GOVERNMENT’S NEW GRAIN STORAGE PLAN: MORE IN STORE

THE CONTEXT: Recently, Prime Minister launched the world’s largest grain storage plan in the cooperative sector. The pilot project is being carried out in 11 states by primary agricultural credit societies where the government is looking to “set up a storage infrastructure of 700 lakh metric tons’’.

MORE ON THE NEWS:

  • The foundation stone for additional 500 PACS for construction of godowns and other agri infrastructure has also been laid.
  • A project for computersation in 18,000 PACS across the country, aligning farming with cutting edge technology and shifting to fully digital payments has also been launched.

LARGEST GRAIN STORAGE PLAN:

  • The pilot project is being undertaken in 11 Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) in 11 states. Ministry of Cooperation will implement the project.
  • The scheme aims to create storage capacity for storing 100 per cent of India’s grain production to strengthen food security, reduce wastage, and empower farmers.
  • It aims to seamlessly integrate PACS godowns with the food grain supply chain, with a collaborative effort of NABARD and spearheaded by the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
  • 700 lakh tonne storage capacity will be created in the next five years, with an investment of ₹1.25 lakh crore.  In India, storage capacity with regards to food grain production is only 47%, whereas in the USA it is 161%, Brazil 149%, Canada 130% and China 107%.
  • The Plan aims for creation of various agri infrastructure at Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) level, including warehouses, custom hiring center, processing units, Fair Price Shops, etc. by leveraging the ‘whole-of-Government’ approach.
  • The initiative is being implemented through the convergence of various existing schemes like the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agriculture Marketing Infrastructure (AMI), etc. to enable PACS participating in the project to avail subsidies and interest subvention benefits for undertaking infrastructure development.
  • This ambitious project aims to converge eight ongoing schemes of three ministries to address the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure in India.
  • Ministry of Cooperation has constituted Inter-Ministerial Committee (IMC) with Hon’ble Home and Cooperation Minister as its chairman and Hon’ble Ministers and Secretaries of Ministries concerned as its members for smooth and effective implementation of the Plan.
  • The Ministry of Cooperation has also constituted National Level Coordination Committee (NLCC) under the chairmanship of Secretary (Ministry of Cooperation) to steer the overall implementation of the Plan and reviewing the progress of implementation, etc.

BENEFITS OF THE PROJECT:

  • Addressing Infrastructure Shortage:The plan aims to establish godowns at the level of PACS to alleviate the shortage of agricultural storage infrastructure in the country.
  • Diversification of PACS Activities:PACS will be empowered to undertake various activities, including functioning as procurement centres for state agencies or the Food Corporation of India (FCI), serving as fair price shops, and setting up custom hiring centres and common processing units. This diversification will enhance the incomes of farmer members.
  • Reduction of Food Grain Wastage:By creating decentralised storage capacity at the local level, the plan aims to reduce grain wastage, contributing to improved food security.
  • Preventing Distress Sale:The plan provides farmers with various options, preventing distress sale of crops and enabling them to realise better prices for their produce.
  • Cost Reduction:The establishment of storage facilities at the PACS level will significantly reduce transportation costs of food grains to procurement centres and fair price shops.

WHAT IS Primary Agricultural Credit Societies(PACS)?

  • Primary Agricultural Credit Societies are the grass root level arms of the short-term co-operative credit structure.
  • PACS deals directly with the rural (agricultural) borrowers, give those loans and collect repayments of loans given and also undertake distribution and marketing functions.
  • They occupy a predominant position in the co-operative credit structure and form its base.
  • It serves as the final link between the ultimate borrowers on the one hand and the higher financing agencies, namely the Scheduled Commercial Banks, and the RBI/NABARD on the other hand.

Organisational Structure of PACS

  • General Body of PACS: Exercise the control over board as well as management.
  • Management Committee: Elected by the general body to perform the work as prescribed by the society’s rules, acts, and by-laws.
  • Chairman, Vice-Chairman, and Secretary: Work for the benefit of the members by performing their roles and duties as assigned to them.
  • Office Staff: Responsible for performing day to day work.

GOVERNMENT EMPHASIS ON COOPERATIVES

  • A separate Cooperation Ministry has been set up by the government as cooperatives have a great role in strengthening agriculture.
  • The Ministry of Cooperation has developed the grain storage plan to leverage the strength of cooperatives and transform them into successful business enterprises,aligning with the vision of Sahakar-se-Samriddhi” (Cooperation for Prosperity). The vision of Sahakar se Samriddhi is to rejuvenate the cooperative sector and empower small and marginal farmers.
  • The government seems to be increasingly emphasising the role of cooperatives in agricultural marketing and storage, as opposed to government-owned entities such as Food Corporation of India and Central Warehousing Corporation.
  • The government had even reduced minimum alternate tax on cooperative societies – bringing it at par with the corporate sector and raised the slab for tax to be deducted at source to income above Rs 3 crore.
  • The government believe that the success achieved by Gujarat Cooperative Milk Marketing Federation (Amul) in augmenting income of farmers in their home state can be replicated across the country.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strengthen transportation networks: There is need to improve transportation infrastructure, including roads, rail networks, and logistics systems, will enable efficient movement of food from farms to storage facilities and distribution centers. This will reduce delays, minimize spoilage, and ensure timely delivery of food to the market.
  • Encourage private sector participation: The involvement of the private sector in food storage infrastructure development and management can bring in expertise, technology, and investments. Public-private partnerships can help bridge the gap between demand and supply of storage facilities.
  • Facilitate access to finance: Providing financial support, subsidies, and credit facilities to farmers, small-scale food businesses, and storage facility operators can help them invest in modern storage technologies and facilities. This will enable them to store food properly and efficiently.
  • Promote research and innovation: Continued research and innovation in food storage technologies, packaging materials, and preservation methods is the need of hour. This can lead to the development of cost-effective and sustainable solutions tailored to Indian conditions.

THE CONCLUSION:

By strengthening Cooperatives, governments and stakeholders aim to improve the overall state of agriculture, uplift rural communities, and promote inclusive economic growth. These efforts can contribute to poverty reduction, food security, and sustainable development in agrarian economies.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 In the villages itself no form of credit organisation will be suitable except the cooperative society.” – All India Rural Credit Survey. Discuss this statement in the background of agricultural finance in India. What constraints and challenges do financial institutions supplying agricultural finance face? How can technology be used to better reach and serve rural clients? (2014)

Q.2 Examine the concept of cooperative farming, in light of problem of land fragmentation, in promoting the socio-economic welfare of farmers. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 Recently, Prime Minister launched the world’s largest grain storage plan in the cooperative sector. Highlight the key rationale behind the initiative and its significance in boosting agriculture economy.

Q.2 Critically assess whether cooperative can take over the role of government bodies to contribute towards promoting food security and for improvement of rural livelihoods.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-governments-new-grain-storage-plan-more-in-store-9182666/




EVERYTHING IN THE GARDEN OF ELECTIONS IS NOT LOVELY

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court’s 2024 verdict on the Chandigarh Mayor’s election highlights India’s defense of electoral integrity against polarization, emphasizing the balance between legal frameworks, political practices, and societal fabric in the world’s largest democracy.

THE ISSUES:

  • Subversion of Electoral Process: The Returning Officer’s unprecedented move to ignore the ballot papers and the constitutional procedure, as evidenced by the dumping of the votes in the Chandigarh Mayor’s elections, signifies serious attempts to transgress the democratic character of the electoral process. The various breaches in ethics that arise from the case in this crack additionally connote a conflict of credibility of democratic governance. In the elections concerning this case, the results can become a subject for manipulation and change.
  • Judicial Defense of Electoral Integrity: The Supreme Court’s participation reiterates the institutions’ role as the last voice of justice on aspects that conflict with the principles of election transparency. Still, the case implied that many courts, especially the lower ones, failed to acknowledge and implement such measures aimed at discouraging the votes candling and ensuring that the decisions taken at the top would be respected and enforced. Therefore, the Supreme Court felt the judiciary needed to take severe measures and protect democratic principles.
  • Legal and Constitutional Safeguards Under Threat: The legality of elections and adherence to constitutional grounds are essential for ensuring fair and just democratic elections. However, the institutions responsible for upholding these principles are often overlooked. Neglecting these crucial institutions could lead to long-lasting barriers against interference and deception in elections, potentially resulting in the decline of the electoral system and the future of democracy.
  • Misuse of Religion in Elections: Political preaching within religion or using religious symbols to influence electoral decisions can lead to unfortunate outcomes. However, the Supreme Court has recognized that allowing religious figures to create enthusiasm and then benefit from it during elections is detrimental to secularism in Indian democracy. The court has directed concerned authorities to ensure the maintenance of secularism by recognizing the non-alignment of politics with religion.
  • Uncertain Future for Electoral Democracy: These issues raise profound questions about the nature of India’s electoral democracy and whether it is the best option for the nation. Many people recognize a problem with the electorate’s behavior, and some see the current system as an obstacle to progress. Additionally, the political culture in India may promote religious tolerance, but it also appears to discriminate against certain ethnic and cultural groups, which undermines the integrity of public institutions.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strengthening Electoral Integrity: Ensure swift and decisive judicial action against electoral malpractices. The Supreme Court’s rapid intervention in electoral bond issues and other election-related cases demonstrates the judiciary’s role in safeguarding democracy. The Law Commission of India, in its 255th report, suggested electoral reforms, including measures to address criminalization in politics, which indirectly contributes to ensuring judicial oversight.
  • Legislative Measures Against Misuse of Religion in Elections: Laws like Section 123(3) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951, should be strictly enforced to prevent appealing to voters based on religion. The ECI monitors election campaigns to check for violations of the Model Code of Conduct, including misuse of religion for political gains. In “Abhiram Singh vs C.D. Commachen (2017)“, a more expansive interpretation was given to Section 123(3), emphasizing the non-permissibility of any appeal in the name of religion.
  • Promoting Secular and Pluralistic Values: Promote secularism and pluralism through educational and social campaigns, emphasizing the importance of unity in diversity. Education is crucial in fostering mutual respect and understanding in diverse societies. Celebrating India’s cultural diversity can help bridge communal divides.
  • Political Will and Leadership: Leaders and parties must maintain the integrity of the electoral process and uphold the secular fabric. Ethical leadership is crucial to combat corruption and shape political discourse, as highlighted by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission’s report on “Ethics in Governance.”
  • Civil Society and Media Engagement: Encourage active participation and oversight by civil society organizations and vigilant media to hold electoral processes and political discourse to higher standards of transparency and integrity. The role of civil organizations in voter education and monitoring electoral practices has been pivotal in numerous democracies worldwide.

THE CONCLUSION:

This case highlights the critical importance of having judicial oversight and robust legal and institutional mechanisms to protect democratic processes. It emphasizes the need for well-informed citizens and resilient institutions to address the democratic challenges faced by India effectively. It is crucial to ensure the preservation and advancement of constitutional values.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 There is a dire need for electoral reforms in India, discuss various challenges related to elections in India and suggest some measures to resolve them. (2023)

Q.2 The role played by the Election Commission of India has bestowed a very high level of confidence in the minds of Indian citizens in ensuring the purity of the elected legislative bodies in the country. Critically examine. (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 How can the judiciary contribute to maintaining the integrity of electoral processes in the face of political and religious polarization? What steps can be taken to improve the electoral system and protect democratic values in India?

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/everything-in-the-garden-of-elections-is-not-lovely/article67889113.ece




CONSUMPTION EXPENDITURE SURVEY IS NECESSARY TO FILL DATA VACUUM IN INDIA

THE CONTEXT: The government recently released the broad findings of the All-India Household Consumption Expenditure Survey carried out between August 2022 and July 2023. These surveys inform about changes in household consumption expenditure patterns and also form the basis of poverty and inequality estimation.

HOUSEHOLD CONSUMPTION EXPENDITURE SURVEY (HCES)

  • The National Sample Survey Office conducts large-scale surveys on household consumption expenditure in the country, typically once every five years.
  • This survey provides detailed information on how households allocate their financial resources across various categories such as food, housing, education, healthcare, and transportation.
  • It is a critical statistical tool used by governments, policy analysts, and researchers to collect data on the spending habits of households within a country.
  • It is used for understanding economic behaviour, assessing living standards, and formulating policies aimed at economic development and poverty alleviation.

Methodology

  • It adopts a stratified multistage sampling design to ensure representativeness across urban and rural areas.
  • The survey covers a wide range of expenditure items, from necessities like food, clothing, and housing to discretionary spending on education, healthcare, and entertainment.
  • Households are usually selected through a random sampling method, and data are collected through personal interviews and expenditure diaries.

OBJECTIVES OF HCES

  • Measuring Living Standards: It helps in assessing the living standards and quality of life of the population by examining how households spend their income.
  • Policy Development: It helps government to design and implement effective social, economic, and fiscal policies for various social welfare programs.
  • Economic Analysis: It aims to analyze consumption patterns, which are key indicators of economic stability, growth, and the distribution of wealth within a society.
  • Poverty and Inequality Assessment: It provides essential data for measuring poverty levels, identifying vulnerable groups, and understanding income inequality.
  • Inflation and Cost of Living: It calculates inflation rates and cost of living indexes to help central banks and governments in monetary policy formulation.

OUTCOMES OF THE SURVEY:

  • Rise in household expenditure: There is a rise in household expenditure. In rural areas, household consumption expenditure has risen from Rs 1,430 in 2011-12 to Rs 3,773 in 2022-23, and in urban areas from Rs 2,630 to Rs 6,459. At 2011-12 prices, this translates to an increase of 3.1 per cent per year in rural areas, and 2.7 per cent in urban areas.
  • Fall in expenditure on food: As household incomes have continued to grow, expenditure on food has continued to fall. In rural areas, the share of food in the spending basket has declined from 52.9 per cent in 2011-12 to 46.4 per cent in 2022-23, while in urban areas it has fallen from 42.6 per cent to 39.2 per cent.
  • Greater allocation for share on nutritional foods: Households are now allocating a greater share for nutritional items such as eggs, fish and meat, milk and fruits, as well as on beverages, refreshments and processed foods. Milk and milk products are now the second highest item in the consumption basket.
  • Rise in discretionary spending: A greater share of spending is also now being directed towards education, health and conveyance and on consumer durables and services. As household incomes rise and expenditure on essential items falls, discretionary spending will rise further.
  • Less income disparity: The factsheet estimates that monthly per-capita consumption expenditure rose 164% in rural India compared to 146% in urban India. This narrowed the gap in per-capita spending between rural and urban India by nearly 13% over 11 years. The survey shows that the spending gap between rural and urban India has narrowed, there remains a wide intra-state and inter-state disparity in spending.
  • Huge disparity in top and bottom layer: There is also a huge disparity between the spending of the bottom and top layer of the society. As, there is a noted wide gap in the spending of the top 5% compared to the next 5%. This difference was 58% and 68% in rural and urban areas, respectively.

CHALLENGES RELATED TO HCES

  • Underreporting: There is an issue of inaccurate reporting of consumption which often leads to underestimation or recall bias.
  • Sample Representativeness: It is a difficult task to make sure the sample fairly represents the diverse population of India with a range of socioeconomic and cultural backgrounds.
  • Temporal and Regional Variability: There are more difficulties in capturing the seasonal variations in spending and the regional differences.

SIGNIFICANCE OF HCES

Despite challenges, the HCES remains a vital tool for economic and social planning in India. Its data are extensively used for:

  • Policy Making: It helps in taking informed decisions in policy making regarding subsidies, social welfare schemes, and taxation policies.
  • Academic Research: It serves as a primary source for studies on consumption patterns, poverty, and socio-economic status.
  • International Comparisons: It facilitates comparisons with other countries on economic welfare and living standards.
  • Understanding poverty and inequality: With the release of the detailed survey data, it will now be possible to arrive at an understanding of the trends in poverty and inequality in India over the past decade.
  • Updating consumer price index: This survey data will also help in updating the consumer price index, which is a valuable input for monetary policy.
  • Filling the data vacuum: The release of this survey also marks an important step towards filling the data vacuum in the country. The government should take this forward, initiate the much-delayed census exercise and take steps to strengthen the country’s statistical system.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) in India is a critical source of data that provides insights into the spending patterns of Indian households. It plays a pivotal role in understanding the socio-economic fabric of the country, guiding policy formulation, and assessing the impact of economic reforms on different segments of the population. Despite the challenges associated with data collection and interpretation, the HCES is instrumental in guiding the nation’s socio-economic policies and addressing the needs of its citizens. As India continues to evolve, the significance of accurate, transparent, and comprehensive consumption data cannot be overstated for shaping a more inclusive and equitable society.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 Among several factors for India’s potential growth, the savings rate is the most effective one. Do you agree? What are the other factors available for growth potential? (2017)

Q.2 Do you agree with the view that steady GDP growth and low inflation have left the Indian economy in good shape? Give reasons in support of your arguments. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 The Household Consumption Expenditure Survey plays significant role not only about changes in household consumption expenditure patterns but also form the basis of poverty and inequality estimation. Comment.

Q.2 What is Household Consumption Expenditure Survey and how is it calculated? Discuss its role in measuring retail inflation and for deriving other macroeconomic indicators.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-consumption-expenditure-survey-is-necessary-to-fill-data-vacuum-in-india-9180686/




A CHILLING EFFECT ON THE FREEDOM TO LOVE

THE CONTEXT: The proposal to penalize live-in relationships challenges personal liberties and sparked a nationwide debate on state intervention. The Bill appears regressive and critically tests India’s constitutional and democratic ethos. The judiciary has emphasized privacy, autonomy, and consent.

THE ISSUES:

  • Invasion of Privacy and Autonomy: The UCC’s mandatory registration of live-in relationships invades privacy and autonomy, violating the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution. In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India and Ors (2017), the Supreme Court recognized privacy as a fundamental right, including the privacy of personal choices, which the UCC provision infringes upon.
  • Formalization of Live-in Relationships: Critics argue that UCC formalizes live-in relationships, undermining their flexibility. Supreme Court recognizes them under Article 21, upholding adults’ freedom to choose life partners as part of their right to autonomy and privacy.
  • Potential for Harassment and Moral Policing: UCC’s registration requirement and penalties for non-registration may lead to moral policing and harassment, infringing the right to equality before the law. The provisions may also create a discriminatory environment for those in live-in relationships, contrary to the principle of equality.
  • Violation of Constitutional Rights: The Uniform Civil Code’s provisions may violate constitutional rights such as privacy (Article 21), equality (Article 14), and freedom of choice in personal relationships (linked to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a)). These articles protect individual autonomy and the right to live free from unwarranted state intervention.
  • Misuse of Law and Arbitrary Punishment: Non-registration of live-in relationships may lead to arbitrary punishment, violating Article 14. The Supreme Court has emphasized the importance of non-arbitrariness in state action, holding that equality is antithetical to arbitrariness.
  • Impact on Social Norms and Individual Choices: The UCC’s approach to regulating live-in relationships conflicts with the Supreme Court’s recognition of the right to choose one’s life partner and individual autonomy.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Ensuring Privacy and Autonomy: Eliminate mandatory registration of live-in relationships in Uttarakhand Uniform Civil Code to respect privacy and autonomy. Uphold the right to privacy under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution and implement legal safeguards that protect the privacy and independence of individuals in live-in relationships with voluntary and non-intrusive registration.
  • Preserving the Essence of Live-in Relationships: Recognize live-in relationships without imposing marriage formalities, aligning with the Supreme Court’s right to life and personal liberty. Launch awareness campaigns to educate citizens about legal protections without formal registration.
  • Preventing Harassment and Moral Policing: Set guidelines for law enforcement to prevent harassment of couples in live-in relationships and strengthen anti-discrimination laws to protect them from societal and legal harassment.
  • Upholding Constitutional Rights: It is imperative that we conduct a thorough constitutional examination of the provisions outlined in the UCC to protect the fundamental rights of privacy, equality, and freedom of choice. Additionally, we must advocate for judicial intervention to assess the constitutionality of this legislation.
  • Preventing Misuse of Law and Arbitrary Punishment: Implement procedural safeguards against arbitrary punishment and ensure fair penalties for non-registration. Offer legal aid to individuals living in a relationship to ensure access to relevant information and legal recourse.
  • Respecting Social Norms and Individual Choices: Involve diverse stakeholders in the policymaking process to ensure that laws reflect and respect the diversity of social norms and individual choices. Foster education and dialogue on the diversity of relationships and family structures to promote a more inclusive society that respects individual choices and freedoms.

THE CONCLUSION:

The legislation challenges India’s Constitution and its fundamental principles. It’s essential to critique it based on constitutional guarantees, personal liberties, and democratic values. Accepting or rejecting the legislation will reflect India’s commitment to protecting citizens’ fundamental rights amidst changing social norms.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 Examine the scope of Fundamental Rights in the light of the K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India judgement. (2019)

Q.2 The Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution have often met with a wide and varied criticism. Analyse. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Recent legislative attempts to penalize live-in relationships in India have sparked significant debate on balancing societal morality and individual rights. Critically examine the implications of such legislation on the constitutional rights of privacy, autonomy, and equality before the law.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-chilling-effect-on-the-freedom-to-love/article67885660.ece




Day-601 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

Day-601

Time limit: 0

Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Information

DAILY MCQ

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Categories

  1. Not categorized 0%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. The Paat-Mitro Application, currently in news, serves which one of the following objectives?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the Paat-Mitro is a mobile application developed by the Jute Corporation of India Limited (JCI) to provide important information about the minimum support price and agronomy to jute farmers.
    ● The application is available in six languages.
    ● Other features which are made available on the app: Farmer-centric schemes like ‘Jute-ICARE’, weather forecasts, JCI’s Purchase Centres’ locations, Procurement Policies, etc.
    ● Farmers will also be able to track the status of their payments for the raw jute sold to JCI under MSP Operation.
    ● Latest technology features like Chatbot are included.

    About Jute Corporation of India Limited:
    It was created in 1971, with the primary objective of strengthening the jute sector by protecting the interest of the jute growers who are mostly marginal farmers.
    ➢ The institution comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textile.
    Mission of the institution:
    ● Implementation of the policy of the government of India for providing minimum support price to the jute/mesta growers of the country.
    ● Serving as a price stabilising agency in the raw jute sector and taking the necessary measures in this respect.
    ● Undertaking various extension measures for implementation of different jute related projects.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the Paat-Mitro is a mobile application developed by the Jute Corporation of India Limited (JCI) to provide important information about the minimum support price and agronomy to jute farmers.
    ● The application is available in six languages.
    ● Other features which are made available on the app: Farmer-centric schemes like ‘Jute-ICARE’, weather forecasts, JCI’s Purchase Centres’ locations, Procurement Policies, etc.
    ● Farmers will also be able to track the status of their payments for the raw jute sold to JCI under MSP Operation.
    ● Latest technology features like Chatbot are included.

    About Jute Corporation of India Limited:
    It was created in 1971, with the primary objective of strengthening the jute sector by protecting the interest of the jute growers who are mostly marginal farmers.
    ➢ The institution comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Textile.
    Mission of the institution:
    ● Implementation of the policy of the government of India for providing minimum support price to the jute/mesta growers of the country.
    ● Serving as a price stabilising agency in the raw jute sector and taking the necessary measures in this respect.
    ● Undertaking various extension measures for implementation of different jute related projects.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following countries:
    1. Maldives
    2. Myanmar
    3. India
    4. Madagascar
    How many of the above mentioned countries are members of the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Context:
    The National Security Adviser represented India at the sixth meeting of senior security officials of the Colombo Security Conclave in 2024 at Port Louis, Mauritius. Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was formed in 2011 as a trilateral maritime security group of India, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
    The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) is a group that works to ensure the security and stability of the Indian Ocean region and includes India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and the Maldives. Observers country Bangladesh, Seychelles
    Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Members Objective:
    o Creating a platform for closer cooperation in maritime security
    o Narco-trafficking,
    o Human trafficking,
    o Piracy,
    o Terrorism
    o Shared experiences in combating internet and social media abuse
    o and addressing challenges such as extremism.

    India’s stance
    There is a need for regional cooperation in view of Chinese influence. India will play an important role in this so that China’s crypto policy can be influenced. In view of the increasing number of security issues and uncertainties, there is a great need for cooperation in IOR. And India, along with its neighbours, must begin to accept that the IOR is evolving into a global commons area.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Context:
    The National Security Adviser represented India at the sixth meeting of senior security officials of the Colombo Security Conclave in 2024 at Port Louis, Mauritius. Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was formed in 2011 as a trilateral maritime security group of India, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
    The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) is a group that works to ensure the security and stability of the Indian Ocean region and includes India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and the Maldives. Observers country Bangladesh, Seychelles
    Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) Members Objective:
    o Creating a platform for closer cooperation in maritime security
    o Narco-trafficking,
    o Human trafficking,
    o Piracy,
    o Terrorism
    o Shared experiences in combating internet and social media abuse
    o and addressing challenges such as extremism.

    India’s stance
    There is a need for regional cooperation in view of Chinese influence. India will play an important role in this so that China’s crypto policy can be influenced. In view of the increasing number of security issues and uncertainties, there is a great need for cooperation in IOR. And India, along with its neighbours, must begin to accept that the IOR is evolving into a global commons area.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to ‘Mount Vinson’, consider the following statements:
    1. It is the highest point in the continent of Antarctica.
    2. It is located between the Sentinel Range and the Heritage Range.
    3. It is famous for specialised research stations notified by the United Nations (UN).
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Recently, Washington social media users and conspiracy theorists claim that a new pyramid has been discovered in Antarctica.
    Recently satellite photos related to this have surfaced. A mysterious triangular structure has been seen in the icy continent, which is being described as the world’s newest wonder.
    Geographic location of the Ellsworth Mountains and their configuration
    Statement 1 is correct: Mount Vinson is the highest point in Antarctica, standing at 16,050 ft (4,892 m) above sea level. It’s located in the Sentinel Range of the Ellsworth Mountains, about 1,200 km (750 mi) from the South Pole. This is a 360 km long and 48 km wide chain running in north-south direction from the Rhone Ice Shelf in the west.
    Statement 2 is correct: Mount Vinson is located between the Sentinel Range and the Heritage Range. The Sentinel Range is in the north of the Ellsworth Mountains, and the Heritage Range is in the south.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It is one of the most recently discovered and explored of the Seven Summits, the highest peaks of the world’s seven continents. Not for a research center.
    About Seven Summits:
    ● The Seven Summits are defined as the highest peaks on each of the seven continents.
    ● A mighty goal, climbing all of these mountains is a pinnacle achievement that many mountaineers dream of.
    ● It’s a phenomenal feat that requires extreme fitness, commitment, determination, resilience and courage and as such, joining the ‘Seven Summiters’ club is a very exclusive privilege held by few people.
    Seven Summits
    ● Denali. (6,194 m)
    ● Mont Blanc. (4,810 m)
    ● Elbrus. (5,642 m)
    ● Everest. (8,848 m)
    ● Kilimanjaro. (5,895 m)
    ● Aconcagua. (6,961 m)
    ● Vinson. (4,892 m)
    ● Kosciuszko. (2,228 m)

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Recently, Washington social media users and conspiracy theorists claim that a new pyramid has been discovered in Antarctica.
    Recently satellite photos related to this have surfaced. A mysterious triangular structure has been seen in the icy continent, which is being described as the world’s newest wonder.
    Geographic location of the Ellsworth Mountains and their configuration
    Statement 1 is correct: Mount Vinson is the highest point in Antarctica, standing at 16,050 ft (4,892 m) above sea level. It’s located in the Sentinel Range of the Ellsworth Mountains, about 1,200 km (750 mi) from the South Pole. This is a 360 km long and 48 km wide chain running in north-south direction from the Rhone Ice Shelf in the west.
    Statement 2 is correct: Mount Vinson is located between the Sentinel Range and the Heritage Range. The Sentinel Range is in the north of the Ellsworth Mountains, and the Heritage Range is in the south.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It is one of the most recently discovered and explored of the Seven Summits, the highest peaks of the world’s seven continents. Not for a research center.
    About Seven Summits:
    ● The Seven Summits are defined as the highest peaks on each of the seven continents.
    ● A mighty goal, climbing all of these mountains is a pinnacle achievement that many mountaineers dream of.
    ● It’s a phenomenal feat that requires extreme fitness, commitment, determination, resilience and courage and as such, joining the ‘Seven Summiters’ club is a very exclusive privilege held by few people.
    Seven Summits
    ● Denali. (6,194 m)
    ● Mont Blanc. (4,810 m)
    ● Elbrus. (5,642 m)
    ● Everest. (8,848 m)
    ● Kilimanjaro. (5,895 m)
    ● Aconcagua. (6,961 m)
    ● Vinson. (4,892 m)
    ● Kosciuszko. (2,228 m)

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Which of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘carbon leakage’?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Context:
    European Commissioner Wopke Hoekstra’s recent statement at the UN Climate Summit that the main goal of the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) was to stop carbon leakage was flawed, according to research body Global Trade Research Initiative.

    • Carbon leakage is a concept to quantify an increase in greenhouse gas emissions in one country as a result of an emissions reduction by a second country with stricter climate change mitigation policies. Carbon leakage is one type of spill-over effect. Spillover effects can be positive or negative; for example, emission reductions policy might lead to technological developments that aid reductions outside of the policy area. Carbon leakage is defined as “the increase in CO2 emissions outside the countries taking domestic mitigation action divided by the reduction in the emissions of these countries.”It is expressed as a percentage, and can be greater or less than 100%. There is no consensus over the magnitude of long-term leakage effects.

    Hence, Option (C) is the correct answer.
    Additional Information:
    ● CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, which is the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55 by 2030 compared to 1990 levels
    ● The EU has agreed to the world’s first Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), a measure aimed at preventing “carbon leakage”.
    ● CBAM will initially cover several specific products in some of the most carbon-intensive sectors.
    ● CBAM, which some argue violates international trade rules, also aims to incentivize trading partners to decarbonize.
    ● CBAM extends the concept of carbon pricing to imports for the first time.
    ● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a tariff on carbon-intensive products, such as cement or fertiliser. While CBAM’s implementation is still being worked out, we at least know the scheme’s scope.
    ● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms are already in place in some regions around the world, such as California, where an adjustment is applied to certain imports of electricity. A number of countries such as Canada and Japan are planning similar initiatives. In addition,
    ● The IMF and the OECD have recently carried out work to study how such measures could support international efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Context:
    European Commissioner Wopke Hoekstra’s recent statement at the UN Climate Summit that the main goal of the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) was to stop carbon leakage was flawed, according to research body Global Trade Research Initiative.

    • Carbon leakage is a concept to quantify an increase in greenhouse gas emissions in one country as a result of an emissions reduction by a second country with stricter climate change mitigation policies. Carbon leakage is one type of spill-over effect. Spillover effects can be positive or negative; for example, emission reductions policy might lead to technological developments that aid reductions outside of the policy area. Carbon leakage is defined as “the increase in CO2 emissions outside the countries taking domestic mitigation action divided by the reduction in the emissions of these countries.”It is expressed as a percentage, and can be greater or less than 100%. There is no consensus over the magnitude of long-term leakage effects.

    Hence, Option (C) is the correct answer.
    Additional Information:
    ● CBAM is part of the “Fit for 55 in 2030 package”, which is the EU’s plan to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55 by 2030 compared to 1990 levels
    ● The EU has agreed to the world’s first Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), a measure aimed at preventing “carbon leakage”.
    ● CBAM will initially cover several specific products in some of the most carbon-intensive sectors.
    ● CBAM, which some argue violates international trade rules, also aims to incentivize trading partners to decarbonize.
    ● CBAM extends the concept of carbon pricing to imports for the first time.
    ● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a tariff on carbon-intensive products, such as cement or fertiliser. While CBAM’s implementation is still being worked out, we at least know the scheme’s scope.
    ● Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanisms are already in place in some regions around the world, such as California, where an adjustment is applied to certain imports of electricity. A number of countries such as Canada and Japan are planning similar initiatives. In addition,
    ● The IMF and the OECD have recently carried out work to study how such measures could support international efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to the ‘Fish Disease App’, consider the following statements:
    1. It has been developed in collaboration with the Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (CIFT) and the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
    2. It intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    A mobile app titled ‘Report Fish Disease’ recently has been introduced to help aquaculture farmers to report diseases on their farms.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Surveillance Program for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced ‘Report Fish Disease’, a mobile app to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.It’s aim is to boost India’s aquaculture sector. It has been developed by National Informatics Center Pune.
    Statement 2 is correct: Intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.

    ● Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
    ● Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
    Additional Information
    ➢ Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMSSY)
    ➢ Introduced, as part of the ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ package
    ➢ Fishermen are provided with insurance cover, financial assistance and a facility of Kisan Credit Card as well.
    ➢ The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components:
    ➢ Central Sector Scheme (CSS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    A mobile app titled ‘Report Fish Disease’ recently has been introduced to help aquaculture farmers to report diseases on their farms.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Surveillance Program for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) project has introduced ‘Report Fish Disease’, a mobile app to track and monitor fish diseases across the country.It’s aim is to boost India’s aquaculture sector. It has been developed by National Informatics Center Pune.
    Statement 2 is correct: Intends to empower fish farmers with a convenient and efficient platform to report diseases on their farms.

    ● Its intuitive and user-friendly interface enables easy accessibility to fish farmers.
    ● Geo-tagging technology facilitates swift response from authorities and the receivers get real-time updates on the status of their reported cases, ensuring transparency and accountability in the disease management process.
    Additional Information
    ➢ Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMSSY)
    ➢ Introduced, as part of the ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ package
    ➢ Fishermen are provided with insurance cover, financial assistance and a facility of Kisan Credit Card as well.
    ➢ The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme with two separate Components:
    ➢ Central Sector Scheme (CSS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).

window.wpAdvQuizInitList = window.wpAdvQuizInitList || []; window.wpAdvQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpAdvQuiz_642', init: { quizId: 642, mode: 0, globalPoints: 10, timelimit: 0, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 0, qpp: 0, catPoints: [10], formPos: 0, lbn: "Finish quiz", json: {"2994":{"type":"single","id":2994,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2995":{"type":"single","id":2995,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2996":{"type":"single","id":2996,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2997":{"type":"single","id":2997,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"2998":{"type":"single","id":2998,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } });




Day-600 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMY

Day-600

Time limit: 0

Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Information

DAILY MCQ

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Categories

  1. Not categorized 0%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘sympatry’?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    There are five types of speciation: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric and artificial.
    Allopatric speciation occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring.
    When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others.
    In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment.
    Parapatric speciation sometimes happens when part of an environment has been polluted. Mining activities leave waste with high amounts of metals like lead and zinc.
    These metals are absorbed into the soil, preventing most plants from growing. Some grasses, such as buffalo grass, can tolerate the metals. Buffalo grass, also known as vanilla grass, is native to Europe and Asia, but is now found throughout North and South America, too. Buffalo grass has become a unique species from the grasses that grow in areas not polluted by metals.
    Sympatric speciation occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another, and all members are in close proximity to one another. A new species, perhaps based on a different food source or characteristic, seems to develop spontaneously. The theory is that some individuals become dependent on certain aspects of an environment—such as shelter or food sources—while others do not.
    Artificial speciation is the creation of new species by people. This is achieved through lab experiments, where scientists mostly research insects like fruit flies.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    There are five types of speciation: allopatric, peripatric, parapatric, and sympatric and artificial.
    Allopatric speciation occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring.
    When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others.
    In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment.
    Parapatric speciation sometimes happens when part of an environment has been polluted. Mining activities leave waste with high amounts of metals like lead and zinc.
    These metals are absorbed into the soil, preventing most plants from growing. Some grasses, such as buffalo grass, can tolerate the metals. Buffalo grass, also known as vanilla grass, is native to Europe and Asia, but is now found throughout North and South America, too. Buffalo grass has become a unique species from the grasses that grow in areas not polluted by metals.
    Sympatric speciation occurs when there are no physical barriers preventing any members of a species from mating with another, and all members are in close proximity to one another. A new species, perhaps based on a different food source or characteristic, seems to develop spontaneously. The theory is that some individuals become dependent on certain aspects of an environment—such as shelter or food sources—while others do not.
    Artificial speciation is the creation of new species by people. This is achieved through lab experiments, where scientists mostly research insects like fruit flies.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: In general, the temperate areas are not as rich in species diversity as the tropical regions.
    Statement II: Species diversification is higher in regions that are less subject to glaciations.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Both statements are correct. Statement 2 explains statement 1.
    The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows a rather uneven distribution. In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. With very few exceptions, tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S) harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
    Ecologists and evolutionary biologists have proposed various hypotheses; some important ones are:
    (a) Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
    (b) Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity.
    (c) There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
    Thus, there are three major factors proposed by ecologists to have influenced the richness of species diversity in the areas near equator as compared to the poles.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation: Both statements are correct. Statement 2 explains statement 1.
    The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world but shows a rather uneven distribution. In general, species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. With very few exceptions, tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5° N to 23.5° S) harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.
    Ecologists and evolutionary biologists have proposed various hypotheses; some important ones are:
    (a) Speciation is generally a function of time, unlike temperate regions subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
    (b) Tropical environments, unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity.
    (c) There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
    Thus, there are three major factors proposed by ecologists to have influenced the richness of species diversity in the areas near equator as compared to the poles.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. ‘Climate Club’, recently seen in the news, is:

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    The Climate Club has been launched at UNFCCC COP28 (at Dubai, UAE in 2023). It is a leading high-ambition intergovernmental forum for exchange on accelerating climate action and industry decarbonisation. The objective of the Climate Club members is to support the effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and decisions thereunder.
    The Climate Club’s initial focus is on the emission-intensive sectors steel and cement with the aim to scale up lead markets and to make decarbonised industrial production the default business case. While focusing on exchange among governments, the Climate Club will engage relevant stakeholders and experts from academia, think tanks, civil society, and the private sector. It draws on their expertise, and elevates and complements the ongoing work of international organisations and initiatives that relates to its activities.
    It has been agreed that the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), along with the International Energy Agency (IEA), would host an Interim Secretariat working together with other relevant organisations to ensure progress on working arrangements until further arrangements are decided.
    NOTE- India is not a member of the Climate Club, as of now. Chile and Germany are the co-hosts of this club. Currently, it comprises 37 members.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    The Climate Club has been launched at UNFCCC COP28 (at Dubai, UAE in 2023). It is a leading high-ambition intergovernmental forum for exchange on accelerating climate action and industry decarbonisation. The objective of the Climate Club members is to support the effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and decisions thereunder.
    The Climate Club’s initial focus is on the emission-intensive sectors steel and cement with the aim to scale up lead markets and to make decarbonised industrial production the default business case. While focusing on exchange among governments, the Climate Club will engage relevant stakeholders and experts from academia, think tanks, civil society, and the private sector. It draws on their expertise, and elevates and complements the ongoing work of international organisations and initiatives that relates to its activities.
    It has been agreed that the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), along with the International Energy Agency (IEA), would host an Interim Secretariat working together with other relevant organisations to ensure progress on working arrangements until further arrangements are decided.
    NOTE- India is not a member of the Climate Club, as of now. Chile and Germany are the co-hosts of this club. Currently, it comprises 37 members.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following conditions:
    1. The wetland must be a unique and natural, located within an appropriate biogeographic region and supports threatened species of biodiversity.
    2. The wetland should regularly support 2,000 or more waterbirds.
    3. The wetland should regularly support 1% of the individuals in a population of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.
    For the declaration of Wetlands of International Importance, how many of the above-mentioned conditions have been specified under the Ramsar Convention?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Options 1 and 3 are correct.
    The Ramsar Convention has specified 9 criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance:
    Criterion 1: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.
    Criterion 2: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
    Criterion 3: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
    Criterion 4: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
    Criterion 5: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds. (hence, Option 2 is incorrect).
    Criterion 6: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
    Criterion 7: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
    Criterion 8: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.
    Criterion 9: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Options 1 and 3 are correct.
    The Ramsar Convention has specified 9 criteria for identifying Wetlands of International Importance:
    Criterion 1: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it contains a representative, rare, or unique example of a natural or near-natural wetland type found within the appropriate biogeographic region.
    Criterion 2: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered species or threatened ecological communities.
    Criterion 3: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports populations of plant and/or animal species important for maintaining the biological diversity of a particular biogeographic region.
    Criterion 4: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports plant and/or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles, or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
    Criterion 5: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 20,000 or more waterbirds. (hence, Option 2 is incorrect).
    Criterion 6: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of waterbird.
    Criterion 7: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it supports a significant proportion of indigenous fish subspecies, species or families, life-history stages, species interactions and/or populations that are representative of wetland benefits and/or values and thereby contributes to global biological diversity.
    Criterion 8: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it is an important source of food for fishes, spawning ground, nursery and/or migration path on which fish stocks, either within the wetland or elsewhere, depend.
    Criterion 9: A wetland should be considered internationally important if it regularly supports 1% of the individuals in a population of one species or subspecies of wetland-dependent non-avian animal species.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Which of the following species is the most appropriate to fit into the fourth trophic level in a savanna food chain?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The savanna food web is a complex ecological network formed by the trophic relationships between savanna plants and animals in different levels of different savanna food chains. One of the food chains in savanna ecosystem can be summarised in ascending order as follows:
    Grasses-Bushback- Baboon/lion/leopard-Hyena
    • Primary Producers (Trophic level 1): Grasses, Baobab, Acacia trees
    • Primary Consumers (Trophic level 2): Bushbuck (African antelope), Grasshopper, Giraffe, Zebra
    • Secondary Consumers (Trophic level 3): Baboon, African Wild Dog
    • Tertiary Consumers (Trophic level 4): Spotted Hyena, Vultures, lion
    As carnivores, hyenas eat zebras, rabbits, warthogs and are also known to be scavengers who feed on carcasses.
    Additional information:
    About Bushback:
    • Widely distributed in Sub-Saharan Africa
    • Habitat: woodlands, forests, savanna
    • Diet: herbivore- consumes leaves, shoots, twigs etc.
    • Predators: lions, leopard, cheetah; baboons sometimes eat baby bushback
    • Characteristics: white patches on neck, vertical stripes or spots on sides, males have horns
    About Baboon: Mammals, Primates (Old World Monkey), omnivores, distributed across Africa and Arabia.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The savanna food web is a complex ecological network formed by the trophic relationships between savanna plants and animals in different levels of different savanna food chains. One of the food chains in savanna ecosystem can be summarised in ascending order as follows:
    Grasses-Bushback- Baboon/lion/leopard-Hyena
    • Primary Producers (Trophic level 1): Grasses, Baobab, Acacia trees
    • Primary Consumers (Trophic level 2): Bushbuck (African antelope), Grasshopper, Giraffe, Zebra
    • Secondary Consumers (Trophic level 3): Baboon, African Wild Dog
    • Tertiary Consumers (Trophic level 4): Spotted Hyena, Vultures, lion
    As carnivores, hyenas eat zebras, rabbits, warthogs and are also known to be scavengers who feed on carcasses.
    Additional information:
    About Bushback:
    • Widely distributed in Sub-Saharan Africa
    • Habitat: woodlands, forests, savanna
    • Diet: herbivore- consumes leaves, shoots, twigs etc.
    • Predators: lions, leopard, cheetah; baboons sometimes eat baby bushback
    • Characteristics: white patches on neck, vertical stripes or spots on sides, males have horns
    About Baboon: Mammals, Primates (Old World Monkey), omnivores, distributed across Africa and Arabia.

window.wpAdvQuizInitList = window.wpAdvQuizInitList || []; window.wpAdvQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpAdvQuiz_641', init: { quizId: 641, mode: 0, globalPoints: 10, timelimit: 0, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 0, qpp: 0, catPoints: [10], formPos: 0, lbn: "Finish quiz", json: {"2989":{"type":"single","id":2989,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"2990":{"type":"single","id":2990,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"2991":{"type":"single","id":2991,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"2992":{"type":"single","id":2992,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2993":{"type":"single","id":2993,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]}} } });




Day-599 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Day-599

Time limit: 0

Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Information

DAILY MCQ

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Categories

  1. Not categorized 0%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Radiocarbon dating technique is used to determine the age of an inorganic object.
    Statement-II: This technique is useful only for those entities which are dead.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation
    What is radiocarbon dating?
    Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon. The method was developed in the late 1940s at the University of Chicago by Willard Libby.
    Concept of radiocarbon dating
    It is based on the fact that radiocarbon (14C) is constantly being created in the Earth’s atmosphere by the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric nitrogen. The resulting 14C combines with atmospheric oxygen to form radioactive carbon dioxide, which is incorporated into plants by photosynthesis; animals then acquire 14C by eating the plants. When the animal or plant dies, it stops exchanging carbon with its environment, and thereafter the amount of 14C it contains begins to decrease as the 14C undergoes radioactive decay.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: This technique is used to determine the age of objects which are generally of archaeological importance and have organic content (or in simpler words objects which once were living, or material made from living things).
    Statement 2 is correct: This technique is used for entities which are dead. When an entity dies, it stops exchanging radiocarbon with the environment. Thus, as the fossil ages, the radiocarbon decays in its concentration. This radioactive decay is analysed to identify the relative age of the fossil.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation
    What is radiocarbon dating?
    Radiocarbon dating (also referred to as carbon dating or carbon-14 dating) is a method for determining the age of an object containing organic material by using the properties of radiocarbon, a radioactive isotope of carbon. The method was developed in the late 1940s at the University of Chicago by Willard Libby.
    Concept of radiocarbon dating
    It is based on the fact that radiocarbon (14C) is constantly being created in the Earth’s atmosphere by the interaction of cosmic rays with atmospheric nitrogen. The resulting 14C combines with atmospheric oxygen to form radioactive carbon dioxide, which is incorporated into plants by photosynthesis; animals then acquire 14C by eating the plants. When the animal or plant dies, it stops exchanging carbon with its environment, and thereafter the amount of 14C it contains begins to decrease as the 14C undergoes radioactive decay.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: This technique is used to determine the age of objects which are generally of archaeological importance and have organic content (or in simpler words objects which once were living, or material made from living things).
    Statement 2 is correct: This technique is used for entities which are dead. When an entity dies, it stops exchanging radiocarbon with the environment. Thus, as the fossil ages, the radiocarbon decays in its concentration. This radioactive decay is analysed to identify the relative age of the fossil.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: In a split air conditioner, the condenser is the outdoor unit whereas evaporator is the indoor unit.
    Statement-II: Vaporisation of the liquid coolant leads to the cooling effect in the indoor unit.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is correct: An air conditioner is typically composed of two units: The indoor and outdoor unit. These are usually called ‘split’ air conditioners. Indoor unit have expansion valve and evaporator coils where outdoor have compressor and condenser coils.

    Statement 2 is correct and is the explanation of statement 1: Due to very low vaporization temperature of an AC coolant. The liquid coolant absorbs heat from the room and vaporizes into a gas in the evaporator coil. This leads to a cooling effect in the room. The gaseous form of the coolant is brought back to the liquid state in the condenser coil and by the action of compressor which compresses the gas to again liquify it. This is a continuous cycle and hence, an air conditioner works in this way.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is correct: An air conditioner is typically composed of two units: The indoor and outdoor unit. These are usually called ‘split’ air conditioners. Indoor unit have expansion valve and evaporator coils where outdoor have compressor and condenser coils.

    Statement 2 is correct and is the explanation of statement 1: Due to very low vaporization temperature of an AC coolant. The liquid coolant absorbs heat from the room and vaporizes into a gas in the evaporator coil. This leads to a cooling effect in the room. The gaseous form of the coolant is brought back to the liquid state in the condenser coil and by the action of compressor which compresses the gas to again liquify it. This is a continuous cycle and hence, an air conditioner works in this way.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. This mysterious entity is completely invisible. We only assume it exists because, without it, the behavior of stars, planets and galaxies simply wouldn’t make sense. It emits no light or energy and thus cannot be detected by conventional sensors and detectors.
    Which of the following entities is being described in the above paragraph?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    • In the current universe, nearly 70 per cent constitutes dark energy whereas 25 per cent is dark matter – about both of which there is scanty knowledge, till date.
    • Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic force.
    • This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
    • In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    • In the current universe, nearly 70 per cent constitutes dark energy whereas 25 per cent is dark matter – about both of which there is scanty knowledge, till date.
    • Unlike normal matter, dark matter does not interact with electromagnetic force.
    • This means it does not absorb, reflect or emit light, making it extremely hard to spot.
    • In fact, researchers have been able to infer the existence of dark matter only from the gravitational effect it seems to have on visible matter.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following:
    1. Radar
    2. Optical fiber communication
    3. Surgery
    In how many of the above cases, lasers can be used?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    A laser is a device that emits a beam of coherent light through an optical amplification process. The letters in the word laser stand for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Lasers produce a narrow beam of light in which all of the light waves have very similar wavelengths.
    The laser’s light waves travel together with their peaks all lined up, or in phase. This is why laser beams are very narrow, very bright, and can be focused into a very tiny spot.
    Lasers have many uses. They are used in precision tools and can cut through diamonds or thick metal. They can also be designed to help in delicate surgeries. Lasers are used for recording and retrieving information. They are used in communications and in carrying TV and internet signals. We also find them in laser printers, bar code scanners, and DVD players. They also help to make parts for computers and other electronics.
    Option 1 is incorrect: Laser is not used for radar applications. Radar stands for Radio Detection and Ranging. It uses radio waves (and not laser) to determine the distance, angle, and radial velocity of objects relative to the site.
    Option 2 is correct: Laser is used for optical fiber communication in case of beaming of high-speed internet.
    Option 3 is correct: Laser is used for precision surgery like lasik eye surgery for correcting vision.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    A laser is a device that emits a beam of coherent light through an optical amplification process. The letters in the word laser stand for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. Lasers produce a narrow beam of light in which all of the light waves have very similar wavelengths.
    The laser’s light waves travel together with their peaks all lined up, or in phase. This is why laser beams are very narrow, very bright, and can be focused into a very tiny spot.
    Lasers have many uses. They are used in precision tools and can cut through diamonds or thick metal. They can also be designed to help in delicate surgeries. Lasers are used for recording and retrieving information. They are used in communications and in carrying TV and internet signals. We also find them in laser printers, bar code scanners, and DVD players. They also help to make parts for computers and other electronics.
    Option 1 is incorrect: Laser is not used for radar applications. Radar stands for Radio Detection and Ranging. It uses radio waves (and not laser) to determine the distance, angle, and radial velocity of objects relative to the site.
    Option 2 is correct: Laser is used for optical fiber communication in case of beaming of high-speed internet.
    Option 3 is correct: Laser is used for precision surgery like lasik eye surgery for correcting vision.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to the digital payments system in India, consider the following statements:
    1. Payment through UPI Lite does not require internet service.
    2. Some digital wallet-based payment instruments do not require PIN for transaction.
    3. A direct debit mandate given for recurring expenses requires One Time Password (OTP) for every transaction.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: UPI Lite requires internet service to process transactions but it does not require PIN for each transaction. It is UPI 123 Pay system which has been designed for feature phone users to use UPI without the need for internet.
    UPI Lite
    UPI LITE is a new payment solution that leverages the trusted NPCI Common Library (CL) application to process low value transactions that have been set at below ₹ 500. User enters the amount, and the money is sent to the party without the need for PIN.
    Statement 2 is correct: UPI is a type of Prepaid Instrument which does not require PIN for transactions. It is a kind of wallet-based payment instrument that enables users to load cash digitally before transacting.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: A direct debit mandate given for recurring expenses like bill payment, recharge does not require OTP to be filled for every transaction. A Direct Debit mandate, sometimes called a Direct Debit instruction (DDI), is when a customer authorizes you to collect future payments from their account on a predetermined schedule.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: UPI Lite requires internet service to process transactions but it does not require PIN for each transaction. It is UPI 123 Pay system which has been designed for feature phone users to use UPI without the need for internet.
    UPI Lite
    UPI LITE is a new payment solution that leverages the trusted NPCI Common Library (CL) application to process low value transactions that have been set at below ₹ 500. User enters the amount, and the money is sent to the party without the need for PIN.
    Statement 2 is correct: UPI is a type of Prepaid Instrument which does not require PIN for transactions. It is a kind of wallet-based payment instrument that enables users to load cash digitally before transacting.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: A direct debit mandate given for recurring expenses like bill payment, recharge does not require OTP to be filled for every transaction. A Direct Debit mandate, sometimes called a Direct Debit instruction (DDI), is when a customer authorizes you to collect future payments from their account on a predetermined schedule.

window.wpAdvQuizInitList = window.wpAdvQuizInitList || []; window.wpAdvQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpAdvQuiz_640', init: { quizId: 640, mode: 0, globalPoints: 10, timelimit: 0, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 0, qpp: 0, catPoints: [10], formPos: 0, lbn: "Finish quiz", json: {"2984":{"type":"single","id":2984,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"2985":{"type":"single","id":2985,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"2986":{"type":"single","id":2986,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2987":{"type":"single","id":2987,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"2988":{"type":"single","id":2988,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } });