Answer: A
Explanation: Statement A is correct.
The Wednesbury principle, though not directly enshrined in the Indian Constitution, serves as a fundamental principle for judicial review of administrative actions, ensuring their reasonableness and non-arbitrariness. The Wednesbury principle has been adopted by Indian courts as a vital tool for reviewing the decisions of public authorities. It helps prevent arbitrary and unreasonable decisions by setting a baseline standard of logic and fairness.
While the Wednesbury principle plays a crucial role in preventing arbitrariness in administrative decision-making, it doesn’t directly guarantee fundamental rights. Its primary function is to ensure reasonableness and fairness in administrative actions, which indirectly upholds the principles enshrined in the Constitution. It acts as a check on unreasonable and perverse decisions but does not apply only to the violation of the fundamental rights.
The Wednesbury principle applies to all administrative decisions, regardless of the level of government or authority involved. Whether it’s a local panchayat or a central government ministry, any exercise of administrative power is subject to scrutiny under the principle of reasonableness. It sets a minimum standard for rationality; it protects citizens from arbitrary decisions and promotes good governance within the public sphere.
Origins of the Wednesbury Principle:
The Wednesbury Principle emerged from the 1948 English case Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. v Wednesbury Corporation. In this case, the Court of Appeal established the principle that courts can only intervene in administrative decisions if they are “so unreasonable that no reasonable authority could ever come to it.” This set a crucial precedent for judicial review of administrative actions, emphasizing a balance between respecting public authority autonomy and ensuring responsible decision-making.
The Wednesbury Principle didn’t directly enter Indian jurisprudence through a singular case but rather through a gradual process of judicial borrowing and adaptation. Today, the Wednesbury Principle remains a core concept in Indian administrative law. It serves as a crucial tool for ensuring the reasonableness and fairness of administrative decisions, protecting citizens from arbitrary or irrational governmental actions.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The concept of liberty in India is depicted through the framework given as the question statement.
• Freedom of an individual (X): This refers to an Indian citizenwho enjoys fundamental rights and freedoms guaranteed by the Constitution.
• Obstacle (A): These are the restrictions, limitations, or hindrances that can impede an individual’s freedom. They can come from various sources, including the state, societal norms, or even economic constraints.
• To do (B): This represents the desired action, thought, or expression that the individual seeks to pursue freely. It encompasses a wide range of activities, from personal decisions like choosing one’s religion to broader societal pursuits like political participation.
This framework plays out within the context of the Indian Constitution and in specific cases:
Constitutional Provisions:
• Part III of the Constitution: This section guarantees fundamental rights, including those relevant to liberty, such as:
o Article 19: Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, and right to reside and settle in any part of India.
o Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty.
o Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
• Right to Privacy: Though not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has recognized it as an inherent part of Article 21, protecting individuals from unwarranted state intrusion into their personal lives.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Money Bill can only be tabled in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament, and not in the Rajya Sabha, the upper house. According tothe Constitution of India, at the Union level, only in the Lok Sabha Money Billscan be introduced that too on the recommendation of the President. The Rajya Sabha can make recommendations on Money Bills, but it cannot reject or amend the Money Bill.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker of Lok Sabha holds the final authority to decide on whether a bill falls under the category of a Money Bill in the Indian Parliament. Article 110(3) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that “If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People thereon shall be final.” The Speaker does not consult with the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha before certifying a Bill as Money Bill.
Statement 3 is correct: A Private Member can introduce a Money Bill as neither the Constitution, any statutes nor any rules of the Lok Sabha prevent such an introduction. If the previous recommendation of the President is obtained, then the member can introduce the Money Bill. But as the President acts on the aid and advice of the CoMs, it is highly unlikely that he gives previous recommendation for the introduction of a Private Member Money Bill.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2023, a 5-Judge Constitution Bench in Kaushal Kishor caseheld that the grounds to restrict Freedom of Speech under Article 19(2) are limited. The Bench held that the restrictions under Article 19(2) protect individuals and sections of society, prevent contempt of Court, and protect the security of the country. As these restrictions cover all necessary aspects, any restrictions beyond these are unconstitutional.
Statement 2 is correct: As per the Kaushal Kishor Judgment, a fundamental right under Article 19/21 can be enforced even against persons other than the State or its instrumentalities.
The original thinking of the apex court that the fundamental rights can be enforced only against the State, changed over a period of time. The reason for this change of stance is attributed to the change in the understanding as to what role is being performed. Initially, only government actors were bound by these rights and individuals could only seek legal remedies against them for violations. This thinking progressively changed, expanding the scope of entities subject to these rights and included directly controlled by the state, like public bodies or agencies. Later, the scope broadened to encompass entities with close ties to the government, even if not strictly under its control. Furthermore, entities not directly controlled by the state could still be subject to fundamental rights if they possessed significant government-like powers or functions.
Now the Court is focused on the nature of control the state exercises over an entity, even if not direct, as a factor in determining its accountability for respecting fundamental rights. Also, the court seems to emphasize the nature of the duties and functions performed by an entity as the key factor in determining whether it is subject to fundamental rights. This suggests a functional approach, focusing on the potential for harm to individual rights rather than the strict legal relationship with the state.
This evolution reflects a growing recognition that individual rights can be infringed upon not just by the state itself, but also by private entities acting with significant state-like powers or control. This expands the potential for legal redress and strengthens the protection of fundamental rights.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Entry 9 of List I (the Union List)of the Seventh Schedule, Parliament has the exclusive power to enact a law for preventive detention for the reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs, or security of India.
Under Entry 3 of List III (‘Concurrent List’) of the Seventh Schedule, both Parliament and State Legislature have powers to enact such laws for the reasons related to the maintenance of public order or the maintenance of supplies or services essential to the community and security of state.
Statement 2 is incorrect:Article 22(4) of the Constitution of India deals with protection against arrest and detention in certain cases and says “No law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless- (a) an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a high court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention.”
However, the Parliament can also pass a law which allows for persons to be detained for longer than three months without an Advisory Board hearing (Article 22(7)of the Constitution of India).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The states have power to make laws on preventive detention on matters in Concurrent List. There are no such provisions for states making rules under parliamentary statutes dealing with preventive detention. In fact, when states have power to make laws on preventive detention, the need to make rules under parliamentary statutes does not arise.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Ashoka’s private beliefs and the socio-political needs of the contemporary situation were responsible for the formulation of the policy of Dhamma.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The policy of Dhamma was not the policy of a heretic but a system of beliefs created out of different religious faiths. Ashoka’s dhamma was not anti Brahamanical in nature. Ashoka’s creation of the institution of the Dhammamahamattas convincingly proves that Ashoka’s Dhamma did not favour any particular religious doctrine. Had that been the case, then there would have been no need for such an office, as Ashoka could have utilized the organisation of Samgha to propagate Dhamma.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Ashoka’s Dhamma was not a new religion and he did not insist that his subjects convert to it. It was not a new form of political philosophy either. Dharma is the Sanskrit word for “dhamma.” Dhamma was a way of life enshrined in a code of behaviour and a set of ideals that he advised his subjects to follow to live in peace and prosperity.
Additional information:
• The practice of Dhamma, which became the foundation of his generous and tolerant administration. Ashoka’s Dhamma was based on the ten principles espoused by Lord Buddha.
• These ten principles are:
1) To be liberal while avoiding egoism.
2) To uphold a high moral standard.
3) To be willing to put one’s own pleasure aside for the sake of the subjects’ well-being.
4) To be truthful and uphold total integrity.
5) To be gentle and kind.
6) To live a humble life to inspire the subjects.
7) To be free of all forms of hatred.
8) To practise non-violence.
9) To develop patience.
10) Respect for the public’s viewpoint to create peace and concord.
• He propagated these Ashoka’s Dhamma ideals through the issuance of 14 edicts. He disseminated all of these edicts throughout his realm during his reign.
• Ashoka entrusted Dhamma Mahamatras with the task of teaching the Dhamma to the masses. They were even deployed to spread it in other countries.

Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the Tamil legends, there were three Sangams (Academy of Tamil poets) held in the ancient South India popularly called Muchchangam.
Given below are the correctly matched pairs:
Tamil Sangam – Associated Places
1) First Sangam – Madurai
2) Second Sangam – Kapadapuram
3) Third Sangam – Madurai
Additional information:
• Sangam Age is the period from the 3rd century BC to the 3rd century AD in south India.
• There were 3 Sangams conducted in ancient South India called Muchchangam, Tamil legends say.
• These Sangams prospered under the royal patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai.
• Three dynasties ruled during the Sangam Age – the Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas.
• The key source of evidence about these kingdoms is outlined from the literary references of the Sangam Period.
The following are the sources of Sangam Age:
• Sangam Literature – It is a major source that mentions about Sangam Age
• The Greek Authors including Megasthenes, Pliny etc. mentioned the trade contacts between South India and the West.
• Tamil kingdoms are mentioned in Ashokan edicts.
• Adhichanallur excavations brought to surface articles depicting the life of the Sangam Period.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Law of primogeniture is not among one of the reasons for the decline of Delhi Sultanate. No clear and well-defined law of succession developed in the Sultanate. Hereditary principle was accepted ‘but not adhered to invariably. There was no rule of law of primogeniture in Delhi Sultanate that only the eldest son would succeed.
Reasons for decline of Delhi sultanate:
• Autocratic nature of Delhi Sultanate: The Delhi Sultanate was a theocratic state with an administration based on Islamic principles.
• Emergence of independent political centre: There was emergence of autonomous and independent political centres in different regions which lead to decline of Delhi Sultanate.
• Change of nature of iqta from Non-permanent to Permanent: Initially, the iqta system served the central authority and its elements of transfer and non-permanence ensured the Sultan’s power. But gradual disappearance of these principles, especially during Feroz Tughluq’s rule, paved the way for the steady dissipation of the state’s authority. The Iqta system was a unique type of land distribution and administrative system introduced during the reign of Iltutmish. In the Iqta system the lands of the Delhi Sultanate were divided into several large and small tracts called Iqta and assigned these Iqtas to the Sultan’s soldiers, officers and nobles.
Additional information:
• The Delhi Sultanate was an Islamic empire based in Delhi that stretched over large parts of the Indian subcontinent for 320 years (1206–1526). Five dynasties ruled over the Delhi Sultanate sequentially: the Mamluk dynasty (1206–1290), the Khalji dynasty (1290–1320), the Tughlaq dynasty (1320–1414), the Sayyid dynasty (1414–1451), and the Lodi dynasty (1451–1526). It covered large swathes of territory in modern-day India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh as well as some parts of southern Nepal.
• The effective administrative system under the Delhi Sultanate made a great impact on the Indian provincial kingdoms and later on the Mughal administrative system. At its peak, the Delhi Sultanate controlled regions as far south as Madurai.
• There were many departments and officials who helped the Sultan in administration. The Naib was the most influential post and virtually enjoyed all the powers of the Sultan. He had control over all the other departments.
• The post of Wazir was next to the Naib and he headed the finance department known as the Diwan-i-Wizarat. An Auditor-General for examining expenditure and an Accountant General for checking income worked under the Wazir. The period of wazir-ship of Feroz Shah Tughlaq Khan-i-Jahan is generally considered as the high watermark period of the Wazir’s influences.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Excessive austerities and self-mortification was one of the elements of the way of life of Chishti Silsila.
Statement 2 is correct: They preferred to remain aloof from state politics and shunned the company of rulers and nobles.
Additional information:
• Sufism is a mystical form of Islam, a school of practice that focuses on the spiritual search for God and shuns materialism.
• It is a form of Islamic mysticism which stresses on asceticism. There is a lot of emphasis on devotion towards God.
• In Sufism, self-discipline is considered an essential condition to gain knowledge of God by sense of perception.
• The Chishti Silsilah is an order or school, within Sunni Islam’s mystic Sufi tradition.
• The Chishti Order is noted for emphasising love, tolerance, and openness in its teachings. It originated about 930 AD.
• The Chishti order was founded by Khwaja Muinuddin Chisht and takes its name from the Afghan hamlet of Chisht, which lies thirty miles from the current city of Herat.
• The Chishtis led a simple, austere life and conversed with people in Hindawi, their local dialect.
• They were hardly interested in effecting conversions, though later on, many families and groups attributed their conversions to the “good wishes” of these saints.
• These Sufi saints made themselves popular by adopting musical recitations called sama, to create a mood of nearness to God.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Portuguese captured Goa from the ruler of Bijapur during the reign of Sikander Lodhi and thereafter, Goa became the capital of the Portuguese settlements in India.
Statement 2 is correct: Portuguese established the first printing press at Goa in c. 1556 CE.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Portuguese power declined in India by the end of the 16th century, and they lost all their acquired territories in India except Daman, Diu and Goa.
The First Carnatic war was concluded with the Peace treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, signed in 1748. Under this treaty, France agreed to leave the Austrian Netherlands and give back Madras to Britain in return for Louisbourg.
Additional information:
• Portuguese colonialism began in earnest when Vasco da Gama reached Calicut on the Malabar Coast on 20 May 1498. He met the Zamorin ruler of Calicut and despite objections from the Arab raiders, obtained permission from the Zamorin to trade in Calicut. But Vasco da Gama was unable to pay the custom duties and price of his goods.
• When the duties were not paid, the Zamorin’s officials detained some of Vasco da Gama’s men. This angered him enough to kidnap some natives and fishermen by force.
• But as far as the Portuguese government in Lisbon was concerned, the expedition was successful. A sea route bypassing the Ottoman Empire was found and the expedition had yielded a profit far beyond the initial investment.
• Further conflict with the Zamorin Kingdom and expeditions of Vasco da Gama established a base of operations on the Malabar coast. The first viceroy Francisco de Almeida established his headquarters in what would become modern day Cochin.
• In 1509 Alfonso de Albuquerque became the second governor of the Portuguese possessions in the East. A Portuguese fleet under Marshal Fernão Coutinho arrives off the coast of Calicut. Their instructions were clear: Destruction of the Zamorin.
• The city was reduced to rubble and the Zamorins palace captured, but the local forces rallied and fell upon the invading Portuguese, causing them to retreat and wounding Albuquerque
• Albuquerque relented and entered into a treaty with the Zamorin in 1513 to protect Portuguese interests in Malabar.
• With the aid of the Vijaynagar Empire Afonso de Albuquerque defeated the Bijapur sultanate in 1510, establishing the permanent settlement of Goa. It would go on to become the headquarters of the Portuguese colonial possessions in India and seat of the viceroy.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The first official set of estimates of national income for the entire India was compiled by the ‘National Income Committee’, a High-Powered Expert Committee set up by the Government of India under the Chairmanship of P.C. Mahalanobis in 1949. The estimates of national income and details of methodology adopted by the committee were published in the First and Final reports of the National Income Committee brought out in April 1951 and February 1954, respectively.
Before independence, several attempts were made to compute nation’s income by individual economists and research workers. But all these efforts were based essentially on macro-level data and involved several assumptions for want of requisite data and adequate resources.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Statistics Office (CSO) introduced the new series of national accounts statistics in 2015 with base year 2011-12, in place of the previous series with base year 2004-05. The new series on National Accounts Statistics was introduced after a comprehensive review of both the database and the methodology employed in the estimation of various aggregates.
Statement 3 is correct: In 2015, significant changes were introduced in the methodology of capturing income of the informal sector by moving away from the conventional labour input (LI) method to an ‘effective labour input’ (ELI) method. Under the earlier LI method, various categories of labour such as owners, hired workers, and helpers were not differentiated by their marginal productivities. In contrast, the ELI method accounts for differential productivities of the workforce, based on weights.

Answer: D
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
Transfer payments are the receipts which the residents of a country get for ‘free’, without having to provide any goods or services in return. They consist of gifts, remittances and grants. They could be given by the government or by the private citizens living abroad.
● These payments do not represent purchases of value, include zero consumption, and are not intended to bring material output. Therefore, they are excluded from the GDP, since nothing measurable gets generated.
Examples of transfer payments include:
● social security benefits
● state pension
● unemployment benefits
● civil service benefits
● survivor benefits
● public health services
Bonus received by employees is not part of transfer payments. It is a part of compensation of employees.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Providing free ration under the Pradhan Mantri Gareeb Kalyan Anna Yojana would result in increasing the expenditure of the government. This would increase the government’s fiscal deficit and not reduce it. Fiscal deficit is essentially excess of expenditure over the revenue, which is financed by borrowings.
Statement 2 is correct: Increase in the Goods and Services Tax rates on the luxury carmakers would result in increasing the revenue generation for the government and reduce fiscal deficit. An increase in revenue of the government gives it more space to undertake revenue as well as capital expenditures.
Statement 3 is correct: Proceeds from spectrum sale of 5G technology will generate non-tax revenue receipt for the government. Spectrum sale is a part of revenue receipt and not capital receipt because it neither reduces assets of the government, not it creates liability. It is treated as a one-time revenue receipt.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
According to the World Bank’s Migration and Development Brief report, India retained its position as the largest recipient of remittances, with an estimated $125 billion in 2023.
This underscores the crucial role played by the Indian diaspora in supporting families and contributing to the country’s economic resilience.
● Apart from India, the top five remittance recipient countries include Mexico ($67 billion), China ($50 billion), the Philippines ($40 billion), and Egypt ($24 billion).
What is the Liberalised Remittance Scheme?
Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme, all resident individuals, including minors, are allowed to freely remit up to $2,50,000 per financial year (April – March) for any permissible current or capital account transaction or a combination of both. This is a scheme for outward remittances.
● There are no restrictions on the frequency of remittances under LRS. However, the total amount of foreign exchange purchased from or remitted through, all sources in India during a financial year should be within the cumulative limit of $2,50,000.
Individuals can avail of foreign exchange facility for the following purposes within the LRS limit of $2,50,000 on financial year basis:
● Private visits to any country (except Nepal and Bhutan)
● Gift or donation
● Going abroad for employment
● Emigration
● Maintenance of close relatives abroad
● Travel for business, or attending a conference or specialised training or for meeting expenses for meeting medical expenses, or check-up abroad, or for accompanying as attendant to a patient going abroad for medical treatment/ check-up
● Expenses in connection with medical treatment abroad
● Studies abroad
● Any other current account transaction which is not covered under the definition of current account in FEMA 1999.
For inward remittances, Banks have general permission to enter into a partnership with other banks for conducting remittance business. The International Financial System platform of the Universal Post Union is generally used for the postal channel. Besides that, there are two more channels for receiving inward remittances, viz. Rupee Drawing Arrangement and Money Transfer Service Scheme.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement a is incorrect: India is one of the largest gold importers. Gold imports have to be paid through our foreign reserves. A reduction in the import duty on gold may lead to its higher demand that will translate to higher imports. This would impact the trade balance. Hence, current account deficit may deteriorate further.
Statement b is correct: Higher defence exports would improve the trade balance of the country. Thus, current account deficit can come down for a country.
● India’s defence exports have reached a record high of nearly Rs 16,000 crore in the fiscal year 2022-23, according to the Defence Ministry.
● The country’s indigenous defence industry has achieved this success by selling major defence systems, such as BrahMos missiles and Akash air defence systems.
Statement c is incorrect: The PM Matru Vandana Yojana is a maternity benefit scheme, providing Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), or the direct transfer of financial subsidies, to pregnant lactating women to tackle the problem of undernourishment in women. Any increase in expenditure on the scheme will impact the fiscal deficit of the country.
Statement d is incorrect: RoDTEP (Refund of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products) is a flagship export promotion scheme of the Commerce Ministry of India. The scheme aims to refund to the exporters the embedded central, state and local duties and taxes paid on inputs that were so far not refunded or rebated.
● It is a scheme to promote exports and thus would help in improving trade balance and current account deficit. Its removal may impact the exports negatively.
● RoDTEP was announced in September 2019 with an aim to boost domestic exports and replace the export incentive scheme Merchandise Exports from India (MEIS) scheme.