SUPREME COURT AFFIRMS JUDICIAL INDEPENDENCE: NO CHALLENGE TO JUDICIAL DECISIONS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The recent pronouncement by the Supreme Court reinforces the foundational principle that judicial decisions, made by competent judges within their jurisdiction, cannot be challenged as violating fundamental rights.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Court cited the precedent set in Naresh Shridhar Mirajkar Vs. State of Maharashtra, emphasizing the sanctity of judicial decisions in relation to matters brought before the court.

Background: Writ Petition Under Article 32

  • Petitioner’s Grievance:
    • The petitioner, aggrieved by the delay in the hearing of his criminal appeal in the High Court, filed a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution.
  • Court’s Observations:
    • The Court noted that a judicial decision’s challenge based on infringement of fundamental rights is not permissible.
    • Emphasized that the delay in the listing of the case is part of the judicial process and cannot be challenged under Article 32.

Writ Petition Dismissed: Maintaining Judicial Process Integrity

  • Maintainability of Article 32 Petition:
    • The Court asserted that a writ petition under Article 32 was not maintainable against the High Court’s order on case listing.
  • Limited Scope of Writ Remedy:
    • If seeking bail pending the criminal appeal, the petitioner must resort to an application under Section 389(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
    • Dismissed the writ petition as “misconceived.”

Judicial Powers and Mutual Respect: Supreme Court vs. High Courts

  • No Superintendence Powers Over High Courts:
    • The Court highlighted the absence of provisions conferring superintendence powers on the Supreme Court over High Courts in Chapter-IV of the Constitution.
  • Reference to Constitutional Scheme:
    • Cited Tirupati Balaji Developers (P) Ltd. Vs. State of Bihar (2004) 5 SCC 1, emphasizing the clear division of jurisdiction between the Supreme Court and High Courts.
    • Stressed the importance of mutual respect between the two institutions in the constitutional scheme.

Inappropriate Exercise of Discretionary Jurisdiction: Court’s Verdict

  • Dismissing the Petition:
    • The Court asserted that issuing the requested direction would be an inappropriate exercise of discretionary jurisdiction.
    • Emphasized that such action would show disrespect to another constitutional court.
  • Role of Supreme Court in Such Matters:
    • Even if the Article 32 petition is deemed maintainable, the Court’s role is limited to requesting the High Court, not issuing directives.

ARTICLE 32:

  • It is titled “Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part”.
  • Article 32(1): The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by this Part is guaranteed.
  • Article 32(2): The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warrant and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part.
  • Article 32(3): Without prejudice to the powers conferred on the Supreme Court by clauses (1) and (2), Parliament may by law empower any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction ill or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court under clause (2).
  • Article 32(4): The right guaranteed by this article shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution.

Conclusion: Upholding Judicial Integrity and Inter-Institutional Respect

  • The Supreme Court’s decision reinforces the independence of judicial decisions and affirms the need for respect between constitutional courts.
  • By dismissing the writ petition and underscoring the limited scope of intervention, the Court ensures the integrity of the judicial process and upholds the principles enshrined in the constitutional scheme.

SOURCE: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/judicial-decision-does-not-infringe-fundamental-rights-supreme-court-250128?infinitescroll=1




CAG REPORT UNVEILS PROCEDURAL LAPSES COSTING RS 4.47 CRORE IN MOEFCC PROJECTS

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The Comptroller Auditor General (CAG) of India has shed light on two projects initiated by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), amounting to a cost of Rs 4.47 crore to the public exchequer.

EXPLANATION:

  • The report underscores significant procedural lapses leading to the failure of these projects.

Project 1: Development of Polyols from Plant-based Oils

  • Background and Approval:
    • MoEFCC approved a two-year project in 2013, costing Rs 2.58 crore, for the development of polyols from plant-based non-edible oils.
    • Collaboration with the Indian Institute of Chemical Technology (IICT), Hyderabad, and an industrial partner.
  • Procedural Lapses:
    • Lack of a signed memorandum of understanding (MoU) defining responsibilities.
    • Delay in signing the bipartite agreement between IICT and the industrial partner until November 2017.
    • Absence of intermediate milestones and deliverables.
    • No financial safeguards, despite recommendations from the project monitoring committee (PMC).
  • Project Outcome:
    • IICT developed technology for polyols, but the industrial partner failed to install the pilot plant.
    • MoEFCC released payments despite non-completion, resulting in a total expenditure of Rs 1.04 crore.
  • Ultimatum and Conclusion:
    • MoEFCC issued an ultimatum in January 2023 for project completion, leading to its failure.
    • Industrial partner’s inability to establish the plant resulted in the project’s non-commercialization.

Project 2: Plasma Technology for Waste Destruction

  • Project Details and Approval:
    • MoEFCC approved a project in 2010 costing Rs 6.26 crore for plasma technology-based waste destruction in Gujarat.
    • Foreign collaboration, with Rs 3.71 crore as grants-in-aid from MoEFCC.
  • Procedural Lapses:
    • Change of foreign partner in 2013.
    • Misuse of ministry funds (Rs 1.6 crore) for RF torch purchase by the project proponent.
    • PMC meetings not conducted for five years (2015-2020).
  • Financial Mismanagement:
    • Expenditure of approximately Rs 2.42 crore on non-approved items such as building, land development, salary, etc.
    • Lack of monitoring by PMC and absence of legal agreements led to the project’s non-establishment.
  • Project Failure and Ultimatum:
    • PMC and Central Pollution Control Board deemed the project in poor state during a trial run in September 2022.
    • MoEFCC issued an ultimatum in January 2023 for project completion, which remained unfulfilled.

Overall Implications: Financial Burden and Lack of Accountability

  • Financial Impact:
    • Unnecessary expenses of Rs 3.43 crore due to the failure of both projects.
    • Specific mention of Rs 1.6 crore spent on the RF torch in the plasma technology project.
  • Lack of Monitoring and Legal Agreements:
    • Highlighting the absence of clear responsibilities, penalty provisions, and legal agreements.
    • PMC’s failure to monitor and guide project progress contributed to the overall failure.

Comptroller Auditor General (CAG):

  • CAG is an independent authority under the Constitution of India.
  • He is the head of the Indian audit & account department and chief Guardian of public purse.
  • It is the institution through which the accountability of the government and other public authorities (all those who spend public funds) to Parliament and State Legislatures and through them to the people is ensured.

Constitutional Provisions for Office of CAG:

  • Article 148 broadly deals with the CAG appointment, oath and conditions of service.
  • Article 149 deals with Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
  • Article 150 says that the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe.
  • Article 151 says that the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
  • Article 279 –Calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, whose certificate is final.

Annual audit plan as approved by CAG’s office is implemented in the field offices. The office conducts three types of audit viz., Compliance Audit, Performance/Theme Audit & Financial Attest Audit.

  • Compliance Audit: Compliance audit is an assessment as to whether the provisions of the applicable laws, rules and regulations made there under and various orders and instructions issued by the competent authority are being complied with.
  • Performance Audit: Performance audit is an independent assessment or examination of te extent to which an organization, programme or scheme operates economically, efficiently and effectively.
  • Financial Attest Audit: Financial attest audit is primarily concerned with expression of audit opinion on a set of financial statements. Financial attest audits are designed to reduce the possibility of a material misstatement in a financial statement and, therefore, assure credibility to such statements.

Conclusion: Urgent Need for Improved Oversight and Accountability

  • The CAG report emphasizes the urgent need for enhanced oversight, legal agreements, and meticulous monitoring to prevent procedural lapses, ensuring the efficient utilization of public funds in future projects initiated by MoEFCC.
  • The lack of these critical elements has resulted in financial losses and the failure of projects with potential environmental and technological benefits.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/cag-flags-moefcc-projects-costing-rs-4-47-crore-for-procedural-lapses-94593




DISCOVERY OF HYDROGEN-STRIPPED HELIUM STARS VALIDATES BINARY STAR EVOLUTION THEORIES

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Astronomers have recently achieved a breakthrough in their quest to locate a unique class of stars – hot, helium-covered orbs that had eluded discovery for over a decade.

EXPLANATION:

  • Led by Assistant Professor of the University of Toronto, a dedicated research team successfully confirmed a crucial prediction related to the evolution of binary stars.

Illustration of a kilonova explosion following the merger of two neutron stars

Theoretical Background: Gravity, Fusion, and Equilibrium

  • To appreciate this discovery, one must understand the delicate interplay between gravity and nuclear fusion within stars.
  • Despite Newton’s law of gravity suggesting the Sun should collapse onto itself, nuclear fusion in its core counteracts gravitational pull, maintaining the Sun’s equilibrium.
    • Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation states that every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with force directly proportional to the product of the masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
  • This equilibrium, known as the main sequence, is crucial for the stability of stars over billions of years.
  • The study further delves into the phenomenon of binary star systems, where the gravitational influence of one star can strip away the hydrogen layer of its companion, leaving a hot helium star with strong surface gravity.
  • Despite expectations of numerous such stars in the universe, only one binary system in the mass range of eight to 25 solar masses had been identified before this discovery.

Research Approach: Seven Years of Systematic Exploration

  • The research team, committed to validating existing astrophysical theories, spent seven years cataloging thousands of stars, employing a meticulous working hypothesis.
  • Their focus was on binary systems that initially comprised two main sequence stars, with one eventually becoming a helium star due to the stripping mechanism.

Ultraviolet Light Detection and speed analysis:

  • Helium stars emit more ultraviolet radiation than main sequence stars.
  • The researchers strategically used a telescope capable of detecting ultraviolet light to catalog around half a million stars in the Large and Small Magellanic Clouds.
  • Bright outliers in the data were identified as potential helium stars.
  • Studying the speeds of the identified stars revealed variations, indicating potential binary systems.
  • This meticulous process led to a shortlist of 25 stars, which became the focus of the final test involving optical spectra analysis.

Spectral Analysis: Confirming Hydrogen-Stripped Helium Stars

  • Optical spectra analysis, akin to deciphering a star’s fingerprint, revealed two distinct classes – Class 1 stars with a strong presence of helium and an absence of hydrogen, and Class 2 and Class 3 stars with varying hydrogen content.
  • The team concluded that Class 1 stars are helium-rich and hydrogen-depleted, with companions being low-mass main sequence stars or compact objects such as neutron stars or black holes.

Computer Modeling: Unveiling the Characteristics of Class 1 Stars

  • To further understand Class 1 stars, the researchers employed computer modeling.
  • The surface temperature of these stars was estimated to be approximately 20 times that of the Sun, with a surface gravity around 1,000 times that of Earth.
  • These findings painted a vivid picture of hot, strongly gravitating, helium-rich stars in binary systems.
  • The research team predicts that Class 1 stars, once reaching the end of their lifecycle, will culminate in hydrogen-poor supernovae, leaving behind ultra-dense neutron stars.
  • Furthermore, these neutron stars may eventually collide in powerful kilonova explosions, emitting gravitational waves.

Helium star:

  • A helium star is a class O or B star (blue), which has extraordinarily strong helium lines and weaker than normal hydrogen lines, indicating strong stellar winds and a mass loss of the outer envelope.
  • Extreme helium stars (EHe) entirely lack hydrogen in their spectra.
  • Pure helium stars lie on or near a helium main sequence, analogous to the main sequence formed by the more common hydrogen stars.

Nuclear fusion:

  • Nuclear fusion is defined as the combining of several small nuclei into one large nucleus with the subsequent release of huge amounts of energy.
  • It is the opposite reaction of fission, where heavy isotopes are split apart.
  • Nuclear fusion reaction involves combining two atomic nuclei to form a single heavier one, releasing an enormous amount of energy.
  • Such reactions do not occur at room temperature and large amounts of energy are required to create conditions conducive to generating fusion-powered energy.
  • It is the same fundamental reaction that powers the sun and other stars.

Conclusion: Bridging the Gap in Astrophysical Knowledge

  • The discovery of hydrogen-stripped helium stars fills a significant gap in our understanding of stellar evolution. By confirming theoretical predictions, this research not only expands our knowledge of the cosmos but also opens avenues for exploring the diverse influences of stars on the universe, from the creation of heavy elements to the generation of gravitational waves.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/binary-stripped-helium-stars-neutron-stars-kilonovae/article67870333.ece




Day-598 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | GEOGRAPHY

Day-598

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following pairs:
    Ports in news – Countries
    1. Haifa port – Israel
    2. Duqm port – Yemen
    3. Anjoun port – Seychelles
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    • The Port of Haifa is the largest of Israel’s three major international seaports, the others being the Port of Ashdod, and the Port of Eilat. Its natural deep-water harbor operates all year long and serves both passenger and merchant ships.
    • It has been in news due to takeover of operations of this port by Adani group of India.

    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    • The Port of Duqm is strategically located situated on south eastern seaboard of Oman, overlooking Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean.
    • It is straddled along critical sea lanes in the Arabian Sea and Gulf of Aden.
    • The Port of Duqm is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It offers India access to the Gulf of Oman, the Red Sea, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea. This location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region.
    Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
    • Anjoun is an island located in Comoros.
    • INS Trishul visited Port Anjouan, Comoros from 31 May to 02 June 23 as part of the Indian Navy’s long-range deployment.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    • The Port of Haifa is the largest of Israel’s three major international seaports, the others being the Port of Ashdod, and the Port of Eilat. Its natural deep-water harbor operates all year long and serves both passenger and merchant ships.
    • It has been in news due to takeover of operations of this port by Adani group of India.

    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    • The Port of Duqm is strategically located situated on south eastern seaboard of Oman, overlooking Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean.
    • It is straddled along critical sea lanes in the Arabian Sea and Gulf of Aden.
    • The Port of Duqm is strategically important for India’s maritime strategy in the Indian Ocean. It offers India access to the Gulf of Oman, the Red Sea, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea. This location is significant as it allows India to counter China’s expanding presence in the region.
    Pair 3 is matched incorrectly:
    • Anjoun is an island located in Comoros.
    • INS Trishul visited Port Anjouan, Comoros from 31 May to 02 June 23 as part of the Indian Navy’s long-range deployment.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. With reference to drainage pattern, consider the following statements:
    1. Dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain.
    2. Trellis pattern develops on a strong jointed rocky terrain.
    3. A rectangular pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other.
    4. Radial pattern develops when the stream flows in a different direction from a central peak.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Statements 1 and 4 are correct.
    Statement 1 is correct:
    Dendritic Drainage Pattern:
    • It is the most common form and resembles the branching pattern of tree roots.
    • The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain.
    • The pattern develops in areas where the rock beneath the stream has no particular structure and can be eroded equally easily in all directions.
    • Tributaries join larger streams at acute angles (less than 90°).
    • Examples- The rivers of the northern plains; Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    Trellis Drainage Pattern:
    • Trellis drainage develops in folded topography where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other.
    • Down-turned folds called synclines form valleys in which reside the main channel of the stream.
    • Such a pattern is formed when the primary tributaries of main rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at right angles.
    • Examples- The rivers in the upper part of the Himalayan region; Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra.
    Statement 3 is incorrect:
    Rectangular Drainage Pattern:
    • The rectangular drainage pattern is found in regions that have undergone faulting.
    • It develops on a strongly joined rocky terrain.
    • Streams follow the path of least resistance and thus are concentrated in places where exposed rock is the weakest.
    • The tributary streams make sharp bends and enter the main stream at high angles.
    • Examples- Streams found in the Vindhya mountain range; Chambal, Betwa and Ken.
    Statement 4 is correct:
    Radial Drainage Pattern:
    • The radial drainage pattern develops around a central elevated point and is common to conically shaped features such as volcanoes.
    • When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’.
    • Examples- The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range; Narmada and Son (tributary of Ganga).

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Statements 1 and 4 are correct.
    Statement 1 is correct:
    Dendritic Drainage Pattern:
    • It is the most common form and resembles the branching pattern of tree roots.
    • The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain.
    • The pattern develops in areas where the rock beneath the stream has no particular structure and can be eroded equally easily in all directions.
    • Tributaries join larger streams at acute angles (less than 90°).
    • Examples- The rivers of the northern plains; Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    Trellis Drainage Pattern:
    • Trellis drainage develops in folded topography where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other.
    • Down-turned folds called synclines form valleys in which reside the main channel of the stream.
    • Such a pattern is formed when the primary tributaries of main rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at right angles.
    • Examples- The rivers in the upper part of the Himalayan region; Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra.
    Statement 3 is incorrect:
    Rectangular Drainage Pattern:
    • The rectangular drainage pattern is found in regions that have undergone faulting.
    • It develops on a strongly joined rocky terrain.
    • Streams follow the path of least resistance and thus are concentrated in places where exposed rock is the weakest.
    • The tributary streams make sharp bends and enter the main stream at high angles.
    • Examples- Streams found in the Vindhya mountain range; Chambal, Betwa and Ken.
    Statement 4 is correct:
    Radial Drainage Pattern:
    • The radial drainage pattern develops around a central elevated point and is common to conically shaped features such as volcanoes.
    • When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is known as ‘radial’.
    • Examples- The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range; Narmada and Son (tributary of Ganga).

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following pairs:
    Hydropower projects – Rivers associated
    1. Kiru hydropower project – Chenab river
    2. Shanan hydropower project – Beas river
    3. Sunni hydropower project – Sutlej river
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    Location:
    • It is being developed over the Chenab River near the villages of Patharnakki and Kiru in Kishtwar district, Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
    • It is located between Kirthai II hydroelectric project to its upstream and Kwar hydroelectric project to its downstream.
    • It is a 624MW run-of-river project.
    • The project is being developed by Chenab Valley Power Projects (CVPP).
    • Beneficiary States: J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Rajasthan, Union territories of Chandigarh & Delhi.
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    • The Shanan hydropower project is developed on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas River.
    • It is a 110 MW power project located in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh, India.
    • It was commissioned in 1932 and is currently under the control of the Punjab Government.
    Controversy around the project-
    • The 99-year lease on the project is set to expire in March 2024, leading to a dispute between Himachal Pradesh and Punjab over its ownership and control.
    • Himachal Pradesh has made it clear that it will not renew or extend the lease and wants the project to be handed over to the state.
    • Punjab, on the other hand, is unwilling to part with the project and is prepared to pursue legal action to retain it.
    Pair 3 is matched correctly:
    Sunni hydropower project:
    • It is a run of river project.
    • It is being executed on the Sutlej in Shimla and Mandi districts of Himachal Pradesh and it would have a 71-metre-high concrete gravity dam and six generating units in its surface power house.
    • The project will generate 1,382 million units annually.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    Location:
    • It is being developed over the Chenab River near the villages of Patharnakki and Kiru in Kishtwar district, Jammu and Kashmir (J&K).
    • It is located between Kirthai II hydroelectric project to its upstream and Kwar hydroelectric project to its downstream.
    • It is a 624MW run-of-river project.
    • The project is being developed by Chenab Valley Power Projects (CVPP).
    • Beneficiary States: J&K, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Rajasthan, Union territories of Chandigarh & Delhi.
    Pair 2 is matched incorrectly:
    • The Shanan hydropower project is developed on the Uhl River, a tributary of the Beas River.
    • It is a 110 MW power project located in Mandi district, Himachal Pradesh, India.
    • It was commissioned in 1932 and is currently under the control of the Punjab Government.
    Controversy around the project-
    • The 99-year lease on the project is set to expire in March 2024, leading to a dispute between Himachal Pradesh and Punjab over its ownership and control.
    • Himachal Pradesh has made it clear that it will not renew or extend the lease and wants the project to be handed over to the state.
    • Punjab, on the other hand, is unwilling to part with the project and is prepared to pursue legal action to retain it.
    Pair 3 is matched correctly:
    Sunni hydropower project:
    • It is a run of river project.
    • It is being executed on the Sutlej in Shimla and Mandi districts of Himachal Pradesh and it would have a 71-metre-high concrete gravity dam and six generating units in its surface power house.
    • The project will generate 1,382 million units annually.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following pairs:
    Valleys in news – States/UTs
    1. Pengchem valley – Arunachal Pradesh
    2. Niti valley – Uttrakhand
    3. Muskoh valley – Ladakh
    4. Darma valley – Jammu and Kashmir
    How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation: Only pair 4 is matched incorrectly
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    Pangchen Valley:
    • Zemithang, the first stop of the 14th Dalai Lama during his flight from China-occupied Tibet in 1959, hosted a major Buddhist conference in April, 2023 attended by some 600 delegates, including Tibetan spiritual leaders, from across India.
    • Zemithang is located in the Pangchen Valley of Arunachal Pradesh.
    • It is a village and the last circle headquarters bordering Bhutan and Tibet.
    • Zemithang means “sand valley” and the people of the area are referred to as Pangchenpa, meaning “people who gave up sin”.

    Pair 2 is matched correctly:
    Niti Valley:
    • It is a remote valley located in the northernmost region of Garhwal Himalayas in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
    • The valley’s major river is the Dhauliganga which flows south-southwest.
    • Due to high altitude at Niti Valley the winter season is hard. Due to that most residents leave the Niti Valley during winter and come back in April.
    • There are 24 villages in the Niti Valley. Majority of population belongs to members of the Bhotiya scheduled tribe.
    • Niti, located at an elevation of 3,600 m, is the most important village of the valley.
    • Nestled within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Niti is the last village at the Indo-China border.
    Pair 3 is matched correctly: The Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley, which was once a battlefield during the Kargil War, has now opened up for tourists.
    About Mushkoh Valley:
    • It is located in Kargil’s Drass Sector of Ladakh and was a battlefield during the 1999 Kargil war between India and Pakistan.
    • The region includes the Gurez Valley in north Kashmir, which was previously inaccessible to civilians due to shelling from Pakistan but now connects with the Mushkoh Valley in Kargil’s Drass Sector.
    • Kaobal Gali, the highest pass at a height of 4,167 meters in Gurez, connects Gurez to Mushkoh Valley.
    • The Gurez Valley is close to the Line of Control (LoC) and is also home to ibex, musk deer and marmots, Himalayan brown bear and snow leopard.
    • The Kishanganga River flows through the valley.
    Pair 4 is matched incorrectly:
    Derma Valley:
    • A snow leopard has been sighted for the first time at a height of about 11,120 feet in the Darma valley in Uttarakhand’s Pithoragarh district.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation: Only pair 4 is matched incorrectly
    Pair 1 is matched correctly:
    Pangchen Valley:
    • Zemithang, the first stop of the 14th Dalai Lama during his flight from China-occupied Tibet in 1959, hosted a major Buddhist conference in April, 2023 attended by some 600 delegates, including Tibetan spiritual leaders, from across India.
    • Zemithang is located in the Pangchen Valley of Arunachal Pradesh.
    • It is a village and the last circle headquarters bordering Bhutan and Tibet.
    • Zemithang means “sand valley” and the people of the area are referred to as Pangchenpa, meaning “people who gave up sin”.

    Pair 2 is matched correctly:
    Niti Valley:
    • It is a remote valley located in the northernmost region of Garhwal Himalayas in Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.
    • The valley’s major river is the Dhauliganga which flows south-southwest.
    • Due to high altitude at Niti Valley the winter season is hard. Due to that most residents leave the Niti Valley during winter and come back in April.
    • There are 24 villages in the Niti Valley. Majority of population belongs to members of the Bhotiya scheduled tribe.
    • Niti, located at an elevation of 3,600 m, is the most important village of the valley.
    • Nestled within the Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Niti is the last village at the Indo-China border.
    Pair 3 is matched correctly: The Kaobal Gali-Mushkoh Valley, which was once a battlefield during the Kargil War, has now opened up for tourists.
    About Mushkoh Valley:
    • It is located in Kargil’s Drass Sector of Ladakh and was a battlefield during the 1999 Kargil war between India and Pakistan.
    • The region includes the Gurez Valley in north Kashmir, which was previously inaccessible to civilians due to shelling from Pakistan but now connects with the Mushkoh Valley in Kargil’s Drass Sector.
    • Kaobal Gali, the highest pass at a height of 4,167 meters in Gurez, connects Gurez to Mushkoh Valley.
    • The Gurez Valley is close to the Line of Control (LoC) and is also home to ibex, musk deer and marmots, Himalayan brown bear and snow leopard.
    • The Kishanganga River flows through the valley.
    Pair 4 is matched incorrectly:
    Derma Valley:
    • A snow leopard has been sighted for the first time at a height of about 11,120 feet in the Darma valley in Uttarakhand’s Pithoragarh district.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Which of the following statements best characterizes phreatomagmatic eruptions?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Phreatomagmatic eruptions:
    • Phreatomagmatic eruptions are volcanic events triggered by the interaction of magma with water, typically seawater.
    • These interactions lead to explosive releases of ash and steam.
    • The term “phreatomagmatic” combines “phreatic,” relating to water, and “magmatic,” referring to magma.
    • These eruptions often occur underwater and are characterized by the explosive nature of the ash and steam release.
    • A new island was born in Japan after underwater volcano eruption.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Phreatomagmatic eruptions:
    • Phreatomagmatic eruptions are volcanic events triggered by the interaction of magma with water, typically seawater.
    • These interactions lead to explosive releases of ash and steam.
    • The term “phreatomagmatic” combines “phreatic,” relating to water, and “magmatic,” referring to magma.
    • These eruptions often occur underwater and are characterized by the explosive nature of the ash and steam release.
    • A new island was born in Japan after underwater volcano eruption.

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Day-597 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | POLITY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. A Member of the Lok Sabha can be suspended only after the introduction of a motion and its adoption by the House.
    2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha empower the Speaker to suspend a member for disorderly conduct.
    Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    o Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for Lok Sabha
    • It empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for disorderly conduct.
    • This rule says that any Member so ordered to withdraw shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
    o Rules 374 and 374A – To deal with more recalcitrant
    • Rule 374 empowers the Presiding officers to name the legislators if the MP continues disrupting the House even after repeated warnings.
    • After that, the House can move a motion to suspend the MP for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session
    • Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001. The intention was to circumvent the necessity of adopting a motion for suspension.
    • Under this rule, the Speaker can name an MP, who shall then automatically stand suspended for five days or the remaining part of the session, whichever is less.
    • Provided that the House may, at any time, on a motion being made, resolve that such suspension be terminated.
    This makes it clear that there are instances when there is no need to pass a motion for the suspension of MPs named by the Speaker.
    Statement 2 is correct: Rule 374Aof the ‘Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha’deal with the disorderly conduct of Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha and the power of the Speaker to take disciplinary action against them.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    o Rule Number 373 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business for Lok Sabha
    • It empowers presiding officers to direct an MP to withdraw from the House for disorderly conduct.
    • This rule says that any Member so ordered to withdraw shall remain absent during the remainder of the day’s sitting.
    o Rules 374 and 374A – To deal with more recalcitrant
    • Rule 374 empowers the Presiding officers to name the legislators if the MP continues disrupting the House even after repeated warnings.
    • After that, the House can move a motion to suspend the MP for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session
    • Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001. The intention was to circumvent the necessity of adopting a motion for suspension.
    • Under this rule, the Speaker can name an MP, who shall then automatically stand suspended for five days or the remaining part of the session, whichever is less.
    • Provided that the House may, at any time, on a motion being made, resolve that such suspension be terminated.
    This makes it clear that there are instances when there is no need to pass a motion for the suspension of MPs named by the Speaker.
    Statement 2 is correct: Rule 374Aof the ‘Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha’deal with the disorderly conduct of Members of Parliament (MPs) in the Lok Sabha and the power of the Speaker to take disciplinary action against them.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements about the Union Finance Commission:
    1. The Constitution provides for the setting up of a Union Finance Commission every five years by the Parliament.
    2. The President of India causes the report of the Union Finance Commission to be laid before the Parliament.
    3. States have a legal right to receive moneys recommended by the Union Finance Commission.
    How many of the above given statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution, under Article 280, mandates the President of India to constitute a Finance Commission, not the Parliament.
    The Parliament plays a crucial role in the Finance Commission’s work, but not in its establishment. Once the Commission submits its report to the President, it is laid before both houses of Parliament. Parliament can then debate the report and make recommendations to the government on its implementation. However, the recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government. The government can choose to accept them in full, partially, or even reject them altogether.
    Constitutional Provisions:
    • Article 280: Establishes the Finance Commission and mandates its constitution by the President.
    • Article 281: Requires the President to lay the Commission’s report before Parliament. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)
    Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending grants and resource allocation between the Union and the States in India, states do not have a legal right to receive the exact amounts recommended by the Commission.
    While the Commission’s recommendations carry significant weight, they are not legally binding on the government. This means the Union government has the discretion to accept, modify, or even reject the recommended amounts.
    It is nowhere laid down in the constitution that the recommendations of the Commission shall be binding upon the government of India or that it would give rise to the legal right in favor of the beneficiary States to receive the moneys recommended to be offered to them by the commission.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution, under Article 280, mandates the President of India to constitute a Finance Commission, not the Parliament.
    The Parliament plays a crucial role in the Finance Commission’s work, but not in its establishment. Once the Commission submits its report to the President, it is laid before both houses of Parliament. Parliament can then debate the report and make recommendations to the government on its implementation. However, the recommendations of the Finance Commission are not binding on the government. The government can choose to accept them in full, partially, or even reject them altogether.
    Constitutional Provisions:
    • Article 280: Establishes the Finance Commission and mandates its constitution by the President.
    • Article 281: Requires the President to lay the Commission’s report before Parliament. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)
    Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Finance Commission plays a crucial role in recommending grants and resource allocation between the Union and the States in India, states do not have a legal right to receive the exact amounts recommended by the Commission.
    While the Commission’s recommendations carry significant weight, they are not legally binding on the government. This means the Union government has the discretion to accept, modify, or even reject the recommended amounts.
    It is nowhere laid down in the constitution that the recommendations of the Commission shall be binding upon the government of India or that it would give rise to the legal right in favor of the beneficiary States to receive the moneys recommended to be offered to them by the commission.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following:
    1. Liberty of thought
    2. Political liberty
    3. Liberty of expression
    4. Liberty of belief
    How many of the above given objectives are embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    The text of Preamble of Indian Constitution is as follow-
    WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
    JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
    LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
    EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
    and to promote among them all
    FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
    IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    The text of Preamble of Indian Constitution is as follow-
    WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
    JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
    LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
    EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
    and to promote among them all
    FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
    IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following:
    1. Gave recognition to the Portfolio System.
    2. Restoration of Legislative powers to Presidencies.
    3. Symbolic step towards Representative Government.
    How many of the above given statements are correct with respect to the Indian Councils Act,1861?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation: While the Indian Councils Act, 1861 marked a significant step in the evolution of India’s representative government, its political provisions were limited and had certain drawbacks. The key provisions are:
    • Recognition of the Portfolio System: Divided the Governor-General’s Council into departments and assigned each member a specific portfolio like finance, home, or public works.
    • Expansion of Legislative Council: Increased the number of members in the Governor-General’s Legislative Council and allowed for the appointment of some Indians through nomination by the Governor-General. This was the first time Indians were formally included in the legislative process, albeit in a limited way.
    • Restoration of Legislative Powers to Certain Presidencies: It restored legislative powers to the Bengal, Punjab and North-Western Provinces. This allowed these regional bodies to make laws on specific issues relevant to their territories.
    • Symbolic Step towards Representative Government: Although the Act’s powers remained heavily tilted towards the British, it symbolized a step towards representative government for Indians. Their inclusion in the legislative process, even in a limited capacity, fueled future demands for greater participation and self-governance.(Raja of Benaras, Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao)

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation: While the Indian Councils Act, 1861 marked a significant step in the evolution of India’s representative government, its political provisions were limited and had certain drawbacks. The key provisions are:
    • Recognition of the Portfolio System: Divided the Governor-General’s Council into departments and assigned each member a specific portfolio like finance, home, or public works.
    • Expansion of Legislative Council: Increased the number of members in the Governor-General’s Legislative Council and allowed for the appointment of some Indians through nomination by the Governor-General. This was the first time Indians were formally included in the legislative process, albeit in a limited way.
    • Restoration of Legislative Powers to Certain Presidencies: It restored legislative powers to the Bengal, Punjab and North-Western Provinces. This allowed these regional bodies to make laws on specific issues relevant to their territories.
    • Symbolic Step towards Representative Government: Although the Act’s powers remained heavily tilted towards the British, it symbolized a step towards representative government for Indians. Their inclusion in the legislative process, even in a limited capacity, fueled future demands for greater participation and self-governance.(Raja of Benaras, Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao)

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. In the context of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Other Election Commissioners (ECs) (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023, consider the following:
    1. The CEC can only be removed from his office in a manner similar to that of a Supreme Court judge.
    2. A Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary will be set up to prepare and present a panel of five eligible persons to the Selection Committee headed by the Prime Minister.
    3. The CEC is not eligible for re-appointment but an EC can be re-appointed provided his total terms of office should not be more than six years.
    How many of the above given provisions are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Section 11 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 states that:
    Section 11(1): The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
    Section 11(2):The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
    Section 11(3):The other Election Commissioners shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners (ECs), as the President may decide. The CEC and other ECs are appointed by the President.
    The Act specifies the same composition of the Election Commission; however, it adds that the CEC and other ECs will be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
    • A Search Committee will prepare a panel of five persons for the consideration of the Selection Committee.
    • The Search Committee will be headed by the Law Minister.
    • It will have two other members, not below the rank of Secretary to the central government, having knowledge and experience in matters related to elections.
    However, the Selection Committee may also consider candidates who have not been included in the panel prepared by the Search Committee.
    Statement 3 is incorrect:
    Section 9 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 states that:
    1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he assumes his office or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
    2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall not be eligible for re-appointment. (i.e. the Election Commissioner can be appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, but is not eligible for reappointment as Election Commissioner.)
    3. Where an Election Commissioner is appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than six years in aggregate as the Election Commissioner and the Chief Election Commissioner.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Section 11 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 states that:
    Section 11(1): The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
    Section 11(2):The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
    Section 11(3):The other Election Commissioners shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners (ECs), as the President may decide. The CEC and other ECs are appointed by the President.
    The Act specifies the same composition of the Election Commission; however, it adds that the CEC and other ECs will be appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
    • A Search Committee will prepare a panel of five persons for the consideration of the Selection Committee.
    • The Search Committee will be headed by the Law Minister.
    • It will have two other members, not below the rank of Secretary to the central government, having knowledge and experience in matters related to elections.
    However, the Selection Committee may also consider candidates who have not been included in the panel prepared by the Search Committee.
    Statement 3 is incorrect:
    Section 9 of the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 states that:
    1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he assumes his office or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
    2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall not be eligible for re-appointment. (i.e. the Election Commissioner can be appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, but is not eligible for reappointment as Election Commissioner.)
    3. Where an Election Commissioner is appointed as Chief Election Commissioner, his term of office shall not be more than six years in aggregate as the Election Commissioner and the Chief Election Commissioner.

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ART 142, WHY SC QUASHED CHANDIGARH MAYOR’S ELECTION, AND WHY IT MATTERS

THE CONTEXT:

The invalidation of votes in the Chandigarh mayoral elections highlights critical vulnerabilities in our electoral system and underscores the need for substantive reforms, as per various committee reports.

THE ISSUES:

  • The Importance of Electoral Integrity: The court’s intervention highlights the crucial role of fair and impartial elections in a democratic society. It emphasizes the sanctity of electoral processes and the need to safeguard the integrity of the voting process.
  • *Role of the Judiciary in Protecting Democratic Principles: The Supreme Court exercised its powers under Article 142 to ensure justice and protect the principles of democracy. This case serves as a reminder of the judiciary’s vital role in upholding constitutional values and addressing electoral malpractices.
  • Electoral Malpractices and Their Consequences: The court’s findings of invalidated ballots and Presiding Officer misconduct underscore the seriousness of electoral malpractices. It raises concerns about the vulnerability of electoral systems to manipulation and the need for stringent measures to prevent such incidents.
  • Defections and Their Impact on Electoral Results: The post-election defection of three AAP councillors to the BJP illustrates the potential impact of defections on electoral outcomes. This issue raises questions about the stability of political alliances and the need for anti-defection laws in local body elections.
  • *Defections and Their Impact on Electoral Results: The post-election defection of three AAP councillors to the BJP illustrates the potential impact of defections on electoral outcomes. This issue raises questions about the stability of political alliances and the need for anti-defection laws in local body elections.
  • Due Process and Accountability: The court’s scrutiny of the Presiding Officer’s actions and its direction for a show-cause notice demonstrates the importance of due process and accountability in electoral matters. It stresses the need for impartial investigations and appropriate actions to address electoral misconduct.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Legislative Reforms and Capacity Building: Amend municipal laws to clearly define and possibly expand the roles and responsibilities of mayors to include more substantive decision-making powers. Enhance the training of mayors and municipal officials to improve governance and leadership skills.
  • Absence of Anti-Defection Law in Municipal Elections: Introduce anti-defection laws at the municipal level to prevent political instability and ensure accountability of elected representatives. Political parties should be transparent about their alliances and electoral strategies to build trust among voters.
  • Public Engagement and independent observers: Increase efforts to communicate transparently with the public about the electoral process and its integrity. Allow nonpartisan election observers to monitor elections, enhancing credibility and public trust.
  • Preventive Protocols and Election Monitoring: Introduce robust preventive measures, as recommended by the Dinesh Goswami Committee on Electoral Reforms, to maintain the integrity of the voting process and prevent tampering or invalidation of ballots.
  • Constitutional Safeguards and Reforms: Bring about constitutional amendments and safeguard provisions to enhance the conduct of elections and protect them from undue interference, following the guidelines set forth by the NCRWC under Justice Venkatachaliah.
  • Enhanced Electoral Oversight: Implement ARC’s recommendations for strengthening State Election Commissions with greater autonomy and resources to prevent undue influence and ensure free and fair elections at the municipal level.
  • Legal Reforms for Electoral Integrity: Enforce stringent legal frameworks, as suggested by the Law Commission, to deter and punish electoral malpractices, including the invalidation of votes by election officials.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Supreme Court’s intervention in the Chandigarh mayoral election incident provides a clear and forceful reminder that robust and stringent measures must be implemented to guarantee the integrity of local elections in India. Taking immediate action to reinforce transparency and accountability within the country’s local governance framework is imperative.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 The local self-government system in India has not proved to be an effective instrument of governance”. Critically examine the statement and give your views to improve the situation. (2017)

Q.2 The strength and sustenance of local institutions in India have shifted from their formative phase of ‘Functions, Functionaries and Funds’ to the contemporary stage of ‘Functionality.’ Highlight the critical challenges local institutions face regarding their functionality in recent times. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Evaluate the implications of the Supreme Court’s intervention in the Chandigarh mayoral election and suggest reforms for ensuring electoral integrity at the municipal level, referencing recommendations of various committees.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/art-142-why-sc-quashed-chandigarh-mayors-election-and-why-it-matters-9171963/




RECALIBRATING MERIT IN THE AGE OF ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the concept of meritocracy where individuals are rewarded based on their abilities and hard work rather than their social status is being extensively debated. Once seen as a fair system for rewarding individuals based on their abilities and efforts, is facing significant challenges in the era of Artificial Intelligence (AI).

CONCEPT OF METERIOCRACY:

  • It is a political, social, or economic system in which individuals are assigned to positions of power, influence, or reward solely on the basis of their abilities, hard work, and achievements rather than their social status or background. It represents a rejection of hereditary aristocracy and nepotism.
  • The theory of meritocracy presupposes the possibility of equality of opportunity. The evolution of meritocracy has witnessed significant transformations, influenced by the critiques and analyses of thinkers such as Michael Young, Michael Sandel, and Adrian Wooldridge.
  • Proponents and critics of meritocracy offer compelling arguments about its impacts on society, highlighting its virtues and shortcomings.

DIFFERENT VIEWS OF SCHOLARS:

  • Michael Young’s View: Young, a British sociologist, foresaw a dystopian meritocratic world in his satirical book, The Rise of the Meritocracy (1958). He envisioned a future, specifically 2034, as a society where social class and mobility were determined solely by intelligence and effort, as measured through standardised testing and educational achievement. It was a critique of the then-emerging trend towards a merit-based system, which he feared would lead to a new form of social stratification.
  • Michael Sandel’s Stand: Sandel’s critique focuses on the divisive consequences, arguing that meritocracy fosters a sense of entitlement among the successful and resentment among those left behind, thereby eroding social cohesion. Critical theorists also argue on similar lines by critiquing meritocracy for masking deeper power dynamics and inequalities. They say that meritocracy can perpetuate social hierarchies by legitimising the status of the elite under the guise of fairness and neutrality.
  • Post-Structuralists Views: Post-structuralists challenge the notion of merit, questioning who defines merit and how it is measured. They argue that concepts of merit are socially constructed and reflect the biases and interests of those in power. Post-structuralism highlights the fluidity and contingency of merit, suggesting that meritocratic systems are inherently subjective and can reinforce existing inequalities.
  • Adrian Wooldridge: Wooldridge lays stress on the practical evolution of meritocracy and its potential for reform. In his book, The Aristocracy of Talent, he explores how meritocracy, initially a force for progress and social mobility, has inadvertently fostered new inequalities by becoming somewhat hereditary, with privileges being passed down generations. Despite recognising the potential for meritocracy to create a new elite, Wooldridge believes in its intuitive fairness and proposes reforms that include making selective schools as “escalators into the elite” while improving access for underprivileged students and advocating better technical education.

ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE(AI) AS A DISRUPTIVE FACTOR

  • The introduction of AI complicates the notion of meritocracy by questioning traditional metrics of merit, worsening biases, and polarizing the workforce.
  • Recalibrating meritocracy in the age of AI requires a nuanced understanding of its impact on societal structures and a deliberate rethinking of how merit is defined and rewarded.
  • AI, with its rapidly evolving capabilities, will be reshaping merit and the idea of meritocracy in six ways.
    1. AI questions the basis of human merit by introducing a non-human entity capable of performing tasks, making decisions, and even ‘creating’ at levels that can surpass human abilities. OpenAI’s Sora is the evidence that creativity is not an exclusive human trait anymore.
    2. The advent of AI challenges the traditional notion of individual merit by prioritising access to technology. Individuals with access to AI tools gain a significant advantage, not necessarily due to their personal abilities, but because of the enhanced capabilities of these tools.
    3. AI systems trained on historical data can perpetuate and even worsen biases present in that data, leading to discriminatory outcomes in areas such as hiring, law enforcement, and lending. These biases can disadvantage groups which are already marginalised.
    4. AI would push the workforce towards either high-skill, high-wage jobs involving complex problem-solving and creativity or low-skill, low-wage jobs requiring physical presence which AI cannot replicate yet. This polarisation will lead to socioeconomic disparities, as individuals without access to high-level education and training are pushed towards lower-wage roles.
    5. The opaque nature of many AI algorithms, coupled with the concentration of power in a few tech giants, poses significant challenges to accountability. In a meritocratic society, individuals must understand the criteria by which their efforts and talents are evaluated. However, the ‘black box’ nature of many AI systems can obscure these criteria, making it difficult for individuals to know how to advance or challenge decisions made by AI, thus eroding the meritocratic ideal.
    6. At the organisational level, the core of AI’s power lies in data and algorithms that process this data. Tech giants with access to unprecedented volumes of data have a distinct advantage in training more sophisticated and accurate AI models. This data hegemony means that these entities can set the standards for what constitutes ‘merit’ in the digital age, potentially sidelining smaller players who may have innovative ideas but need access to similar datasets.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Understanding the criteria: In a meritocratic society, individuals must understand the criteria by which their efforts and talents are evaluated. There needs to be a sophisticated understanding of the interplay between technology and societal structures.
  • Rethinking of merit in age of AI: Meritocracy in the age of Artificial Intelligence calls for a deliberate rethinking of how merit is defined and rewarded when AI tools can both augment human capabilities and deepen existing inequalities.
  • Strategies for AI potential in India: India, being the fastest growing economy with the second largest population in the world, has a significant stake in the AI revolution. Recognising AI’s potential to transform economies, Indian needs to strategies its approach.
  • Establishing standards: Together, the public and private sectors can work to establish standards and policies that ensure new technologies, such as AI and ML. It will help drive human progress and create job opportunities for future workforce and grow our economies.

THE CONCLUSION:

The concept of meritocracy has sparked intense debate, with proponents highlighting its virtues in rewarding abilities and achievements, while critics point to its potential for fostering entitlement and worsening social divides. With the advent of AI, the idea of merit is further complicated, raising questions about human versus machine merit. Addressing these complexities requires a nuanced approach to redefine merit and ensure fairness in the digital age.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. Discuss how Artificial Intelligence can be used to meet India’s socio-economic needs. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. Recently, the concept of meritocracy has been extensively debated. Discuss the implications of Artificial Intelligence on the concept of meritocracy, considering its impact on social stratification, biases, and workforce dynamics. Suggest potential reforms in this context.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/recalibrating-merit-in-the-age-of-artificial-intelligence/article67861320.ece




GLOBAL ORDER AND THE PALE SHADOW OF MULTILATERALISM

THE CONTEXT: The latest Munich Security Conference was held from February 16th to 18th, 2024 at the 19th-century Bayerischer Hof. It was evident that India’s foreign policy is starting to deliver at the world stage. The elite geopolitical conference celebrated its 60th anniversary but there is a sense that the world order has turned upside down by a variety of events.

SHIFT IN WORLD ORDER:

  • Affect future prosperity of the world: The impacts of the ongoing global trajectory if not corrected, are likely to imperil the future and shared prosperity of the world. There is rising geopolitical tensions and rising economic uncertainty forcing governments to abandon the benefits of multilateral global co-operation.
  • Major shift from cold war era: The period following the Cold War was largely peaceful as great power wars seemed remote, multilateralism flourished, globalisation was on the up, democracy flourished, human rights spread, and poverty declined. Today, almost all countries seem dissatisfied with the state of the global order.
  • Rise of global south: The Global South is more assertive in today’s world and hit on the unequal nature of the international global order and seeks a realignment. The developed world worries about its reduced influence in the face of emerging powers from the Global South. On one hand, Countries like India will stake their rightful claim on the world stage and will be playing an increasingly important role in world affairs. On the other hand, traditional custodians of the global order are no longer satisfied with the state of affairs as they see their fortunes shrinking.
  • Lose-lose dynamics: The resulting ‘lose-lose’ dynamics are already unfolding in many policy areas and engulfing various regions. The ongoing Russia-Ukraine war has undermined pathways to a co-operative security order for the foreseeable future. Europe finds itself in a position of neither being able to reap a peace dividend nor avoid the huge capital outlay needed for its defence.
  • China’s growing influence: China’s growing militarisation of its land and maritime borders is raising fears about Beijing’s intentions. As a result, many countries in the region are seeking closer security ties with the United States and the West is also trying to reduce its economic dependency on China.
  • Issue of wars and stability: The war in Gaza has set back the regional rapprochement that had gathered momentum and began shifting zero-sum mindsets among regional powers. Similarly, in Africa, a series of coups in the Sahel has lost the Europeans and the US important partners in promoting development and democracy, and the risk of continued infighting means these populations will likely not see lasting peace in the near to mid-term. That’s a massive geography in disarray.
  • Deglobalisation: Geopolitical tensions are forcing states to pursue economic security rather than maximising mutual gains. As a result, capital and trade flows are beginning to fragment along geopolitical lines.
  • Important arenas are left unaddressed: Climate talks, the one area where global co-operation is a must, is now trapped in the ongoing geopolitical tensions between low- and high-income countries, the Global South vs the Global North. Technology, another area where its benefits could be used to benefit the world, is now a bitter battle for supremacy.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Rules based international order: There is a need for reform in the multilateral institutions and brings out rules based international order so that it better delivers on its promised mutual benefits.
  • India can take a lead: A world caught in the middle of such risks seriously imperils global security and a prosperous future. In such situation, India stands out as a beacon of hope in these troubled times given the impact Indian foreign policy is having on the world stage.
  • Inclusive policies: Governments needs to pursue more inclusive economic, social, and environmental agendas, they provide a further benefit to the world economy.  Well-governed economies where prosperity is widely shared are more likely to welcome expanded international trade, investment and immigration.
  • Stability and prosperity: In order to stifle nationalist and protectionist feelings, there is a need to produce stability and security. There is a need to bring emerging countries into closer association with world governance, implying that, in return, they share the responsibility and the costs of underpinning capitalism and an open society.
  • Integration and cooperation: Promotion of new forms of international and regional integration that preserve and allow the multiple dimensions of life to flourish. Cooperation is vital to make the world economy more predictable, to mitigate vulnerabilities and to strengthen the free trade system. The culture of tolerance and understanding must be promoted which provides space for positive dialogue.

THE CONCLUSION:

In recent years, the debate over deglobalization and shift in world order has increased in volume due to political, social and economic developments. To ensure the long-term functioning of the multilateral system and better achievement of its goals, it is essential to strengthen accountability, transparency, inclusivity and democratic partnerships.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 “The long sustained image of India as a leader of the oppressed and marginalised nations has disappeared on account of its newfound role in the emerging global order.’ Elaborate. (2019)

Q.2 Evaluate the economic and strategic dimensions of India’s Look East Policy in the context of the post-Cold War international scenario. (2016)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Globalisation is facing a crisis as there is a waning of concerted support, and growing protectionism, which are challenging the virtue of international cooperation. Discuss its implications and a suitable way forward.

SOURCE: https://www.deccanherald.com/opinion/india-munich-security-conference-globalisation-foreign-policy-multilateralism-global-south-2901726




UNREST IN SENEGAL: POLITICAL POSTPONEMENT AND DEMOCRATIC DILEMMA

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The recent surge of protests and political turmoil in Senegal has brought the West African nation into the global spotlight.

EXPLANATION:

  • Triggered by the postponement of Presidential elections and subsequent clashes between opposition leaders and riot police, the crisis raises questions about the nation’s democratic legacy.

Background to the Crisis

  • President’s decision to postpone the Presidential elections scheduled for February 25 has been met with widespread discontent.
  • The grounds for the delay revolve around a dispute between the National Assembly and the Constitutional Council regarding the selection of candidates.
  • The contentious decision has effectively granted President an additional 10 months in office, resetting the election date to December 15.
  • Opposition legislators, expressing their fury over the deferred elections, were physically removed from the National Assembly by riot police.
  • The manner in which the government-packed house facilitated the postponement intensified the opposition’s grievances, leading to heightened tensions across the country.

Current Unrest and Recent History

  • The ongoing unrest mirrors the violent clashes witnessed in Dakar in the preceding year, deemed the worst in decades.
  • Amnesty International reported over 20 lives lost and hundreds injured during the 2021 protests.
  • The violence erupted following the imprisonment of leading opposition candidate, known for his anti-corruption stance and resistance against French influence.
  • In January of the current year, the Constitutional Council barred a leading opposition candidate from participating in the Presidential race, intensifying the opposition’s dissatisfaction.
  • President’s claim of eligibility for a third term, based on a reinterpretation of constitutional timelines, has further fueled speculation about his political maneuvering.

Senegal’s Democratic Record

  • Historical Democratic Stability
    • Senegal, until recent events, held a distinguished record as the only coup-free West African nation.
    • Since gaining independence in 1960, the country has experienced smooth transfers of power under a multi-party democratic system, distinguishing it from its neighbors.
  • Regional Leadership in Democracy
    • President, instrumental in ECOWAS missions for democratic transitions, played a crucial role in the Gambia’s 2017 intervention to remove Yahya Jammeh.
    • Senegal’s historic commitment to promoting democratic values in the region has faced a significant setback with the current crisis.

Implications and Regional Context

  • A Break from Regional Stability
    • Senegal’s decision to delay elections and the subsequent unrest marks a departure from the country’s traditional role in promoting regional stability.
    • As military takeovers grip neighboring nations, Senegal’s deviation raises concerns about the potential regression of democratic values in the region.
  • Call for International Reconsideration
    • The return of military dictatorships in African countries during the 2020s prompts a reconsideration of the traditional role of global powers in the region.
    • Senegal’s pivotal position in advocating for democracy in West Africa is now under scrutiny.

Senegal:

  • Senegal is a West African country that shares its northern border with Mauritania, its eastern border with Mali, its southern border with Guinea and Guinea-Bissau, and its western border with the Atlantic Ocean.
  • To the northwest, it surrounds the small country of The Gambia, creating an enclave around the Gambia River.
  • Senegal spans an area of approximately 196,712 km2 (75,951 mi2).

Conclusion

  • The unfolding crisis in Senegal, characterized by political postponement, protests, and the erosion of democratic norms, poses a formidable challenge to the nation’s historical legacy.
  • As the international community observes, the outcome of this crisis may not only impact Senegal’s democratic standing but also reverberate across a region grappling with the resurgence of authoritarian rule.
  • The need for a nuanced and strategic approach to address the complexities of the situation is paramount.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/why-have-fresh-protests-erupted-in-senegal-explained/article67861530.ece




ARTICLE 142: SUPREME COURT’s EXTRAORDINARY POWERS IN CHANDIGARH MAYORAL POLL CASE

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The recent overturning of the Chandigarh mayoral poll results by the Supreme Court, invoking Article 142 of the Constitution, has sparked discussions about the nature and scope of this extraordinary legal provision.

EXPLANATION:

  • BJP candidate Manoj Sonkar won the election with 16 votes, defeating AAP-Congress alliance candidate Kuldeep Kumar who received 12 votes.
  • Eight votes cast for Kumar were declared invalid by the returning officer citing “marks” on them.
  • AAP alleged foul play and accused the officer of manipulating the process.
  • Sonkar, however, resigned subsequently, while three AAP councillors defected to the BJP.

Understanding Article 142

  • Article 142 grants the Supreme Court unique and extraordinary powers to ensure “complete justice” between parties when legal remedies are lacking.
  • This power becomes relevant when the law or statutes fall short in providing a remedy for a particular situation.
  • In the Chandigarh mayoral poll case, the Supreme Court invoked Article 142 to overturn the election results.
  • The court asserted that it is duty-bound, under Article 142, to uphold the integrity of the electoral process.

Historical Exercise of Article 142

  • Scope Defined by Judgments
    • Over time, the Supreme Court has defined the scope and limitations of Article 142 through various judgments.
    • Notably, in the Prem Chand Garg case, the court emphasized that its powers must align with constitutional rights and not contravene statutory laws.
    • The Bhopal gas tragedy case highlighted the wide scope of Article 142, stating it operates at a different level and quality.
  • Criticism and Counterarguments
    • The sweeping powers of Article 142 have faced criticism for being arbitrary and ambiguous.
    • Critics argue that the lack of a standard definition for “complete justice” grants the court excessive discretion, potentially leading to misuse.
    • In response, the court, in the Supreme Court Bar Association vs Union of India case (1998), clarified that Article 142 powers are supplementary and should not supplant substantive laws.
    • The court imposed self-checks to prevent misuse.

Controversies Surrounding Article 142

  • Separation of Powers Concerns
    • One of the criticisms against Article 142 revolves around concerns regarding the separation of powers doctrine.
    • Critics argue that judicial overreach may occur when the judiciary ventures into lawmaking, a domain traditionally reserved for the legislature and executive.
    • However, the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution intended to limit the use of Article 142 to exceptional situations where existing laws fail.
  • Accountability and Judicial Overreach
    • Another critique questions the lack of accountability for judicial actions under Article 142.
    • The judiciary’s exercise of these powers has been scrutinized in the context of potential judicial overreach.
    • However, the Supreme Court, in the State of Karnataka vs Umadevi case (2006), emphasized that “complete justice” means justice according to law, not sympathy, and should not perpetuate illegality.

Article 142:

  • Article 142 titled ‘Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court and orders as to discovery, etc.’ has two clauses:
  • Article 142(1)
    • The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
    • Any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India.
    • It may be in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe.
  • Article 142(2)
    • The Supreme Court shall have all and every power to make any order for the purpose of securing the attendance of any person, the discovery or production of any documents, or the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself.

Conclusion

  • The recent use of Article 142 in the Chandigarh mayoral poll case showcases the court’s commitment to ensuring fairness and justice.
  • While the provision’s broad powers have sparked debates and criticisms, the judiciary’s efforts to define its scope and impose checks on its exercise highlight a nuanced approach.
  • The ongoing dialogue surrounding Article 142 underscores the delicate balance between safeguarding justice and avoiding arbitrary use of extraordinary powers by the judiciary.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/what-is-article-142-chandigarh-mayoral-poll-results-9171621/




RAISINA DIALOGUE 2024: NAVIGATING GLOBAL CHALLENGES

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The Raisina Dialogue, an annual conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics, is set to kick off its ninth edition from today until February 23 in New Delhi.

EXPLANATION:

  • With a focus on addressing the most pressing global issues, the conference is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together leaders from political, business, media, and civil society backgrounds.
  • We will delve into the key aspects of the Raisina Dialogue 2024, covering its purpose, theme, participants, and more.

Purpose and Background

  • It is hosted by the Observer Research Foundation in collaboration with the Ministry of External Affairs.
  • The Raisina Dialogue serves as a crucial forum for global leaders to engage in cross-sectoral discussions.
  • Designed to facilitate conversations among heads of state, cabinet ministers, local government officials, and thought leaders, the conference aims to tackle complex geopolitical and geoeconomic challenges.
  • The conference will be inaugurated by Prime Minister, emphasizing India’s commitment to fostering international dialogue.
  • Greece’s Prime Minister will join the inaugural session as the chief guest, highlighting the global significance of the event.
  • The 2024 edition of the Raisina Dialogue is themed “Chaturanga: Conflict, Contest, Cooperate, Create.”
  • This theme underscores the dynamic and multifaceted nature of global challenges, encapsulating the need for strategic thinking and collaboration.
  • The theme is structured around six thematic pillars, guiding discussions over the three-day conference.

Thematic Pillars

  • Tech Frontiers: Regulations & Realities: Exploring the challenges and opportunities at the intersection of technology and international regulations.
  • Peace with the Planet: Invest & Innovate: Addressing environmental concerns and sustainable practices, emphasizing investment and innovation.
  • War & Peace: Armouries & Asymmetries: Analyzing global security dynamics, focusing on military strategies and asymmetrical threats.
  • Decolonising Multilateralism: Institutions & Inclusion: Examining the evolution of multilateral institutions and promoting inclusive approaches.
  • The Post 2030 Agenda: People & Progress: Discussing the global agenda beyond 2030, with a focus on societal progress and well-being.
  • Defending Democracy: Society & Sovereignty: Exploring challenges and strategies to defend democratic values, emphasizing societal and sovereign aspects.

Participants and Global Reach

  • More than 2,500 participants from approximately 115 countries will physically attend the conference, while millions are expected to engage through various digital platforms.
  • The diverse participants include ministers, former prime ministers, presidents, military commanders, technology leaders, academics, journalists, scholars on strategic affairs, and experts from leading think tanks.

Conclusion

  • The Raisina Dialogue 2024 emerges as a pivotal moment for global leaders to collaboratively navigate the complexities of the contemporary world.
  • With its diverse participants and comprehensive thematic pillars, the conference is poised to foster meaningful dialogue and strategic solutions to address the multifaceted challenges facing the global community.
  • As the international community tunes in, the Raisina Dialogue stands as a testament to the importance of inclusive and informed discussions in shaping a better future.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-raisina-dialogue-9171750/




BRIGHTEST OBJECT IN THE UNIVERSE: J0529-4351 AND IT’S MASSIVE ACCRETION DISC

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: In a groundbreaking discovery reported in Nature Astronomy, astronomers have identified J0529-4351, a black hole surrounded by the largest and brightest accretion disc ever found.

EXPLANATION:

  • This celestial object stands out as the brightest entity in the universe, emitting light that surpasses anything observed before.
  • We will delve into the characteristics of J0529-4351, shedding light on its enormity and the technological advancements that facilitated its recent detection.

The Enormity of J0529-4351

  • J0529-4351’s accretion disc spans a staggering seven light years across, making it a colossal structure in the cosmic landscape.
  • This disc serves as a captivating gateway to a place of no return.
  • It is a domain where the gravitational forces are so intense that nothing, not even light, can escape.

The Brightest Object in the Universe

  • The intensity of light emitted from J0529-4351’s accretion disc is awe-inspiring, registering at a mind-boggling 500 trillion times brighter than the Sun.
  • This luminosity implies a voracious appetite, as the black hole engulfs material equivalent to the mass of our Sun every day.
  • With a mass estimated to be between 15 to 20 billion times that of our Sun, J0529-4351 stands as the brightest known object in the universe.

Black Hole Feeding Frenzy

  • J0529-4351’s brilliance is a remnant of a bygone era in the universe when black holes engaged in a feeding frenzy.
  • Rapidly growing supermassive black holes, like J0529-4351, were once more common, as they attracted stars and gas clouds into their gravitational clutches.
  • However, in the present universe, such feeding frenzies are waning, as the available gas has largely transformed into stars and settled into orderly orbits around dormant black holes.

The Age of Sleeping Giants

  • Supermassive black holes in the current universe are mostly dormant, resembling sleeping giants.
  • The once chaotic cosmic environment, where collisions between stars and black holes were frequent, has transitioned into a more stable state.
  • Even if a star were to approach a black hole today, it would likely execute a slingshot maneuver, evading capture.

Accretion Discs: Unfriendly Territories

  • Accretion discs, such as the one around J0529-4351, are not only gateways to the point of no return but also hostile environments.
  • These discs resemble colossal storm cells, with clouds glowing at temperatures reaching several tens of thousands of degrees Celsius.
  • The rapid movement of these clouds, reaching speeds of up to 100,000 kilometers per second, makes accretion discs inhospitable and perilous for any form of life.

Technological Advances and Discovery

  • The discovery of J0529-4351 was made possible through a massive astronomical survey of the entire sky, facilitated by advanced telescopes and a ten-year partnership between Australia and the European Southern Observatory.
  • Traditional search methods, avoiding the limitations of machine learning, were employed to identify extreme objects like J0529-4351, which might be overlooked by automated algorithms.

Black Hole:

  • Black holes are points in space that are so dense they create deep gravity sinks. Beyond a certain region, not even light can escape the powerful tug of a black hole’s gravity.
  • In other words, Black holes are regions in space where an enormous amount of mass is packed into a tiny volume.

Supernova:

  • A supernova is what happens when a star has reached the end of its life and explodes in a brilliant burst of light.
  • Supernovas can briefly outshine entire galaxies and radiate more energy than our sun will in its entire lifetime.
  • They’re also the primary source of heavy elements in the universe.
  • According to NASA, supernovas are “the largest explosion that takes place in space.”

Conclusion

  • J0529-4351 stands as a testament to the vastness and complexity of the universe. Its discovery not only adds a dazzling entry to the cosmic record but also underscores the advancements in astronomical technology and international collaborations that enable humanity to unravel the mysteries of the cosmos. As we continue to explore the depths of space, J0529-4351 serves as a beacon, guiding our quest for understanding the most extreme phenomena in the universe.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/science-technology/the-brightest-object-in-the-universe-is-a-black-hole-that-eats-a-star-a-day-94557




U.S. VETO ON GAZA CEASE-FIRE RESOLUTION

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: The United States’ veto of a U.N. Security Council resolution calling for an immediate ceasefire in Gaza has sparked international criticism.

EXPLANATION:

  • The move comes amid escalating conflict between Israel and Palestinian militant group Hamas, leading to a surge in casualties and displacement.
  • The U.S. circulated its own resolution, noteworthy for including the term “cease-fire” but without an immediate implementation clause.
  • Ambassador justified the veto, citing potential harm to delicate negotiations related to freeing hostages in Gaza.

International Reactions

  • Allied Criticism: Traditional U.S. allies such as France, Malta, and Slovenia, joined China and Russia in criticizing the U.S. stance.
  • Humanitarian Appeal: Slovenia emphasized the intolerable human toll in Gaza, while France called for an end to Israeli operations for the sake of humanitarian concerns.

Global Disapproval

  • Failure of the Resolution: Algeria’s envoy expressed disappointment in the Security Council’s failure to send a strong message to Palestinians.
  • Historical Judgment: Algeria’s representative urged Security Council members to examine their consciences, questioning how history would judge them.
  • Imminent Ground Incursion: Israel’s planned move into the southern Gaza Strip raised concerns, with the U.S. denying accusations of covering for an imminent ground incursion.
  • Retaliatory Campaign: The death toll in Gaza surged, prompting increased pressure on Israel, including from the U.S., to exercise restraint.

Diplomatic Dynamics

  • Russian Critique: Russia’s envoy accused the U.S. of attempting to divert attention from its veto exercise, emphasizing the unacceptability of Algeria’s text.
  • Intentions Questioned: Some diplomats raised eyebrows, speculating on whether the U.S. truly seeks the resolution or aims to prompt a Russian veto.
  • Potential Unease: The mere introduction of a U.S. counter-resolution is seen as likely to “make Israel nervous,” reflecting concerns about the evolving diplomatic landscape.

U.N. Security Council:

  • The United Nations Charter established six main organs of the United Nations, including the Security Council.
  • Under the United Nations Charter, the functions and powers of the Security Council are:
    • to maintain international peace and security;
    • to develop friendly relations among nations;
    • to cooperate in solving international problems and in promoting respect for human rights;
    • to be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations.
  • It has 15 Members, and each Member has one vote.
  • Under the Charter of the United Nations, all Member States are obligated to comply with Council decisions.
  • The Security Council takes the lead in determining the existence of a threat to the peace or act of aggression.
  • It calls upon the parties to a dispute to settle it by peaceful means and recommends methods of adjustment or terms of settlement.
  • In some cases, the Security Council can resort to imposing sanctions or even authorize the use of force to maintain or restore international peace and security.
  • The Security Council held its first session on 17 January 1946 at Church House, Westminster, London. Since its first meeting, the Security Council has taken permanent residence at the United Nations Headquarters in New York City.
  • It also travelled to many cities, holding sessions in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, in 1972, in Panama City, Panama, and in Geneva, Switzerland, in 1990.
  • Veto power is a special power given to the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC), namely China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
  • Essentially, it gives these countries the ability to reject or veto any action by the UNSC that does not align with their national interests or foreign policy objectives.
  • In the United Nations Security Council, decisions are made with a majority of 9 votes of the 15 Council members’ votes. All decision is rejected if one of the five permanent members of the Security Council makes use of its veto

Conclusion

  • The U.S. veto on the Gaza cease-fire resolution has generated intense international debate, highlighting the complexities of diplomatic efforts in the context of the Israel-Palestine conflict.
  • The alternative U.S. resolution reflects a nuanced approach, attempting to balance concerns for an immediate cease-fire with ongoing negotiations and broader geopolitical considerations.

SOURCE: https://www.courthousenews.com/us-vetoes-security-council-vote-on-gaza-cease-fire-pushes-alternative/




WSDP Bulletin (21/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Maharashtra Assembly unanimously clears 10% Maratha quota; CM Shinde says it will survive test of law READ MORE

2. US vetoes Security Council vote on Gaza cease-fire, pushes alternative READ MORE

3. India, Sri Lanka take trade pact talks ahead READ MORE

4. Inflation expectations may stabilise, edge down going ahead: RBI bulletin READ MORE

5. Rules that edge out women from employment for getting married are ‘coarse’, unconstitutional: Supreme Court READ MORE

6. Global study quantifies rise in blood clots, heart inflammation following COVID-19 vaccination READ MORE

7. Raisina Dialogue begins today: Everything you need to know about the conference READ MORE

8. What is Article 142, invoked by Supreme Court to overturn Chandigarh mayoral poll results? READ MORE

9. The brightest object in the universe is a black hole that eats a star a day READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. A 100-year-old story of British brutality & Sikh sacrifice READ MORE

2. Caste census lessons for new government in Bihar READ MORE

3. Are Dalits homogenous or heterogenous? READ MORE

4. Calm assessment: On the extent of ‘deemed forest’ READ MORE

5. Heed SC’s directive on saving forests READ MORE

6. Definition of forest: SC underscores concerns over land diversion READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Having panchayats as self-governing institutions READ MORE

2. Judicial clarity on free speech READ MORE

3. SC examines divorced Muslim women’s right to maintenance under Section 125 of the CrPC READ MORE

4. TN resolution voices South India’s concerns READ MORE

5. SC bonds ruling a reminder how weak India’s key institutions are READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Why are Indians falling ill so frequently? READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Tolerance, coexistence taking root in UAE READ MORE

2. How effective is the UN in conflict mitigation READ MORE

3. India is on the right track in Nepal READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. MSP is the minimum support farmers need to stay in business READ MORE

2. Small farmers’ interests overlooked READ MORE

3. Rate Cut Dilemma READ MORE

4. Green Revolution, 2.0 READ MORE

5. Towards Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA): Strategies, obstacles, and visions for a sustainable future READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Warming up to climate change: How does climate change impact extreme weather events? READ MORE

2. Air pollution needs decentralised, micro solutions READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Dark Net Woes READ MORE

2. Keep it wholesome: On shaping a national cervical cancer control programme READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Tech Wars or Old Battlefields: Lessons from the Recent Conflicts READ MORE

2. The future of counterterrorism: Evolving online tools and tactics READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Religion, a precise science of creating clarity READ MORE

2. Well done, Milords: SC did the right thing in overturning Chandigarh mayor’s elections. Poll process integrity defines democracy READ MORE

3. Work and wisdom READ MORE

4. Seeking truth in the world of deception READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. Gram sabhas have a significant role in fostering self-sufficiency and sustainable development at the grass-roots level by leveraging local resources for revenue generation. Examine.

2. Reservations alone can’t alleviate economic deprivation; they must be complemented by the increased availability of jobs and strong, inclusive growth. Comment in the light of recent developments.

3. Discuss why the UN is facing myriad obstacles in its quest for global harmony. How structural drawbacks to the intertwined interests of its members are affecting its effectiveness in conflict mitigation?

4. The Green Revolution transformed India from a ship-to-mouth existence to self-reliance, but it also sowed the seeds of its own destruction, leading to a grave farming crisis in the country. Examine.

5. Delimitation of constituencies on the basis of the present population will not only lead to inequitable representation in parliament but it will violate the 84th Constitutional amendment. Examine.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • Broad-mindedness is related to tolerance; open-mindedness is the sibling of peace.
  • There is a need to educate elected representatives and the public on the significance and the need for panchayats to be able to survive on its own resources.
  • Gram sabhas have a significant role in fostering self-sufficiency and sustainable development at the grass-roots level by leveraging local resources for revenue generation.
  • There is a need to educate elected representatives and the public on the significance of raising revenue to develop panchayats as self-governing institutions.
  • Small farmers lack the means to be part of MSP-driven procurement system. Despite the focus of the farmers’ talks on pulses, this needs to be addressed.
  • Withdrawing from regional trading agreements and insulating the farm sector may render it vulnerable to price volatility, with direct implications for domestic food price inflation.
  • Reservations alone can’t alleviate economic deprivation. They must be complemented by the increased availability of jobs and strong inclusive growth.
  • Reservations alone can’t alleviate economic deprivation; they must be complemented by the increased availability of jobs and strong, inclusive growth.
  • From structural drawbacks to the intertwined interests of its members, the UN faces myriad obstacles in its quest for global harmony.
  • The Green Revolution transformed India from a ship-to-mouth existence to self-reliance. But the Green Revolution was not an unmixed blessing. Over the decades which followed, it sowed the seeds of its own destruction, leading to a grave farming crisis in the country.
  • In the complex tapestry of global economic dynamics, India finds itself at a crossroads as the murmurs of a delayed rate cut gain momentum.
  • Delimitation of constituencies on the basis of the present population will lead to inequitable representation in parliament.
  • As terrorists and violent extremists adapt their online tactics in the era of AI, counterterrorism efforts should also evolve, employing new tools and approaches.
  • Climate-Smart Agriculture holds promise in building a robust agri-food system amidst the intensifying effects of climate change, however, there is a pressing need to enhance current initiatives.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.

50-WORD TALK

  • The demands of agitating farmers encapsulate broader systemic inequities within India’s farming landscape. While addressing these demands is crucial, sustainable solutions must prioritise the empowerment of small and marginal farmers. Assured support for pulses must be accompanied by marketing and financial reforms.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



TIES ACROSS THE SEA: ON THE INDIA-UAE CLOSE RELATIONSHIP

THE CONTEXT: Recent visit of India’s Prime Minister is his seventh visit to UAE since 2014, indicates the government’s desire to bring out the best of the India-UAE relationship in the Gulf region.

MORE ON THE NEWS

  • President of UAE has also expressed his appreciation to PM for accepting the invitation to speak at the World Government Summit 2024 in Dubai.
  • Prime Minister has inaugurated Abu Dhabi’s first Hindu temple, the BAPS temple which is built on a 27-acre site in Abu Mreikhah, near Al Rahba off the Dubai-Abu Dhabi Sheikh Zayed Highway.
  • India and the UAE have signed agreements to collaborate in areas such as energy, infrastructure, investments, and archive management.

KEY HIGHLIGHTS OF THE PACT

  • Bilateral Investment Treaty will strengthen a broad-based investment partnership. It will not only protect existing investments but also promote further capital flows between the two economies.
  • Inter-Governmental Framework Agreement on the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) aims to enhance regional connectivity.
  • Memorandum of Understanding for cooperation on Digital Infrastructure Projects will establish a comprehensive cooperation framework. This includes investment cooperation in the digital infrastructure sector and the exchange of technical knowledge and skills. Government and regulatory authorities will form partnerships under this MoU, focusing on high power computing, digital innovation, and data management platforms.
  • Memorandum of Understanding in the field of Electricity Interconnection and Trade will focus on green hydrogen, energy storage, and cooperation on energy security and trade.
  • Cooperation Protocol between the National Library and Archives of the UAE and the National Archives of India will establish expansive bilateral cooperation in the field of restoration and preservation of archival material. This protocol will also bolster cooperation in archives management via the exchange of expertise, historical information, research, and studies.
  • Agreement on interlinking of the instant payment platforms – UPI (India) and AANI (UAE) will enable seamless cross-border transactions.
  • Agreement on inter-linking domestic debit/credit cards – RuPay (India) with JAYWAN (UAE) is a significant step in fostering financial sector cooperation, which will boost the universal acceptance of RuPay across the UAE.
  • The MoU on the Development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) aims to foster engagement between the two countries to support the Maritime Heritage Complex at Lothal, Gujarat.
  • The new initiative Bharat Mart at Jebel Ali, which will further promote bilateral trade and serve as a platform for enhancing the utilization of CEPA by leveraging the strategic location of Jebel Ali port. Bharat Mart would support micro, small and medium sector enterprises from India by providing them an effective platform to reach out to international buyers and promote their products across Middle East, Africa, and Eurasia.

SIGNIFICANCE OF THE RELATIONSHIP:

  • UAE is India’s pre-eminent partner in the region in terms of both the strength and the breadth of our partnership. It really extends to every aspect of human endeavour, whether it is food security, energy security, counterterrorism or multilateral cooperation.
  • Economy: The UAE is now India’s third largest trading partner, India’s second largest export destination, and fourth largest source of
  • Diaspora: A central reason for the UAE being India’s closest partner in West Asia is strong diaspora of Indian community, which has been the most significant contributor to the UAE’s economy since the country was formed in 1971. The diaspora also contributes about 18% of India’s global remittances.
  • New developments: There are emerging strategic bond across newer sectors fintech, clean energy and climate action, food security, digital payments, investments, defence and cyber security and education.
  • Mutual values of cooperation: There is a mutual value of tolerance and pluralism, and “shared heritage of humanity” which serves as the most significant bonds between the two countries. India-UAE ties are also built on a bedrock of history and cultural engagement that includes centuries-old maritime trade.

ISSUES:

  • Trade Barriers Impacting Indian Exports: Non-tariff barriers (NTBs) like Sanitary and Phytosanitary (SPS) measures and Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT), notably mandatory Halal certification, have impeded Indian exports, particularly in sectors such as poultry, meat, and processed foods. These barriers have led to a significant decline in processed food exports to the UAE by almost 30% in recent years.
  • Chinese Economic Influence: China’s “Cheque Book Diplomacy,”characterized by offering low-interest loans, has overshadowed Indian economic endeavours in the UAE and the broader Middle East.
  • Certain frictional points: While India’s technological prowess and the UAE’s positioning as a trade and industry hub bring complementarities, the changes in their polity and societies bring possible friction points.
  • Concern over secularism: UAE as a theocratic monarchy seeks to democratise its governance and have a more pluralistic system, such as the decision on the temple in Abu Dhabi has expressed concern over the rise of majoritarian and sectarian forces in India.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Streamline trade flows: India and the UAE should work together to address non-tariff barriers that impede Indian exports, particularly in sectors such as processed foods. Both countries can engage in dialogues to streamline regulations and facilitate smoother trade flows.
  • Increasing investment: India can boost its economic presence in the UAE by increasing investments in key sectors and exploring opportunities for joint ventures and partnerships. Fostering a conducive business environment and promoting entrepreneurship can attract more Indian businesses to the UAE.
  • Counter Chinese influence: India and the UAE can collaborate to counter Chinese economic influence in the region by promoting transparency, sustainability, and fair business practices.
  • Addressing concern of migrants: Both countries should work towards improving the rights and welfare of migrant workers in the UAE, including reforming the Kafala system. It can be done by ensuring fair wages, decent living conditions, and protecting workers’ rights.

THE CONCLUSION:

India and the United Arab Emirates share good bilateral relations and India’s recent proactive diplomacy in West Asia has seen the emergence of the UAE as a significant partner. Even though the relations between India and the UAE are acquiring new heights, there are a few challenges and bottlenecks that need to be addressed if the true potential of the bilateral relationship is to be achieved.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. The question of India’s Energy Security constitutes the most important part of India’s economic progress. Analyse India’s energy policy cooperation with West Asian countries. (2017)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. How has India-UAE relationship progressed since its inception and highlight the significance and associated frictions of the relationship. Suggest the measures to boost the relationship further, discuss in the context of newer developments in the relationship.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/ties-across-the-sea-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-india-uae-close-relationship/article67860741.ece




BRAVE NEW WORLD: ON THE INDIA-EUROPEAN FREE TRADE ASSOCIATION AGREEMENT AND IPR

THE CONTEXT: As the draft of the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and European Free Trade Association (EFTA) has been finalised. There is a strong likelihood that India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) would soon enter into a free trade deal.

WHAT IS EUROPEAN FREE TRADE ASSOCIATION (EFTA)?

  • The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland.
  • It was set up in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention for the promotion of free trade and economic integration between its members.
  • The main tasks of the association are threefold:
  • Maintaining and developing the EFTA Convention which regulates economic relations between the four EFTA states.
  • Managing the Agreement on the European Economic Area (EEA Agreement), which brings together the Member States of the European Union and three of the EFTA States – Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway – in a single market, also referred to as the “Internal Market”.
  • Developing EFTA’s worldwide network of free trade agreements.

What is India- EFTA trade agreement?

  • It is a broad-ranging agreement that is being negotiated between India and the four countries since 2008 to increase investment by these countries in India and reduce tariffs, on a range of exports from these countries.
  • Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) is the name of free trade negotiations between India and EFTA Countries.
  • Over the past two decades, the total trade between the EFTA States and India has been growing steadily. In 2022, the combined EFTA-India merchandise trade surpassed USD 6.1 billion.
  • The primary imports to the EFTA States consisted of organic chemicals (27.5%), while machinery (17.5%) and pharmaceutical products (11.4%), excluding gold, constituted the main exports to India.

ISSUES:

  • IPR rights: There is a bone of contention relating to intellectual property rights and has persisted as an issue since 2008.
  • Constant tussle between inventors and generic drug companies: There is a constant tussle between the inventors and the generic-drug companies over the issue of affordability. The nature of the pharma industry costs much to discover a useful effective drug and relatively little to make generic copies of it.
  • Issue of data exclusivity: Data exclusivity is an embargo clause that puts a minimum of six-year embargo on clinical trial data generated during the testing and development of a drug. Data exclusivity also applies to drugs not patented in India. This ensures adequate Intellectual Property Rights protection for the original drug manufacturers and incentivising innovation and R&D. However, it hampers the development of cheap generic drugs in the developing countries, particularly India and decreases the accessibility and affordability of latest drugs, hampering healthcare outcomes.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Invest in research: India’s rise in the drug manufacturing chain in the last few decades means that it must invest in an ecosystem that can conduct ethical drug trials and make new molecules and therapeutics from scratch. The government must invest in fundamental research to be able to develop reliable drugs. It can be done by providing grants or incentives to pharmaceutical companies to invest in research and development of generic versions of essential medicines.
  • Address the monopoly of the west: There is a need to change the perception and situation that drug development do not remain confined to the west. For example, during covid 19 pandemic a lot of development of several novel technology approaches to developing vaccines was seen in India.
  • Utilising anti-counterfeiting technologies for counterfeit drugs: It can be done through imaging technologies, variable data printing of unique numbers or barcodes with speciality inks, including invisible inks, and with RFID.
  • Strong regulatory framework:There is a need to strengthen regulations that ensure the safety, quality, and efficacy of generic medicines. It can be done by creating a clear approval process for generic drugs to enter the market.

THE CONCLUSION:

India has firmly rejected the demand from four European nations in the EFTA bloc for the inclusion of a ‘data exclusivity’ provision in proposed free trade agreements, citing its commitment to protecting the interests of the domestic generic drugs industry. As negotiations with EFTA progress, India remains focused on promoting fair and equitable trade relations while upholding its principles of protecting domestic industries.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. In the present geo-political scenario, the EU and India appear to be natural partners and they need to leverage existing opportunities. Discuss. (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. India’s firm stance against the inclusion of data exclusivity provisions in FTAs reflects its commitment to safeguarding the interests of its generic drug industry. Comment.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/brave-new-world-on-the-india-european-free-trade-association-agreement-and-ipr/article67853988.ece




THE RISE OF ‘INTELLIGENCE DIPLOMACY’ IN A TIME OF GLOBAL SECURITY CHALLENGES

THE CONTEXT: India has applied new diplomatic tactics based on intelligence, meetings, consultations, and naval diplomacy. Such approaches are evidence of India’s movement from seclusion toward integration into the global security dialogue. Of importance, too especially, is India’s movement towards fruitful intelligence cooperation and modernizing its intelligence agencies.

ISSUES:

  • Intelligence Diplomacy: Intelligence diplomacy is the policy priority, so India shares the data with the allied countries’ governments and security agencies. This suggests that India is moving from isolationist to mutually intelligent relationships.
  • Conference Diplomacy: India’s participation in the conference diplomacy in the form of the Raisina Dialogue, which is an event supported by the Observer Research Foundation and the Ministry of External Affairs, creates an avenue for the country to influence the global strategic discourse and build the transnational networks.
  • Naval Diplomacy: The Milan Naval Exercise in the Bay of Bengal manifests India’s naval diplomacy, a primary military diplomacy tool India uses to promote regional cooperation and security and highlight India’s strategic relevance in the Indo-Pacific.
  • Expansion of International Engagements: The paper focuses on the fast boost in global communities involved in international affairs, which provides the grounds for the emergence of think tanks and media outlets discussing foreign and security policies.
  • Modernization of Intelligence Agencies: India’s intelligence diplomacy is also an integral part of a broader effort at the modernization of intelligence agencies, which date back to the turn of the 19th century, like the Intelligence Bureau.
  • Global and Regional Security Challenges: Employing Indian diplomatic skills, including naval and intelligence diplomacy, answers the many new risks to world peace, which are deepened military crises, economic stress, and the return of great power rivalry.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Enhance Multilateral Intelligence Sharing: India should continue enhancing intelligence cooperation with partners with similar outlooks, such as the “Five Eyes” agreement, to improve collective security and, therefore, be able to respond better and more coordinated to threats.
  • Adopt Agile Global Expansion Strategies: India must take a light footprint approach in its external relations and concentrate on local partnerships with stakeholders while using human resources well to gain benefits.
  • Prepare for Complex Threats: India should face variegated security challenges, such as cyber threats and terrorism, by upgrading its defence capability and resilience.
  • Leverage Conferences for Conflict Prevention: India should use conference diplomacy as a potential method for conflict prevention & resolution, bringing everyone to the table and making them talk in a neutral setting.
  • Enhance Maritime Infrastructure: Investing in maritime infrastructure and capabilities will strengthen India’s naval diplomacy and bring a more robust Indian presence and influence in strategically significant water bodies.
  • Invest in Training and Development: The intelligence service’s employees’ skills and capabilities should be constantly developed through continuous training and the latest technology.

THE CONCLUSION:

India’s strategic engagement in intelligence sharing, international conferences, and naval exercises demonstrates its commitment to addressing global and regional security challenges. India’s way forward involves enhancing multilateral intelligence sharing, leveraging conference diplomacy for conflict resolution, and expanding naval diplomacy efforts to strengthen its position in the Indo-Pacific region.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 The sea is an essential Component of the Cosmos’ Discuss, considering the above statement, the role of the IMO (International Maritime Organisation) in protecting the environment and enhancing maritime safety and security. (2023)

Q.2 What are the maritime security challenges in India? Discuss the organizational, technical, and procedural initiatives to improve maritime security. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Examine the role of ‘intelligence diplomacy’ in India’s foreign policy and its significance in the context of global and regional security challenges. Discuss how India’s engagement in ‘conference diplomacy’ and ‘naval diplomacy’ complements its intelligence diplomacy efforts.”

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/intelligence-diplomacy-india-global-security-maritime-raisina-dialogue-9169519/




Day-596 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | HISTORY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to Sardeshmukhi tax in Maratha empire, Consider the following statements:
    1. It was a tax levied by the Maratha Empire on neighbouring territories and states.
    2. It was equal to one-fourth of the land revenue collected by the subjected territories.
    3. It was collected by the Maratha officials directly from the landowners and cultivators in the empire’s territories.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Sardeshmukhi was an additional tax levied by the Maratha Empire on territories within its domain. The primary purpose of Sardeshmukhi was to provide an additional source of income for the Maratha rulers and nobility. It also served as a means of asserting the Maratha Empire’s authority over its territories and maintaining control.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was equal to one-tenth (10%) of the land revenue collected from the territories.
    Statement 3 is correct: Sardeshmukhi was collected by Maratha officials directly from the landowners and cultivators in the empire’s territories. The collected revenue was distributed among the Maratha rulers, nobility, and officials, with a portion also used for the empire’s administration and public works.
    Additional information:
    • The economic condition of Marathas was good in the 17th and 18th centuries because they were powerful in those days, so they could do whatever they wanted to, and their administration was stable.
    • Most people accepted them as rulers, and they did not have to face any problems during this period because people accepted them as rulers. Their motto was ‘freedom from fear,’ which they had proved strong.
    • Maratha state was a strong and well-organized government. So, they had ordered their administration properly, and every common person was satisfied with the administration’s work. They did not have any problems because the rules were clear to them. Maratha’s rule was very different from the other British-style rule.
    • Marathas were good administrators and had a different way of enforcing their control. They took good care of their subjects’ well-being by giving education to every person. They encouraged freedom of speech, press, religion, and expression.
    • They also controlled the trade in grains, salt, and sugar. They also had a very good system of medical treatment.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Sardeshmukhi was an additional tax levied by the Maratha Empire on territories within its domain. The primary purpose of Sardeshmukhi was to provide an additional source of income for the Maratha rulers and nobility. It also served as a means of asserting the Maratha Empire’s authority over its territories and maintaining control.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was equal to one-tenth (10%) of the land revenue collected from the territories.
    Statement 3 is correct: Sardeshmukhi was collected by Maratha officials directly from the landowners and cultivators in the empire’s territories. The collected revenue was distributed among the Maratha rulers, nobility, and officials, with a portion also used for the empire’s administration and public works.
    Additional information:
    • The economic condition of Marathas was good in the 17th and 18th centuries because they were powerful in those days, so they could do whatever they wanted to, and their administration was stable.
    • Most people accepted them as rulers, and they did not have to face any problems during this period because people accepted them as rulers. Their motto was ‘freedom from fear,’ which they had proved strong.
    • Maratha state was a strong and well-organized government. So, they had ordered their administration properly, and every common person was satisfied with the administration’s work. They did not have any problems because the rules were clear to them. Maratha’s rule was very different from the other British-style rule.
    • Marathas were good administrators and had a different way of enforcing their control. They took good care of their subjects’ well-being by giving education to every person. They encouraged freedom of speech, press, religion, and expression.
    • They also controlled the trade in grains, salt, and sugar. They also had a very good system of medical treatment.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. In the context of Colonial India, Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahadev Govind Ranade were related to:

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    • Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahadev Govind Ranade were related to Deccan Education Society.
    • Deccan Education Society was an influential social reform and political organisation formed in the Pune district in Maharashtra.
    • The establishment of the New English School in Pune resulted in the foundation of the Deccan Education Society by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
    • It was an unprecedented move because the only organisations involved in mass education were governmental institutions and Christian missionaries.
    • As a fervent reformist, Agarkar took a keen interest in social reform initiatives.
    • Tilak was a Puritan when it came to social reforms. Once political freedom was attained, he thought, laws could implement such social reform measures.
    • Other leaders of the Society: Vishnushastri Chiplunkar,Mahadev Ballal,Namjoshi,V S Apte,V B Kelkar, M S Gole and N K Dharap
    • Society established Fergusson College, Pune’s first higher education institution.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    • Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahadev Govind Ranade were related to Deccan Education Society.
    • Deccan Education Society was an influential social reform and political organisation formed in the Pune district in Maharashtra.
    • The establishment of the New English School in Pune resulted in the foundation of the Deccan Education Society by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
    • It was an unprecedented move because the only organisations involved in mass education were governmental institutions and Christian missionaries.
    • As a fervent reformist, Agarkar took a keen interest in social reform initiatives.
    • Tilak was a Puritan when it came to social reforms. Once political freedom was attained, he thought, laws could implement such social reform measures.
    • Other leaders of the Society: Vishnushastri Chiplunkar,Mahadev Ballal,Namjoshi,V S Apte,V B Kelkar, M S Gole and N K Dharap
    • Society established Fergusson College, Pune’s first higher education institution.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following:
    1. Ruralisation of India
    2. India emerged as major markets for British made cotton yarns
    3. Overcrowding of agriculture
    4. Rise in number of traditional occupations
    5. Trade to GDP ratio declined
    How many of the given above were the effects of de-industrialisation during the British rule in India?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Effects of de industrialisation:
    1) Ruralisation of India
    2) As international trade reshaped the domestic structure of the economy, India became one of the major markets for the British made cotton yarns and cloths.
    3) Overcrowding of agriculture and Such overcrowding of agriculture badly affected its efficiency. Present problems of subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings, over-cultivation or cultivation of inferior and unproductive land, etc., are the direct effects of the British rule.
    4) Artisans were displaced from traditional occupations and with no other alternative source of livelihood, the artisans adopted agriculture.
    5) Trade to GDP ratio declined
    Additional information:
    • De-industrialisation is the process of destruction of a nation’s industrial capacity. Before the advent of the Europeans in India, India was the industrial hub. Indian economy was characterised by the agriculture and handicrafts.
    • But this internal balance of the village economy was systematically destroyed by the British policies. In the process, traditional handicraft industries started declining in the 18th century and proceeded rapidly almost to the beginning of the 19th century.
    • This process is called as de-industrialisation. The large scale de-industrialisation brought far reaching impacts on the economy with loss to traditional economy, which was earlier considered as a blend of agriculture and handicrafts.
    • The de-industrialisation of India played an important role in the underdevelopment and increasing poverty of the country. Thus the process of de-industrialisation proved to be a disaster for the several million persons.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Effects of de industrialisation:
    1) Ruralisation of India
    2) As international trade reshaped the domestic structure of the economy, India became one of the major markets for the British made cotton yarns and cloths.
    3) Overcrowding of agriculture and Such overcrowding of agriculture badly affected its efficiency. Present problems of subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings, over-cultivation or cultivation of inferior and unproductive land, etc., are the direct effects of the British rule.
    4) Artisans were displaced from traditional occupations and with no other alternative source of livelihood, the artisans adopted agriculture.
    5) Trade to GDP ratio declined
    Additional information:
    • De-industrialisation is the process of destruction of a nation’s industrial capacity. Before the advent of the Europeans in India, India was the industrial hub. Indian economy was characterised by the agriculture and handicrafts.
    • But this internal balance of the village economy was systematically destroyed by the British policies. In the process, traditional handicraft industries started declining in the 18th century and proceeded rapidly almost to the beginning of the 19th century.
    • This process is called as de-industrialisation. The large scale de-industrialisation brought far reaching impacts on the economy with loss to traditional economy, which was earlier considered as a blend of agriculture and handicrafts.
    • The de-industrialisation of India played an important role in the underdevelopment and increasing poverty of the country. Thus the process of de-industrialisation proved to be a disaster for the several million persons.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji as a response to a culmination of grievances against colonial rule.
    Statement II: Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji as a response to a culmination of grievances against colonial rule. Gandhi’s call for non-cooperation movement aimed to challenge the colonial economic and power structure against the Rowlatt Act.
    Statement 2 is correct: Rowlatt act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
    Additional information:
    Rowlatt Satyagraha
    • The seeds of the Rowlatt Act were sown in 1915 when the repressive Defense of India Act was imposed to curb anti-colonial activities during World War I.
    • Sedition Committee: While the Defense of India Act was meant to be a temporary wartime measure, a committee (called Sedition Committee) headed by British judge Sydney Rowlatt recommended the continuation of such suppressive powers.
    • It can be considered as an instrument of British Carrot (GOI Act,1919) and Stick (Rowlatt Act) policy.
    Non-Cooperation Movement
    • The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji in 1920 during British rule.
    • It emerged as a powerful and fervent response to a culmination of grievances and disillusionment that had been building up among the Indian populace. Rowlatt Act and the brutal Jaliawala Bagh Massacre were the immediate causes for launching the movement.
    • Congress, at its special session of Calcutta in September 1920, approved the Non-Cooperation movement, which was later endorsed by the Nagpur session of Congress in December 1920.
    • The movement saw tremendous participation of masses throughout the country. However, the movement was called off by Gandhi on February 11, 1922, following the Churi Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji as a response to a culmination of grievances against colonial rule. Gandhi’s call for non-cooperation movement aimed to challenge the colonial economic and power structure against the Rowlatt Act.
    Statement 2 is correct: Rowlatt act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.
    Additional information:
    Rowlatt Satyagraha
    • The seeds of the Rowlatt Act were sown in 1915 when the repressive Defense of India Act was imposed to curb anti-colonial activities during World War I.
    • Sedition Committee: While the Defense of India Act was meant to be a temporary wartime measure, a committee (called Sedition Committee) headed by British judge Sydney Rowlatt recommended the continuation of such suppressive powers.
    • It can be considered as an instrument of British Carrot (GOI Act,1919) and Stick (Rowlatt Act) policy.
    Non-Cooperation Movement
    • The Non-Cooperation Movement (NCM) was the first nationwide movement launched by Gandhiji in 1920 during British rule.
    • It emerged as a powerful and fervent response to a culmination of grievances and disillusionment that had been building up among the Indian populace. Rowlatt Act and the brutal Jaliawala Bagh Massacre were the immediate causes for launching the movement.
    • Congress, at its special session of Calcutta in September 1920, approved the Non-Cooperation movement, which was later endorsed by the Nagpur session of Congress in December 1920.
    • The movement saw tremendous participation of masses throughout the country. However, the movement was called off by Gandhi on February 11, 1922, following the Churi Chaura incident in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to Satara parallel government, consider the following statements:
    1. The parallel government which developed in Satara during non-cooperation movement was the longest and most successful.
    2. Nana Patil was the leader of the Satara parallel government.
    3. The model of the parallel government in Satara was based on the “Gramrajya” of Aundh implemented by the Raja of Aundh.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The parallel government which developed in Satara during quit India movement was the longest and most successful.
    Statement 2 is correct: Nana Patil was the leader of the Satara parallel government.
    Statement 3 is correct: The model of the parallel government in Satara was based on the “Gramrajya” of Aundh, which was a progressive policy of decentralization of power which was implemented by the Raja of Aundh, Shrimant Bhavanrao Pant-Pratinidhi in 1937.
    Additional information:
    • Quit India Movement was officially launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942.
    • The movement gave the slogans ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo’. Gandhi gave the slogan to the people – ‘Do or die’.
    • In line with the Congress ideology, it was supposed to be a peaceful non-violent movement aimed at urging the British to grant India independence.
    • The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in Bombay. Gandhi was named the movement’s leader.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The parallel government which developed in Satara during quit India movement was the longest and most successful.
    Statement 2 is correct: Nana Patil was the leader of the Satara parallel government.
    Statement 3 is correct: The model of the parallel government in Satara was based on the “Gramrajya” of Aundh, which was a progressive policy of decentralization of power which was implemented by the Raja of Aundh, Shrimant Bhavanrao Pant-Pratinidhi in 1937.
    Additional information:
    • Quit India Movement was officially launched by the Indian National Congress (INC) led by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942.
    • The movement gave the slogans ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo’. Gandhi gave the slogan to the people – ‘Do or die’.
    • In line with the Congress ideology, it was supposed to be a peaceful non-violent movement aimed at urging the British to grant India independence.
    • The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in Bombay. Gandhi was named the movement’s leader.

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BACTERIA’s POTENTIAL ROLE IN ACCELERATING CO2 MINERALIZATION FOR DEEP UNDERGROUND STORAGE

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: A groundbreaking study led by Gokce Ustunisik and her team at the South Dakota School of Mines and Technology reveals the potential of certain bacteria to accelerate the mineralization of carbon dioxide (CO2) under extreme conditions.

EXPLANATION:

  • The application of these microbes could revolutionize the storage of CO2 in deep underground sites, offering a more rapid and durable solution to mitigating greenhouse gas emissions.

Isolation of Geobacillus Bacteria:

  • The researchers isolated Geobacillus bacteria species from a compost pile in Washington state known for their resilience to high temperatures and pressures.
  • Geobacillus bacteria were chosen for their ability to thrive under extreme conditions, making them suitable candidates for underground CO2 storage.

Laboratory Tests and Findings:

  • Laboratory tests compared the rate of CO2 mineralization with and without the presence of these microbes under conditions resembling those found deep underground.
  • The absence of microbes resulted in negligible CO2 mineralization, a process that typically takes years under natural geological conditions.
  • With the Geobacillus bacteria, mineral crystals formed within a remarkable 10 days at 80°C (176°F) and pressures 500 times that of sea level.

Role of Carbonic Anhydrase Enzyme:

  • The key to the rapid mineralization rate is attributed to an enzyme produced by the bacteria, known as carbonic anhydrase.
  • This enzyme efficiently reduces the acidity of the CO2 solution, facilitating the formation of carbonate minerals from released magnesium and calcium in the rock.

Potential Storage Sites:

  • The accelerated mineralization process opens up possibilities for using depleted oil and gas reservoirs as deep underground storage sites for CO2.
  • The speed at which CO2 can be converted into mineral crystals under extreme conditions enhances the feasibility and efficiency of long-term storage.

Challenges and Future Steps:

  • The researchers have not disclosed the exact species of bacteria due to pending patent issues.
  • Further testing will involve Bacillus bacteria from a former mine shaft in South Dakota and genetically modified strains to identify the most effective microbes.
  • The next phase includes evaluating the performance of these microbes in an actual storage well.

Concerns and Criticisms:

  • Outside researchers emphasize the need for addressing concerns about the resilience, food source, turnover rates, and adaptability of these organisms to various alkaline environments.
  • The introduction of nutrients along with the microbes to sustain them raises practical challenges.
  • The potential spread of introduced or genetically modified microbes in subsurface environments poses ecological and regulatory concerns.

Conclusion:

  • The study signifies a significant step towards developing a novel approach to carbon sequestration by leveraging bacteria to expedite CO2 mineralization under extreme conditions. While challenges and uncertainties persist, the promise of accelerating the process to a mere 10 days could have substantial implications for mitigating climate change by securely storing CO2 in underground reservoirs.

SOURCE: https://www.newscientist.com/article/2416727-bacteria-could-help-turn-co2-to-rock-under-extreme-conditions/?_ptid=%7Bkpdx%7DAAAA118tASrzgwoKcmJhNGYxWmNwZRIQbHN1N2F4ZnBjeXdhNjh2aBoMRVhHSjk1VU5XWDAyIiUxODIzMGw4MDlzLTAwMDAzM2U1dmNjajZvcWN0bmlmNmlzdXEwKhpzaG93VGVtcGxhdGVYVkMxNVhCQlFEVUoyNDABOgxPVENPMkM2VzY0SEZCDU9UVlpPN0dSVFNONU1SEnYthADwL3p1MzJ2bnB1cVokMjQwNToyMDE6NDAwYTo4Yzo0ZGEwOmQ1NzQ6N2M0NDozZDA1YgNkd2NooJbXrgZwKngE




LADAKH LEADERS CALL OFF HUNGER STRIKE AS MHA AGREES TO DISCUSS STATEHOOD AND CONSTITUTIONAL SAFEGUARDS

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: The leaders of Ladakh’s civil society groups have decided to call off an indefinite hunger strike following a meeting with officials from the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) recently.

EXPLANATION:

  • This decision comes after the Centre agreed to engage in discussions on their demands, which primarily include Statehood for Ladakh, tribal status through inclusion in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, and the establishment of a Public Service Commission for the region.
  • On February 3, Ladakh witnessed a complete shutdown as thousands gathered in Leh to voice concerns about protecting cultural identity, preserving the environment, ensuring job reservations for locals, and advocating for separate parliamentary seats for Leh and Kargil.
  • The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) had invited civil society leaders for the second round of a high-powered committee dialogue, scheduled on Monday, with the committee headed by Minister of State for Home, Nityanand Rai.

Key Demands and Committee Formation:

  • Ladakh’s demands included Statehood, tribal status under the Sixth Schedule, and the establishment of a Public Service Commission.
  • The high-powered committee, comprising members of the Leh Apex Body (LAB) and Kargil Democratic Alliance (KDA), announced the formation of a joint sub-committee.
  • This sub-committee will include representatives from both LAB and KDA and is tasked with advancing the dialogue.

MHA’s Initial Response:

  • During the meeting, MHA officials reportedly hesitated to commit to discussing Statehood and constitutional safeguards.
  • Instead, they proposed enhancing the financial powers of hill councils in Leh and Kargil.
  • The civil society leaders insisted on time-bound assurance for addressing their demands.

Postponement of Hunger Strike:

  • A sub-committee member confirmed that the MHA has agreed to discuss the demand for Statehood and other issues in the upcoming meeting on February 24.
  • The decision to call off the hunger strike is temporary, indicating a willingness to engage in dialogue and find a resolution.

Historical Context:

  • After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir on August 5, 2019, Ladakh became a Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly.
  • The MHA formed a high-powered committee last year to address the grievances and demands of the people of Ladakh.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ladakh-leaders-call-off-hunger-strike-as-mha-agrees-to-discuss-statehood-constitutional-safeguards/article67864124.ece




FOREST (CONSERVATION) AMENDMENT ACT 2023

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court, in an interim order on February 19, 2024, addressed concerns raised in a Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the constitutionality of the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023.

EXPLANATION:

  • The apex court, led by Chief Justice DY Chandrachud and Justices JB Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, emphasized adherence to the landmark TN Godavarman Thirumalpad v. Union of India judgement of 1996 in defining ‘forest.’
  • The interim order aimed to maintain the principles outlined in the Godavarman judgement until the completion of the process of identifying ‘forest’ lands recorded in government records.

Controversy Surrounding the Amendment:

  • The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023, amended by the Union government, faced constitutional scrutiny in the PIL.
  • The contentious Section 1A, introduced by the amendment, narrowed the expansive definition of ‘forest’ provided in the Godavarman judgement.
  • According to the amendment, land must either be notified as a forest or specifically recorded as a forest in government records to qualify, deviating from the Godavarman judgement, which interpreted ‘forest’ based on its dictionary meaning.

Interim Order and Godavarman Judgement:

  • The Supreme Court’s interim order directed states and Union territories to adhere to the Godavarman judgement’s definition of ‘forest’ until the completion of the land identification process.
  • The court acknowledged concerns raised by petitioners about potential diversion of lands deemed as ‘forests’ under the Godavarman judgement for non-forest use during this interim period.
  • The order underscored the importance of Rule 16 of the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Rules, 2023, requiring state and UT administrations to prepare records on forest land within a year from the notification of the 2023 amendment.

Financial Implications and Exclusion of Forest Lands:

  • Petitioners highlighted that the amended definition could exclude approximately 1.99 lakh square km of forest land from protection.
  • The court emphasized the importance of compliance with the Godavarman judgement’s interpretation of ‘forest’ during the ongoing land identification process, urging states and UTs to ensure the conservation of areas falling within the ambit of the Godavarman definition.

Role of Expert Committees and Reporting:

  • The Supreme Court instructed the Union government to issue circulars to all states and UTs, communicating the order and directing compliance.
  • Furthermore, it mandated the submission of a comprehensive record of land registered as ‘forest’ by expert committees formed by states and UTs under the guidelines of the Godavarman judgement within two weeks.
  • All states and UTs were required to submit expert committee reports by March 31, 2024, with digitized records available on official websites by April 15, 2024.

Expansion of Protection and Direction on Zoos and Safaris:

  • While acknowledging the role of expert committees formed under the 2023 Rules, the court allowed them to expand the ambit of forest lands worthy of protection.
  • Additionally, the court issued directions regarding proposals for establishing zoos and safaris, stipulating that such proposals in forest areas, excluding protected areas, require prior approval from the Supreme Court to ensure environmental safeguards.

Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023:

  • The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 amends the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 to make it applicable to certain types of land.
  • These include land notified as a forest under the Indian Forest Act, 1927 or in government records after the 1980 Act came into effect. The Act will not be applicable for land converted to non-forest use before December 12, 1996.
  • It also exempts certain types of land from the purview of the Act.
  • These include land within 100 km of India’s border needed for national security projects, small roadside amenities, and public roads leading to a habitation.
  • The state government requires prior approval of the central government to assign any forest land to a private entity.
  • The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 extends this to all entities, and allows the assignment to be made on terms and conditions specified by the central government.
  • The Act specifies some activities that can be carried out in forests, such as establishing check posts, fencing, and bridges. The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023 also allows running zoos, safaris and eco-tourism facilities.

Conclusion:

  • The Supreme Court’s interim order seeks to strike a balance between the legal amendments introduced by the Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act, 2023, and the established principles of forest conservation enshrined in the Godavarman judgement. As the legal battle unfolds, the court’s directives aim to prevent potential environmental consequences during the transitional period and ensure the preservation of forested lands according to the precedents set by the Godavarman judgement.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/forest-conservation-amendment-act-2023-states-uts-must-act-as-per-definition-in-tn-godavarman-judgement-says-sc-94543




AIR QUALITY IN INDIAN CITIES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: In January 2024, a comprehensive study conducted by the Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA), a Finnish research organization, unveiled concerning findings regarding air quality in Indian cities.

EXPLANATION:

  • While only 32 cities out of 131 covered by the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) had clean air, Delhi emerged as the most polluted.
  • The report, published on February 14, 2024, sheds light on the alarming levels of air pollution and the challenges faced by the nation in combating this pervasive issue.

NCAP and Air Quality Standards:

  • The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) has been initiated by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change in 2019.
  • It aimed at reducing particulate matter (PM) pollution in 131 non-attainment cities across 24 states and Union territories.
  • It also aims to attain a decrease in PM10 (particulate matter with a diameter ranging from 10 to 2.5 micrometers) and PM2.5 (particulate matter with a diameter of 2.5 micrometers or smaller) concentrations by 20% to 30% by the year 2024, with 2017 serving as the reference year for concentration comparison.
  • It is a long-term, time-bound, national-level strategy to address the air pollution problem in India comprehensively.
  • However, the recent study highlighted that in January 2024, 98 cities exceeded the World Health Organization’s (WHO) daily guideline for PM2.5 levels.
  • Only 32 cities met India’s National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), emphasizing the severity of the air quality crisis.

Pervasive Pollution Levels:

  • Among the 66 cities failing to meet NAAQS, 15 recorded PM2.5 levels more than double the prescribed standard of 60 microgrammes per cubic meter.
  • Delhi, the national capital, stood out with a monthly average PM2.5 concentration of 206 µg/m³, surpassing the daily NAAQS.
  • Following closely, Bhagalpur in Bihar shared the dubious distinction, with other cities like Saharsa, Byrnihat, Greater Noida, Hanumangarh, Noida, Baddi, Sri Ganganagar, and Faridabad completing the list of the top 10 most polluted cities.

Geographical Distribution of Pollution:

  • The analysis revealed that among the 10 most polluted cities, Bihar, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, and Delhi each had representation.
  • On the other hand, Chamarajanagar, Vijayapura, Kalaburgi, and Bagalkot in Karnataka, Aizawl in Mizoram, and Silchar and Sivasagar in Assam were recognized among the 10 cleanest cities in January 2024.

Environmental Conditions and Impact:

  • The study highlighted those unfavorable atmospheric conditions, characterized by low wind speed and cooler temperatures in northern India, contributed to stable atmospheric conditions.
  • This hindered the rapid dispersion of emissions, leading to the accumulation of pollutants near the earth’s surface and exacerbating ambient air pollution levels.
  • While recognizing the influence of natural atmospheric conditions, the report emphasized that baseline emissions significantly contribute to hazardous air pollution levels in any region.

Financial Implications and Proposed Solutions:

  • As the government grapples with the severity of air pollution, the report underscored the potential financial cost.
  • It estimated that a complete boycott of Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) markets by traders, as part of legal guarantees, could cost the government approximately Rs 6 lakh crore.
  • However, the report suggested that this expenditure could be recovered within a year through the sale of agricultural produce in open markets, providing a potential economic incentive for addressing air quality concerns.

Conclusion:

  • The findings of the CREA study present a stark reality of air quality in Indian cities, emphasizing the urgent need for comprehensive and effective measures to combat pollution. As the government grapples with the financial implications, it becomes imperative to strike a balance between economic considerations and the health and well-being of the population.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/pollution/only-32-indian-cities-had-clean-air-this-january-delhi-bhagalpur-most-polluted-94534




SATYENDRA NATH BOSE

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Satyendra Nath Bose, a brilliant physicist born in Calcutta in 1894, made a profound impact on the field of physics exactly a century ago.

EXPLANATION:

  • His contribution, often likened to a comet in its brilliance, emerged during a crucial period in the evolution of quantum theory in 1924.
  • Despite a relatively sparse publication record, Bose’s work on quantum statistics, particularly the derivation of Planck’s law of black-body radiation, changed the course of physics.

Background and Early Collaborations:

  • Bose’s early academic journey at Presidency College in Calcutta marked the beginning of a lifelong friendship with Meghnad Saha.
  • Together, they navigated the transformative landscape of physics, grappling with the revolutionary ideas introduced by Einstein, Planck, and Bohr.
  • Their collaboration extended to translating Einstein’s papers on general relativity into English, showcasing their early adaptability to emerging quantum concepts.

Challenges in Teaching and Research:

  • As faculty members at Rajabazar Science College, Bose and Saha faced the challenge of teaching the intricacies of the new physics, compounded by the language barrier posed by the dominance of German publications.
  • Undeterred, they delved into the depths of quantum theory, with Bose later joining Dhaka University as a lecturer.

Crucial Problem of Black-Body Radiation:

  • The study of black-body radiation, encapsulated by Planck’s law, was a pivotal topic in 19th-century physics.
  • Bose, struggling to satisfactorily explain Planck’s law to his students, embarked on a journey to derive it himself.
  • Planck’s formula, while successful, violated known laws of physics, prompting Bose to explore a novel approach.

Bose’s Groundbreaking Derivation:

  • Bose’s unique contribution lay in eliminating classical physics from the derivation of Planck’s law.
  • Leveraging the results of Einstein and Compton, Bose demonstrated that the law was independent of the mechanism producing it.
  • His groundbreaking insight established Planck’s law as a statistical property of quanta of radiation, introducing the concept of photons.

Pioneering Quantum Statistics:

  • Bose’s work pioneered quantum statistics, revealing that the total number of photons was not conserved.
  • This profound realization, implicit in his methods, laid the foundation for understanding the behavior of fundamental particles.
  • Years later, Paul Dirac formalized Bose’s statistics into distinct categories—bosons and fermions—clarifying the rules governing these particles.

Legacy and Comparative Silence:

  • Despite the monumental impact of Bose’s work, he remained relatively silent in terms of publications, describing himself as a comet that only appeared once.
  • His legacy, however, endures through the foundational nature of his contribution to quantum theory, forever altering the trajectory of physics.
  • Satyendra Nath Bose’s appearance on the physics scene in 1924 left an indelible mark, filling a critical gap in the emerging quantum theory.
  • His work not only solved the enigma of black-body radiation but also laid the groundwork for quantum statistics, shaping the understanding of fundamental particles.
  • Bose’s brilliance, though brief, continues to illuminate the path for future generations of physicists.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/satyendra-nath-bose-einstein-statistics-centenary/article67863141.ece