Day-590 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMICS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. In the context of economics, which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘liquidity trap’?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    A liquidity trap is a situation where interest rates in the economy are at very low levels and savings rates are too high. In this situation, monetary policy has no effect on interest rate or the level of income.
    ● Interest rate can be considered as an opportunity cost or ‘price’ of holding money balance. If the supply of money in the economy increases and people purchase bonds with this extra money, demand for bonds will go up, bond prices will rise and rate of interest will decline.
    ● However, if the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds.
    ● In that case, everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy, it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. Hence, monetary policy will be ineffective here.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    A liquidity trap is a situation where interest rates in the economy are at very low levels and savings rates are too high. In this situation, monetary policy has no effect on interest rate or the level of income.
    ● Interest rate can be considered as an opportunity cost or ‘price’ of holding money balance. If the supply of money in the economy increases and people purchase bonds with this extra money, demand for bonds will go up, bond prices will rise and rate of interest will decline.
    ● However, if the market rate of interest is already low enough so that everybody expects it to rise in future, causing capital losses, nobody will wish to hold bonds.
    ● In that case, everyone in the economy will hold their wealth in money balance and if additional money is injected within the economy, it will be used up to satiate people’s craving for money balances without increasing the demand for bonds and without further lowering the rate of interest. Such a situation is called a liquidity trap. Hence, monetary policy will be ineffective here.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements about Ways and Means Advances:
    1. These are long-term advances provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to the Central government and State governments.
    2. Interest rate on the advances is charged at the existing reverse repo rate.
    3. The limits for extending credit are mutually decided by the Central government and the RBI.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives short-term loan facilities to the central and state governments to bridge a temporary mismatch in their cash flows, as laid down in terms of Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934.
    The WMA mechanism to the Centre was re-introduced on April 1, 1997 after a period of four decades when the system of ad hoc treasury bills was abolished.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if required. But it must return the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate.
    ● If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (interest rate on overdrafts is 2 percentage points more than the repo rate).
    Statement 3 is correct: The limits for Ways and Means Advances are decided by the Central government and the RBI mutually and revised periodically.
    ● As the evidence reveals, there is no defined process in the fixation of WMA limits. Sometimes it is quarterly, and at other times it is half-yearly.
    ● The RBI Annual Report stated that the WMA limits were fixed quarterly and half yearly in 2017-18 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹25,000 crore). Similarly, there were quarterly and half yearly limits for 2018-19 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹35,000 crore). However, this was reversed in 2019-20 with half-yearly estimates.
    ● For the second half of the financial year 2023-24 (October 2023 to March 2024), the limit for the Centre has been set at ₹50,000 crore.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives short-term loan facilities to the central and state governments to bridge a temporary mismatch in their cash flows, as laid down in terms of Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934.
    The WMA mechanism to the Centre was re-introduced on April 1, 1997 after a period of four decades when the system of ad hoc treasury bills was abolished.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The government can avail of immediate cash from the RBI, if required. But it must return the amount within 90 days. Interest is charged at the existing repo rate.
    ● If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it would be treated as an overdraft (interest rate on overdrafts is 2 percentage points more than the repo rate).
    Statement 3 is correct: The limits for Ways and Means Advances are decided by the Central government and the RBI mutually and revised periodically.
    ● As the evidence reveals, there is no defined process in the fixation of WMA limits. Sometimes it is quarterly, and at other times it is half-yearly.
    ● The RBI Annual Report stated that the WMA limits were fixed quarterly and half yearly in 2017-18 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹25,000 crore). Similarly, there were quarterly and half yearly limits for 2018-19 (Q1: ₹60,000 crore, Q2: ₹70,000 crore and H2: ₹35,000 crore). However, this was reversed in 2019-20 with half-yearly estimates.
    ● For the second half of the financial year 2023-24 (October 2023 to March 2024), the limit for the Centre has been set at ₹50,000 crore.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements:
    Statement-I: The Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) carry inherent risks of excess leverage.
    Statement-II: The Reserve Bank of India has not prescribed prudential norms for NBFCs.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Statement I is correct: A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
    ● Given the nature of their operations, NBFCs also carry inherent risks, including excess leverage (indebtedness) and concentrations risks.
    ● On an average, NBFCs in India have a higher debt-to-equity ratio compared to banks. This indicates a greater reliance on borrowed funds, potentially amplifying their vulnerability to economic downturns and rising interest rates.
    ● A significant portion of NBFC loans are concentrated in specific sectors like real estate, infrastructure, and microfinance. These sectors are inherently cyclical and susceptible to adverse shocks, which could impact the stability of NBFCs with high exposure.
    ● They are regarded as shadow banks by the Financial Stability Board.
    Statement II is incorrect: The RBI has prescribed prudential norms for all the NBFCs. Prudential norms refer to the set of laws and rules designed to minimise the risks banks/financial entities assume.
    ● NBFCs were brought under the regulation of the Reserve Bank in 1964 by inserting Chapter III B in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    ● In more recent years, regulatory measures have been motivated by the objectives of financial stability, financial inclusion and harnessing of specialised domain expertise.
    ● The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment) Act, 1997 made it obligatory for NBFCs to apply to the central bank for a certificate of registration (CoR).
    ● Based on deposit mobilisation, NBFCs are classified into two major categories: NBFCs-D (deposit taking) and NBFCs-ND (non-deposit taking).
    ● A conscious policy was pursued to discourage acceptance of deposits by NBFCs so that only banks accept public deposits. Hence, no new license has been given to NBFCs-D after 1997.
    ● NBFCs-ND were sub-divided into two categories in 2006 — Systemically Important Non- Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND-SI) and other Non-Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) based on asset size.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    Statement I is correct: A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
    ● Given the nature of their operations, NBFCs also carry inherent risks, including excess leverage (indebtedness) and concentrations risks.
    ● On an average, NBFCs in India have a higher debt-to-equity ratio compared to banks. This indicates a greater reliance on borrowed funds, potentially amplifying their vulnerability to economic downturns and rising interest rates.
    ● A significant portion of NBFC loans are concentrated in specific sectors like real estate, infrastructure, and microfinance. These sectors are inherently cyclical and susceptible to adverse shocks, which could impact the stability of NBFCs with high exposure.
    ● They are regarded as shadow banks by the Financial Stability Board.
    Statement II is incorrect: The RBI has prescribed prudential norms for all the NBFCs. Prudential norms refer to the set of laws and rules designed to minimise the risks banks/financial entities assume.
    ● NBFCs were brought under the regulation of the Reserve Bank in 1964 by inserting Chapter III B in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
    ● In more recent years, regulatory measures have been motivated by the objectives of financial stability, financial inclusion and harnessing of specialised domain expertise.
    ● The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment) Act, 1997 made it obligatory for NBFCs to apply to the central bank for a certificate of registration (CoR).
    ● Based on deposit mobilisation, NBFCs are classified into two major categories: NBFCs-D (deposit taking) and NBFCs-ND (non-deposit taking).
    ● A conscious policy was pursued to discourage acceptance of deposits by NBFCs so that only banks accept public deposits. Hence, no new license has been given to NBFCs-D after 1997.
    ● NBFCs-ND were sub-divided into two categories in 2006 — Systemically Important Non- Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND-SI) and other Non-Deposit taking NBFCs (NBFCs-ND) based on asset size.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Consider the following statements:
    1. Personal income tax
    2. Post-Office savings
    3. Disinvestment proceeds
    4. Income from spectrum sale
    How many of the above can be classified under the revenue receipts of the government?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Revenue receipts are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable, that is, they cannot be reclaimed from the government. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
    Example of tax revenues:
    ● Personal income tax
    ● Corporate tax
    ● Excise taxes
    ● Custom duties
    ● Wealth tax, gift tax
    Example of non-tax revenues:
    ● Interest receipts
    ● Dividend and profit on investments made by the government
    ● Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations
    ● Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government
    ● Spectrum sale
    Other receipts can be classified under capital receipts. These are those receipts which create liability or reduce financial assets of the government.
    Examples:
    ● Loans in the form of market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank of India, commercial banks, sale of Treasury Bills
    ● Disinvestment proceeds
    ● Receipts of small savings (Post-Office savings, National Savings Certificates).

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Revenue receipts are receipts of the government which are non-redeemable, that is, they cannot be reclaimed from the government. They are divided into tax and non-tax revenues.
    Example of tax revenues:
    ● Personal income tax
    ● Corporate tax
    ● Excise taxes
    ● Custom duties
    ● Wealth tax, gift tax
    Example of non-tax revenues:
    ● Interest receipts
    ● Dividend and profit on investments made by the government
    ● Cash grants-in-aid from foreign countries and international organizations
    ● Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the government
    ● Spectrum sale
    Other receipts can be classified under capital receipts. These are those receipts which create liability or reduce financial assets of the government.
    Examples:
    ● Loans in the form of market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank of India, commercial banks, sale of Treasury Bills
    ● Disinvestment proceeds
    ● Receipts of small savings (Post-Office savings, National Savings Certificates).

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. With reference to share buyback, consider the following statements:
    1. It refers to the mechanism under which a listed company buys back its own shares from the market.
    2. It increases the number of shares outstanding in the market.
    3. There is often a fall in the share prices following the buyback.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Buyback of shares means repurchasing of shares by the company that issued them. The company uses buyback as a means to return cash to shareholders and regain ownership.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Share buyback reduces the number of shareholders of the company, as the company buys back the shares. This enhances the earnings per share to shareholders in the long run.
    Earnings Per Share (EPS) = (Net Income – Preferred Dividends)/Weighted Average of Shares Outstanding
    ● Where, shares outstanding refers to the number of a company’s shares that are traded on the secondary market.
    ● Preferred dividend is the dividend payment made to the holders of preferred stock.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Following the buyback, there is often a short-term boost in share prices. The reduction in the number of outstanding shares due to the repurchase increases the earnings per share (EPS) for existing shareholders, making the stock relatively more attractive. Additionally, the buyback signals confidence from the company’s management in its future prospects, which can further instil investor confidence and drive share prices higher.
    There are two types of buybacks: tender offer and open market offer. Companies can choose either of these methods to buy back shares from their shareholders.
    Tender offer: The company makes an offer to buy back its shares at a particular price (offer price) at which the shareholders can tender, i.e., sell their shares.
    Open-market offer: The company can buy back its shares by actively buying from sellers on the exchange. The buyback period is mentioned in the buyback offer, and it can last for months.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Buyback of shares means repurchasing of shares by the company that issued them. The company uses buyback as a means to return cash to shareholders and regain ownership.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Share buyback reduces the number of shareholders of the company, as the company buys back the shares. This enhances the earnings per share to shareholders in the long run.
    Earnings Per Share (EPS) = (Net Income – Preferred Dividends)/Weighted Average of Shares Outstanding
    ● Where, shares outstanding refers to the number of a company’s shares that are traded on the secondary market.
    ● Preferred dividend is the dividend payment made to the holders of preferred stock.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Following the buyback, there is often a short-term boost in share prices. The reduction in the number of outstanding shares due to the repurchase increases the earnings per share (EPS) for existing shareholders, making the stock relatively more attractive. Additionally, the buyback signals confidence from the company’s management in its future prospects, which can further instil investor confidence and drive share prices higher.
    There are two types of buybacks: tender offer and open market offer. Companies can choose either of these methods to buy back shares from their shareholders.
    Tender offer: The company makes an offer to buy back its shares at a particular price (offer price) at which the shareholders can tender, i.e., sell their shares.
    Open-market offer: The company can buy back its shares by actively buying from sellers on the exchange. The buyback period is mentioned in the buyback offer, and it can last for months.

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INDIA’S STRATEGIC ALLOCATION IN PORT OF DUQM: BOLSTERING MARITIME INFLUENCE

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: In a strategic move, Oman has allocated a specific zone to India within the Port of Duqm, a significant development following Sultan Haitham bin Tariq’s visit to New Delhi.

EXPLANATION:

  • This allocation holds immense geopolitical importance, enhancing India’s influence in the western and southern Indian Ocean region.

Strategic Significance for India:

  • The allocation in the Port of Duqm grants India a pivotal foothold strategically, considering its vantage point overlooking the Gulf of Oman, Indian Ocean, and Arabian Sea.
  • The move aligns with India’s maritime goals and reinforces its position as a key player in the region.

Logistical Base for Maritime Cooperation:

  • The Port of Duqm serves as a crucial logistical base for India’s maritime cooperation initiatives.
  • It provides a staging ground for the Indian Navy, allowing it to extend its role as a net security provider.
  • This is particularly crucial amidst the ongoing Red Sea crisis and security concerns in the western Indian Ocean region.

Enhancing India’s Naval Capabilities:

  • This development significantly boosts India’s naval capabilities in the region.
  • The Indian Navy’s anti-piracy operations will benefit from the proximity of the port, allowing for swift responses to maritime threats.
  • The strategic positioning of Duqm facilitates the Indian Navy in providing assistance to vessels affected by conflicts, such as those targeted by Houthi rebels in Yemen.

First Responder in Humanitarian Assistance:

  • The allocation also positions India as a first responder in humanitarian assistance and disaster relief efforts.
  • The strategic placement of the port allows for efficient and timely responses to crises, underscoring India’s commitment to regional stability and security.

Growing Footprint in the Region:

  • India’s growing footprint in the region is evident in its increased presence at the Port of Duqm.
  • This port is not only accessible to shipping lines serving Indian markets but also caters to African markets.
  • The allocation consolidates India’s economic and strategic interests in the region, fostering partnerships with nations relying on maritime trade.

Facilities at the Port of Duqm:

  • Integrated into the special economic zone at Duqm, the port boasts a ship repair yard and dry dock facility.
  • These facilities enhance India’s maritime capabilities, providing essential infrastructure for naval operations, maintenance, and repairs.

Outcome of Diplomatic Engagement:

  • The specific zone allocation is a testament to the diplomatic engagement between India and Oman, reinforcing the countries’ commitment to mutual strategic interests.
  • This move follows Sultan Haitham bin Tariq’s visit to New Delhi, indicating the positive outcomes of diplomatic dialogues.

Conclusion:

  • Oman’s allocation of a specific zone in the Port of Duqm to India marks a significant milestone in strengthening bilateral ties and advancing shared strategic objectives.
  • This development not only bolsters India’s maritime capabilities but also positions it as a key player in fostering regional security, cooperation, and economic growth.
  • The Port of Duqm emerges as a cornerstone in India’s evolving geopolitical landscape, offering a platform for sustained influence in the vital Indian Ocean region.

SOURCE: https://www.maritimegateway.com/amid-red-sea-crisis-india-gets-a-specific-zone-in-duqm-port/




REVIVING VANISHING ISLANDS: TAMIL NADU’S COASTAL RESTORATION SUCCESS STORY

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Tamil Nadu’s commitment to environmental conservation shines through its successful efforts to save Vaan Island in the Gulf of Mannar, the country’s first marine biosphere.

EXPLANATION:

  • The government’s collaboration with marine scientists has not only rescued Vaan Island but also set the stage for the restoration of another imperiled island, Kariyachalli.
  • This initiative, part of the Tamil Nadu Coastal Restoration Mission, exemplifies the state’s dedication to preserving marine biodiversity and safeguarding coastal ecosystems.

Rescuing Vaan Island:

  • Vaan Island, threatened by soil erosion from rampant coral mining and rising sea levels due to climate change, was on the brink of submersion.
  • Through a strategic intervention, over 10,000 artificial reef modules were deployed on the ocean floor.
  • These modules, meticulously designed to dissipate wave energy and encourage sediment deposition, contributed to the island’s resurgence.
  • From a diminished state, Vaan Island expanded to 3.79 hectares during low tide and 1.71 hectares during high tide in September 2023, showcasing the success of the restoration project.

Government’s Resolve for Kariyachalli:

  • Buoyed by the success of the Vaan Island restoration, the Tamil Nadu government has earmarked ₹50 crore for the restoration of Kariyachalli, the fourth island on the Thoothukudi side.
  • This proactive step is in line with the predictions that both Kariyachalli and Kasuwari Islands would sink by 2035 without intervention.
  • The groundwork has been completed, and discussions with the World Bank are underway.
  • The restoration, scheduled for the 2024-25 fiscal year, is expected to take up to three years.

Global Tender and Collaboration:

  • Similar to the Vaan Island project, global tenders will be floated for the restoration of Kariyachalli.
  • The involvement of the World Bank emphasizes the global significance of preserving these islands.
  • The collaborative approach, encompassing international agencies, reflects a shared responsibility for marine conservation.

Challenges of Coral Mining:

  • The Gulf of Mannar, hosting 21 low-lying uninhabited coral-reef islands, faced challenges from coral mining for over a century.
  • The exploitation of boulders and branching coral species for construction and industrial purposes led to severe erosion, submersion of islands, and a decline in the area of several islands.

Scientific Solutions and Artificial Reef Deployment:

  • In response to the environmental degradation, the Tamil Nadu government and scientists implemented scientific solutions.
  • The deployment of artificial reef modules, carefully designed based on bathymetry and wave dynamic studies, played a pivotal role.
  • These modules, constructed with ferro-cement and steel reinforcement, not only stabilized the island but also fostered biodiversity and enhanced fishery production.

Success Metrics and Biodiversity Enhancement:

  • The artificial reef modules, numbering 10,600, were strategically placed, resulting in increased island size and changes in bathymetry.
  • The success of the restoration is evident in the shallowing of waters around the spit, indicating exposure of more land in the future.
  • Furthermore, the artificial reef sites, protected within the Marine Park, have become havens for coral recruits, supporting over 37 species and contributing to the stabilization of the island.

Hope for Coastal Ecosystem Restoration:

  • The restoration of Vaan Island stands as a beacon of hope in the changing climatic scenario.
  • In the face of various environmental threats, this successful model offers optimism for coastal ecosystem restoration.
  • The protection of coasts, conservation of biodiversity, and support for the livelihoods of dependent fisherfolk are integral to the mission’s overarching goals.

Conclusion:

  • Tamil Nadu’s proactive measures in island restoration underscore the imperative of safeguarding marine ecosystems.
  • As the state gears up to rescue Kariyachalli, it reinforces the commitment to sustainable environmental practices, offering a blueprint for coastal restoration initiatives globally.
  • The success of Vaan Island serves as a testament to the synergy between government initiatives, scientific expertise, and international collaboration in the pursuit of ecological preservation.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/tn-pioneers-a-model-for-saving-the-sinking-islands-in-the-gulf-of-mannar/article67819176.ece




WAYANAD WILDLIFE SANCTUARY: A VITAL REFUGE FOR VULTURES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: As vulture populations across the country face a worrisome decline, the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) emerges as a crucial haven for these avian species. Recent findings from the first-ever tri-State synchronised vulture survey underscore the significance of WWS, the sole protected area in Kerala nurturing vulture populations.

EXPLANATION:

  • The survey, spanning Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, revealed a total of 320 individual vultures across seven protected areas.
  • Notably, WWS accounted for 51 individual vultures, affirming its pivotal role in vulture conservation efforts.

Diverse Vulture Species in WWS:

  • Among the 320 vultures observed, the majority were white-rumped vultures (217), followed by long-billed (47), Red-headed (50), Egyptian (4), and Himalayan griffons (2).
  • The sighting of Himalayan griffons, exclusively reported in WWS, highlights the sanctuary’s unique contribution to vulture biodiversity.

Vulture Counts and Camp Sightings:

  • The survey marked a significant improvement in vulture sightings, with all 12 camps in WWS recording vulture observations.
  • In contrast, the previous survey showed vulture sightings in only nine out of the 12 camps.
  • The overall vulture count in Wayanad district rose from 46 in the last survey to 51 this time.

Camp-Specific Data:

  • Vettathgor Camp:
    • Notably, Vettathgor camp in South Wayanad Division, situated outside the sanctuary area, reported sightings of two vulture species – white-rumped and red-headed.
    • This diversity reinforces the importance of surrounding regions in supporting vulture populations.
  • Red-headed Vultures:
    • The sanctuary witnessed an increase in individual red-headed vultures, rising from seven in the previous survey to 16.
    • This surge suggests positive conservation efforts within WWS.

  • White-rumped Vultures:
    • Although the count dropped slightly from 37 to 31, the presence of 31 white-rumped vultures reaffirms the sanctuary’s status as a significant habitat for this species.

  • Long-Billed Vultures:
    • The survey recorded an increase in long-billed vulture sightings, from one in the last survey to two, signifying positive trends in their population within the sanctuary.

  • Himalayan Griffon Sightings:
    • The survey documented the sighting of two Himalayan griffon vultures, a notable addition compared to the zero sightings in the previous survey.
    • This discovery adds a layer of uniqueness to WWS in terms of vulture biodiversity.

Conservation Implications:

  • WWS’s role as a refuge for vultures holds broader implications for biodiversity conservation.
  • The sanctuary’s success in fostering diverse vulture species accentuates the need for continued conservation efforts, both within the sanctuary and in the surrounding areas.

Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS):

  • Located in Kerala, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (WWS) is an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It was established in 1973.
    • Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first from India to be included in the UNESCO designated World Network of Biosphere Reserves (designated in 2012).
    • Other wildlife parks within the Reserve are: Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park, Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley.
  • Spread over 344.44 sq km, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is contiguous to the tiger reserves of Nagerhole and Bandipur of Karnataka and Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.
  • Kabini river (a tributary of Cauvery river) flows through the sanctuary.
  • The forest types include South Indian Moist Deciduous forests, West coast semi-evergreen forests and plantations of teak, eucalyptus and Grewelia.
  • Elephant, Gaur, Tiger, Panther,Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Wild boar, Sloth bear, Nilgiri langur, Bonnet macaque, Common langur, Wild dog, common otter, Malabar giant squirrel etc are the major mammals.

Conclusion:

  • The findings from the tri-State vulture survey underscore the critical role played by Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary in preserving and nurturing vulture populations.
  • As vultures face numerous threats globally, the sanctuary’s success becomes a beacon of hope, emphasizing the importance of sustained conservation measures and regional collaboration in safeguarding avian biodiversity.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/wayanad-wildlife-sanctuary-offers-a-safe-haven-for-vultures/article67808122.ece




MICROPLASTICS IN NILE RIVER’S TILAPIA: A GROWING THREAT TO HUMAN HEALTH AND ECOSYSTEMS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The Nile River, a vital freshwater system in Africa, is facing a concerning environmental challenge – the presence of microplastics in its iconic tilapia fish.

EXPLANATION:

  • This issue poses threats to aquatic ecosystems.
  • It also has direct implications for human health, as the fish is a staple in the diets of millions residing in the Nile basin.
  • Tilapia’ has emerged to be one of the most productive and internationally traded food fish in the world.
  • The culture of tilapia has become commercially popular in many parts of the world and fishery experts have dubbed the tilapia as “aquatic chicken” due to its quick growth and low maintenance cultivation.
  • Today, if any fish could be named a global fish, no better name can be thought of than Tilapia.

Scope of the Nile River and Pollution Concerns:

  • With around 300 million people relying on the Nile for agriculture and fishing across 11 countries, the river’s pollution is of paramount concern.
  • Like many global rivers, the Nile is grappling with plastic debris, with recent studies revealing the prevalence of microplastics, tiny particles resulting from the breakdown of larger plastic items.

Microplastics and Global Pollution Patterns:

  • Microplastics, with a significant presence in rivers worldwide, are a potent threat to biodiversity and climate.
  • As they degrade, microplastics release greenhouse gases, contributing to environmental imbalances.
  • The airborne particles can impact climate conditions, reflecting the urgent need for comprehensive global strategies to mitigate plastic pollution.

Focus on African Waters:

  • While previous studies predominantly focused on marine and coastal areas, the current research addresses the critical gap by investigating the presence of microplastics in the River Nile in Khartoum, Sudan.

Study on Nile Tilapia:

  • The study focused on Nile tilapia, a crucial freshwater fish species in Africa and a cornerstone of commercial fisheries.
  • Results from 30 freshly caught tilapia revealed alarming findings – a total of 567 microplastic particles were found in their digestive tracts.

Microplastic Characteristics:

  • The microplastics identified varied in size (ranging from 0.04mm to 4.94mm), shape (fibres, fragments, films, foams, and pellets), and colour.
  • The most common were small, fibrous, and dyed particles, aligning with the feeding habits of Nile tilapia, which consume a diverse range of organisms.

Health Risks and Environmental Impact:

  • The study underscores the potential health risks associated with microplastics. Smaller particles can carry pollutants like heavy metals, posing additional threats to both aquatic organisms and human consumers.
  • Fibrous microplastics, dominant in the Nile tilapia, may linger in the intestine, leading to potential health issues.

Pollution Sources in Khartoum:

  • The study identifies Khartoum as a hotspot for plastic pollution, with inadequate waste management contributing to the contamination of water bodies.
  • Open dumps and ineffective wastewater treatment plants further exacerbate the issue, emphasizing the need for comprehensive waste management strategies.

Call for Action and Solutions:

  • Addressing microplastic pollution in the Nile requires a multi-faceted approach.
  • Consumers must alter their plastic consumption habits, opting for sustainable alternatives.
  • Governments play a pivotal role in enforcing waste management regulations and raising public awareness.
  • Scientific advancements and innovations are crucial for understanding and mitigating the impact of microplastics on ecosystems and human health.

Conclusion:

  • The study’s findings serve as a stark warning about the pervasive issue of microplastics in the Nile River’s tilapia, demanding urgent action to safeguard both environmental sustainability and the health of the communities relying on the river for their livelihoods.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/microplastics-found-in-nile-river-s-tilapia-fish-new-study-94319




PROTECTING MAHMUDIA WETLAND: WWF’S URGENT APPEAL

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Wildlife conservation organisation World Wildlife Fund (WWF) has urged the Romanian government to classify Mahmudia wetland as a ‘national interest ecological restoration area’ to protect its natural progress and foster community prosperity.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Mahmudia wetland is situated in Romania’s Danube Delta.
  • It is facing a critical threat as agricultural leaseholders seek to revert a significant portion of the naturally restored wetlands to cropland.
  • This move poses a risk to the biodiversity, livelihoods, and climate resilience that the wetland currently provides.
  • The issue originated in June 2023 when high waters from the Danube River breached a dyke, causing flooding in Mahmudia.
  • Interestingly, this area had undergone successful restoration eight years prior with European Union funding, transforming into a flourishing wetland that significantly boosted tourism.
  • The flood, however, submerged farmland, converting it into a typical delta ecosystem.

 Mehmudia wetland

Mahmudia Region

Local Support for Wetland Preservation:

  • A survey conducted by WWF-Romania revealed that 97 percent of the local community in Mahmudia preferred the current state of the wetland over reverting it to agricultural use.
  • The wetland, a result of natural regeneration, has become integral to the community’s livelihoods and climate resilience.

Legal Challenge by Agricultural Leaseholders:

  • Despite local opposition, agricultural leaseholders obtained a court ruling favouring the reversion of the wetland to cropland.
  • This decision not only jeopardizes the natural progress of the wetland but also endangers the section that was restored with European Union funds.

WWF’s Call for National Interest Ecological Restoration Area:

  • World Wildlife Fund (WWF) has urged the Romanian government to designate Mahmudia wetland as a ‘national interest ecological restoration area.’
  • This designation would provide legal protection, allowing the government to cancel agricultural contracts and compensate leaseholders from national funds, as permitted by Romanian law.

Importance of Wetland Restoration:

  • WWF-Romania director emphasizes the centrality of restoring healthy wetlands in reversing nature loss and building resilience to climate change.
  • Losing the restored wetland in Mahmudia would not only impact local sustainable development but also hinder efforts to restore the health of Europe’s largest wetlands.

UNESCO Recognition and Precedent for Danube Delta:

  • The protection of Mahmudia wetland extends beyond local concerns; it sets an important precedent for the Danube Delta, recognized by UNESCO as Europe’s second-largest and best-preserved river delta.
  • The delta hosts over 300 bird species and 45 freshwater fish species, making its conservation vital for biodiversity and ecosystem health.

World Wildlife Fund (WWF):

  • The WWF is an international non-governmental organization dedicated to the conservation and preservation of nature and natural species.
  • WWF is the largest conservation organization in the world. It was founded on 29th April 1961 in Switzerland.
  • Presently, it is active in more than 100 countries around the world.
  • WWF aims to stop degradation of planet’s natural environment and build future in which humans live in harmony with nature.
  • Currently, its work is organized around these six areas: food, climate, freshwater, wildlife, forests, and oceans.
  • It publishes Living Planet Report every two years since 1998 and it is based on Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculation.

Conclusion:

  • The Mahmudia wetland stands at the intersection of environmental conservation, community livelihoods, and legal battles.
  • The urgency of protecting this naturally regenerated ecosystem not only addresses the immediate threat but also sets a crucial example for the broader conservation efforts in the Danube Delta and beyond.
  • The appeal by WWF underscores the delicate balance between economic interests and ecological sustainability, urging the Romanian government to prioritize the long-term well-being of both the wetland and its local inhabitants.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/wwf-demands-protection-for-naturally-restored-mahmudia-wetland-in-romania-s-danube-delta-94332




WSDP Bulletin (08/02/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Amid Red Sea crisis, India gets a specific zone in Duqm Port READ MORE

2. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary offers a safe haven for vultures READ MORE

3. Tamil Nadu pioneers a model for saving the sinking islands in the Gulf of Mannar  READ MORE

4. Explained: The new process for picking Election Commissioners, what led to it READ MORE

5. Kerala govt to protest against Centre at Jantar Mantar: What are its grievances over money allocation? READ MORE

6. Microplastics found in Nile River’s tilapia fish: new study READ MORE

7. WWF demands protection for naturally-restored Mahmudia wetland in Romania’s Danube Delta READ MORE

8. In breakthrough, neural network ‘explains’ how it found a new antibiotic READ MORE  

9. 390-year-old lamp post in Nalgonda dedicated to Kasi Viswanatha unravels trade links of Telangana READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Live-in fear: Uniform patriarchal code READ MORE

2. Privilege equality over uniformity READ MORE

3. Vijayanagara was the Indian Renaissance State. It contains memories of older empires READ MORE

4. The Earth’s tectonic plates made the Himalayas — and could rip them apart READ MORE

5. Deep Seabed Mining in the Arctic READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Good/Bad start: U’khand’s UCC ticks some boxes. But it also encourages moral policing & coddles a few social taboos READ MORE

2. Uniform Civil Code: Regulation of live-in relationships regressive READ MORE

3. India’s public recruitment system stuck in ‘state incapacity’ trap. Can new exam bill save it? READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. India’s universities Government school crisis: Critical to win back trust of students READ MORE

2. States have a big role in next-generation social sector reforms READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Takeaways from the great churning: No room for ambiguity on the foreign policy front as India’s credibility is at stake READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Road map for fiscal consolidation READ MORE

2. Equity concerns in banning fossil fuel extraction READ MORE

3. Blue Carbon economy READ MORE

4. RBI confident of containing inflation, maintaining growth READ MORE

5. India is scorning energy bounty that transformed China READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. How cities can factor the climate crisis in budgets READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Innovation needs free and rational minds READ MORE

2. Pioneering progress: Exploring the frontiers of AI-driven growth READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Sparks from Manipur can ignite bigger conflict in region READ MORE    

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. To see life as an infinite gamble READ MORE

2. What a pleasure! READ MORE

3. Supreme Court’s ‘murder of democracy’ remarks on Chandigarh mayor polls give ammo to Oppn READ MORE

4. To link or delink neural connections READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. The UCC is a must to ensure pan-India uniformity of civil laws while respecting religious and cultural diversity, but its nationwide implementation is a huge challenge. Comment.

2. AI is undeniably causing disruptions across the board but a shift in narrative is required to view AI as a constructive force, focusing on its potential to bring about positive changes. Discuss.

3. Budget management of the State is the discretion of the State government and it cannot be ceded to the Union executive and Parliament in the name of fiscal management. Examine the statement in the light of recent stand-off between Kerala and Center.

4. The character of India’s federalism is moving rapidly from cooperative to destructive and annihilation, and recent borrowing restrictions are an example of ‘annihilative federalism’ at play. Critically examine.

5. Climate change poses a significant threat to the country in the coming decades and to address these challenges effectively, the Republic’s current structure needs to evolve by encouraging the devolution of powers to local government bodies (LGBs). Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • It is impossible to build a multipolar world without a very relevant role of India.
  • The purpose of enacting special Acts such as the POCSO Act and making special provisions in the IT Act is to protect children from sexual exploitation and punish people involved in different forms of exploitation.
  • Any fiscal deficit of the Centre and States taken together substantially above 6% of GDP can only lead to inflation.
  • A country such as India, which is facing serious unemployment concerns, cannot afford to transit towards cleaner fuel without adequate transition support and creation of suitable economic opportunities and livelihoods for those affected.
  • Despite India’s notable progress in renewable energy systems, fossil fuel continues to dominate India’s power sector.
  • The UCC is a must to ensure pan-India uniformity of civil laws while respecting religious and cultural diversity, but its nationwide implementation is a huge challenge.
  • The Naga government and people unhappy with the fencing and abrogation of the FMR, the risk of militancy and insurgency reigniting in the North-East, either by accident or design, is higher than ever before.
  • The govt’s plan to send Indians abroad as labourers is seen as a practical acknowledgment of the constraints in the domestic economy. However, the larger issue here is an ethical one.
  • Education is the most effective tool to act as an external suggestion to bring out knowledge stored in the mind. It acts as the friction needed to fire the flint.
  • Education is the instrument through which we look at the universe, interpret it and experience the world.
  • Education institutions are the most powerful institution of society. Education is compulsory and a fundamental human right in our country.
  • Irrational, illogical, biased thinking along with authoritative oppression in the long run will one day culminate in disaster in society in the form of a threat to democracy and halt in the progress of economic growth.
  • Fiscally incentivizing blue carbon conservation and restoration programmes and fostering partnerships with stakeholders across sectors will also be crucial.
  • Fostering and leveraging international collaborations can facilitate exchange of knowledge, transfer of technology, and enhancement of capacity in conserving and managing blue carbon. Investing in and promoting blue carbon initiatives will be a pragmatic approach to expanding India’s climate action portfolio.
  • The shift towards states as accelerators of future reforms stems from a feeling that the Centre has concluded its role in easing the process of doing business.
  • AI is undeniably causing disruptions across the board. However, a shift in narrative is required to view AI as a constructive force, focusing on its potential to bring about positive changes.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Knowledge has become fundamental to economic development and technological advancement.
  • The greatest resource of all economic development is the mind.

50-WORD TALK

  • EC’s decision to give NCP name and symbol to Ajit Pawar faction was unsurprising. Its arguments for relying solely on legislative strength are convoluted. Assembly Speaker, a BJP leader, sits on MLAs’ disqualification petitions and EC uses their strength to rule in favour of BJP’s ally. It’s politics, not justice.
  • Karnataka has joined Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana in protesting Centre’s tax devolution policies. The timing works since 16th Finance Commission’s deliberations have just started. But such concerted criticism is another sign of worsening Centre-State relations. If the Centre is serious about fiscal federalism, it needs to rebuild states’ trust.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



Day-589 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the LeadIT initiative, consider the following statements:
    1. It is a joint initiative launched by India and the USA at the G-20 summit in New Delhi.
    2. It aims to reduce the net zero carbon emission from energy intensive industries by 2070.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: PM’s departure statement ahead of his recently visits to UAE for World Climate Action Summit included a mention of LeadIT initiative and Green Credit initiative.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    The LeadIT initiative was jointly launched by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    About Leadership for Industry Transition initiative/LeadIT initiative-
    · It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    · The initiative gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
    · Purpose: LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    ● Secretariat: It is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.
    ● Significance: The low carbon transition of the industrial sector will not only contribute towards the reduction in required greenhouse gas emissions.
    ● It has several co-benefits that include increasing resilience to changes in climate, enhanced energy security, innovation, socio-economic development and job creation.
    Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Denmark, Ethiopia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Republic of Korea, South Africa, Sweden, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, United States of America.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: PM’s departure statement ahead of his recently visits to UAE for World Climate Action Summit included a mention of LeadIT initiative and Green Credit initiative.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect:
    The LeadIT initiative was jointly launched by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    Statement 2 is incorrect:
    LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    About Leadership for Industry Transition initiative/LeadIT initiative-
    · It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
    · The initiative gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
    · Purpose: LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industries can and must progress on low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050.
    ● Secretariat: It is hosted by Stockholm Environment Institute (SEI), Sweden.
    ● Significance: The low carbon transition of the industrial sector will not only contribute towards the reduction in required greenhouse gas emissions.
    ● It has several co-benefits that include increasing resilience to changes in climate, enhanced energy security, innovation, socio-economic development and job creation.
    Member Countries: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Denmark, Ethiopia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Ireland, Japan, Luxembourg, Netherlands, Republic of Korea, South Africa, Sweden, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, United States of America.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) monitors the safety of air travellers.
    2. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) monitors security aircrafts as well as airports.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Context: Aviation regulatory bodies have imposed a total fine of ₹1.5 crore on IndiGo and ₹90 lakh on Mumbai airport following an incident where passengers occupied the airport apron and sat there following a flight diversion due to long delays after fog in Delhi in January 2024.
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The BCAS monitors security of aircraft and airports. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (India).
    About BCAS
    ● The BCAS was initially set up as a Cell in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation(DGCA) in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee constituted in the wake of the hijacking of the Indian Airlines flight on 10 September 1976.
    ● The role of the Cell was to coordinate, inspect, monitor and train personnel in Civil Aviation Security matters.
    ● The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department in April , 1987 under the
    ● Ministry of Civil Aviation as a sequel to the Kanishka Tragedy in June 1985 in which the whole aircraft was disintegrated due to an onboard bomb explosion by terrorists.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The DGCA monitors the safety of air travellers.
    About DGCA
    ● The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India to regulate civil aviation in India. It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
    ● It investigates aviation accidents and incidents.
    Other functions
    ● Registration of civil aircraft
    ● Certification of airports
    ● Licensing to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose
    ● Safety Oversight of all entities approved/ certified/ licensed under the Aircraft Rules 1937.
    ● Coordination of ICAO matters with all agencies, sending replies to State letters, and
    taking all necessary action arising out of the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) of ICAO.
    ● Granting Air Operator’s Certificates to Indian carriers and regulation of air transport services operating to/from/within/over India by Indian and foreign operators, including clearance of scheduled and non-scheduled flights of such operators
    ● Approval of institutes engaged in flying training including simulator training, AME training, air traffic services training or any other training related with aviation, with a view to ensuring a high quality of training
    ● Approval to aircraft maintenance, repair, design and manufacturing organizations and their continued oversight

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Context: Aviation regulatory bodies have imposed a total fine of ₹1.5 crore on IndiGo and ₹90 lakh on Mumbai airport following an incident where passengers occupied the airport apron and sat there following a flight diversion due to long delays after fog in Delhi in January 2024.
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The BCAS monitors security of aircraft and airports. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation (India).
    About BCAS
    ● The BCAS was initially set up as a Cell in the Directorate General of Civil Aviation(DGCA) in January 1978 on the recommendation of the Pande Committee constituted in the wake of the hijacking of the Indian Airlines flight on 10 September 1976.
    ● The role of the Cell was to coordinate, inspect, monitor and train personnel in Civil Aviation Security matters.
    ● The BCAS was reorganized into an independent department in April , 1987 under the
    ● Ministry of Civil Aviation as a sequel to the Kanishka Tragedy in June 1985 in which the whole aircraft was disintegrated due to an onboard bomb explosion by terrorists.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The DGCA monitors the safety of air travellers.
    About DGCA
    ● The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India to regulate civil aviation in India. It became a statutory body under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, 2020.
    ● It investigates aviation accidents and incidents.
    Other functions
    ● Registration of civil aircraft
    ● Certification of airports
    ● Licensing to pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose
    ● Safety Oversight of all entities approved/ certified/ licensed under the Aircraft Rules 1937.
    ● Coordination of ICAO matters with all agencies, sending replies to State letters, and
    taking all necessary action arising out of the Universal Safety Oversight Audit Programme (USOAP) of ICAO.
    ● Granting Air Operator’s Certificates to Indian carriers and regulation of air transport services operating to/from/within/over India by Indian and foreign operators, including clearance of scheduled and non-scheduled flights of such operators
    ● Approval of institutes engaged in flying training including simulator training, AME training, air traffic services training or any other training related with aviation, with a view to ensuring a high quality of training
    ● Approval to aircraft maintenance, repair, design and manufacturing organizations and their continued oversight

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. The Gross Domestic Climate Risk Report, which is released by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI), measures:

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A report by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI) reveals that 1 in 12 hospitals worldwide could face shutdowns due to extreme weather events from climate change. In India, 9.6% of hospitals will be high-risk by 2100. Currently, 2,700 hospitals are at high risk, expected to increase to over 5,100 by the end of the century. Urgent action on fossil fuel emissions is needed to prevent disruption in emergency healthcare services. The report highlights the vulnerability of hospitals on coastlines and near rivers. Governments are urged to address the risk posed to critical healthcare infrastructure.
    About the Gross Domestic Climate Risk:
    The report is released by Australia-based Cross Dependency Initiative or XDI, which is a part of the climate risk group of companies quantifying the costs of climate change.
    ● The Gross Domestic Climate Risk analysis focuses on the extent of capital value at risk from extreme weather and climate change in states, provinces and other territories, represented by vulnerability and exposure of the built environment.
    ● Built environment refers to aspects of the surroundings that are built by humans to support human activity like homes and workplaces.
    ● It covers damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather and climate change such as flooding, forest fires, heat wave and sea level rise.
    ● This is the first time there has been a physical climate risk analysis focused exclusively on the built environment, comparing every state, province and territory in the world.
    ● The report is particularly significant for investors, as extensive built infrastructure generally overlaps with high levels of economic activity and capital value.

    Highlights from the report:
    ● “Gross Domestic Climate Risk” assess the physical climate risk in over 2,600 states and provinces around the world in 2050.
    ● The more built-up a state, the greater the risk.
    ● The ranking was derived using modelled projections of damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather conditions such as flooding, forest fires and sea level rise.
    ● As per the analysis, 80 percent of the top 50 most at-risk states and provinces in 2050 are in China, the US and India.
    ● After China, India has the highest number of states (nine) in the top 50, which include Bihar (22nd spot), Uttar Pradesh (25), Assam (28), Rajasthan (32), Tamil Nadu (36), Maharashtra (38), Gujarat (48), Punjab (50) and Kerala (52).Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A report by Cross Dependency Initiative (XDI) reveals that 1 in 12 hospitals worldwide could face shutdowns due to extreme weather events from climate change. In India, 9.6% of hospitals will be high-risk by 2100. Currently, 2,700 hospitals are at high risk, expected to increase to over 5,100 by the end of the century. Urgent action on fossil fuel emissions is needed to prevent disruption in emergency healthcare services. The report highlights the vulnerability of hospitals on coastlines and near rivers. Governments are urged to address the risk posed to critical healthcare infrastructure.
    About the Gross Domestic Climate Risk:
    The report is released by Australia-based Cross Dependency Initiative or XDI, which is a part of the climate risk group of companies quantifying the costs of climate change.
    ● The Gross Domestic Climate Risk analysis focuses on the extent of capital value at risk from extreme weather and climate change in states, provinces and other territories, represented by vulnerability and exposure of the built environment.
    ● Built environment refers to aspects of the surroundings that are built by humans to support human activity like homes and workplaces.
    ● It covers damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather and climate change such as flooding, forest fires, heat wave and sea level rise.
    ● This is the first time there has been a physical climate risk analysis focused exclusively on the built environment, comparing every state, province and territory in the world.
    ● The report is particularly significant for investors, as extensive built infrastructure generally overlaps with high levels of economic activity and capital value.

    Highlights from the report:
    ● “Gross Domestic Climate Risk” assess the physical climate risk in over 2,600 states and provinces around the world in 2050.
    ● The more built-up a state, the greater the risk.
    ● The ranking was derived using modelled projections of damage to buildings and properties from extreme weather conditions such as flooding, forest fires and sea level rise.
    ● As per the analysis, 80 percent of the top 50 most at-risk states and provinces in 2050 are in China, the US and India.
    ● After China, India has the highest number of states (nine) in the top 50, which include Bihar (22nd spot), Uttar Pradesh (25), Assam (28), Rajasthan (32), Tamil Nadu (36), Maharashtra (38), Gujarat (48), Punjab (50) and Kerala (52).Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. In the context of BRICS, consider the following statements:
    1. The grouping was originally established in 2006 with Brazil, Russia, India and China as members.
    2. The Moscow declaration led to the establishment of the New Development Bank by the BRICS member countries.
    3. Ethiopia, Iran, and Mexico have joined BRICS as its new members.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    India congratulates UAE for joining BRICS group on this year (2024).
    Statement 1 is correct: The leaders of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) countries met for the first time in St. Petersburg, Russia, on the margins of the G8 Outreach Summit in July 2006. Shortly afterwards, in September 2006, the group was formalised as BRIC during the 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, which met on the sidelines of the General Debate of the UN Assembly in New York City.
    · BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement for establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the sixth BRICS summit -2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil, by the leaders. It is also known as the Fortaleza Declaration.
    · Besides Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as members; the NDB has been expanded to include Egypt, UAE, Bangladesh and Uruguay.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Five new full-time members have joined the BRICS grouping— Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab. It is a strong indication of the growing authority of the association and its role in international affairs.
    ● Argentina was also invited but backed out at the end of December.
    ● Now, it has become a 10-member bloc.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    India congratulates UAE for joining BRICS group on this year (2024).
    Statement 1 is correct: The leaders of BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, and China) countries met for the first time in St. Petersburg, Russia, on the margins of the G8 Outreach Summit in July 2006. Shortly afterwards, in September 2006, the group was formalised as BRIC during the 1st BRIC Foreign Ministers’ Meeting, which met on the sidelines of the General Debate of the UN Assembly in New York City.
    · BRIC group was renamed as BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) after South Africa was accepted as a full member at the BRIC Foreign Ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.

    Statement 2 is incorrect: The agreement for establishing the New Development Bank was signed during the sixth BRICS summit -2014 in Fortaleza, Brazil, by the leaders. It is also known as the Fortaleza Declaration.
    · Besides Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as members; the NDB has been expanded to include Egypt, UAE, Bangladesh and Uruguay.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Five new full-time members have joined the BRICS grouping— Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab. It is a strong indication of the growing authority of the association and its role in international affairs.
    ● Argentina was also invited but backed out at the end of December.
    ● Now, it has become a 10-member bloc.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following statements with reference to the African Union:
    1. It is a continental body consisting of the 54 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    2. It was launched as a successor to the Africa Finance Corporation.
    3. It recently became an Observer member of the G20 under the India presidency.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the African Union becomes permanent member at the inaugural session of the two-day G-20 Summit in New Delhi.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The African Union became a full member of the G-20 on September 9, 2023 under the Indian presidency. Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the inclusion of the African bloc will enhance the effectiveness of the G-20.

    ● After the European Union, the African Union is the second regional bloc to join the G20.
    ● India had hosted the India Africa Forum Summit in 2015 and has expanded its diplomatic footprint in the continent by opening new missions in the member countries of AU.
    ● Apart from supporting the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member of G-20, India has also invited Nigeria, Egypt, and Mauritius as part of the ‘Guest Countries’ at the G-20 summit.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Context:
    Recently, the African Union becomes permanent member at the inaugural session of the two-day G-20 Summit in New Delhi.
    Statement 1 is incorrect: The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The African Union became a full member of the G-20 on September 9, 2023 under the Indian presidency. Prime Minister Narendra Modi said the inclusion of the African bloc will enhance the effectiveness of the G-20.

    ● After the European Union, the African Union is the second regional bloc to join the G20.
    ● India had hosted the India Africa Forum Summit in 2015 and has expanded its diplomatic footprint in the continent by opening new missions in the member countries of AU.
    ● Apart from supporting the inclusion of the African Union as a permanent member of G-20, India has also invited Nigeria, Egypt, and Mauritius as part of the ‘Guest Countries’ at the G-20 summit.

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