims:
    • Prohibition of false claims regarding success rates and rankings without providing verifiable evidence.
  • Acknowledgment of Individual Efforts:
    • Mandate for coaching centres to acknowledge the individual efforts of students in their success and clearly state the extent of coaching involvement.
  • Avoidance of Fear-Based Tactics:
    • Prevention of creating a false sense of urgency or fear of missing out, aiming to protect students and parents from undue anxieties.

Applicability and Consumer Protection:

  • Broad Applicability:
    • The guidelines are designed to be applicable to every person engaged in coaching, reinforcing a comprehensive approach to curb misleading practices across the sector.
  • Consumer Protection Framework:

Accessibility and Stakeholder Consultation:

  • Website Placement:
    • The draft guidelines are made accessible on the Department of Consumer Affairs website, facilitating public scrutiny and feedback.
  • Stakeholder Consultation:
    • Prior to drafting, a stakeholder consultation on misleading advertisements in the coaching sector was conducted, garnering input from key entities like the Ministry of Education, FIITJEE, and National Law University Delhi.

Consumer Protection Act, 2019:

  • The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (Act No. 35 of 2019) was enacted in India to safeguard the interests of consumers and establish mechanisms for timely and effective resolution of consumer disputes. Here are some key provisions of the act:
  • Three-Tier Quasi-Judicial Mechanism:
    • The act establishes a three-tier quasi-judicial mechanism for redressal of consumer disputes:
      • District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: At the district level.
      • State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: At the state level.
      • National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: At the national level.
    • Pecuniary Jurisdiction:
      • The act specifies the pecuniary jurisdiction of each tier of the consumer commission, ensuring that disputes are handled appropriately based on their financial value.
    • Improved Protection for Consumers:
      • The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaces the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
      • It aims to strengthen consumer protection, especially in the context of globalization, online platforms, and e-commerce markets.
      • The act provides improved protection for consumers involved in online transactions.
    • Establishment of Authorities:
      • Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA):
        • CCPA is a statutory body constituted under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
        • Responsible for administration and settlement of consumer disputes at the central level.
        • Empowered to recall goods, issue penalties against false/misleading advertisements, and more.
      • District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission:
        • Each tier handles consumer complaints and disputes within its jurisdiction.
        • Provides a structured process for resolution, including mediation, hearings, and appeals.

Conclusion:

  • The draft guidelines represent a proactive step by the government to address challenges in the coaching sector.
  • By involving stakeholders and seeking public feedback, the authorities aim to create a robust framework that not only regulates misleading advertisements but also ensures transparency, accountability, and protection of consumers’ interests.
  • The guidelines, once finalized, are poised to shape a more ethical and consumer-friendly environment within the coaching industry.

SOURCE: https://www.indiatoday.in/education-today/news/story/draft-guidelines-to-curb-misleading-ads-by-coaching-centres-released-2503074-2024-02-16




RBI IMPOSES RESTRAINTS ON UNSPECIFIED CARD NETWORK

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently imposed restrictions on a yet-to-be-named card network in the country, citing unauthorized payments made through business cards.

EXPLANATION:

Card Networks in India:

  • India boasts five authorized card networks – Visa, Mastercard, RuPay, Diners Club, and American Express.
  • Unspecified Network: The RBI refrained from specifying the card network involved but pointed out that only one has operationalized the arrangement allowing unauthorized card payments via business cards.

Modus Operandi of Alleged Violations:

  • Unauthorized Payments:
    • The RBI identified a card network enabling businesses to make payments to entities not authorized to accept card transactions, a direct infringement of the PSS Act, 2007.
  • Payment Routing:
    • The alleged arrangement involved businesses making card payments through intermediaries to non-card-accepting entities.
  • Fund Transfer:
    • Intermediaries accepted card payments from corporates for commercial purposes and then transferred funds through IMPS, RTGS, or NEFT to non-card-accepting recipients.

RBI’s Concerns and Observations:

  • Payment System Qualification:
    • The RBI deemed the identified arrangement as constituting a payment system, necessitating authorization under Section 4 of the PSS Act.
    • The absence of such authorization rendered the activity without legal sanction.
  • Funds Pooling and Account Designation:
    • The intermediary pooled substantial funds into an account not designated under the PSS Act, raising regulatory concerns.
  • KYC Non-Compliance:
    • Transactions under this arrangement failed to comply with ‘originator and beneficiary information’ requirements, as stipulated in the ‘Master Direction on KYC.’

RBI’s Regulatory Action:

  • Directive to Cease Operations:
    • The RBI has directed the card network to suspend all such arrangements until further orders.
  • Clarification on Business Credit Cards:
    • While restraining the unauthorized arrangements, the RBI clarified that no restrictions were placed on the regular use of business credit cards.

Visa’s Response and Implications:

  • Visa’s Confirmation:
    • Although the RBI did not explicitly name the card network, Visa issued a statement acknowledging the regulatory directive.
  • Suspension of BPSP Transactions:
    • Visa confirmed suspension of all Business Payment Service Provider (BPSP) transactions until further notice, aligning with the RBI’s directive.
  • Normal Usage Continues:
    • The RBI clarification emphasized that normal business credit card usage remains unaffected.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI):

  • The origins of the Reserve Bank of India can be traced to 1926.
  • Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance – also known as the Hilton-Young Commission – recommended the creation of a central bank for India to separate the control of currency and credit from the Government and to augment banking facilities throughout the country.
  • The Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934 established the Reserve Bank and set in motion a series of actions culminating in the start of operations in 1935.
  • Since then, the Reserve Bank’s role and functions have undergone numerous changes, as the nature of the Indian economy and financial sector changed.
  • Starting as a private shareholders’ bank, the Reserve Bank was nationalised in 1949.
  • It then assumed the responsibility to meet the aspirations of a newly independent country and its people.
  • The Reserve Bank’s nationalisation aimed at achieving coordination between the policies of the government and those of the central bank.

Functions of RBI:

  • The functions of the Reserve Bank today can be categorised as follows:
    • Monetary policy
    • Regulation and supervision of the banking and non-banking financial institutions, including credit information companies
    • Regulation of money, forex and government securities markets as also certain financial derivatives
    • Debt and cash management for Central and State Governments
    • Management of foreign exchange reserves
    • Foreign exchange management—current and capital account management
    • Banker to banks
    • Banker to the Central and State Governments
    • Oversight of the payment and settlement systems
    • Currency management
    • Developmental role
    • Research and statistics

Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act, 2007:

  • The PSS Act, 2007 received the assent of the President on 20th December 2007 and it came into force with effect from 12th August 2008.
  • Under the PSS Act, 2007, two Regulations have been made by the Reserve Bank of India, namely, the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems Regulations, 2008 and the Payment and Settlement Systems Regulations, 2008.
  • Both these Regulations came into force along with the PSS Act, 2007 on 12th August 2008.
  • The PSS Act, 2007 provides for the regulation and supervision of payment systems in India and designates the Reserve Bank of India (Reserve Bank) as the authority for that purpose and all related matters.
  • The Reserve Bank is authorized under the Act to constitute a Committee of its Central Board known as the Board for Regulation and Supervision of Payment and Settlement Systems (BPSS), to exercise its powers and perform its functions and discharge its duties under this statute.
  • The Act also provides the legal basis for “netting” and “settlement finality”. This is of great importance, as in India, other than the Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system all other payment systems function on a net settlement basis.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/rbi-restraints-card-network-9164676/




DISCOVERY OF A NEW CRUSTACEAN IN CHILIKA LAGOON: PARHYALE ODIAN

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Researchers at Odisha’s Berhampur University have recently identified a new species of marine amphipod, belonging to the genus Parhyale, in Chilika Lake, Asia’s largest brackish water lagoon on India’s east coast.

EXPLANATION:

  • The crustacean has been named Parhyale odian after Odisha’s native language, Odia.
  • The discovery was made by researchers from Berhampur University, including an assistant professor in the Department of Marine Science, and three others.

  • The findings were published in the online edition of the journal Zootaxa on February 14, 2024, in an article titled “A new species of amphipod of the genus Parhyale from Chilika lagoon, India.”
  • The newly discovered species is brown in colour and approximately eight millimeters in length.
  • It possesses distinctive features, such as 13 pairs of legs, with the first pair utilized for capturing prey and feeding.
  • Notably, Parhyale odian is different from the existing 15 species in the genus, particularly due to the stout robust seta on the surface of the male gnathopod’s propodus (first pair of legs).
  • After thorough examination and testing in the university laboratory, it was confirmed as a new species.
  • The collected specimens have been deposited in the Zoological Survey of India’s Estuarine Biology Regional Centre at Gopalpur-On-Sea, Odisha, for additional research.

Ecological Significance:

  • Amphipods, including Parhyale odian, are a crucial group in marine ecosystems, playing a vital role in the marine food chain.
  • They serve as indicators for studying the impact of climate change and the health of coastal ecosystems.
  • Further research will delve into understanding the specific ecological roles of amphipods in coastal and marine environments.

Previous Discoveries by Researchers:

  • The researchers had made other significant discoveries in 2023, including two marine amphipods from Chilika Lake and one from the West Bengal coast.
  • The previously discovered species include Quadrivisio chilikensis and Demaorchestia alanensis from Chilika Lake and Talorchestia buensis from the West Bengal coastal area.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/researchers-find-new-crustacean-in-odisha-s-chilika-lagoon-94496




MYTHS THAT CAN RUIN YOUR UPSC DREAM

We all are charmed by the grandeur associated with the civil services in India. According to a report, UPSC civil services exam is one of the toughest exams of the world. Naturally, the preparation process for the exam will attract several myths around it.
But, as George Orwell famously said: “Myths, which are believed in, tend to become true. Hence, if you start believing in myths associated with the UPSC preparation, your dream of becoming a civil servant will surely get ruined.
Here, we are listing down some of the common myths about the UPSC and debunking them too:

Myth 1: Engineers have it easy in the UPSC exam.

This is a common myth among the students from non-science background. Time and again, toppers of the exam have proved that the UPSC exam is not skewed against students from humanities or commerce background. Be it Garima Lohia (AIR 2), Shruti Sharma (AIR 1) or Tina Dabi (AIR 1), all come from non-engineering background. Apart from them, there are many others who have cleared this exam without harbouring any ‘ifs and buts’ mentality.

Myth 2: Preparation requires 15-16 hours of study routine.

This is absolutely not true. The exam requires a dedicated and consistent performance. Always remember, this journey can be a long one for some aspirants. And, it is normal. Mental health is more important than anything else. Putting in more than 15-16 hours can take a toll on your health, which can affect your performance in the long run. Follow a disciplined regime, but it shouldn’t be taxing on the mind.

Myth 3: UPSC exam cannot be cracked with a job.

There are many aspirants who have cleared this exam, along with a full-time job. These candidates were not superhumans. All they had was the clear-cut goal in their mind. Besides knowing what should be studied, an aspirant should also know, or learn to know, what shouldn’t be studied.

Myth 4: Answer-writing should be done only after prelims.

This is a common misconception among aspirants, due to which they ruin their valuable years in preparation. They get caught in the vicious cycle of attempts and reattempts and getting stuck at the same stage where they clear prelims easily, but do not get the interview call. To break this cycle, answer-writing practice should be initiated early on.

Myth 5: You need to have super-human memory to clear this exam.

Unlike the state-PCS which focuses more on facts, the UPSC CSE exam is more about developing analytical skills. A person who has strong analytical skills with an ability to connect the dots between different issues would surely have an edge over other candidates.

Myth 6: UPSC exam prefers English-medium students.

UPSC doesn’t favour anyone with a particular background over others. It only has preferences for people with sharp analytical skills. Medium of instruction should never be counted amongst the hurdles. Just focus on deeper understandings of the subjects and issues plaguing the country. Eventually, you will develop officers-like qualities.

Myth 7: You need to read the ‘The Hindu’ newspaper inside-out.

There are certain aspirants who give more than four hours to study the newspaper. They even make notes of city-based stories. This not only wastes their precious time, but also provides them a pile of notes which are of no use at the time of revision. Candidates are required to read and analyze only the important articles. They can develop this understanding by following previous-year questions and syllabus.

Myth 8: You need to start your preparation right after school.

UPSC looks for a candidate who has a well-rounded personality. It can only be developed when you have greater exposures in life. Some parents enroll their kids in coaching institutes just after college. This unnecessarily burdens the child’s mind and limit his/her capability. It should only be the child’s prerogative to decide when to start his/her preparation.

Myth 9: Candidates from premier colleges are preferred during the personality test.

UPSC Interview consists of members from varied backgrounds. They are only looking for candidates who possess essential traits for administrative roles. It doesn’t matter which school or college you have been to. You only need to demonstrate officer-like qualities in the personality test.

Myth 10: My chances of success will increase only if I give multiple government exams.

A lot of candidates start preparing for multiple government exams simultaneously. Following this strategy in the beginning of the preparation can possibly backfire. The strategy to give other government exams simultaneously, or a ‘Plan B’, can be adopted after two unsuccessful attempts. A candidate meets failure only when his/her improvement stops. You can only how to bring improvements only under right guidance. So, always go for the trusted guidance.

These myths work as a potent tool in diminishing your chances of success. Never fall for them. Clearing this exam requires concerted efforts and a strong belief in your capabilities. Approach this exam with real expectations and unwavering dedication and success will follow you.




COMMON MISTAKES DURING UPSC PREPARATION

The preparation for the UPSC civil services examination can be an overwhelming experience for candidates. This is true not just because of the sheer amount of syllabus that an aspirant has to cover, but also because of the high magnitude of competition involved.
In this process, hence, a candidate is bound to make mistakes, if he/she does not have anyone to guide him/her through this quagmire.
But throw away all your worries out of the window as we have got your back. Here, we are listing down some of the common mistakes made by a UPSC aspirant, which we do not want you to repeat.

#Mistake 1: Studying without a plan.
This is a very common mistake. Most of the students lack any plan or strategy. They just go with the flow with a very common but flawed thinking — ‘ho jaega’. But it doesn’t happen like that. A scientific approach to studying gives you better returns than studying in an ad hoc manner. Do not waste your time in developing the ‘best strategy’. There is no such thing as the ‘best strategy’. Develop proper targets and adhere to them. Do not make your strategy too rigid. It should be agile. You may be required to make changes in it as and when required.

#Mistake 2: Buying every book available in the market related to the subject.
There may be some misguided candidates who would think that piling up books would help them in clearing the exam. They would get inspired by some random ‘source-tracing’ videos, which will show them how UPSC is asking questions from XYZ… book. This leads them to nowhere. Sticking to standard books, limiting your resources and giving them multiple readings is the best approach.

#Mistake 3: Procrastination or lack of consistency.
There is another category of candidates who are heavy procrastinators. They may be making meticulous daily time-table only to be remade the next day. They are the ones who fall for instant gratification and get easily distracted. Or, there may be candidates who will study for 15-18 hours in a day but then will not turn up for studying for the next two-three days. This lack of consistency has a high cost. Always remember, consistency is the key in this exam. You may not be able to put in 14-15 hours daily. But that is fine. Six-eight hours of consistent and quality study is enough to crack this exam.

#Mistake 4: Ignoring NCERTs.
This is a very silly mistake. The allure of reading advanced books can make some candidates skip NCERTs. But, UPSC has time and again asked easy but analytical questions from NCERTs. Hence, skipping NCERTs would not be advisable, especially when your basic concepts are not clear.

#Mistake 5: Not giving enough mock tests for prelims.
In recent years, the level of difficulty in prelims has increased considerably, and falling cut-offs reflect this. Hence, there is a need to develop MCQs-solving aptitude. This can only be developed when you solve more questions.

#Mistake 6: Ignoring CSAT.
Many candidates have faltered at the prelims stage just because they could not score 66 marks in the CSAT paper. One simple reason behind this is that aspirants simply ignore this subject. Assess your preparation for CSAT by attempting previous year papers. If you are comfortably scoring above 66 marks, then it is fine. Otherwise, you need to pull up your socks and give this paper some extra attention.

#Mistake 7: Lack of answer-writing practice.
There are several reasons for this. First, this happens when a candidate follows a segregated approach for prelims and mains, while what we require is an integrated approach. Second, when an aspirant thinks of attempting tests only after finishing the entire syllabus. Third, when a candidate focuses just on prelims and thinks of writing tests only when he/she clears the prelims so that his/her efforts are not wasted. In all the three scenarios, the result would not turn out to be desirable. Answer writing practice is one of the major determinants of your success. Ignoring it would make you stuck in the vicious cycle of giving attempt after attempt.

#Mistake 8: Giving up on writing tests on scoring low marks in mock tests.
This is true for many students. It is natural that initially a candidate would not be scoring very good marks. But a usual response by the candidates is to give up on answer writing practice. While the best approach is to know your mistakes and keep improving on them.

#Mistake 9: Not revising enough.
Because of the colossal syllabus, multiple revision becomes very important. Revision enhances the recalling power of the mind. Make short, hand-written or digital notes, depending on your convenience, and revise them frequently.

#Mistake 10: Underestimating or overestimating your potential.
UPSC exam is a great equalizer. Whether a candidate underestimates or overestimates his/her potential, both are equally harmful scenarios. While preparing, always be grounded and have a company of those people who can motivate you in your difficult times, while also giving you a reality check.

It is very easy to fall for traps, but a candidate needs to develop a level-headed mind in order to successfully navigate through this journey.




UNDERSTANDING THE COMPLEX RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN HDL-C AND CARDIOVASCULAR HEALTH

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: In the pursuit of health improvement, diagnostic tests play a crucial role, but interpreting the results requires a nuanced understanding of correlation and causation.

EXPLANATION:

Correlation vs. Causation:

  • Crucial Distinction:
    • The importance of distinguishing between correlation and causation when interpreting diagnostic test results has been emphasized.
    • It uses a vivid example of the correlation between ice cream sales and shark attacks to highlight the need for identifying underlying causative factors before implementing interventions.
  • Media Influence:
    • The impact of media headlines linking certain foods like coffee or chocolate to health benefits is discussed, emphasizing that terms like “linked” and “associated” imply correlation rather than causation.
    • The necessity of clear causative factors for effective interventions has been stressed.

The Case of HDL-C:

  • Historical Context:
    • HDL-C, labeled the “good” cholesterol due to its negative correlation with cardiovascular disease (CV) risk, has been a focus of research.
    • However, attempts to establish a causal link through pharmaceutical interventions raising HDL-C have not shown a reduction in CV disease risk.
  • Understanding Lipids:
    • A clarification is made regarding the discussion of lipids and cholesterol, differentiating between LDL and HDL particles and their cholesterol content (LDL-C and HDL-C).
    • The dynamic nature of these particles, constantly exchanging cholesterol with their surroundings has been emphasized.

Role of HDL-C in Cardiovascular Health:

  • Reverse Cholesterol Transport (RCT):
    • The role of HDL-C in the RCT pathway, a crucial process in preventing cholesterol deposits in coronary arteries.
    • HDL-C facilitates cholesterol efflux from cells and tissues, transporting it back to the liver for elimination.
  • Efflux Rate:
    • The critical factor in understanding HDL-C’s role is the rate of cholesterol removal (efflux rate) via HDL.
    • However, the routinely available measurement is HDL-C concentration, which does not provide insights into the efflux rate.

Complexity Revealed in Clinical Trials:

  • Failed Trials:
    • The failure of clinical trials attempting to establish a direct link between increased HDL-C and reduced CV risk.
    • Additional studies on the efflux rate highlight the complexity of HDL’s role, raising questions about its contribution to cardiovascular health.
  • Viewing HDL-C as an Indicator:
    • Presently, HDL-C is viewed as an indicator of overall good health, correlating with low CV risk.
    • The complexity of HDL-C pathway suggests that its role as a transporter of cholesterol remains a mystery.

Practical Implications:

  • Interpreting HDL-C Numbers:
    • While a high HDL-C number correlates with low CV risk, the article emphasizes the importance of considering other parameters.
    • A low HDL-C, however, may not be cause for concern, as modifiable factors like LDL-C, Apolipoprotein-B, exercise, and diet also influence CV risk.
  • Caution in Interpretation:
    • The article concludes by advising caution in interpreting correlational markers, drawing parallels with media headlines about coffee benefits.
    • Enjoying a morning cup of coffee may be pleasant, but the need to differentiate enjoyment from disease risk reduction has been stressed.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/how-hdl-c-is-actually-linked-to-cardiovascular-health-9160272/




WHOLESALE PRICE INFLATION MODERATES TO 0.27% IN JANUARY 2024

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: India’s Wholesale Price Index (WPI) data for January 2024 reveals a significant moderation in wholesale price inflation, marking the third consecutive month of positive growth after a seven-month deflationary period.

EXPLANATION:

  • The overall WPI inflation stood at 0.27%, reflecting the mildest price rise since November.

Overview of WPI Data:

  • Positive Growth Trend:
    • After a prolonged deflationary streak, the WPI has recorded positive growth for the third consecutive month.
  • Mild Inflation Rate:
    • January’s WPI inflation of 0.27% is a notable decline from the previous month’s 0.73%, indicating a moderation in wholesale price increases.
  • Sector-wise Analysis:
    • The moderation is primarily attributed to a 1.1% year-on-year drop in manufactured product prices.
    • While primary articles and food items witnessed a decrease in the rate of price rise to approximately 3.8% from over 5% in December.

Factors Influencing January’s Inflation:

  • Price Drivers:
    • The Commerce and Industry Ministry identifies increased prices of food articles, machinery & equipment, other manufacturing, minerals, and other transport equipment as the primary contributors to the positive inflation rate in January.
  • Month-on-Month Comparison:
    • On a month-on-month basis, the WPI reading decreased by 0.33% compared to December, with the Wholesale Food Index experiencing a 1.06% decline following a 2.18% dip in the previous month.
  • Fuel and Power Prices:
    • Fuel and power prices were 0.5% lower than January 2023 levels, marking a moderation from the previous months.
    • Electricity prices, however, rose by 3.3% in January compared to December 2023.

Food Inflation Dynamics:

  • Overall Decline:
    • The rate of inflation in primary food articles eased to a three-month low of 6.85% from 9.4% in December.
  • Specific Commodity Trends:
    • While the inflation rate for cereals eased to 4.1%, fruits witnessed a five-month low inflation of 1%.
    • Notably, onion inflation dropped from 91.8% in December to 29.2% in January.
  • Persistent High Inflation:
    • Despite the overall decline, certain food items such as vegetables (19.7%), pulses (16.1%), and paddy (9.6%) still registered relatively high inflation rates.

Manufactured Products and Disinflation:

  • Disinflation Trend:
    • Disinflation in manufactured products increased from -0.7% in December to -1.13% in January.
  • Price Changes by Segment:
    • Nine out of 22 product groups showed an increase in prices, while one segment remained constant.
    • Machinery & equipment, textiles, beverages, motor vehicles, trailers & semi-trailers, and rubber & plastics products experienced month-over-month price increases.
    • In contrast, prices dropped for food products, basic metals, chemicals, and some non-metallic mineral products.

Wholesale Price Index:

  • It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
  • Published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India.
  • Major criticism for this index is that the general public does not buy products at wholesale price.
  • The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.

Conclusion:

  • The moderation in wholesale price inflation in India for January 2024, coupled with specific trends in food and manufactured products, reflects a complex economic landscape.
  • While overall inflation has eased, the persistence of high inflation rates in certain food items underscores the need for continued monitoring and potential policy interventions to ensure sustained economic stability.
  • The nuanced analysis presented here provides a comprehensive understanding of the multifaceted factors influencing India’s wholesale price dynamics.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/indias-wholesale-price-inflation-decreased-in-january/article67844563.ece/amp/




HORSESHOE CRABS, LIVING FOSSILS OF THE SEA, DRAW ENDANGERED SPECIES PETITION

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Horseshoe crabs, often referred to as “living fossils,” are facing a significant threat to their existence, prompting environmental groups to petition the U.S. government for endangered species protection.

EXPLANATION:

  • This iconic marine arthropod, with a lineage dating back 450 million years, has seen a drastic decline in population, particularly in the Delaware Bay estuary, once considered a stronghold for their spawning activities.

Background:

  • Horseshoe crabs, despite their ancient lineage and primitive appearance, are harmless to humans and have been a familiar sight to beachgoers along the U.S. mid-Atlantic and Gulf Coasts.
  • Their populations have plummeted in recent decades, with spawning numbers in the Delaware Bay estuary down two-thirds since 1990.
  • Conservation groups also note an alarming 80% reduction in egg densities over the past four decades.

Contributing Factors:

  • Commercial Harvests:
    • Horseshoe crabs face threats from commercial harvests for bait and biomedical use.
    • The pharmaceutical industry, in particular, extracts their blue-coloured blood, which contains a clotting agent crucial for testing drugs and medical devices for bacterial endotoxins.
    • In 2022, nearly 1 million horseshoe crabs were harvested for this purpose.
  • Biomedical Industry Impact:
    • Regulations allow the biomedical industry to extract a portion of a horseshoe crab’s blood and release it alive; however, an estimated 10-15% of harvested animals die during this process.
    • The petition highlights concern that about 30% of horseshoe crabs collected for blood extraction die, contrary to official figures.
  • Over-Harvesting as Bait:
    • Horseshoe crabs are over-harvested as bait for commercial whelk and eel fisheries, contributing to further population decline.
    • Despite the imposition of quotas, there is no evidence of recovery.
  • Habitat Loss:
    • The creatures face growing habitat loss due to oceanfront development, dredging, pollution, coastal erosion, and sea-level rise associated with global warming.
    • Mass die-offs have been observed, with NOAA ranking the horseshoe crab’s overall vulnerability to climate change as “very high” in 2023.

Petition and Conservation Efforts:

  • A coalition of 23 environmental groups, led by the Center for Biological Diversity, has petitioned the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) for an endangered species declaration.
  • If granted, this designation would make it unlawful to harm or kill horseshoe crabs without a special permit.
  • The petition also seeks the designation of “critical habitat” for protection, particularly during spawning season.

Horseshoe crabs:

  • Horseshoe crabs are ancient marine arthropods that have been around for more than 450 million years.
  • They are found in shallow waters along the Atlantic coast of North America and in the Gulf of Mexico and are known for their unique appearance, with a hard exoskeleton and a long, pointed tail.
  • The crabs are represented by four extant species in the world.
  • Out of the four, two species are distributed along the northeast coast of India.
  • Only T gigas species of the horseshoe crab is found along Balasore coast of Odisha.
  • The crab was included in the Schedule IV of the Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972, under which, the catching and killing of a horseshoe crab is an offence.
  • Horseshoe crabs play an important ecological role as a food source for migratory shorebirds and other animals, and their eggs are an important food source for fish and other marine animals.

Conclusion:

  • The plight of horseshoe crabs, considered one of the world’s oldest and toughest creatures, highlights the urgent need for conservation measures.
  • Human activities, including commercial harvesting for biomedical purposes and as bait, alongside habitat loss and climate change, pose a severe threat to their survival.
  • The petition signals a crucial step towards acknowledging and addressing these threats to ensure the continued existence of this ancient species.
  • NOAA’s review of the petition will play a pivotal role in determining the future conservation status of horseshoe crabs in the United States.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/horseshoe-crabs-living-fossils-of-the-sea-draw-endangered-species-petition/article67840973.ece/amp/




THE ENVIRONMENTAL IMPLICATIONS AND TRANSITION TO SCIENTIFIC COAL MINING IN MEGHALAYA

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The environmental implications of transitioning from traditional rat-hole mining to open-cast mining of coal in Meghalaya.

EXPLANATION:

  • The shift is prompted by the National Green Tribunal’s ban on rat-hole mining in 2014, leading the authorities to consider open-cast progressive scientific mining as an alternative.
  • Despite the pending environmental clearance, four applicants have received approval for scientific coal mining, with the final hurdle being the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA)

Comparison of Mining Methods (Traditional Rat-Hole Mining vs. Open-Cast Mining):

  • Impact on Vegetation and Forest Cover:
    • Experts acknowledge that open-cast mining is expected to have a more significant impact on vegetation and forest cover compared to traditional rat-hole mining.
    • Central Mine Planning & Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL) officials suggest that rat-hole mining minimizes subsidence of land as workers maintain underground pillars to prevent soil collapse.
  • Subsidence of Land:
    • CMPDIL officials endorse the view that subsidence of land is minimal in rat-hole mining due to the maintenance of underground pillars.
    • This is contrasted with concerns about increased subsidence in open-cast mining.

Steps Toward Scientific Mining:

  • Clearance Process:
    • The Centre has given clearance to four applicants for scientific mining, and the final step is obtaining environmental clearance, which is expected to take 4-5 months.
    • The SEAC will issue terms of reference for the preparation of Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) and Environment Management Plan (EMP).
  • Reports Preparation:
    • The four project proponents will engage NABARD-empanelled consultants to prepare EIA and EMP reports based on the SEAC’s terms of reference.
  • Public Hearings:
    • After the reports are ready, the Meghalaya State Pollution Control Board will conduct public hearings where both reports will be circulated in local languages.
  • Clearance and Operation:
    • If everything proceeds smoothly, the SEAC is expected to grant clearance in four to five months.
    • Subsequently, the Meghalaya State Pollution Control Board will grant Consent to Establish (CTE) and Consent to Operate (CTO) to the four proponents.

Different types of Coal in India:

  • They are peat, lignite, bituminous coal and anthracite. Peat is a precursor to coal. Another name of Lignite coal is brown coal. Bituminous coal has high heating (Btu) value. Anthracite is also called hard coal.
  • Peat is a precursor to coal. It is a soft organic material and contains partly decayed plant and deposited mineral matter. On application of peat, it becomes coal.
  • Lignite coal is also called brown coal. It has the least concentration of carbon. It is the lowest grade coal.
  • Bituminous coal has high heating value. It is used in the generation of electricity. It appears smooth and shiny. However, it has layers.
  • Anthracite is hard and brittle. It has black lustre. It is also called hard coal. It has a high percentage of fixed carbon and low percentage of volatile matter.

Conclusion:

  • The transition from traditional rat-hole mining to open-cast scientific mining in Meghalaya involves a complex process of obtaining environmental clearances.
  • The discussion reflects a balance between environmental concerns, economic benefits, and regulatory procedures in shaping the future of coal mining in the region.
  • The decision-makers, while recognizing the environmental impact, are driven by legal mandates and economic considerations in paving the way for scientific mining.

SOURCE: https://theshillongtimes.com/2024/02/15/open-cast-mining-may-harm-the-environment-experts/