WSDP Bulletin (20/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Bacteria could help turn CO2 to rock under extreme conditions READ MORE

2. A recently formed ocean inside Saturn’s moon Mimas READ MORE

3. Go back to dictionary meaning of ‘forest’: Supreme Court READ MORE

4. Ladakh leaders call off hunger strike as MHA agrees to discuss Statehood, constitutional safeguards READ MORE

5. Forest (Conservation) Amendment Act 2023: States, UTs must act as per definition in TN Godavarman judgement, says SC READ MORE

6. Only 32 Indian cities had clean air this January, Delhi, Bhagalpur most polluted READ MORE

7. Central Asian Flyway recognised to protect over 600 migratory bird species READ MORE

8. ISRO’s latest launch: Why is the GSLV rocket nicknamed ‘naughty boy’? READ MORE

9. Gemini Pro 1.5 with 1 million tokens surpasses GPT-4 Turbo: What does that mean? READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. The tribal communities of central India: Challenges and way forward READ MORE

2. Gender disparity in Indian science READ MORE

3. La Nina impacted air quality in India in the winter of 2022: What a new study says READ MORE

4. Bangladesh experienced 185 extreme weather events between 2000 and 2019: ICCCAD report READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Uttarakhand UCC pits vulnerable young couples against the might of the state READ MORE

2. Transparency in poll funding remains a challenge READ MORE

3. Undermining the right to learn READ MORE

4. The implications of the Supreme Court ruling READ MORE

5. Tamil Nadu: The power struggle intensifies READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Can safe drinking water improve children’s educational outcomes? READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Ties across the sea: On the India-UAE close relationship READ MORE

2. The rise of ‘intelligence diplomacy’ in a time of global security challenges READ MORE

3. India-UAE relations look beyond the diaspora READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Denying MSP legal guarantee threat to India’s food security READ MORE

2. What does a guaranteed MSP mean? READ MORE

3. MSP proposal: Govt’s offer fails to convince farmer leaders READ MORE

4. Farmers’ demands are impractical and unrealistic READ MORE

5. Agriculture Infrastructure Fund: A catalyst for India’s agri-future READ MORE

6. Skill development: Key to India’s shifting job market READ MORE

7. Balancing welfare and fiscal responsibility READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Warming up to climate change: How does climate change impact extreme weather events? READ MORE

2. Air pollution needs decentralised, micro solutions READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Hundred years ago, Satyendra Nath Bose changed physics forever READ MORE

2. Recalibrating merit in the age of Artificial Intelligence READ MORE

3. Why big data is becoming small READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Misplaced priorities: On the scrapping of the Free Movement Regime between India and Myanmar READ MORE    

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Chandigarh mayor polls: Presiding officer admitted he tampered ballots, must be prosecuted, orders Supreme Court READ MORE

2. The Role of Discipline in Education READ MORE

3. Basant asks us to shift from wanting to giving READ MORE

4. ‘Triple A’ personality: Anant, Akash, Anand READ MORE

5. The mind and soul READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. As the benefits are more than the cost of the free movement regime between India and Myanmar hence, it should not be scrapped. Critically examine.

2. The Supreme Court is right in striking down electoral bonds for not being transparent, but it does not help bring transparency into electoral funding in any manner. Examine.

3. The larger objectives of enhancing food security, increasing farmers’ income and reducing dependence on imports can be achieved if the glaring anomalies in the MSP regime are removed. Comment.

4. Discuss the importance of skill-based education to bridging the gap between potential and realisation in a job market increasingly favouring specialised technical skills.

5. The distribution of power between the Centre and states as put forth by the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution has created a fiscal gap and led to a vertical fiscal imbalance. Examine.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.
  • India-UAE ties are also built on a bedrock of history and cultural engagement that includes centuries-old maritime trade and a diaspora that contributes about 18% of India’s global remittances.
  • While India’s technological prowess and the UAE’s positioning as a trade and industry hub bring complementarities, the changes in their polity and societies bring possible friction points.
  • The free movement regime between India and Myanmar had more benefits than costs.
  • The idea of neighbourly relations and borders was tied not just to the interest of national security for the post-colonial nation-state but also to the interests of the people in border areas and their imagined histories.
  • The Agreement for an Intergovernmental Framework on the India-Middle East Economic Corridor paves the way for multilateral cooperation between India and the UAE.
  • Recalibrating meritocracy in the face of AI advancements demands a sophisticated understanding of the interplay between technology and societal structures.
  • The Supreme Court is right in striking down electoral bonds for not being transparent, but it does not help bring transparency into electoral funding in any manner.
  • Governments (States and Centre) have to find comprehensive long-term solutions to the problems confronting farmers and their livelihoods, climate change, food inflation and the demands of food and nutrition security.
  • The larger objectives of enhancing food security, increasing farmers’ income and reducing dependence on imports can be achieved if the glaring anomalies in the MSP regime are removed.
  • India needs to think of alternative initiative(s) to ensure its place in the international domain, as it has come up with the idea of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, which seems to be gaining momentum.
  • To prevent the influence of money in elections in the future, we need regulations for donations, spending limits, public funding, and disclosure.
  • The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund aims to improve India’s agricultural infrastructure by providing incentives and financial support for medium to long-erm debt financing.
  • Skill-based education is paramount to bridging the gap between potential and realisation in a job market increasingly favouring specialised technical skills.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • We need to move forward on AI development but we also need to be mindful of its very real dangers.

50-WORD TALK

  • As India stands on the brink of an era of transformation, it is vital to rethink education, give priority to on-the-job training, and embrace apprenticeships to shape a workforce that not only possesses theoretical knowledge but also has the practical tech-based skills necessary to gain a competitive advantage and thrive in the dynamic landscape of the country’s economy.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



ASHOK GULATI WRITES ON FARMERS’ PROTEST: POLICIES FAVOUR THE CONSUMER, NOT THE PRODUCER

THE CONTEXT: Farmers in India, particularly from Punjab, are protesting for higher income stability through demands such as legally binding minimum support prices based on the Swaminathan formula. They also seek loan waivers, pensions, and wage reforms. The situation is fraught with economic and political complexities, especially during elections.

THE ISSUES:

  • Demand for Legal Guarantee of MSP: Farmers demand that the Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) be legally binding to ensure they receive a fair price for their produce. They want MSPs fixed according to the Swaminathan formula, which suggests a 50% profit over the comprehensive cost (Cost C2).
  • Current MSP Formula: The current government policy sets MSP at a minimum of 50% margin over the Cost A2+FL, which does not include imputed rent on owned land or interest on owned capital. Farmers are demanding a shift to the Cost C2 calculation, which would raise MSPs by approximately 25 to 30% for most crops.
  • Additional Economic Demands: Beyond MSP, farmers are also demanding loan waivers, pensions for farmers and agricultural laborers, a minimum wage rate of Rs 700/day, and the inclusion of MGNREGA workers to work on farmers’ fields.
  • Fiscal and Economic Implications: Accepting the farmers’ demands could significantly affect the government’s finances (fiscal pressure) and lead to food inflation.
  • Need for Diversification: The future of Indian agriculture and the potential for increasing farmers’ incomes lies in diversifying into sectors like livestock, fisheries, and horticulture, which have been growing without MSP support.
  • Policy Reforms: Removing bans on agri-exports, stocking limits on private trade, and selling wheat and rice below the economic cost of the Food Corporation of India (FCI) are considered anti-farmer policies.
  • Subsidy Reorientation: There is a call to reorient subsidies towards producers rather than consumers, suggesting that a more significant portion of subsidies should support farmers directly, for example, through a price stabilization fund or policies like PM-Kisan.
  • Balancing Interests: Policymakers need to balance the interests of producers and consumers, especially in election times when various groups exert pressure on their economic well-being.
  • Rational Policy Making: Rational policy-making is advised to keep emotions and politics out of negotiations and focuses on the long-term sustainability of the agricultural sector and the economy.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Legalization of MSPs: While making MSPs legally binding has been proposed, the government must carefully evaluate the fiscal implications. This could be selectively implemented for crops where market volatility is extremely high, providing a safety net for farmers while avoiding blanket policies that might strain the economy.
  • Implementing the Swaminathan Committee Recommendations: This involves fixing MSPs at levels that ensure a fair profit margin for farmers based on the comprehensive cost of production (Cost C2), thus incentivizing farming as a profession.
  • Expanding MSP to More Crops: MSP could be cautiously expanded to include additional crops, potentially even beyond the traditional 23 crops, to ensure a wider safety net for farmers.
  • Rationalizing Subsidies: Redirect subsidies from consumer-focused to producer-focused, ensuring a larger share of financial support is directed toward farmers, thereby aiding them in lowering production costs and increasing income.
  • Investment in Agriculture Infrastructure: Improve storage, transportation, and marketing infrastructure to reduce post-harvest losses, give farmers better market access, and get better prices for their produce.
  • Strengthening Farmer Organizations: Encourage the formation and strengthening of farmer cooperatives and producer organizations that can empower farmers to have greater control over their products’ production, processing, and marketing.

THE CONCLUSION:

Reorienting policies to support agricultural diversification, productivity, and market access is the way forward to increasing farmer incomes sustainably. Rationalizing subsidies, investing in infrastructure, and creating equitable trade policies could balance farmer demands with economic pragmatism.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) What are the main bottlenecks in India’s upstream and downstream processes of marketing agricultural products? (2022)

Q.2) What are the challenges and opportunities of the food processing sector in the country? How can the farmers’ income be substantially increased by encouraging food processing? (2020)

Q.3) Livestock rearing has a big potential for providing non-farm employment and income in rural areas. Discuss suggesting suitable measures to promote this sector in India (2015)

Q.4) Given the declining average size of land holdings in India, which has made agriculture non-viable for most farmers, should contract farming and land leasing be promoted in agriculture? Critically evaluate the pros and cons. (2015)

Q.5) There is also a point of view that agriculture produce market committees (APMCs) set up under the state acts have not only impeded the development of agriculture but also have been the cause of food inflation in India. Critically examine. (2014)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) Critically assess India’s current agricultural subsidies regime concerning its producer vs. consumer focus. Discuss a reoriented subsidy policy that could align to double farmers’ incomes while ensuring food affordability for consumers.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/faremer-protest-farmer-income-haryan-punjab-farmers-at-delhi-borders-msp-legal-guarantee-9168348/




AFTER SC ELECTORAL BOND VERDICT, TIME TO CLEAN UP

THE CONTEXT: The Supreme Court’s judgment on electoral bonds highlights the need for electoral finance reform, addressing money’s political influence and the legal regime’s dichotomy. The judgment emphasizes the importance of transparency and consultation in the democratic process.

THE ISSUES:

  • Influence of Money on Politics: The Supreme Court’s judgment highlights money’s direct and indirect influence on electoral politics, which can create barriers to entry for new candidates and political parties, particularly those representing marginalized communities.
  • Regulation Discrepancies: There is a dichotomy in the legal regime where contributions to political parties are regulated but not to individual candidates. Conversely, the law regulates expenditures by candidates but not by political parties.
  • Need for Comprehensive Regulation: Experts suggest that future regulation must address four key aspects: regulation of donations, expenditure limits, public financing, and disclosure requirements.
  • International Comparisons: Different countries have different norms and experiments with electoral finance. For example, the US restricts contributions based on the donor type but does not regulate political party expenditure, whereas the UK does the opposite.
  • Public Financing: The text mentions Germany’s model of public financing based on a party’s importance and the “democracy vouchers” experiment in Seattle, US, as innovative approaches to campaign finance.
  • Disclosure vs. Anonymity: The balance between transparency and anonymity is a contentious issue, as seen in the rejection of electoral bonds in India, which aimed to anonymize donations to political parties.
  • Lack of Consultation: The government’s decision to implement electoral bonds without consultation with other political parties or the public is seen as a significant oversight.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Regulation of Donations: There should be clear rules on who can donate and how much they can donate to political parties to prevent undue influence by a few large donors. This could include limiting contributions from individuals and corporations and banning certain types of donors, such as foreign entities.
  • Expenditure Limits: Implementing expenditure limits for political parties can prevent a financial arms race and ensure a level playing field. For example, the UK has a cap on how much political parties can spend per seat, which could be a model to consider.
  • Public Financing: Exploring public financing options, such as the German model, where parties receive funds based on their importance in the political system or the “democracy vouchers” system used in Seattle, US, where voters are given vouchers to donate to candidates of their choice.
  • Disclosure Requirements: Strengthening disclosure requirements to ensure transparency in political donations. This would involve making it mandatory for political parties to disclose their funding sources, allowing voters to make informed decisions. The International Institute for Democracy and Electoral Assistance (IDEA’s) Political Finance Database is a global resource that includes comparative political finance data. It covers regulations on political finance, including disclosure requirements. The database outlines rules on financial reporting, oversight of political finance regulations, and sanctions available for breaches, providing a comprehensive view of disclosure practices in various countries.
  • Strengthening Electoral Institutions: Increasing funding for the Election Commission of India (ECI) and changing its funding status to ensure its independence and effectiveness in overseeing elections and enforcing regulations. The legal backing of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) could be enhanced to make its provisions enforceable by law, allowing for appropriate penalties for violations by political parties or candidates.
  • Addressing Populism and Vote-Buying: Introducing legislation to cap populist announcements by political parties, like the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, could help create a level playing field and prevent unsustainable populist measures. The popular initiative was undertaken in the Philippines to combat vote-selling. This initiative involved asking voters to make a simple, unenforceable promise not to accept money from politicians or to promise to vote according to their conscience, even if they do accept money.

THE CONCLUSION:

The ruling against electoral bonds calls for a comprehensive approach to electoral finance reform, including regulation of donations, expenditure limits, public financing, and disclosure requirements. Broad consultations with stakeholders are crucial to ensure the continued health of India’s democracy.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 To enhance the quality of democracy in India, the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms, and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (2017)

Q.2 In light of the recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (2018)

Q.3 Judicial Legislation is antithetical to the doctrine of separation of powers as envisaged in the Indian Constitution. In this context, justify filing many public interest petitions praying for issuing guidelines to executive authorities. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1 Considering the Supreme Court’s recent judgment on electoral bonds, critically examine the role of transparency in election financing in India. Evaluate the impact of this judgment on the existing legal framework for political donations and expenditures.

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-after-sc-electoral-bond-verdict-time-clean-up-9165700/https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/40-years-ago/february-17-forty-years-ago-ambush-on-crpf-9165720/




Day-595 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMICS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Which of the following statements describes the term ‘de minimis’, which is often heard in the news in context to economy?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The World Trade Organisation (WTO) defines de minimis as the “minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing”.
    The present rules and commitments on agriculture are often called the “Uruguay Round reform programme” — they were negotiated in the Uruguay Round and they include reductions in subsidies and protection as well as other disciplines on the trade.
    The main conceptual consideration is that there are basically two categories of domestic support —
    ● Green Box: Support with no, or minimal, distortive effect on trade.
    ● Amber Box: Trade-distorting support
    Other than that, there is:
    Blue Box: Direct payments under production limiting programmes (often referred to as “Blue Box” measures) are exempt from commitments if such payments are made on fixed areas and yield or a fixed number of livestock.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The World Trade Organisation (WTO) defines de minimis as the “minimal amounts of domestic support that are allowed even though they distort trade — up to 5% of the value of production for developed countries, 10% for developing”.
    The present rules and commitments on agriculture are often called the “Uruguay Round reform programme” — they were negotiated in the Uruguay Round and they include reductions in subsidies and protection as well as other disciplines on the trade.
    The main conceptual consideration is that there are basically two categories of domestic support —
    ● Green Box: Support with no, or minimal, distortive effect on trade.
    ● Amber Box: Trade-distorting support
    Other than that, there is:
    Blue Box: Direct payments under production limiting programmes (often referred to as “Blue Box” measures) are exempt from commitments if such payments are made on fixed areas and yield or a fixed number of livestock.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following conditions:
    1. Increase in expenditure by the government.
    2. Reduction in the interest rates on loans.
    3. Increase in crude oil prices.
    4. Increase in income tax.
    How many of the above-mentioned conditions may result in demand-pull inflation?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Demand-pull inflation’ is caused by developments on the demand side of the economy, while ‘cost-push inflation’ is caused by the effect of higher input costs on the supply side of the economy.
    As demand for a particular good or service increases, the available supply decreases. When fewer items are available, consumers are willing to pay more to obtain the item—as outlined in the economic principle of supply and demand. The result is higher prices due to demand-pull inflation.
    On the other hand, the cost-push inflation occurs when prices increase due to increases in production costs, such as raw materials and wages. The demand for goods is unchanged while the supply of goods declines due to the higher costs of production. As a result, the added costs of production are passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices for the finished goods.

    ● Increase in government expenditure may result in stimulating the aggregate demand in the economy and that can drive up the prices of the goods.
    ● Reduction in the interest rate on loan, a form of expansionary monetary policy, would also create demand-pull inflation in the economy due to increased demand for goods and services.
    ● Increase in crude oil price would increase the raw material cost. Thus, it is a form of cost-push inflation that indicates supply-side bottlenecks.
    ● An increase in income tax is likely to result in decrease in the aggregate demand as it would reduce the disposable income available with an individual. Thus, it would not lead to demand-pull inflation.
    Factors leading to cost-push inflation:
    Thus, while demand-pull inflation influences the demand-side dynamics, resulting in price increase, cost-push inflation influences the supply-side dynamics.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Demand-pull inflation’ is caused by developments on the demand side of the economy, while ‘cost-push inflation’ is caused by the effect of higher input costs on the supply side of the economy.
    As demand for a particular good or service increases, the available supply decreases. When fewer items are available, consumers are willing to pay more to obtain the item—as outlined in the economic principle of supply and demand. The result is higher prices due to demand-pull inflation.
    On the other hand, the cost-push inflation occurs when prices increase due to increases in production costs, such as raw materials and wages. The demand for goods is unchanged while the supply of goods declines due to the higher costs of production. As a result, the added costs of production are passed onto consumers in the form of higher prices for the finished goods.

    ● Increase in government expenditure may result in stimulating the aggregate demand in the economy and that can drive up the prices of the goods.
    ● Reduction in the interest rate on loan, a form of expansionary monetary policy, would also create demand-pull inflation in the economy due to increased demand for goods and services.
    ● Increase in crude oil price would increase the raw material cost. Thus, it is a form of cost-push inflation that indicates supply-side bottlenecks.
    ● An increase in income tax is likely to result in decrease in the aggregate demand as it would reduce the disposable income available with an individual. Thus, it would not lead to demand-pull inflation.
    Factors leading to cost-push inflation:
    Thus, while demand-pull inflation influences the demand-side dynamics, resulting in price increase, cost-push inflation influences the supply-side dynamics.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements about the types of unemployment:
    1. In Structural unemployment, the marginal productivity of labour becomes zero.
    2. Disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector.
    3. Frictional unemployment is a temporary period of joblessness resulting from voluntary employment transitions.
    How many of the above statements are incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the jobs that are available and the people looking for work. This mismatch could be because jobseekers don’t have the skills required to do the available jobs, or because the available jobs are a long way from the jobseekers.
    Disguised unemployment” or “hidden unemployment” describes a section of the labour force engaged in duplicate activity with little to no production. In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed but are actually not making a meaningful contribution to the economy. Thus, the marginal productivity of labour is zero. Disguised unemployment does not affect an economy’s aggregate economic output.
    Statement 2 is correct: In developing economies, the disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector, where a greater number of workers are employed than required.
    Statement 3 is correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
    Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job. Businesses also spend time searching for suitable candidates to fill job vacancies. As a result, people looking for jobs are not matched immediately with vacancies and may experience a period of temporary unemployment.
    This type of unemployment is generally for a shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the jobs that are available and the people looking for work. This mismatch could be because jobseekers don’t have the skills required to do the available jobs, or because the available jobs are a long way from the jobseekers.
    Disguised unemployment” or “hidden unemployment” describes a section of the labour force engaged in duplicate activity with little to no production. In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed but are actually not making a meaningful contribution to the economy. Thus, the marginal productivity of labour is zero. Disguised unemployment does not affect an economy’s aggregate economic output.
    Statement 2 is correct: In developing economies, the disguised unemployment is majorly found in the agricultural sector, where a greater number of workers are employed than required.
    Statement 3 is correct: Frictional unemployment occurs when people move between jobs in the labour market, as well as when people transition into and out of the labour force.
    Movement of workers is necessary for a flexible labour market and helps achieve an efficient allocation of labour across the economy. However, people may not find jobs immediately and need to invest time and effort in searching for the right job. Businesses also spend time searching for suitable candidates to fill job vacancies. As a result, people looking for jobs are not matched immediately with vacancies and may experience a period of temporary unemployment.
    This type of unemployment is generally for a shorter term (less than one month). Frictional unemployment is likely to occur at all points of the business cycle and, like structural unemployment, may not influence wages or inflation.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. With reference to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), consider the following statements:
    1. The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “debtors in possession”, as opposed to the previous position of “creditors in control’.
    2. The loan recovery rate of large corporates has substantially increased under this system.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the umbrella legislation for insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals.
    The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “creditors in control” as opposed to the previous position of “debtors in possession,”, and as a result, management control is transferred from the hands of the current owners to a new management headed by interim resolution professional (IRP) who practically acts under the supervision and control of Committee of Creditors (CoC) for all purposes.
    The CoC is formed by the Interim Resolution Professional once the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is initiated against a Corporate Debtor. The CoC is a committee consisting of financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
    A time-bound resolution of insolvency was the main objective. It aimed to resolve insolvency proceedings within 180 days (extendable by 90 days).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the objective of the resolution, the recovery rate of loans has been quite low.
    ● The Financial Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 28, 2023 summarises the Corporate Insolvency Process (CIRP): “Since the inception of the IBC, a total of 2,808 corporate debtors (CDs) have been rescued and 2,249 CDs have been referred for liquidation till September 2023. The total admitted claims till September 23 are 7,058. As many as 2,001 are pending, of which 36 (out of 37) for seven years, 502 for six years. During the resolution plan approval, only about 15% is paid by the purchaser and the repayment takes years without any further interest collected by the banks.”
    ● The FSR report mentions that realizable value to the creditors is only 16.9% in 2020-21, 22.4% in 2021-22 and 37.1% in 2022-23.
    ● Banks or financial creditors are recovering an average of just 10-15% in NCLT-settled cases of large corporates.
    ● As of September 2023, 67% of ongoing CIRP cases have crossed the timeline of 270 days. The average time taken for admission during FY21 and FY22 was 468 days and 650 days, respectively.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) is the umbrella legislation for insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals.
    The IBC architecture is built on the principle of “creditors in control” as opposed to the previous position of “debtors in possession,”, and as a result, management control is transferred from the hands of the current owners to a new management headed by interim resolution professional (IRP) who practically acts under the supervision and control of Committee of Creditors (CoC) for all purposes.
    The CoC is formed by the Interim Resolution Professional once the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) is initiated against a Corporate Debtor. The CoC is a committee consisting of financial creditors of the corporate debtor.
    A time-bound resolution of insolvency was the main objective. It aimed to resolve insolvency proceedings within 180 days (extendable by 90 days).
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the objective of the resolution, the recovery rate of loans has been quite low.
    ● The Financial Stability Report (FSR) released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on December 28, 2023 summarises the Corporate Insolvency Process (CIRP): “Since the inception of the IBC, a total of 2,808 corporate debtors (CDs) have been rescued and 2,249 CDs have been referred for liquidation till September 2023. The total admitted claims till September 23 are 7,058. As many as 2,001 are pending, of which 36 (out of 37) for seven years, 502 for six years. During the resolution plan approval, only about 15% is paid by the purchaser and the repayment takes years without any further interest collected by the banks.”
    ● The FSR report mentions that realizable value to the creditors is only 16.9% in 2020-21, 22.4% in 2021-22 and 37.1% in 2022-23.
    ● Banks or financial creditors are recovering an average of just 10-15% in NCLT-settled cases of large corporates.
    ● As of September 2023, 67% of ongoing CIRP cases have crossed the timeline of 270 days. The average time taken for admission during FY21 and FY22 was 468 days and 650 days, respectively.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: Under the ‘fiscal drag’, government revenue increases without an explicit increase in tax rates.
    Statement-II: Inflation and earnings growth may push more taxpayers into higher tax brackets, thus undermining spending.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Fiscal Drag occurs when earnings growth and inflation push more earners into higher tax brackets. Consequently, the government’s tax revenue rises without any increases in tax rates. If earners pay a higher percentage of income in tax, their spending declines.
    This fiscal drag has the effect of reducing (or limiting increase) the aggregate demand. The greater tax burden on incomes dampens spending, i.e., it undermines demand. This is a drag on the economy caused by taxation, i.e., it is a fiscal drag.
    It works as automatic brakes that a progressive tax system applies to aggregate demand. Fiscal drag slows down or tames a rapidly expanding economy.
    Progressive tax is a system that taxes higher earners more than lower earners. In other words, higher earners pay a greater percentage of their income in tax than lower earners.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    Fiscal Drag occurs when earnings growth and inflation push more earners into higher tax brackets. Consequently, the government’s tax revenue rises without any increases in tax rates. If earners pay a higher percentage of income in tax, their spending declines.
    This fiscal drag has the effect of reducing (or limiting increase) the aggregate demand. The greater tax burden on incomes dampens spending, i.e., it undermines demand. This is a drag on the economy caused by taxation, i.e., it is a fiscal drag.
    It works as automatic brakes that a progressive tax system applies to aggregate demand. Fiscal drag slows down or tames a rapidly expanding economy.
    Progressive tax is a system that taxes higher earners more than lower earners. In other words, higher earners pay a greater percentage of their income in tax than lower earners.

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SAFEGUARDING AVIAN MIGRANTS: INDIA’s CENTRAL ASIAN FLYWAY INITIATIVE RECOGNIZED

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The recently concluded Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP 14) witnessed a landmark development with the adoption of the Initiative for the Central Asian Flyway.

EXPLANATION:

  • Propelled by India and supported by BirdLife International and 30 other nations spanning from Russian Siberia to the Maldives, this initiative marks a crucial step towards the conservation of over 600 migratory bird species.

India’s Leadership in Conservation:

  • Introduced by India during CMS COP 14, the Initiative for the Central Asian Flyway showcases India’s commitment to environmental conservation.
  • Led by the Inspector General of Forests, Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, the initiative garnered widespread support as a comprehensive effort to protect the diverse migratory bird populations traversing the Central Asian Flyway.

Objectives of the Initiative:

  • Central Asian Flyway (CAF) covers a large area of Eurasia between the Arctic and Indian Oceans.
  • This flyway comprises several important migration routes of birds.
  • Including India, there are 30 countries under the Central Asian Flyway.
  • The primary goal of the Central Asian Flyway initiative is to restore and maintain the favorable conservation status of migratory species populations and facilitate their ecological connectivity within the flyway.
  • The ambitious initiative aims to address the alarming decline in populations of over 240 migratory bird species within the Central Asian Flyway.
  • Notably, 48 of these species are classified as Globally Threatened or Near Threatened.

Key Threats to Migratory Birds:

  • BirdLife International highlighted critical threats faced by migratory birds, including severe habitat loss, overexploitation, and illegal killing.
  • Additionally, the rapid development of energy infrastructure poses a significant risk, leading to collisions and electrocutions.
  • These threats make coordinated conservation efforts imperative to safeguard both the ecological balance and the cultural significance of migratory birds to local communities.

Scope of the Central Asian Flyway:

  • Encompassing a vast geographical range, the Central Asian Flyway includes countries from Russian Siberia to the Maldives.
  • The list comprises Afghanistan, India, China, Iran, Kazakhstan, the Maldives, and 25 other nations.
  • The migratory bird species relying on this flyway connect various ecosystems and contribute to the cultural heritage of communities that have coexisted with them for centuries.

Capacity Building and Collaborative Conservation:

  • The Central Asian Flyway initiative is envisioned as a platform for capacity building, knowledge sharing, research, and coordination among all participating countries.
  • The initiative seeks to foster collaboration to address the diverse challenges faced by migratory bird populations, emphasizing the importance of joint efforts in conservation.

Programme of Work and Future Outlook:

  • The initiative commits to developing and enforcing a Programme of Work aligned with CMS resolutions, decisions, and plans.
  • As it progresses, the initiative aims to provide a robust framework for coordinated action, ensuring the sustainable conservation of the 600+ species of migratory birds utilizing the Central Asian Flyway.

CMS:

  • It is an intergovernmental treaty under the UNEP- popularly known as Bonn Convention.
  • It aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and avian migratory species throughout their range.
  • It lays the legal foundation to conduct conservation measures on a global scale.
  • It was signed in 1979 and in force since 1983.
  • As of 1 March 2022, the CMS has 133 Parties.
  • India is also a party to CMS since 1983.
  • The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (COP14) was hosted by the Government of Uzbekistan, in Samarkand from 12-17 February 2024.

Birdlife International:

  • It is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural resources
  • It is world’s largest conservation partnerships for conservation of birds and their habitats.
  • It was earlier known as International Committee for Bird Preservation.

Conclusion:

  • India’s leadership in championing the Central Asian Flyway initiative reflects a shared commitment to protecting biodiversity and preserving the invaluable contributions of migratory birds. As nations collaborate under this initiative, it not only addresses the immediate threats faced by these birds but also lays the foundation for a sustainable and harmonious coexistence between migratory species and the diverse landscapes they traverse. The Central Asian Flyway initiative is a testament to the global community’s recognition of the urgency to protect and conserve our interconnected ecosystems.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/central-asian-flyway-recognised-to-protect-over-600-migratory-bird-species-94513




GOOGLE’s CUTTING-EDGE AI: EXPLORING GEMINI 1.5 PRO AND IT’S BREAKTHROUGHS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: In the rapidly evolving landscape of artificial intelligence, Google’s latest revelation, the Gemini 1.5 Pro, has garnered significant attention.

EXPLANATION:

  • Positioned as a pioneering model within the Gemini 1.5 line, this AI marvel introduces advancements that set it apart from its predecessors.
  • We will look into the intricacies of Gemini 1.5 Pro and its groundbreaking features.

Gemini 1.5 Pro: A Leap Ahead in AI Technology

  • Google’s Gemini 1.5 Pro is the latest addition to its repertoire of AI models, boasting advancements built on the Mixture-of-Experts (MoE) architecture.
  • This mid-size multimodal model, optimized for scalability, marks a significant leap forward in the realm of artificial intelligence.

Contextual Understanding and Token Processing:

  • One standout feature of Gemini 1.5 Pro is its unparalleled long-context understanding across modalities.
  • The model achieves comparable results to the previously launched Gemini 1.0 Ultra but with notably less computing power.
  • What sets it apart is its ability to process a staggering one million tokens consistently—a remarkable feat in the domain of large-scale foundation models.
  • To contextualize, Gemini 1.0 models handle up to 32,000 tokens, GPT-4 Turbo manages 1,28,000 tokens, and Claude 2.1 operates with 2,00,000 tokens.

Mixture-of-Experts (MoE) Architecture:

  • The underlying technology of Gemini 1.5 Pro is the MoE architecture, a collective approach dividing complex problems into sub-tasks.
  • These sub-tasks are then trained by clusters of experts, providing a comprehensive coverage of different input data with distinct learners.
  • Google emphasizes that this architectural shift enhances the efficiency of training and serving the Gemini 1.5 Pro model.

Use Cases and Multimodal Capabilities:

  • Gemini 1.5 Pro showcases impressive capabilities across various applications. It can process up to 7,00,000 words or approximately 30,000 lines of code—35 times more than Gemini 1.0 Pro.
  • Furthermore, the model can handle up to 11 hours of audio and 1 hour of video in multiple languages.
  • Demonstrations on Google’s official YouTube channel exhibit the model’s adeptness in understanding extensive context, including a 402-page PDF, a 44-minute video, and interactions with 100,633 lines of code through multimodal prompts.

Preview, Pricing, and Availability:

  • During the preview phase, Google offers the Gemini 1.5 Pro with a one million-token context window for free.
  • While Google has not introduced pricing tiers yet, future plans may include different tiers starting at 1,28,000 context windows and scaling up to one million tokens.

Gemini Series: A Continuum of Excellence:

  • Gemini 1.5 Pro follows the introduction of Google’s Gemini 1.0 series in December.
  • Comprising Gemini Ultra, Gemini Pro, and Gemini Nano, these models showcase state-of-the-art performances on diverse benchmarks, encompassing coding and text.
  • The Gemini series, known for its multimodal capabilities, represents a new frontier in Google’s AI endeavors.

Conclusion:

  • The unveiling of Gemini 1.5 Pro underscores Google’s commitment to advancing AI technology.
  • With its extended context understanding, token processing capabilities, and innovative MoE architecture, Gemini 1.5 Pro positions itself as a frontrunner in the evolving landscape of artificial intelligence.
  • As developers explore its potential through Google’s AI Studio and Vertex AI, Gemini 1.5 Pro paves the way for a new era of sophisticated reasoning and multimodal AI applications.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/google-gemini-pro-1-5-1-million-tokens-9166398/




GSLV’s JOURNEY: OVERCOMING CHALLENGES IN ROCKETRY FOR ISRO’s AMBITIOUS MISSIONS

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The recent launch of the INSAT-3DS satellite by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) marked a significant achievement, not just for the satellite but also for the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) rocket.

EXPLANATION:

  • Despite its previous struggles, GSLV successfully delivered the satellite into its intended orbit, showcasing a momentous accomplishment for ISRO.
  • The GSLV rocket, a vital component of ISRO’s launch fleet, has earned the nickname ‘naughty boy’ due to its track record, characterized by a high failure rate compared to its counterparts.
  • Out of 15 previous launches, four ended unsuccessfully, raising concerns about its reliability.
  • The recent success, however, has shifted the narrative around GSLV.

Comparative Performance with PSLV and LVM3:

  • GSLV’s historical performance stands in contrast to the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle), which, despite its 60 launches, has only faced two failures since its inaugural flight in 1993.
  • LVM3, also known as GSLV-MkIII, with seven successful launches, further emphasizes the contrast, having never encountered a failure.

Cryogenic Engine Challenges:

  • GSLV’s challenges stem primarily from its cryogenic engine, located in the third and final stage of the rocket.
  • This engine utilizes liquid hydrogen, known for its efficiency as a rocket fuel, but requires handling at extremely low temperatures.
  • The GSLV’s cryogenic engine is a reverse-engineered version of a Russian design, initially part of a deal disrupted by U.S. objections under the Missile Technology Control Regime.

Indigenous Cryogenic Technology Success:

  • In the pursuit of self-reliance, ISRO developed its indigenous cryogenic engine, distinct from the GSLV’s.
  • This engine, employed in the LVM3 rocket, has showcased remarkable reliability and successful launches, including missions like Chandrayaan-2 and Chandrayaan-3.
  • The indigenously developed cryogenic technology reflects ISRO’s mastery in rocketry.

The GSLV’s Road to Redemption:

  • Despite past setbacks, GSLV’s recent flawless flight has bolstered confidence in its capabilities.
  • The successful launch of INSAT-3DS, emphasizing GSLV’s prowess, marks a pivotal moment in its journey.
  • The rocket’s upcoming mission, carrying the NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) satellite, presents a crucial test that could solidify GSLV’s reputation as a reliable vehicle for ambitious collaborative endeavors.

INSAT-3DS:

  • INSAT-3DS, is an exclusive meteorological satellite realized by ISRO.
  • Its primary objective is to provide continuity of services to the existing in-orbit INSAT-3D and 3DR satellites and significantly enhancing the capabilities of INSAT system is flagged off to SDSC-SHAR launch port on January 25, 2024 for the launch onboard GSLV F14.
  • The Satellite had successfully completed Satellite Assembly, Integration & Testing activities at U R Rao Satellite Centre, Bengaluru.
  • Pre-Shipment Review (PSR) was held with the participation of members from user community on January 25, 2024.
  • The satellite is a user funded project with Ministry of Earth Science (MoES), configured around ISRO’s well proven I-2k bus platform with a Lift-Off Mass of 2275 kg. Indian Industries have significantly contributed in the making of the Satellite.

GSLV:

  • The Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) is a remarkable class of expendable launch systems operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • Since its inception in 2001, GSLV has been involved in fifteen launches.
  • The project was initiated in 1990 with the goal of establishing an Indian launch capability for geosynchronous satellites.
  • GSLV utilizes components that have already proven successful in the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), including the S125/S139 solid rocket booster and the liquid-fueled Vikas engine.

NISAR:

  • NISAR has been built by space agencies of the US and India under a partnership agreement signed in 2014. The 2,800 kilograms satellite consists of both L-band and S-band synthetic aperture radar (SAR) instruments, which makes it a dual-frequency imaging radar satellite.
  • While NASA has provided the L-band radar, GPS, a high-capacity solid-state recorder to store data, and a payload data subsystem, ISRO has provided the S-band radar, the GSLV launch system and spacecraft.
  • According to NASA, another important component of the satellite is its large 39-foot stationary antenna reflector. Made of a gold-plated wire mesh, the reflector will be used to focus “the radar signals emitted and received by the upward-facing feed on the instrument structure”.

Conclusion:

  • ISRO’s resilience and commitment to advancing rocket technology are evident in GSLV’s evolving narrative. From being dubbed the ‘naughty boy’ to overcoming challenges and delivering successful missions, GSLV stands as a testament to India’s space exploration capabilities. As it prepares for the significant NISAR mission, GSLV’s journey exemplifies the triumphs and learnings in the dynamic field of space exploration.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/gslv-rocket-naughty-boy-why-9166963/




JNANPITH HONORS LITERARY EXCELLENCE

TAG: GS:1 ART AND CULTURE

THE CONTEXT: The prestigious Jnanpith Award, India’s highest literary honor, has been conferred upon celebrated Urdu poet and Bollywood filmmaker Gulzar (Sampooran Singh Kalra) and distinguished Sanskrit scholar Jagadguru Rambhadracharya.

EXPLANATION:

  • The 58th edition of the award, presented by Bharatiya Jnanpith, acknowledges outstanding contributions to Indian literature, marking the second time it honors Sanskrit and the fifth time Urdu.

Gulzar’s Contribution to Literature and Film:

  • Gulzar, born in 1934, has garnered numerous accolades throughout his illustrious career.
  • These include the Sahitya Akademi Award for Urdu (2002), the Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2013), Padma Bhushan (2004), and multiple National Film Awards.
  • His song “Jai Ho” from the film Slumdog Millionaire earned him an Oscar in 2009 and a Grammy in 2010.
  • The Jnanpith Award, with a cash component of ₹11 lakh, a Vagdevi statue, and a citation, adds another jewel to Gulzar’s impressive collection of honors.
  • Apart from his acclaimed film career, Gulzar has made significant literary contributions.
  • Known for his pioneering work in Urdu poetry, he introduced the ‘Triveni’ genre—a non-mukaffa poem of three lines.
  • The maestro’s versatility extends to children’s poetry, reflecting his commitment to exploring diverse literary realms.

Jagadguru Rambhadracharya’s Multifaceted Achievements:

  • Jagadguru Rambhadracharya, a polyglot fluent in 22 languages, stands out as a Hindu spiritual leader, educator, and prolific author with over 240 books and texts to his credit, including four epics.
  • Leading the Tulsi Peeth in Chitrakoot, Madhya Pradesh, he has been a prominent figure in the Ramananda sect since 1982. His linguistic prowess spans Sanskrit, Hindi, Awadhi, Maithili, and more.
  • The Padma Vibhushan recipient (2015) adds the Jnanpith Award to his distinguished achievements.

Jnanpith Award:

  • Jnanpith Award is an Indian literary award presented annually by the BharatiyaJnanpith to an author for their “outstanding contribution towards literature”.
  • The Jnanpith Award was established in 1944.
  • It acknowledges the literary prowess of individuals who have left an indelible mark on Indian literature.
  • The award’s cash component, a Vagdevi statue, and a citation make it a symbol of literary excellence.
  • The award is bestowed only on Indian writers writing in Indian languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India and English, with no posthumous conferral.
  • The selection committee, headed by Odia writer Pratibha Rai, made the decision to honor writers from two languages—Sanskrit and Urdu.
  • It is sponsored by the cultural organization Bharatiya Jnanpith.

Conclusion:

  • The Jnanpith Award’s recognition of Gulzar and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya underscores the diversity and richness of Indian literature. It celebrates not only the literary achievements of these eminent personalities but also the cultural and linguistic tapestry that defines India’s literary landscape. As the nation applauds their contributions, the Jnanpith Award continues to stand as a beacon of honor for those who illuminate the world through the power of words.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/gulzar-sanskrit-scholar-rambhadracharya-selected-for-jnanpith-award/article67857170.ece/amp/




UNUSUAL AIR QUALITY TRENDS IN INDIA: A RARE TRIPLE-DIP LA NIÑA PHENOMENON

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY

THE CONTEXT: In the winter season of 2022-23, India experienced an anomalous air quality trend, attributed to a rare “triple-dip” La Niña phenomenon, as revealed by a recent study led by Chair Professor Gufran Beig and his team at the National Institute of Advanced Studies.

EXPLANATION:

  • The study, published in the Elsevier Journal, sheds light on the intricate interplay of climate change and local emissions in influencing air quality across the subcontinent.

Triple-Dip La Niña Phenomenon:

  • The study highlights the occurrence of three consecutive years (2020-23) of La Niña conditions, a rare “triple-dip” event.
  • ‘Triple Dip’ La Niña is a period where the La Niña period extends for up to three consecutive winters and results in multiyear cooling of the surface temperature of the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  • For example, the current La Niña episode was started in September 2020, prevailed for the last 24 months, and looks set to continue for another six months, and has thus been classified as a ‘triple dip’ La Niña.
  • La Niña, known for impacting ocean and climate patterns globally, took an unprecedented turn, leading to diverse consequences in India’s air quality during the winter season.
  • Contrasting Trends in North and Peninsular India: Contrary to the established trends of air quality in recent decades, the 2022-23 winter season witnessed a unique phenomenon where northern India experienced improved air quality, while peninsular India faced escalating pollution levels.

North India’s Air Quality Improvement:

  • Among the northern cities, Ghaziabad exhibited the most significant progress with a remarkable 33 percent reduction in 5 levels.
  • Rohtak and Noida followed closely with reductions of 30 percent and 28 percent, respectively.
  • Even the capital city, Delhi, displayed a positive shift with a 10 percent gain.

Peninsular India’s Deteriorating Air Quality:

  • In stark contrast, peninsular Indian cities experienced a deterioration in air quality during the same period.
  • Mumbai led the unfortunate trend with a substantial 30 percent increase in PM2.5 levels.
  • Other cities like Coimbatore, Bengaluru, and Chennai witnessed rises of 28 percent, 20 percent, and 12 percent, respectively.

Meteorological Factors Influencing Air Quality:

  • The study identifies meteorological factors as crucial contributors to these divergent trends.
  • Higher northerly winds at the transport level in peninsular India led to the trapping of pollutants, causing an increase in PM2.5 concentration.
  • This condition was exacerbated by slower winds near the surface in peninsular regions.
  • Conversely, north India experienced improved air quality due to weak western disturbances, unusual wind patterns, and the absence of rain and clouds, facilitating faster ventilation.

Climate Change as a Significant Factor:

  • The research underscores the role of rapidly changing climate as a significant factor influencing air quality.
  • The triple-dip La Niña event, exacerbated by climate change, created a complex interplay of meteorological conditions, impacting pollution levels in distinct ways across the country.

La Nina:

  • La Niña is the opposite of El Niño.
  • La Niña sees cooler than average sea surface temperature (SST) in the equatorial Pacific region.
  • Trade winds are stronger than usual, pushing warmer water towards Asia.
  • On the American west coast, upwelling increases, bringing nutrient-rich water to the surface.
  • Pacific cold waters close to the Americas push jet streams — narrow bands of strong winds in the upper atmosphere — northwards.
  • This leads to drier conditions in Southern U.S., and heavy rainfall in Canada.
  • La Niña has also been associated with heavy floods in Australia.
  • Two successive La Niña events in the last two years caused intense flooding in Australia, resulting in significant damage.

Conclusion:

  • The findings of this study not only unravel the intricate dynamics of a rare triple-dip La Niña event but also emphasize the need for a comprehensive understanding of local emissions and global climate patterns to predict and manage air quality in the face of a changing climate. The anomalous trends observed in the 2022-23 winter season serve as a stark reminder of the interconnectedness of natural phenomena and human-induced factors in shaping environmental conditions.

SOURCE: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/science-rare-triple-dip-la-nina-phenomenon-behind-unusual-air-quality-trend-in-india-in-2022-23-finds-a-study-3397692/lite/#amp_tf=From%20%251%24s&aoh=17082686188916&csi=0&referrer=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com




SC’S ELECTORAL BONDS JUDGMENT: A VITAL VERDICT

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the Supreme Court struck down the Electoral Bond (EB) scheme of political funding, declaring it to be “unconstitutional” because it completely anonymized contributions made to political parties. It is being welcomed especially because it is anchored in the citizen’s right to know.

ELECTORAL BONDS:

  • These are bearer banking instruments that do not carry the name of the buyer or payee, go for sale in 10-day windows in the beginning of every quarter in January, April, July and October besides an additional 30-day period specified by the central government during the Lok Sabha election years.
  • It was introduced in 2018 and are available for purchase at any SBI branch in multiples of ₹1,000, ₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore and can be bought through a KYC-compliant account.
  • There is no limit on the number of electoral bonds that a person or company can purchase. Donations made under this scheme by corporate and even foreign entities through Indian subsidiaries enjoy 100% tax exemption while identities of the donors are kept confidential both by the bank as well as the recipient political parties. The public sector bank is obligated under the scheme to disclose the details only pursuant to a court order or a requisition by law enforcement agencies.

THE SUPREME JUDGEMENT ON ELECTORAL BONDS

  • The five bench SC judgment headed by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud is based on petitions filed by Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR), non-profit Common Cause, Congress leader Jaya Thakur, and the CPI (M), among others.
  • The petitioners had argued that either the scheme must go on account of violating people’s right to know and affecting free and fair elections, or the court must direct for full disclosure of the purchasers and donors of EBs.

POINTS MADE IN THE JUDGEMENT:

  • The judgement ruled that amendments made in the Representation of the People Act, Income Tax Act, and Companies Act through the 2017 Finance Act violated the constitutional right of the electors.
  • Violates Article 14: Permitting unlimited corporate contributions to political parties was violative of Article 14 (right to equality) as it highlighted that it authorized unconstrained influence of companies in the electoral process.
  • Violates free and fair election: This is violative of the principle of free and fair elections and political equality captured in the value of one person-one vote.
  • Violate Article 19(1)(a): The electoral bond scheme is violative of Article 19(1)(a) as it infringes upon the right to information of the voter by anonymizing contributions through electoral bonds.
  • Nexus between money and politics: Contradicting the government statement that donor anonymity was necessary to shield contributors from potential retribution, the judgement noted that that financial contributions to a political party would lead to a close nexus between money and politics.
  • Fails proportionality test: The judgment underscored that voters’ right to know supersedes anonymity in political party funding, and that the EB scheme fails to meet the balancing prong of the proportionality test.
  • Violates the right to information: The scheme hides the source of funding of political parties from the public, which is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a). The scheme also enables black money, foreign funding, and corporate influence in politics, which harm the public interest and the sovereignty of the nation.
  • Violates the principle of equality: The scheme discriminates between different political parties based on their vote share, giving an unfair advantage to the ruling party and the major opposition parties, while excluding the smaller and regional parties. The scheme also creates a disparity between the donors and the voters, as the former can sway the policies and decisions of the political parties, while the latter are kept in the dark.
  • Violates the constitutional scheme of electoral reforms: The scheme goes against the constitutional aim of curbing corruption and criminalization of politics. The scheme is also contrary to the recommendations of various committees and commissions that have called for more transparency and disclosure in political funding.

SIGNIFICANCE OF JUDGEMENT:

  • Transparency and accountability of political funding: The judgment will ensure that the public will have access to the information about the source and amount of funding received by the political parties through electoral bonds. This will enable the public to scrutinize and hold the political parties accountable for their performance and conduct.
  • Reduce the influence of money: The judgment will curb the influence of money and corporate power in politics, as the donors will no longer be able to hide their identity and agenda behind the veil of anonymity.
  • Level playing field for all political parties: The judgment will level the playing field for all political parties, as they will no longer be discriminated against based on their vote share or popularity. This will enable the smaller and regional parties to compete with the ruling party and the major opposition parties on an equal footing and offer a genuine choice to the voters.
  • Democratic setup: “The voters’ right to know and access to information is too important in a democratic set-up so as to curtail and deny ‘essential’ information on the pretext of privacy and the desire to check the flow of unaccounted for money to the political parties. While secret ballots are integral to fostering free and fair elections, transparency not secrecy in funding of political parties is a prerequisite for free and fair elections. The confidentiality of the voting booth does not extend to anonymity in contributions to political parties.
  • Undo corruption: The bench held that the information about funding of political parties is essential for the effective exercise of the choice of voting to identify corruption and governance information. It ordered full disclosure of donors and recipients of EBs issued since April 2019 on the website of the Election Commission of India (ECI) by March 13, 2024. It directed the State Bank of India the only designated EB-issuing bank to stop the issuance of EBs, adding the bank will submit details of EBs purchased since April 12, 2019, till date to the poll body by March 6.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • State funding: The Indrajit Gupta Committee on State Funding of Elections has supported partial state funding of recognised political parties. State funding has proved its effectiveness in a number of countries like Germany, Japan, Canada, Sweden etc.
  • Stringent legislations: There is a need for effective regulation of political financing along with bold reforms to break the vicious cycle of corruption and erosion of quality of democratic polity. It is crucial to plug the loopholes in the current laws to make the entire governance machinery more accountable and transparent.
  • Strengthening Election commission: There is a need to strengthen the role of Election Commission by enabling suitable laws and creating healthy political environment. The EC should increase its own capacity in terms of empowering staff and developing infrastructural and logistical strength.
  • Political party auditing: Venkatachaliah Committee Report (2002) recommended strict regulatory frameworks for auditing and disclosure of party income and expenditure along with state funding.

THE CONCLUSION:

The Supreme Court’s judgment on scrapping of electoral bonds is a historic and landmark verdict that upholds the constitutional rights and values of the citizens and the democracy. This decision will enhance the transparency and accountability of political funding and reduce the influence of money and corporate power in politics and will create level playing field for all political parties.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. Whether electoral bonds are effective in ensuring fair, just and open elections? Discuss the various concerns regarding electoral bonds. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. Court striking down the electoral bond scheme is a landmark moment as it affirms principles of transparency and probity, and the people’s right to know. Comment.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-scs-electoral-bonds-judgment-a-vital-verdict-9164121/




WHY 2024 COULD BE THE ‘MAKE-OR-BREAK’ YEAR FOR DEMOCRACY

THE CONTEXT: The forthcoming year is being cast as a pivotal moment for global democracy, as elections in nearly 60 countries are posed to test the resilience of democratic institutions. Rising autocratic tendencies and misinformation’s pervasive impact on the electoral process’s sanctity have exacerbated tensions.

THE ISSUES:

  • Global Democratic Trends and Election Impact on International Relations: The global democratic trajectory is under considerable strain, as indicated by the upcoming elections in about 60 countries. These electoral battles in nations like the USA, Russia, India, and Taiwan are set to influence internal political landscapes, international alliances, and economic ties—particularly the impact of democratic backsliding and the rise of authoritarianism on global governance.
  • Role of Superpowers in Shaping World Democracy: The U.S. elections, potentially featuring a contest between Joe Biden and Donald Trump, could significantly affect global democratic norms with implications on multinational agreements, human rights issues, and the liberal world order. In contrast, Russia’s election appears to continue Putin’s governance, which could further affect its foreign policy stance—these developments concern international law, trade policies, and geopolitical strategies.
  • Influence of Regional Powers on Regional Stability: Elections in neighbouring countries like Bangladesh, Bhutan, and, crucially, Pakistan, where democratic institutions face challenges, have direct implications for India’s foreign policy and regional stability in South Asia. The nature of governance in these countries affects bilateral relations, cross-border security, and economic interactions, forming an essential aspect of regional geopolitics.
  • The Test for Democracies in South Asia and Africa: Scrutiny has been directed towards the elections in South Asia, including the recent polls in Pakistan, which have reportedly been marred by disruptions and controversies, casting a shadow over the democratic credentials of the region. Additionally, the legislative elections in South Africa, with the ANC facing numerous challenges, are pivotal. These political developments could critically influence the stability and democratic fabric of their respective regions.
  • Euroscepticism and the Shift in European Union Politics: The European parliamentary elections are portrayed as a battleground where the surge of right-wing populism is testing the core democratic values of the European Union. It has been outlined that political changes in countries like the Netherlands, Hungary, and Italy may foreshadow broader shifts in the EU’s political spectrum, with potential implications for its governance and unity.
  • The State of Electoral Democracy and Civil Liberties: Democracy Index ratings highlight how different governance models are categorized and allow for comparative analysis of political freedoms, civil liberties, and legitimate electoral processes. For instance, Britain remaining a full democracy while others like Mexico face democratic backsliding is a crucial point in the spectrum of political systems and their conformity to democratic norms.
  • Autocracy and Misinformation: The surge in disinformation and the misuse of social media have become widespread, contributing to a global environment where the truth is often manipulated. Democracies have been shown to be particularly vulnerable, with countries like the U.S., Brazil, Germany, and Sweden mentioned as examples where ‘fake news’ is becoming more prevalent.
  • Gender and Politics in Mexico: The upcoming presidential elections in Mexico, anticipated to result in appointing the nation’s first female president, highlight gender dynamics in leadership roles. The evolving political landscape in Mexico has been characterized by democratic backsliding, underlining the challenges emerging economies face in maintaining the democratic ethos.
  • Cases of Indonesia and Taiwan: In Indonesia, corrupt practices and concerns regarding civil liberties have been implied to erode the quality of democracy, as reflected in the Democracy Index. Similarly, Taiwan’s elections under external pressure underscore the island’s complex political situation and its broader implications for regional security.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • International Standards of Electoral Integrity: Countries can collaborate with international bodies like the United Nations to invite independent election monitors. These monitors would abide by international election standards to certify processes are free, fair, and transparent. Establishing clear guidelines and consequences for electoral malpractice can help deter fraudulent activities.
  • Civic Education: Strengthening civil society through education about democratic rights and responsibilities can empower citizens to demand greater accountability. Civic education programs could focus on understanding electoral processes, the importance of voting, and the role of dissent in a democracy.
  • Media Regulation and Oversight: Governments can collaborate with independent watchdogs to regulate the spread of misinformation. Transparent oversight mechanisms need to be established where flagged content is reviewed and, if found violating civic standards, accordingly, addressed without infringing on freedom of speech.
  • Inclusive Governance: To address the underlying issues that drive populism, such as economic inequality and cultural anxieties, policies that focus on inclusive governance are vital. These might include progressive tax systems, increased funding in social services, and investment in communities left behind by globalization.
  • Regional Alliances: Strengthening regional alliances with a democracy clause for membership, such as the European Union, can serve as a collective bulwark against the rising tide of authoritarianism and ensure a regional approach to upholding democratic norms.
  • Legislative Quotas: Legal frameworks that mandate a minimum representation of women in political positions can ensure gender diversity. These quotas could be implemented within government bodies and the political parties themselves. Initiatives aimed at training women for leadership roles in public service can help overcome gender barriers. By providing mentorship and advocacy training, these programs could bolster women’s participation in the highest echelons of political decision-making.
  • Economic Reform Policies: Implementing economic reforms that address the wealth gap can create a more equitable society, which is the bedrock of a stable democracy. Economic stability and Constructing job creation strategies can combat the disenfranchisement that often leads to anti-democratic sentiments.

THE CONCLUSION:

Considering electoral autocracy and disinformation challenges, steadfast measures must be advocated and implemented to safeguard democratic values. The onus is placed on international coalitions and domestic mechanisms to fortify the foundational principles of free and fair elections, ensuring that democracy not only endures but thrives.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1) Evaluate the economic and strategic dimensions of India’s Look East Policy in the context of the post-Cold War international scenario. (2016)

Q.2) Strength, peace, and security are pillars of international relations. Elucidate. (2017)

Q.3) The will to power exists, but it can be tamed and be guided by rationality and principles of moral duty.’ Examine this statement in the context of international relations. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) 2024 is anticipated to be a decisive moment for global democracy as numerous countries are scheduled to conduct primary electoral contests. Discuss the role that international organizations can play in mitigating the challenges posed by the rise in authoritarianism and misinformation.

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/world-democracy-elections-us-biden-trump-explained-india-mexico-pakistan-europe/article67744886.ece




Day-594 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Day-594

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. In the context of cloud seeding, consider the following statements:
    1. Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that guarantees a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds.
    2. Table salt, silver iodide, calcium chloride and potassium nitrate are the chemicals commonly used for seeding the clouds.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

    Correct

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that improves (not guarantees) a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds. The effectiveness and success of cloud seeding is often a topic of hot debate. There is no evidence so far that cloud seeding will be successful in non-monsoon months; also, ‘not all clouds are seedable, not all clouds will make rain’.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The chemicals commonly used in seeding the clouds include table salt, silver iodide, calcium chloride, propane and potassium iodide (not potassium nitrate).

    Incorrect

    Answer. C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that improves (not guarantees) a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds. The effectiveness and success of cloud seeding is often a topic of hot debate. There is no evidence so far that cloud seeding will be successful in non-monsoon months; also, ‘not all clouds are seedable, not all clouds will make rain’.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The chemicals commonly used in seeding the clouds include table salt, silver iodide, calcium chloride, propane and potassium iodide (not potassium nitrate).

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Global Warming Potential* (GWP*) is a better means of determining if the world is on track to temperature targets, compared to GWP100.
    Statement II: Global Warming Potential * (GWP*) takes into account the removal of short-lived gases from the atmosphere.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer. A
    Explanation: Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.
    Essentially, Global Warming Potential (GWP) measures how potent a gas is as a contributor to climate change. The most commonly used metric to quantify greenhouse gas emissions is known as GWP100. This metric looks at the GWP of the greenhouse gases over 100 years. For example, methane has a GWP of 34. This means 1 ton of methane is equal to 34 tons of CO2 and therefore captures more heat per molecule compared to CO2.
    However, a flaw in GWP100 measurements was assessed a few years ago by researchers based at the University of Oxford. GWP100 assumed that all greenhouse gases were stagnant in the atmosphere, meaning they remained there for centuries. What GWP100 did not account for was that methane, as a short-lived gas, was actively removed from the atmosphere relatively soon after being emitted.
    While GWP100 does consider short-lived gases like methane, it does not account for removal from the atmosphere. Since methane is removed in about 12 years through a natural process, stable emissions do not increase warming after those 12 years.
    Today, GWP* represents a new means of measuring carbon in the atmosphere, taking short-lived gas removal from the atmosphere into consideration. GWP* is a better means of determining if the world is on track to temperature targets, compared to GWP100. Methane should be treated a temporary pulse, rather than a constant agent of warming.
    Additional information
    The established metric under the 2015 Paris Agreement for measuring the global warming potential of a gas over a 100-year period is GWP100, which is the global warming potential evaluated over a 100-year timeline. It focuses on the absolute level of emissions.
    GWP* was developed in 2016 by a team of researchers from Oxford University, led by two academics who argued it was more accurate than the current systems used to report national methane emissions at the international level. It was then introduced in 2018 at 24th Conference of Parties (COP24) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (held at Katowice, Poland).
    GWP100 measures the warming effect of a quantity of a non-carbon dioxide (CO2) GHG, emitted at a given point in time, relative to an equal amount of CO2. On the other hand, GWP* focuses on changes in emissions over decadal timescales rather than absolute levels.

    Incorrect

    Answer. A
    Explanation: Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.
    Essentially, Global Warming Potential (GWP) measures how potent a gas is as a contributor to climate change. The most commonly used metric to quantify greenhouse gas emissions is known as GWP100. This metric looks at the GWP of the greenhouse gases over 100 years. For example, methane has a GWP of 34. This means 1 ton of methane is equal to 34 tons of CO2 and therefore captures more heat per molecule compared to CO2.
    However, a flaw in GWP100 measurements was assessed a few years ago by researchers based at the University of Oxford. GWP100 assumed that all greenhouse gases were stagnant in the atmosphere, meaning they remained there for centuries. What GWP100 did not account for was that methane, as a short-lived gas, was actively removed from the atmosphere relatively soon after being emitted.
    While GWP100 does consider short-lived gases like methane, it does not account for removal from the atmosphere. Since methane is removed in about 12 years through a natural process, stable emissions do not increase warming after those 12 years.
    Today, GWP* represents a new means of measuring carbon in the atmosphere, taking short-lived gas removal from the atmosphere into consideration. GWP* is a better means of determining if the world is on track to temperature targets, compared to GWP100. Methane should be treated a temporary pulse, rather than a constant agent of warming.
    Additional information
    The established metric under the 2015 Paris Agreement for measuring the global warming potential of a gas over a 100-year period is GWP100, which is the global warming potential evaluated over a 100-year timeline. It focuses on the absolute level of emissions.
    GWP* was developed in 2016 by a team of researchers from Oxford University, led by two academics who argued it was more accurate than the current systems used to report national methane emissions at the international level. It was then introduced in 2018 at 24th Conference of Parties (COP24) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (held at Katowice, Poland).
    GWP100 measures the warming effect of a quantity of a non-carbon dioxide (CO2) GHG, emitted at a given point in time, relative to an equal amount of CO2. On the other hand, GWP* focuses on changes in emissions over decadal timescales rather than absolute levels.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Recently, there was a growing concern in our country about the use of Monocroptophos, Dicofol, and Dinocap. These are widely used as:

    Correct

    Answer. D
    Explanation: The Central government has prohibited the use of four insecticides from the initial list of 27. This list includes the controversial monocrotophos (MCP). It is a broad-spectrum organophosphate insecticide with applications in agricultural crops like rice, maize, sugarcane, cotton, soybeans, groundnut and vegetables. MCP solubilizes in water readily and thus reduced sorption occurs in soil. This leads to MCP leaching into the groundwater and poses a significant threat of contamination.
    Due to its toxicology and ill-effects on the health of humans, it has been banned by the European Union as well as India.
    Along with monocrotophos, three other insecticides—Dicofol, Dinocap, and Methomyl—have also been banned in India recently.
    Monocrotophos causes abnormality, ranging from mild to severe confusion, agitation, hypersalivation, convulsion, pulmonary failure, senescence in mammals and insects. MCP affects humans by inhibiting the activity of the acetylcholine esterase enzyme. MCP is accountable for the catalytic degradation of acetylcholine and affects the neurotransmission between neurons. In India, monocrotophos continues to be produced, used and exported. The perception that monocrotophos is cheap and necessary, have prevented the product from being taken off the market. Another cause of concern is the use of MCP for suicide attempts in the country.
    Additional information:
    The government of India regulates the manufacture, registration, sale, transport, distribution, use, import and export of pesticides through the Insecticides Act 1968 and the Insecticides Rules 1971.

    Incorrect

    Answer. D
    Explanation: The Central government has prohibited the use of four insecticides from the initial list of 27. This list includes the controversial monocrotophos (MCP). It is a broad-spectrum organophosphate insecticide with applications in agricultural crops like rice, maize, sugarcane, cotton, soybeans, groundnut and vegetables. MCP solubilizes in water readily and thus reduced sorption occurs in soil. This leads to MCP leaching into the groundwater and poses a significant threat of contamination.
    Due to its toxicology and ill-effects on the health of humans, it has been banned by the European Union as well as India.
    Along with monocrotophos, three other insecticides—Dicofol, Dinocap, and Methomyl—have also been banned in India recently.
    Monocrotophos causes abnormality, ranging from mild to severe confusion, agitation, hypersalivation, convulsion, pulmonary failure, senescence in mammals and insects. MCP affects humans by inhibiting the activity of the acetylcholine esterase enzyme. MCP is accountable for the catalytic degradation of acetylcholine and affects the neurotransmission between neurons. In India, monocrotophos continues to be produced, used and exported. The perception that monocrotophos is cheap and necessary, have prevented the product from being taken off the market. Another cause of concern is the use of MCP for suicide attempts in the country.
    Additional information:
    The government of India regulates the manufacture, registration, sale, transport, distribution, use, import and export of pesticides through the Insecticides Act 1968 and the Insecticides Rules 1971.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Net primary productivity is a measure of the biomass available for the consumption from the primary producers.
    Statement II: A large part of the sunlight gets absorbed, reflected and scattered through the layers of the atmosphere, leaving roughly 2% of sunlight to be captured by plants for photosynthesis.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis (i.e. biomass generated from primary producers through photosynthesis). But it must be noted that a considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
    GPP – R = NPP
    Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
    Statement 2 is correct but does not explain statement 1: 50% of light from the sunlight supports the process of photosynthesis. Out of which 2-10% is captured by plants, which is absorbed through chlorophyll and utilised in photosynthesis.
    The atmosphere of the earth comprises different layers having varying density and composition. The sunlight, therefore, gets either absorbed or reflected or scattered through the atmosphere.

    Incorrect

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis (i.e. biomass generated from primary producers through photosynthesis). But it must be noted that a considerable amount of GPP is utilised by plants in respiration. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity (NPP).
    GPP – R = NPP
    Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).
    Statement 2 is correct but does not explain statement 1: 50% of light from the sunlight supports the process of photosynthesis. Out of which 2-10% is captured by plants, which is absorbed through chlorophyll and utilised in photosynthesis.
    The atmosphere of the earth comprises different layers having varying density and composition. The sunlight, therefore, gets either absorbed or reflected or scattered through the atmosphere.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements:
    1. Megaherbivores have a direct bearing on the spread of invasive species.
    2. Some tribals in India use invasive plants to make sculptures.
    3. While mangroves can be affected by invasive species, they can never turn invasive themselves.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Megaherbivores unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by dispersing their seeds.
    By virtue of their size and varied diets, the megaherbivores such as Indian bison, sambar deer, elephant, rhinoceros etc. can clear swathes of vegetation, including invasive plants, creating opportunities for new growth. In places like Kaziranga and Manas, this “gardening” has led to a reduction in invasive species. However, in drier regions, invasive trees like Lantana camara and Prosopis juliflora have established an impenetrable fortress. Unable to break through these thorny thickets, megaherbivores turn to native plants, adding pressure on already struggling population. Even worse, some, like elephants, unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by eating on their fruits and dispersing their seeds.
    Statement 2 is correct: The sculptures of elephants were skillfully crafted by tribal artisans hailing from Gudalur in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve from lantana camara, an invasive species. These elephant sculptures were brought to Chennai for display at the Tamil Nadu Global Investors Meet 2024.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Many salt-tolerant aquatic and terrestrial plants as well as epiphytes can colonize and persist in mangrove forests. Many opportunistic invaders can also invade mangrove forests during periodic reduced soil and water salinity.
    The rising temperatures and sea level due to climate change are allowing mangroves to expand their ranges farther away from the equator and encroach on temperate wetlands, like salt marshes. Also, on some isolated tropical islands, such as Hawaii and Tahiti, mangroves are not native and are sometimes considered invasive species.

    Incorrect

    Answer. B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Megaherbivores unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by dispersing their seeds.
    By virtue of their size and varied diets, the megaherbivores such as Indian bison, sambar deer, elephant, rhinoceros etc. can clear swathes of vegetation, including invasive plants, creating opportunities for new growth. In places like Kaziranga and Manas, this “gardening” has led to a reduction in invasive species. However, in drier regions, invasive trees like Lantana camara and Prosopis juliflora have established an impenetrable fortress. Unable to break through these thorny thickets, megaherbivores turn to native plants, adding pressure on already struggling population. Even worse, some, like elephants, unwittingly promote the spread of invasive species by eating on their fruits and dispersing their seeds.
    Statement 2 is correct: The sculptures of elephants were skillfully crafted by tribal artisans hailing from Gudalur in the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve from lantana camara, an invasive species. These elephant sculptures were brought to Chennai for display at the Tamil Nadu Global Investors Meet 2024.

    Statement 3 is incorrect: Many salt-tolerant aquatic and terrestrial plants as well as epiphytes can colonize and persist in mangrove forests. Many opportunistic invaders can also invade mangrove forests during periodic reduced soil and water salinity.
    The rising temperatures and sea level due to climate change are allowing mangroves to expand their ranges farther away from the equator and encroach on temperate wetlands, like salt marshes. Also, on some isolated tropical islands, such as Hawaii and Tahiti, mangroves are not native and are sometimes considered invasive species.

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