DEBUNKING K-SHAPED RECOVERY: WHY THE SBI’S NEW REPORT GETS IT ALL WRONG ABOUT INDIA’S ECONOMIC GROWTH

THE CONTEXT: The Economic Research Department of the State Bank of India (SBI) recently published its study Debunking K-shaped recovery.

MORE ON THE NEWS:

  • It is being widely debated that the post-pandemic recovery in India has been K-shaped. The debate over K-shaped recovery is also linked to widening inequality in the country.
  • However, SBI research study claims to have “debunked” this belief. The report highlighted at a “conspiracy” against India and its growth.

WHAT IS K-SHAPED RECOVERY?

  • A K-shaped recovery occurs when, following a recession, different parts of the economy recover at different rates, times, or magnitudes. It refers to a situation where some sectors of the economy revive after slowdown or recession while others don’t. It means not all sectors/parts of the economy are recovering.
  • This is in contrast to an even, uniform recovery across sectors, industries, or groups of people.
  • A K-shaped recovery leads to changes in the structure of the economy or the broader society as economic outcomes and relations are fundamentally changed before and after the recession.
  • This type of recovery is called K-shaped because the path of different parts of the economy when charted together may diverge, resembling the two arms of the Roman letter “K.”

SBI REPORT’S ARGUMENTS

  • Positive Emerging Patterns: It highlights patterns of income, savings, consumption, expenditure and policy measures aimed at public welfare.
  • Parameters under Scrutiny: The report challenges traditional parameters used to assess economic well-being. It questions the use of old parameters like low two-wheeler sales or fragmented land holdings.
  • New Considerations: It highlights patterns in income, savings, consumption, expenditure, and policy measures designed to empower the masses through technology-driven solutions, questioning the reliance on outdated indicators like 2-wheeler sales or land holdings.
  • Rising Disposable Incomes in Non-Metro Areas: It cites data from Zomato as an example of rising disposable income in non-metro areas.
  • Decrease in Inequality: It refers to the income tax data for FY22 to note that the Gini coefficient had declined significantly from 0.472 to 0.402 between FY14 and FY22.
    It highlights that 36.3% of individual tax return filers belonging to the lowest income in FY14 have left the lowest income group and shifted upwards.

A DIFFERENT PERSPECTIVE

  • Not representative: The research of SBI is not representative of the Indian economy, it also brings out a newly-destined ‘narrative’. It just focuses on the “privileged” formal sector that, going by various estimates, has recorded impressive growth.
  • Contrasting Reports: In 2022, another report, “The State of Inequality in India,” commissioned by the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister, highlighted rising inequality in the country. It noted that an individual earning a monthly wage of Rs 25,000 was among the top 10% of earners, underscoring the stark income disparities.
  • High Welfare Spending indicated Economic distress: The government has been forced to extend the scheme of subsidized food grain to 800 million Indians.
  • Tax Data does not reflect Broader Economy: Only a very small minority of people pay direct income tax. Hence, it is not reasonable to draw conclusions from tax data about broader inequality. Income tax data is nominal and is affected by overall inflation, thus making it unviable for drawing conclusions.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Increase government spending: The government must spend where necessary to alleviate the concerns in the most troubled areas of the economy.
  • Addressing debt issues: There is a need for a credible target for the country’s consolidated debt with the setting up of an independent fiscal council to put forward on the quality of the budget would be a great step.
  • Include budgetary resources: Budgetary resources needs to be expanded through asset sales, including parts of government enterprises and surplus government land.
  • Analysing data: The shape of economic recovery is not an exact science, but the predictions help governments, investors, and consumers alike in planning monetary policies and investments.

THE CONCLUSION:

The recent SBI research provides a unique perspective on India’s economic recovery and inequality but its focus on a limited sample from the formal sector raises concerns about its representativeness. There is a need to emphasis on more comprehensive understanding of the diverse economic landscape in India.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. Do you agree that the Indian economy has recently experienced V-shaped recovery? Give reasons in support of your answer. (2021)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. ‘Recent SBI report has debunked the theory that India has experienced K-shaped economic recovery in the post-pandemic era’. Examine.

SOURCE:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/economy/debunking-k-shaped-recovery-why-the-sbi-s-new-report-gets-it-all-wrong-about-india-s-economic-growth-94086#:~:text=The%20Economic%20Research%20Department%20of,of%20the%20economy%20are%20recovering.




THE ISSUE OF GENOCIDE AND THE WORLD COURT

THE CONTEXT: There are ongoing proceedings in the International Court of Justice (ICJ), where the Republic of South Africa has instituted proceedings against Israel. South Africa argues that Israel’s military operations in Gaza violate the International Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide. The case has generated debate and divided countries, with some supporting South Africa’s application and others opposing it.

ISSUES:

  • South Africa’s application against Israel in the ICJ: The Republic of South Africa has brought a case against Israel in the International Court of Justice (ICJ), alleging violations of the Genocide Convention due to Israel’s military operations in Gaza.
  • International legal context: Genocide is considered a serious international crime, and every state should prevent genocide from occurring. South Africa argues that it has standing to bring the case to the ICJ based on this obligation.
  • Plausibility of genocide: Demonstrating the existence of genocide requires specific intent, which can be challenging. South Africa’s request for provisional measures aims to show a plausible case for genocide by highlighting Palestinian suffering, deaths, destruction, and genocidal statements made by Israeli politicians and soldiers.
  • Israel’s defense: Israel argues that there is no dispute between the parties and that the statements made are open to interpretation. It claims its military operation is limited to targeting Hamas in response to their attacks.
  • Potential provisional measures: If the ICJ finds South Africa’s case plausible, it may issue provisional measures to protect the parties’ rights. Suggestions for such measures include an immediate cessation of hostilities, allowing the entry of food and resources into Gaza, a humanitarian ceasefire, or directing Israeli leaders to refrain from making genocidal statements.
  • The role of the ICC: While the ICJ proceedings focus on Israel, Hamas officials can be proceeded against at the International Criminal Court (ICC), which is a separate body. The ICC’s involvement requires the situation in Palestine/Israel to be referred for investigation, which has already been done.
  • International division: The split between countries supporting or opposing South Africa’s application appears to follow a divide between former colonial or imperial powers and other countries, questioning the legitimacy of international law and the rules-based international order.
  • Impact on the rules-based international order: The ICJ’s decision in this case will address the situation in Gaza and test the effectiveness and legitimacy of the rules-based international order. How nation-states respond to the ICJ’s actions will determine the strength of this order?

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Addressing the Plausibility of Genocide: The ICJ should carefully evaluate the evidence presented by South Africa and Israel to determine whether a plausible case for genocide exists. Upholding the credibility and integrity of the Genocide Convention is crucial.
  • Consideration of Provisional Measures: The ICJ should assess the potential impact of provisional measures on protecting the rights of both parties. While a complete cessation of military hostilities may be challenging to order, alternative measures such as facilitating the entry of humanitarian aid and enforcing a ceasefire can help alleviate the suffering in Gaza.
  • Inclusiveness and Accountability: The international community should ensure that both Israeli and Hamas officials are held accountable for any potential violations of international law. The ICC should continue its investigation into the situation in Palestine/Israel, providing an avenue for accountability and justice for all parties involved.
  • Addressing the Divide between Nations: Nations with differing perspectives, particularly formerly colonial or imperial powers, should engage in constructive dialogue to bridge the gap and find common ground. Moving beyond historical divisions and working towards a just and inclusive global legal framework is essential.
  • Legitimacy of International Law: The outcome of the ICJ proceedings will have far-reaching implications for the legitimacy of international law. The ICJ must uphold the rule of law, ensure fairness, and demonstrate the effectiveness of the international legal system in addressing serious crimes such as genocide.
  • Strengthening the Rules-Based International Order: The ICJ’s actions and the response of nation-states will determine the strength of the rules-based international order. Countries must respect and abide by international law, support multilateral institutions, and cooperate to resolve disputes and achieve lasting peace.
  • Promoting Dialogue and Diplomacy States should prioritize diplomatic efforts and dialogue to de-escalate tensions and reach a peaceful resolution. International mediation and negotiation processes can provide a platform for constructive discussions, fostering understanding, and finding mutually acceptable solutions.
  • Humanitarian Aid and Reconstruction Efforts: The international community should support and actively participate in humanitarian aid and reconstruction efforts in Gaza. This includes providing financial assistance, resources, and expertise to help rebuild infrastructure, facilitate access to necessities, and promote long-term development.
  • Promoting Human Rights and Respect for International Law: Nations must uphold their obligations under international human rights law, including protecting civilians and safeguarding fundamental rights. International cooperation and collaboration are vital in promoting and enforcing human rights principles.

THE CONCLUSION:

The focus on the alleged violation of the Genocide Convention in Israel’s military operations in Gaza raises important legal and humanitarian questions. The outcome of this case will not only impact the situation in Gaza but also test the credibility and effectiveness of the international legal system. The ICJ’s ruling on provisional measures and its eventual decision will provide valuable insights into the legitimacy of the rules-based international order and the pursuit of justice on a global scale.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q.1 The Russia and Ukraine war has been going on for the last seven months. Different countries have taken independent stands and actions, keeping in view their own national interests. We are all aware that war has its own impact on the different aspects of society, including human tragedy. What ethical issues are crucial to consider while launching the war and its continuation so far? Illustrate with justification the ethical issues involved in the given situation. (2022)

Q.2 Refugees should not be turned back to the country where they would face prosecution or human rights violation.” Examine the statement about the ethical dimension violated by the nation claiming to be democratic with an open society. (2021)

Q.3 The will to power exits, but it can be tamed and be guided by rationality and principles of moral duty.’ Examine this statement in the context of international relations. (2020)

Q.4 Strength, peace, and security are considered pillars of international relations. Elucidate. (2017)

MAINS QUESTION FRAMED:

Q.1 Does the split between countries, particularly between former colonial powers and non-colonial powers, reflect a disregard for ethical considerations in international relations? Discuss with relevant examples.

THE SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-issue-of-genocide-and-the-world-court/article67773539.ece




AS MODI MEETS MACRON, THE CHALLENGES THAT THEY WILL NEED TO REFLECT ON

THE CONTEXT: French President Emmanuel Macron’s visit to India aims to strengthen bilateral ties, with the focus not just on ceremonial aspects but on concrete geopolitical and security discussions amidst changing global dynamics, such as the Ukraine conflict, Middle East tensions, and anticipation of potential policy shifts with the possible return of Donald Trump to U.S. presidency. The visit seeks progress on previously established agreements, especially ‘Horizon 2047’ and France’s support to India in Asian deterrence capabilities.

ISSUES:

  • Broader implications for regional security: India’s role in European security and France’s support for Indian defense capabilities. Protecting maritime trade in West Asia considering potential changes to US military commitment.
  • Regional and International Challenges: The stalled Ukrainian counter-offensive and the renewed debate on European security. Increasing tensions in the Middle East, including the Israel-Hamas conflict and attacks on Red Sea shipping by Houthis, impact the global economy. The potential return of Donald Trump to the White House is causing unease due to his America First policies and implications for international alliances, climate change, and global trade policies.
  • US Politics and its global role: The impact of Trump’s possible second term on NATO and European security. India needs to manage the consequences of Trump’s regional and global policies. Reassessment of commitments to climate change and renegotiation terms with allies under Trump’s governance.
  • Ideological and Strategic autonomy: The relevance of a multipolar world in the event of American retrenchment from international affairs. The concept of strategic autonomy for India and France in maintaining an independent foreign policy.
  • Security and Stability Concerns: There are concerns of bringing peace to Ukraine and establishing a stable security order in Central Europe and India’s contribution to European security amid changing US dynamics. At the same time, there are concerns over France’s role in enhancing India’s defense capabilities to deter war in Asia and strategies to protect Sea Lines of Communication (SLOCs) in West Asian waters if the US reduces its presence.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Strategic Bilateral Cooperation: Enhance defense cooperation by finalizing pending deals on Rafale Marine aircraft, Scorpene submarines, and technology transfers. Progressively implement the ‘Horizon 2047’ framework with clear benchmarks and timelines to measure advancements.
  • Regional Stability and Crisis Management: Engage in diplomatic efforts for conflict resolution in Ukraine, exploring avenues for peaceful negotiation and stabilization in Central Europe. Increase maritime security collaboration between India and France to safeguard critical Sea Lines of Communication (SLOCs).
  • Adapting to Global Power Shifts: Assess the impact of potential shifts in US foreign policy and recalibrate India-France strategic priorities accordingly. Foster cooperation between regional powers to form a coordinated approach towards maintaining stability in Eurasia.
  • Multilateral Engagement and Climate Action: Strengthen multilateral institutions to ensure a collective response to global challenges such as climate change. Uphold commitments to international climate agreements and initiatives irrespective of changes in US policies.
  • Enhancing Economic and Trade Relations: Diversify trade partnerships to mitigate risks from unilateral tariffs and promote open markets. Facilitate technology exchanges and collaborations in emerging green energy and digital innovation sectors.
  • Reinforcing Strategic Autonomy: Cultivate independent foreign policies that align with national interests, balancing relations with major powers like the US, Russia, and China. Work towards a multipolar world order that acknowledges various nations’ sovereignty and distinct strategic perspectives.
  • Long-term Regional Power Dynamics: Regional powers must address current crises and develop strategies for stabilizing Eurasia and its waters, where the US might reduce its traditional role of ensuring Eurasian security. Protecting maritime trade in West Asia consider potential changes to US military commitment.

THE CONCLUSION:

India and France’s collaboration is crucial for tackling geopolitical challenges in today’s changing global landscape. Strategic discussions and agreements between Delhi and Paris can counter shifts in American foreign policy. It can reinforce the vision of a multipolar world order and ensure regional strength in the face of global uncertainties.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q 1) ‘The time has come for India and Japan to build a strong contemporary relationship involving global and strategic partnerships that will have great significance for Asia and the world.’ Comment. (2019)

Q 2) What introduces friction in the ties between India and the United States is that Washington can still not find a position in its global strategy for India that would satisfy India’s national self-esteem and ambitions. Explain with suitable examples. (2019)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q 1) Discuss the evolving regional and international context and its implications for India and France regarding their foreign policy priorities and strategic partnerships.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/narendra-modi-emmanuel-macron-meeting-india-france-challenges-9123612/




LIMITS AND BORDERS: ON THE TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION OF THE BORDER SECURITY FORCE

THE CONTEXT: Punjab has filed a suit against the Union government under Article 131 of the Constitution, challenging the decision to increase the operational jurisdiction of the Border Security Force (BSF). The Supreme Court is set to hear the dispute over the expansion of the BSF jurisdiction in Punjab.

MORE ON THE NEWS:

  • In October 2021, the Ministry of Home Affairs had issued a notification under the provisions of the BSF Act, standardising the area over which the BSF would have jurisdiction to operate. In Punjab, West Bengal and Assam, the distance was raised from within 15 km from the border to 50 km, while it was reduced from 80 km to 50 km in Gujarat. For Rajasthan, it was kept unchanged at 50 km.
  • The Union government said in a reply in the Rajya Sabha in December 2021 that the extension of the BSF’s jurisdiction will help it discharge its border patrol duty more effectively.
  • The notification states that, within this larger 50-kilometre jurisdiction, the BSF can only exercise powers under the Criminal Procedure Code, the Passport (Entry into India) Act and the Passports Act. For other central legislations, the 15-km limit remains.
  • It was claimed that the notification makes the BSF jurisdiction uniform across states, as the 50-kilometre limit was already in place in Rajasthan. The same notification reduced the jurisdiction in Gujarat from 80 km to 50 km.

What are the issues that the Supreme Court will consider?

  • The state of Punjab filed an ‘original suit’ against the central government in the Supreme Court in December 2021.
  • The Supreme Court has ‘original jurisdiction’ in disputes between the central government and states under Article 131 of the Constitution, which means cases of this kind can only be heard for the first time at the SC “to the exclusion of any other court”.
  • The court will decide if the notification expanding the jurisdiction of the BSF was arbitrary or backed by legitimate reasons.
  • Further, the court will determine if this notification interferes with the powers of the local police and encroaches upon states powers under the Constitution.
  • The SC will also decide what factors have to be considered when deciding which areas are “within the local limits of such area adjoining the borders of India” and whether all states must be treated alike when determining these local limits.
  • Finally, the court will decide if the notification can be challenged through an original suit under Article 131 of the Constitution.

BORDER SECURITY FORCES AND THEIR MANDATE

  • The BSF was created after the enactment of the Border Security Force Act in September 1968. The BSF mainly focuses on preventing trans-border crimes, especially unauthorised entry into or exit from Indian territory.
  • The BSF is empowered to arrest, search and seize under a number of laws, such as the Criminal Procedure Code, the Passports Act, the Passport (Entry into India) Act, and the NDPS Act etc.
  • Section 139(1) of the BSF Act allows the central government, through an order, to designate an area “within the local limits of such area adjoining the borders of India” where members of the BSF can exercise powers to prevent offenses under any Acts that the central government may specify.
  • It does not have the power to investigate or prosecute offenders but has to hand over those arrested, and the contraband seized from them to the local police.

ISSUES

  • Breach of federal principles: This attempt of centre is being seen as a breach of federal principles and an encroachment into the law and order powers of the state police. Therefore, states have got resolutions passed in their Assemblies against the expansion and here, Supreme Court’s decision to examine the questions that arise from the expansion of the BSF’s area of operations acquires significance.
  • Not proper consultation: Litigation concerning the territorial jurisdiction of the Border Security Force (BSF) in the states seems to be the result of the lack of effective consultation between the central and State governments.
  • Issue of public order: The state government claimed that expanding the jurisdiction of the BSF would compromise the state’s exclusive powers to legislate on matters involving the police and public order. These powers are provided in Entries 1 and 2 of the State List under Article 246 of the Constitution.
  • Issue specific to Punjab: The notification has specific concerns related to Punjab. It is claimed that in Punjab, a large number of cities and towns would fall within this 50-kilometre jurisdiction, whereas in Gujarat and Rajasthan, most areas along the international border are sparsely populated.
  • Affecting Functioning of BSF:Policing in the hinterland is not the role of a border guarding force, rather it would weaken the capacity of the BSF in discharging its primary duty of guarding the international border.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Consultation with state: Centre must consult states before making decisions that affects their powers, given the security condition in India’s neighbourhood. Before the Union Government deploys its armed forces, it is desirable that the State Government should be consulted, wherever feasible.
  • Ensuring federal principles: Whether or not the Union government have valid reasons for its move, it should not encroach into the domain of the State governments.
  • Adequate reasons for expansion: It is being argued that the expanded jurisdiction merely authorises the BSF to conduct more searches and seizures, especially in cases in which the offenders manage to enter deep into the country’s territory. However, there needs to be adequate and strong reasons for the expansion of the jurisdiction of any central force.
  • Regional Arrangement: A regional arrangement can be ensured for the use of Armed forces in neighbouring states in case of need. The Zonal Council would be the best forum for achieving consensus of the States within a zone for devising such an arrangement.
  • Complementing local police: This move can help in complementing the efforts of the local police as an enabling provision. As, the state police have better knowledge of the ground, hence, BSF and local Police can act in cooperation.

THE CONCLUSION:

Though enhanced presence and powers of Border Security Forces aims to strengthen India’s security in border areas, cautious attempts need to be taken to ensure that nation’s security and territorial integrity is upheld by both Centre and the States while upholding the federal principles at the same time.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q. Border management is a complex task due to difficult terrain and hostile relations with some countries. Elucidate the challenges and strategies for effective border management. (2016)

Q. Analyse internal security threats and transborder crimes along Myanmar, Bangladesh and Pakistan borders including Line of Control (LoC). Also, discuss the role played by various security forces in this regard. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. Keeping in view the recent decision to increase the operational jurisdiction of the Border Security Forces (BSF), analyse its implications with regard to federal principles and internal security of the country.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/limits-and-borders-on-the-territorial-jurisdiction-of-the-border-security-force/article67769125.ece




FCRA SHOULD BE AN INSTRUMENT OF FINANCIAL ACCOUNTABILITY NOT OF SECURITY

THE CONTEXT: The cancellation of the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) license of Centre for Policy Research (CPR), one of the country’s famed think tanks, on the charges of multiple violations raises several critical questions.

CENTRE FOR POLICY RESEARCH (CPR)

  • It is founded in 1973 and is a “non-profit, non-partisan, independent institution dedicated to conducting research that contributes to high quality scholarship, better policies, and a more robust public discourse about the issues that impact life in India”.
  • It is a member of the Indian Council of Social Science Research and is recognised by the Department of Science and Technology.
  • Its funders have included the government of India, the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, and the Ford Foundation, among many others in India and abroad.
  • An FCRA registration is necessary to obtain foreign funding. The CPR used to raise more than 75% of its funds from outside India. By suspending its FCRA licence, the government had effectively crippled its finances.

THE FCRA SINCE 1976

  • The FCRA was brought during the Emergency in 1976 in a bid to create surveillance regime for the NGOs and put it under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
  • For all such entities receiving foreign funds through foundations, corporate grants and so on, the FCRA license administered by the MHA became obligatory.
  • It has not only continued thereafter but has also become a permanent feature for the scrutiny of foreign funds for such entities. The FCRA has been amended four times since then.
  • In 2010, the government tightened the FCRA in the wake of anti-nuclear protests driven by some human rights bodies in Tamil Nadu’s Kudankulam that were receiving foreign funds.
  • Since the accountability of the voluntary sector in financial matters was questioned, the P.V. Narasimha Rao (1991-96) government had provided a window to them to explain, interact and cooperate with the government.

ISSUES

  • Hindering the work of civil societies: Recent charges on CPR such as ‘hurting India’s economic interests’ by alleged ‘mis-utilisation of funds received from foreign sources for organising protests’ are serious. The state surveillance of its activities has been on since 2014. On September 7, 2022 it was subjected to an Income Tax survey and its IT exemption was cancelled on 30 June 2023. It eventually got redressal, both, from the Delhi High Court and the Supreme Court. It is now left with just the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) grant since it is one of the 24 ICSSR funded institutes.
  • Ambiguities: Entities such as CPR are created by societies registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It permits a group of desirous persons to register a society for literary, scientific and charitable purposes, framing a memorandum of associations and rules for its functioning. A very broad spectrum of societies is registered under this Act, that creates anomalies at times which is used by government for charging NGOs for violating the terms of registration and memorandum of association.
  • Funding administration: The concerns regarding the transfer and use of the funds, including administrative heads, are more contentious.  Rigid categorisation often does not work with such bodies as they do not generate a separate administrative grant. When some related expenses are adjusted against foreign grants, it gives the political dispensation an opportunity to ask uncomfortable questions and cancel the FCRA license.
  • Increase in foreign funding in India: There has been proliferation of NGOs for varied objectives in recent years. By the 1990s there were efforts to redefine NGOs as voluntary or civil society organisations. However, there are very few funding sources within India and corporate philanthropy has been limited in India. Thus, foreign funding of such entities became routine in India.
  • Distrust against the voluntary sector: The love-hate relationship between the government and the NGOs has continued in India with each regime. CPR and such institutions have been under scrutiny for years, irrespective of their emergence as an important segment of international developmental initiatives.

THE WAY FORWARD

  • Transparent mechanism: Since the civil societies are a significant part of international and the Indian social life, they must function within the structures of accountability created by the government, which must also be uniform and transparent.
  • Free civic space: A free civic space without undue interference from the state or other actors is the need of the hour to enable the citizen to participate in public affairs, express their views, and hold the government accountable.
  • Financial accountability: Amending the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) with some relevant clauses for the social sector could maintain financial accountability without bringing in security considerations for organisations.
  • Strengthen oversight mechanism: There is a need for strengthen the oversight mechanisms to prevent any potential misuse of foreign contributions. NGOs should as well be encouraged to provide clear and detailed reports on the utilization of foreign funds, ensuring that purposes and beneficiaries are explicitly disclosed.

THE CONCLUSION:

Advocating for the protection of constitutional freedoms and reviewing stringent laws impacting NGOs is the need of the hour. At the same time, there is a need for raising awareness about the importance of civic space in preserving India’s democracy.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q. Can Civil Society and Non-Governmental Organisations present an alternative model of public service delivery to benefit the common citizen? Discuss the challenges of this alternative model. (2022)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q. The constitutional freedom of India’s diverse and vibrant civil society is under challenge. Analyse this statement with regard to recent cancellation of Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) license of civil societies.

Q. Government wielding of Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)as a blunt instrument shrinks vital space for NGOs, civil society. Comment.

SOURCE: https://thewire.in/law/fcra-should-be-an-instrument-of-financial-accountability-not-of-security#:~:text=FCRA%20Should%20Be%20an%20Instrument%20of%20Financial%20Accountability%20Not%20of%20Security,-law&text=Amending%20the%20Foreign%20Exchange%20Management,in%20security%20considerations%20for%20organisations.




WSDP Bulletin (25/01/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. No food in forests: Bears, langurs throng Uttarkahand apple orchards as native vegetation gets taken over by invasives READ MORE

2. The pandemic treaty can help the world brace for Disease X: WHO Director-General READ MORE

3. The rooftop solar plan: India’s solar power capacity, target, and the way forward READ MORE

4. SC gets new judge; to return to full judicial strength READ MORE

5. Flash Jan. PMI signals rebound in economic momentum READ MORE

6. Turkey ratifies Sweden’s NATO membership after protracted delay READ MORE

7. Carbon benefits of not using cookstoves overestimated: study READ MORE

8. The urgent need for data to make personalised medicine equitable READ MORE

9. How biodiversity management can help in conserving environment READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Women in small towns see a future in business READ MORE

2. How smartphones can make education inclusive READ MORE

3. Unravelling Antarctica’s Shrinking Sea Ice Levels READ MORE

4. Multi-pronged strategy needed to conserve groundwater READ MORE

5. China’s population dip is a global concern READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Combating the deepfake menace necessitates stern legal measures READ MORE

2. One Nation, One Election risks devolving to one voice READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Time to move beyond 1-2-3-4: What the ASER report reveals about Indian education system READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. The larger message to New Delhi from the Red Sea READ MORE

2. Choppy waters: On India-Maldives ties READ MORE

3. The issue of genocide and the world court READ MORE

4. Alliance of mutual concerns and interests READ MORE

5. Improving the world for everyone READ MORE

6. Has the Non-Aligned Movement lost its plot? READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. The need to overhaul a semiconductor scheme READ MORE  

2. Cooperative route to build rural economy READ MORE

3. How reforming India’s workfare programme raised private sector earnings READ MORE

4. Solar scheme: Need to attract residential power consumers READ MORE

5. Policy reforms needed to boost manufacturing READ MORE

6. Shift in India’s female workforce sees increase in salaried women but gender wage gap persists READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Safeguarding the Himalayan ecosystem READ MORE

2. Bridging business, policy for net-zero READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Combating the deepfake menace necessitates stern legal measures READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Limits and borders: On the territorial jurisdiction of the Border Security Force READ MORE   

2. Dangerous status quo: On continuing hostilities in Manipur READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. AI poses ethical challenges in health sector READ MORE

2. Consciousness: Pran Pratishtha to enlightenment READ MORE

3. Activate your best tool for self-perfection READ MORE

CASE STUDY

1. How Aadhaar is strangling MGNREGA in a Maharashtra district and pushing workers to migrate READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. France, with its search for strategic autonomy and influence in global affairs, can partner with India in its pursuit of a multipolar world. Comment.

2. Institutions of global governance have failed to make growth more inclusive and sustainable. Comment in the light of recent developments.

3. As the old-world order gave way to a new multipolar reality post-Cold War, the NAM, despite its historical significance, finds itself in a state of decline and struggled to adapt to emerging dynamics. Discuss how instead of collectively facing the challenges, many leaders prioritized narrow political goals, that hindered the NAM’s relevance in the changing world.

4. India’s growing economy and Azerbaijan’s strategic location as a gateway to Europe and Asia offer the potential for increased trade and investment. Comment.

5. It is important to focus on technical and vocational education from the school level onwards so that children are equipped with skills that are needed in a growing economy. Comment in the light of ASER’s survey.

6. AI can lead to economic growth, but it also has the potential to destabilise national policies and disrupt financial systems. Critically comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • There is no flag large enough to cover the shame of killing innocent people.
  • While the Union government may have valid reasons for its move, it should not be seen as encroaching into the domain of the State governments, which have the constitutional responsibility to maintain public order and exercise police powers.
  • The Red Sea situation will fade away, but India’s new two-front situation, as continental and maritime challenges, cannot be wished away.
  • An overhauled Semiconductor Design-Linked Incentive scheme would fortify India’s comparative advantage and augment its forays into other stages of the semiconductor global value chain.
  • The Maldives decision to invite the Xiang Yang Hong 03, but not to allow it more than a routine port call is hopefully a sign that quiet diplomacy is working. A rational approach is more likely to shore troubled bilateral ties out of the choppy waters now.
  • While the porous border has also enabled drug trafficking and the movement of insurgents, a cessation of the Free Movement Regime (FMR) would be a case of throwing the baby out with the bathwater.
  • The case of South Africa instituting proceedings against Israel in the International Court of Justice over the Gaza war is a vital stress test of the ‘rules-based international order’.
  • France, with its search for strategic autonomy and influence in global affairs, can partner with India in its pursuit of a multipolar world.
  • Better infrastructure, cleaner environs, and improved safety features at such sites can boost lost economies and generate employment.
  • Three national cooperatives established last year are becoming the pivot for the rural economy through exports, seed production and procuring of farm produce.
  • There is a pressing need to make the grid-connected solar rooftop power system affordable and manageable for residents. This will not only benefit consumers but also help discoms effectively handle peak loads and reduce transmission and distribution losses.
  • Institutions of global governance have failed to make growth more inclusive and sustainable.
  • By creating an environment conducive to manufacturing, India can attract investments and become key player in the global manufacturing hub.
  • By creating an environment conducive to manufacturing, India can attract investments and become key player in the global manufacturing hub.
  • A competitive and stable tax regime is essential for attracting investment. India needs to rationalise its tax structure, ensuring that it is transparent and predictable.
  • As the old world order gave way to a new multipolar reality post-Cold War, the NAM despite its historical significance, finds itself in a state of decline, and struggled to adapt to emerging dynamics.
  • Electoral politics may be a see-saw but regional diplomacy is a constant.
  • Public confidence in the judicial system and in the moral authority and integrity of the judiciary was of the utmost importance in a modern democratic society

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Happiness is when what you think, what you say, and what you do are in harmony.

50-WORD TALK

  • Nine months into anarchy and violence in Manipur, a central team is sent to do what’s the state government’s first duty—maintaining peace. Centre’s support to Biren government despite grounds for President’s Rule is a political decision whose possible returns are already far outweighed by a swelling constitutional and human crisis.
  • Maldives-bound Chinese research vessel is another bad signal for Delhi’s strategic ties with Male. The diplomatic divide between the two creates a gap that Beijing will want to exploit. Maldives must be careful to maintain strategic equilibrium — electoral politics may be a see-saw but regional diplomacy is a constant.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



Day-580 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | POLITY

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements in the context of the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha:
    1. The question of the relevance of the evidence for the investigation by the committee is decided by the Speaker only.
    2. The rules of evidence under the Evidence Act are not applicable to a probe conducted by the Ethics Committee.
    Which one of the statement given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: If the committee examines a complaint against a member of the House, he can appear before it through an advocate and also cross-examine the complainant and other witnesses on permission by the chair. Findings are arrived at after the analysis of all the evidence made available to the committee.
    In the ultimate analysis, the committee takes a view on the basis of common sense. The findings of the committee of Parliament can be said to be on the basis of preponderance of probabilities. The question of the relevance of the evidence of a person or a document is finally decided by the Speaker only, and not according to the Evidence Act.
    Statement 2 is correct: The rules of evidence under the Evidence Act are not applicable to a probe by a parliamentary committee including the Ethics Committee. An interesting aspect of the Ethics Committee is that the term ‘unethical conduct’ has not been defined anywhere. It is left entirely to the committee to examine a particular act of conduct and decide whether it is unethical or not.
    The Parliament does the investigative work through its committees which function under the Rules of the House. The usual methods are examination of the written documents placed before the committee by the complainant and the witnesses, oral examination of all the relevant witnesses, deposition of experts, if deemed necessary, sifting of the whole volume of evidence placed before the committee, and arriving at findings on the basis of the evidence.
    The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha
    Established in 2000, the committee aims to investigate complaints related to unethical conduct by MPs and recommend appropriate action. This includes instances like misuse of power, financial irregularities, corruption, breach of privilege, and conduct unbecoming of an MP.
    • Comprises 15 members, appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker for a one-year term.
    • Members represent various political parties, ensuring diverse perspectives and impartiality.
    • It examines each complaint thoroughly, summoning witnesses and gathering evidence.
    • If allegations are substantiated, the committee can recommend various actions, including:
    o Expulsion from the House
    o Suspension of membership
    o Recommendation for further investigation by law enforcement agencies

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: If the committee examines a complaint against a member of the House, he can appear before it through an advocate and also cross-examine the complainant and other witnesses on permission by the chair. Findings are arrived at after the analysis of all the evidence made available to the committee.
    In the ultimate analysis, the committee takes a view on the basis of common sense. The findings of the committee of Parliament can be said to be on the basis of preponderance of probabilities. The question of the relevance of the evidence of a person or a document is finally decided by the Speaker only, and not according to the Evidence Act.
    Statement 2 is correct: The rules of evidence under the Evidence Act are not applicable to a probe by a parliamentary committee including the Ethics Committee. An interesting aspect of the Ethics Committee is that the term ‘unethical conduct’ has not been defined anywhere. It is left entirely to the committee to examine a particular act of conduct and decide whether it is unethical or not.
    The Parliament does the investigative work through its committees which function under the Rules of the House. The usual methods are examination of the written documents placed before the committee by the complainant and the witnesses, oral examination of all the relevant witnesses, deposition of experts, if deemed necessary, sifting of the whole volume of evidence placed before the committee, and arriving at findings on the basis of the evidence.
    The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha
    Established in 2000, the committee aims to investigate complaints related to unethical conduct by MPs and recommend appropriate action. This includes instances like misuse of power, financial irregularities, corruption, breach of privilege, and conduct unbecoming of an MP.
    • Comprises 15 members, appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker for a one-year term.
    • Members represent various political parties, ensuring diverse perspectives and impartiality.
    • It examines each complaint thoroughly, summoning witnesses and gathering evidence.
    • If allegations are substantiated, the committee can recommend various actions, including:
    o Expulsion from the House
    o Suspension of membership
    o Recommendation for further investigation by law enforcement agencies

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    1. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act abolished the classification of states based on four categories.
    2. Right to form cooperative societies is a fundamental right given through the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act.
    3. The Parliament was deprived of its special powers to make laws to deal with the anti-national activities through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act abolished the then-existing classification of states into four categories i.e., Part A, Part B, Part C and Part D states, and reorganized them into 14 states and 6 union territories. By virtue of the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were abolished.
    Statement 2 is correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for the fundamental right to form cooperative societies.
    • It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43B).
    • It added a new Part IX-B in the constitution, which is entitled “The Cooperative Societies” (Article 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act deprived the Parliament of its special powers to make laws to deal with anti-national activities.
    • Restored the powers of the judiciary: The act repealed articles inserted by the 42nd Amendment that restricted the Supreme Court and High Courts’ power of judicial review and issuance of writs. This aimed to safeguard individual rights and ensure judicial oversight over the government.
    • Limited Parliament’s power on “anti-national activities”: Article 31D gave Parliament sweeping powers to define and enact laws against “anti-national activities.” The 43rd Amendment repealed this article, arguing that such broad powers could be misused.
    • Repealed supremacy of Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights: The 42nd Amendment declared Directive Principles, which are Aspirational goals for the government, to be superior to Fundamental Rights, which guarantee basic human rights. The 43rd Amendment restored the primacy of Fundamental Rights.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act abolished the then-existing classification of states into four categories i.e., Part A, Part B, Part C and Part D states, and reorganized them into 14 states and 6 union territories. By virtue of the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was done away with and Part-C states were abolished.
    Statement 2 is correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for the fundamental right to form cooperative societies.
    • It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43B).
    • It added a new Part IX-B in the constitution, which is entitled “The Cooperative Societies” (Article 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: The 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act deprived the Parliament of its special powers to make laws to deal with anti-national activities.
    • Restored the powers of the judiciary: The act repealed articles inserted by the 42nd Amendment that restricted the Supreme Court and High Courts’ power of judicial review and issuance of writs. This aimed to safeguard individual rights and ensure judicial oversight over the government.
    • Limited Parliament’s power on “anti-national activities”: Article 31D gave Parliament sweeping powers to define and enact laws against “anti-national activities.” The 43rd Amendment repealed this article, arguing that such broad powers could be misused.
    • Repealed supremacy of Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights: The 42nd Amendment declared Directive Principles, which are Aspirational goals for the government, to be superior to Fundamental Rights, which guarantee basic human rights. The 43rd Amendment restored the primacy of Fundamental Rights.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements about the Doctrine of Harmonious Construction:
    1. It allows the courts to interpret the provisions of a statute to achieve harmony.
    2. It only applies to the statutes and not to the Indian Constitution.
    3. The provision of one section can never be used to overthrow the provision covered in another section of the same statute.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction is a fundamental principle of statutory interpretation in India. This doctrine states that when interpreting a statute, courts should read it as a whole and interpret seemingly conflicting provisions in a way that makes them consistent and avoids internal contradictions. The aim is to give effect to all provisions of the statute and uphold the legislative intent. The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction does not allow courts to rewrite or ignore provisions of a statute to achieve harmony. While courts can interpret provisions liberally to achieve internal consistency, they cannot override the plain meaning of the text or rewrite provisions. They must still give effect to the actual words chosen by the legislature.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction applies to statutes and to the Indian Constitution. The doctrine can be applied to interpret any legal document, including the Constitution. For example, it has been used to reconcile potential conflicts between different fundamental rights and Directive Principles.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Commissioner of Income Tax v. M/S Hindustan Bulk Carriers (2000) is a landmark case where the Supreme Court laid down principles that govern the rule of harmonious construction. The court held that the provision of one section cannot be used to overthrow the provision covered in another section unless the court is unable to find a way to settle their differences despite all its effort.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction is a fundamental principle of statutory interpretation in India. This doctrine states that when interpreting a statute, courts should read it as a whole and interpret seemingly conflicting provisions in a way that makes them consistent and avoids internal contradictions. The aim is to give effect to all provisions of the statute and uphold the legislative intent. The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction does not allow courts to rewrite or ignore provisions of a statute to achieve harmony. While courts can interpret provisions liberally to achieve internal consistency, they cannot override the plain meaning of the text or rewrite provisions. They must still give effect to the actual words chosen by the legislature.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction applies to statutes and to the Indian Constitution. The doctrine can be applied to interpret any legal document, including the Constitution. For example, it has been used to reconcile potential conflicts between different fundamental rights and Directive Principles.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: Commissioner of Income Tax v. M/S Hindustan Bulk Carriers (2000) is a landmark case where the Supreme Court laid down principles that govern the rule of harmonious construction. The court held that the provision of one section cannot be used to overthrow the provision covered in another section unless the court is unable to find a way to settle their differences despite all its effort.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. In the Indian context, consider the following statements about the bye-elections:
    1. The Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) to fill casual vacancies in the Lok Sabha within three months of their occurrence.
    2. The ECI in consultation with the President can certify that it is difficult to hold the bye-election to a legislative assembly within six months.
    Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates the Election Commission of India (ECI) to fill casual vacancies in the Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures through bye-elections within six months from the occurrence of the vacancy, provided the remaining term of the member is one year or more.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 151A(b) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 specifies that the Election Commission in consultation with the Central Government can certify that it is difficult to hold the bye-election within the said period. With such certification the bye-elections can be deterred beyond the limit of six months.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates the Election Commission of India (ECI) to fill casual vacancies in the Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures through bye-elections within six months from the occurrence of the vacancy, provided the remaining term of the member is one year or more.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 151A(b) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 specifies that the Election Commission in consultation with the Central Government can certify that it is difficult to hold the bye-election within the said period. With such certification the bye-elections can be deterred beyond the limit of six months.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Consider the following pairs:
    List-I – List-II
    1. Establishment of Supreme Court – Pitt’s India Act, 1784
    2. Open competition for the selection of civil servants – Charter Act, 1833
    3. Separation of legislative and executive functions – Charter Act, 1853
    How many of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Refer to the list of correctly matched pairs given below.
    List-I – List-II
    1. Establishment of Supreme Court – Regulating Act, 1773
    2. Open competition for selection of civil servants – Charter Act, 1853
    3. Separation of legislative and executive functions – Charter Act, 1853

    The Regulating Act of 1773
    • Establishment of a Governor-General and Supreme Council:
    o Warren Hastings, Governor of Bengal, was elevated to Governor-General of India, overseeing Bengal, Madras, and Bombay presidencies.
    o A four-member Executive Council was created to advise and assist the Governor-General.
    o Private trade and acceptance of gifts or bribes by company officials were prohibited.
    o Established a Supreme Court in Calcutta.
    o Strengthened the control of the British Government over the company.
    Charter Act of 1833
    • Office of Governor General: The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India with exclusive legislative powers. The presidencies of Bombay and Madras were deprived of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given civil and military powers. The First Governor-General of India was Lord William Bentick.
    • Administrative Body (EIC): The activities of East India Company as a commercial body came to an end. The company purely became an administrative body. The company’s territories in India were to be held by it “in trust for his Majesty, his heirs and successors”.
    • Attempt to Open Civil Services: The act attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection in Civil Services. It stated that Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the company. It was nullified after opposition from the Court of Directors. The concept of a merit based modern Civil Service in India was introduced on the recommendations of Lord Macaulay’s Report in 1854.
    The Charter Act of 1853:
    • Separation of Powers: The act introduced a separation of powers within the Governor-General’s Council. A new Legislative Council with six additional members was formed, focusing solely on lawmaking, while the remaining council members handled executive functions. This marked a step towards a more centralized legislative body in India.
    • Limited Indian Representation: For the first time, the Legislative Council included four Indians as non-voting members, representing Bengal, Madras, Bombay, and the North-Western Provinces. However, their role was purely advisory, and the council remained largely dominated by British officials.
    • Open Competition for Civil Services: The Act paved the way for open competition for the Indian Civil Service (ICS) through examinations in Britain. While not yet fully implemented, this laid the groundwork for a more meritocratic system of recruitment, eventually impacting the composition of the colonial bureaucracy.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation: Refer to the list of correctly matched pairs given below.
    List-I – List-II
    1. Establishment of Supreme Court – Regulating Act, 1773
    2. Open competition for selection of civil servants – Charter Act, 1853
    3. Separation of legislative and executive functions – Charter Act, 1853

    The Regulating Act of 1773
    • Establishment of a Governor-General and Supreme Council:
    o Warren Hastings, Governor of Bengal, was elevated to Governor-General of India, overseeing Bengal, Madras, and Bombay presidencies.
    o A four-member Executive Council was created to advise and assist the Governor-General.
    o Private trade and acceptance of gifts or bribes by company officials were prohibited.
    o Established a Supreme Court in Calcutta.
    o Strengthened the control of the British Government over the company.
    Charter Act of 1833
    • Office of Governor General: The Governor-General of Bengal became the Governor-General of India with exclusive legislative powers. The presidencies of Bombay and Madras were deprived of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given civil and military powers. The First Governor-General of India was Lord William Bentick.
    • Administrative Body (EIC): The activities of East India Company as a commercial body came to an end. The company purely became an administrative body. The company’s territories in India were to be held by it “in trust for his Majesty, his heirs and successors”.
    • Attempt to Open Civil Services: The act attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection in Civil Services. It stated that Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the company. It was nullified after opposition from the Court of Directors. The concept of a merit based modern Civil Service in India was introduced on the recommendations of Lord Macaulay’s Report in 1854.
    The Charter Act of 1853:
    • Separation of Powers: The act introduced a separation of powers within the Governor-General’s Council. A new Legislative Council with six additional members was formed, focusing solely on lawmaking, while the remaining council members handled executive functions. This marked a step towards a more centralized legislative body in India.
    • Limited Indian Representation: For the first time, the Legislative Council included four Indians as non-voting members, representing Bengal, Madras, Bombay, and the North-Western Provinces. However, their role was purely advisory, and the council remained largely dominated by British officials.
    • Open Competition for Civil Services: The Act paved the way for open competition for the Indian Civil Service (ICS) through examinations in Britain. While not yet fully implemented, this laid the groundwork for a more meritocratic system of recruitment, eventually impacting the composition of the colonial bureaucracy.

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CLIMATE CHANGE THREATENS WANDERING ALBATROSS NESTING SITES

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: The wandering albatross, the world’s largest flying bird, faces a significant threat to its existence, with climate change posing risks to its nesting sites.

EXPLANATION:

  • Marion and Prince Edward Islands, situated in the vast Southern Ocean, support about half of the world’s wandering albatross breeding population.
  • A recent study delves into the environmental variables affecting the choice of nesting sites and the potential impact of climate change on these oceanic nomads.

Wandering Albatross: Oceanic Nomads

  • They belong to the family “Diomedeidae”, are large seabirds.
  • The Wandering Albatross have the longest wingspans (195 to 335cm) of any extant birds.
  • Albatrosses are ‘carnivores’ in their food choice.
  • IUCN status of Wandering Albatross – Vulnerable.
  • The wandering albatross spends most of its 60-year lifespan at sea, returning to land to breed approximately every two years.
  • The Southern Ocean, between the latitude of 60 degrees south and Antarctica, serves as their playground.
  • Marion and Prince Edward Islands, being some of the only land masses in the Southern Ocean, play a crucial role in supporting about half of the global wandering albatross breeding population.

Study on Nest Site Selection

  • A study conducted in 2021 aimed to understand the environmental variables influencing the wandering albatross’s choice of nest sites on Marion Island.
  • Elevation emerged as the most crucial variable, with albatrosses showing a preference for lower (warmer) sites and coastal vegetation.
  • However, these preferences raise concerns about the potential impact of climate change on nesting sites.

Variables Influencing Nest Site Selection

  • The study considered various factors, including elevation, terrain ruggedness, slope, distance to the coast, vegetation type, wind speed, wind turbulence, and underlying geology.
  • Elevation was identified as the most important variable, influencing the proximity to the coast, vegetation type, and suitability for nesting.

Climate Change Risks to Nesting Sites

  • Marion Island, of volcanic origin, presents a challenging terrain with sharp rocks and boggy areas.
  • The study points out that changing climates may jeopardize the delicate balance observed in the wandering albatross’s choice of nesting sites.
  • Human-driven changes affecting temperature, rainfall, and wind speeds could lead to shifts in vegetation and other species distributions, impacting the availability of suitable nesting areas.

Impact of Climate Change on Marion Island

  • Marion Island has experienced temperature increases, precipitation decreases, and changes in cloud cover and sunshine hours over the past decades.
  • These alterations, driven by climate change, have already affected the island’s ecosystem.
  • Shifts in vegetation patterns and increased wind speeds in the Southern Ocean further contribute to the complexity of the challenges faced by the wandering albatross.

Shrinking Suitable Nesting Areas

  • If nesting sites shift to higher elevations due to temperature increases, some areas become unsuitable due to changes in vegetation or wind speeds.
  • The study warns that this could lead to a considerable reduction in the suitable nesting area on Marion Island, posing a significant threat to the wandering albatross population.

Conclusion

  • The wandering albatross, facing risks such as bycatch from longline fishing trawlers in the open ocean, now confronts an additional threat—climate change affecting its nesting sites.
  • The study underscores the urgent need for conservation efforts, considering the delicate balance between environmental variables and the potential impact of climate change on the availability of suitable nesting areas for these majestic birds.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/albatrosses-are-threatened-with-extinction-and-climate-change-could-put-their-nesting-sites-at-risk-94072




ALARMING DECLINE IN NUTRITIONAL VALUE: ICAR STUDY HIGHLIGHTS CONCERNS OVER RICE AND WHEAT QUALITY

TAG: GS 3: AGRICULTURE

THE CONTEXT: A recent study conducted by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has raised significant concerns about the nutritional value of rice and wheat consumed by Indians.

EXPLANATION:

  • The study, discussed in a webinar organized by Down To Earth (DTE) and the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), reveals a decline in essential nutrients in these staple grains, emphasizing the potential impact on public health.

Changing Nutrient Profiles Over 50 Years

  • Over the last five decades, the introduction of high-yielding rice and wheat varieties aimed at achieving food security has inadvertently led to alterations in their nutrient profiles.
  • The ICAR-led study highlights a noteworthy decrease in essential nutrients like zinc and iron in rice and wheat.
  • Specifically, zinc and iron concentrations have reduced by 33% and 27% in rice, and 30% and 19% in wheat, respectively.

Green Revolution’s Shift in Focus

  • The Green Revolution, initiated to address India’s growing population and achieve self-sufficiency in food production, primarily focused on improving crop yield.
  • However, after the 1980s, breeders shifted their attention to developing varieties resistant to pests, diseases, and environmental stresses like salinity and drought.
  • This shift neglected the plants’ ability to absorb essential nutrients from the soil, contributing to the observed decline in nutritional content.

Efficiency of Modern-Bred Cultivars

  • The study, an extension of a 2021 research initiative, found that modern-bred cultivars of rice and wheat are less efficient in sequestering nutrients like zinc and iron, despite their availability in the soil.
  • The reduced nutrient density in these staple grains poses a potential threat to the health and well-being of the population.

Impact on Human Health

  • Depleted concentration of essential nutrients, coupled with a significant increase in arsenic content (1,493% in rice), may lead to higher prevalence of diseases related to neurological, reproductive, and musculoskeletal systems.
  • The study underscores the urgent need to address this decline in nutritional value to prevent adverse health outcomes.
  • The study predicts that if the current trend continues, rice and wheat, meeting over 50% of daily energy requirements in India, could lose up to 45% of their food value by 2040.
  • This projection emphasizes the need for immediate intervention to avoid the impoverishment of these staple grains.

Government Initiatives and Challenges

  • Efforts are being made to improve the nutritional profile of food grains, with a focus on bio-fortification.
  • The government, under a special project, has explored landraces and wild species for varieties high in nutritional content.
  • However, despite the development of 142 bio-fortified varieties, challenges remain in popularizing and adopting these varieties on a large scale among farmers.

Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)

  • he Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) was established on 16 July 1929 as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860.
  • It is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
  • It is headquartered at New Delhi. With 102 ICAR institutes and 71 agricultural universities spread across the country this is one of the largest national agricultural systems in the world.
  • It is the apex body for coordinating, guiding and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in the entire country.

Bio Fortification:

  • Biofortification is the process by which the nutritional quality of food crops is improved through agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding, or modern biotechnology.
  • Biofortification can be done using non-genetically-modified methods as well. Biofortification using traditional method involves crossing varieties over successive generations to eventually yield a plant with high nutrient content along with other favorable traits.
  • Examples of biofortification projects include:
    • Iron-biofortification of rice, beans, sweet potato, cassava, and legumes.
    • Zinc-biofortification of wheat, rice, beans, sweet potato, and maize.
    • Provitamin A carotenoid-biofortification of sweet potato, maize and cassava.
    • Amino acid and protein-biofortification of sorghum and cassava.

Conclusion

  • The ICAR study sheds light on the unintended consequences of agricultural practices on the nutritional security of India.
  • Urgent attention is required to address the decline in nutrient content in rice and wheat to ensure the well-being of the population.
  • Government initiatives and public awareness are crucial in mitigating these concerns and promoting sustainable agricultural practices that prioritize both yield and nutritional value.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/indians-consuming-rice-and-wheat-low-in-food-value-high-in-toxins-icar-study-94065




LATE KARPOORI THAKUR HONORED WITH BHARAT RATNA

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: In a significant political development, the Indian government has announced the posthumous conferment of the Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian award, on the late Karpoori Thakur, a prominent socialist icon and former Chief Minister of Bihar.

EXPLANATION:

  • This move, coming on the eve of his 100th birth celebration, underscores his enduring legacy in championing social justice and equality.
  • Karpoori Thakur will be the 49th recipient of the Bharat Ratna and the 15th to be honored posthumously.
  • This recognition adds a layer of historical significance, as it acknowledges Thakur’s pivotal role in shaping India’s socio-political landscape and fighting against social discrimination and inequality.

Thakur’s Background and Political Journey

  • Born in 1924 in the Nai Samaj, one of the most backward sections of society, Thakur’s journey was characterized by unwavering dedication to the marginalized.
  • Serving as the Chief Minister of Bihar, he played a pivotal role in the struggle against social discrimination.
  • His commitment to affirmative action manifested in policies that aimed at providing representation and opportunities to the underprivileged sections, especially in education, employment, and farmer welfare.

Recognition of Lifelong Dedication

  • Government officials underscore that the Bharat Ratna serves as a tribute to Thakur’s lifelong dedication to uplifting the underprivileged.
  • Affectionately known as ‘Jan Nayak’ (People’s Leader), his simplicity in personal conduct and monumental contributions to Indian politics make him a fitting recipient of this prestigious award.
  • By honoring Thakur, the government not only acknowledges him as a symbol of democracy and social justice but also recognizes his deep impact as a motivating figure for marginalized sections.
  • The award aligns with the values of the Indian Constitution – equality, fraternity, and justice for all.
  • Thakur’s life and work, embodying these principles, serve as an inspiration for future generations.

Commemorative Coin Issuance

  • The Finance Ministry’s notification of a commemorative coin in the denomination of ₹100 on Thakur’s birth centenary further underscores the significance of this occasion.
  • While legal tender, commemorative coins are minted to celebrate and honor individuals like Thakur, and their value extends beyond mere circulation.
  • This coin issuance complements the Bharat Ratna announcement, collectively commemorating Thakur’s impactful legacy.

Bharat Ratna:

  • Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the country.
  • It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour.
  • It is treated on a different footing from Padma Award.
  • The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President of India.
  • The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.

Conclusion

  • The posthumous conferment of the Bharat Ratna on Karpoori Thakur represents more than a recognition of past achievements.
  • It is a tribute to values such as simplicity, inclusiveness, and tireless pursuit of social justice.
  • This political milestone not only honors a stalwart of Indian politics but serves as a reminder of the enduring principles that Thakur stood for.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/late-karpoori-thakur-to-be-bestowed-bharat-ratna/article67769735.ece




SERUM INSTITUTE PARTNERS WITH CEPI TO STRENGTHEN GLOBAL VACCINE PRODUCTION AND RESPONSE

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The Serum Institute of India Pvt Ltd (SII) has taken a significant step by joining the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) manufacturing network.

EXPLANATION:

  • This strategic collaboration aims to enhance vaccine production capabilities in the Global South, fostering a more rapid and equitable response to future disease outbreaks.

CEPI’s Global Manufacturing Network Expansion

  • CEPI’s initiative to expand the global footprint of vaccine production gains momentum with the inclusion of SII.
  • This network specifically targets vaccine producers in the Global South, focusing on regions at high risk of outbreaks caused by deadly viral threats such as Lassa Fever, Nipah, Disease X, and other prioritized pathogens.
  • SII’s integration into the CEPI network is seen as a pivotal move towards achieving the ambitious 100 Days Mission.
  • This mission aims to develop new vaccines against known or novel infectious diseases within three months of recognizing a pandemic threat.
  • SII’s participation is expected to bolster vaccine production efforts in the Global South, contributing to the mission’s success.

CEPI’s Investment in SII

  • Recognizing SII’s proven track record in responding rapidly to infectious disease outbreaks, CEPI is investing up to $30 million to augment SII’s capabilities.
  • This investment is geared towards expanding SII’s ability to swiftly supply investigational vaccines during epidemic and pandemic threats.
  • The goal is to enable seamless technology transfer from CEPI-backed vaccine developers to SII, ensuring the rapid and equitable distribution of affordable vaccines to affected populations.
  • CEO of CEPI underscores the critical role that SII’s world-renowned manufacturing and rapid response capabilities will play in facilitating swift and equitable access to outbreak vaccines.
  • In an era marked by heightened epidemic and pandemic risk, the collaboration with SII is deemed essential to preventing potential health crises and avoiding a recurrence of events akin to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • CEO of the Serum Institute of India expresses SII’s commitment to leveraging its manufacturing and rapid response capabilities to strengthen epidemic preparedness.
  • The collaboration aims to enhance access to life-saving vaccines, particularly in Global South countries where such access may be limited.
  • The importance of responding rapidly and equitably to public health outbreaks, aligning with the broader goal of enhancing global health security have been emphasized.

Future Collaborative Endeavors

  • With CEPI’s financial support, SII will not only contribute to vaccine production but also actively support the development, stockpiling, and licensure of new vaccines targeting CEPI’s priority pathogens.
  • The ongoing collaboration between CEPI and SII underscores the joint commitment to advancing vaccine research, production, and accessibility on a global scale.

Serum Institute of India Pvt Ltd (SII):

  • Serum Institute of India was founded in 1966 by Dr. Cyrus Poonawalla with the aim of manufacturing life-saving immuno-biologicals, which were in shortage in the country and imported at high prices.
  • Serum Institute of India Pvt. Ltd. is the world’s largest vaccine manufacturer by number of doses produced and sold globally (more than 1.5 billion doses).
  • It includes Polio vaccine, Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis, Hib, BCG, r-Hepatitis B, Measles, Mumps, Rubella as well as Pneumococcal and Covid-19 vaccines.
  • It is estimated that about 65% of the children in the world receive at least one vaccine manufactured by Serum Institute.
  • Vaccines manufactured by the Serum Institute are accredited by the World Health Organization, Geneva and are being used in around 170 countries across the globe in their national immunization programs, saving millions of lives throughout the world.
  • Serum Institute of India is ranked as India’s No. 1 biotechnology company, manufacturing highly specialized life saving biologicals like vaccines using cutting edge genetic and cell-based technologies, antisera and other medical specialties.

Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI):

  • CEPI is a global partnership launched in 2017 to develop vaccines to stop future epidemics.
  • CEPI was founded in Davos (Switzerland) by the governments of Norway and India, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, the Wellcome Trust, and the World Economic Forum.
  • The Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science & Technology, and Government of India has been implementing the IndCEPI mission ‘India Centric Epidemic Preparedness through Rapid Vaccine Development: Supporting Indian Vaccine Development’.
  • The objectives of this mission are aligned with that of CEPI and aims to strengthen the development of vaccines and associated competencies/technologies for the diseases of epidemic potential in India.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/serum-institute-joins-cepi-global-network-to-boost-production-of-vaccines/article67768801.ece/amp/




THE PULSAR GLITCH

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: The discovery of pulsars led scientists to unravel the connection with neutron stars, born from the remnants of heavy star cores.

EXPLANATION:

  • When these massive stars collapse, they either form black holes or condense into neutron stars, ultra-dense objects where gravity battles against neutron repulsion, creating a delicate equilibrium.
  • Pulsars, it turned out, were rotating neutron stars emitting periodic signals akin to a lighthouse sweeping its beam across the sea.

Pulsars and Neutron Stars

  • In 1967, amidst global events like the Nathu La and Cho La clashes and the Vietnam War, astronomers at the University of Cambridge stumbled upon a cosmic puzzle.
  • Jocelyn Bell Burnell and Antony Hewish, while studying radio waves from distant stars, discovered the first pulsar, PSR B1919+21, setting the stage for a captivating journey into the mysteries of neutron stars.

A schematic diagram of a pulsar

The Eureka Moment and a Mysterious Glitch

  • As scientists delved into understanding pulsars, a momentous discovery emerged in 1969.
  • Two independent research groups reported an abrupt increase in the rotation rate of the pulsar PSR 0833-45 – a glitch that defied explanation for 44 years.
  • Despite the subsequent identification of over 3,000 pulsars and around 700 glitches, the origin of these glitches remained elusive.

The Curious Features of Glitches

  • Upon plotting the rotation rates of pulsars over time, scientists observed a peculiar pattern during glitches.
  • The rotation briefly increased before returning to its original value.
  • Notably, the slow post-glitch relaxation indicated that the neutron star’s interior harbored a superfluid – a frictionless state of matter with remarkable properties.

Superfluids and Vortices

  • Superfluids, when set in motion, exhibit unique behavior, forming vortices.
  • In the neutron star, the crust, believed to be a lattice of nuclei, coexists with a superfluid core.
  • The vortices within the superfluid become pinned to the nuclei, resisting rearrangement.
  • As the star loses energy, the crust slows down, leading to a force on the vortices that overcomes pinning.
  • This results in a brief increase in rotation, causing the observed glitch.

Contested Details and Scientific Inquiry

  • While the overarching mechanism of glitches involving superfluids and vortices is accepted, several details remain hotly contested.
  • The trigger in space and the evolutionary dynamics of glitches are areas of ongoing scientific inquiry.
  • The study of pulsar glitches provides a unique window into the complex physics unfolding inside neutron stars, offering insights that could reshape our understanding of these enigmatic celestial bodies.

Conclusion

  • In the words of Ghalib, “The stars are one thing and appear another, these tricksters fool us openly.”
  • The pulsar glitch, a cosmic riddle, continues to captivate physicists, urging them to probe deeper into the intricate workings of neutron stars and superfluids.
  • The journey from the discovery of pulsars in 1967 to the unresolved glitch mystery of 2024 highlights the enduring fascination and challenges within the realm of astrophysics.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/pulsar-glitch-rotation-neutron-degeneracy-superfluid-explained/article67531899.ece/amp/




Day-579 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMICS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. Consider the following statements:
    1. Luxury goods have negative income elasticity of demand.
    2. Giffen goods have positive price elasticity of demand.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Income elasticity measures the percentage change in quantity demanded with respect to percentage change in income of a consumer.
    Formula= Percentage change in quantity demanded/ percentage change in income
    Income elasticity can be greater than one, less than one or equal to one.
    Luxury goods are those goods whose demand increases more than proportionately with increase in its income. Thus, they have positive income elasticity of demand, which is greater than one. For example, high-end automobiles.
    On the other hand, Inferior goods are those commodities, which have a negative relationship with income. It means their demand reduces with increase in income and vice versa. For example, Parle-G biscuit.
    Statement 2 is correct: Giffen goods are those goods, which are an exception to law of demand and have an upward sloping demand curve. The law of demand states that, other factors being constant (cetris peribus), price and quantity demand of any good and service are inversely related, ie, the demand increases with fall in price and vice versa.
    Contrary to this this, Giffen goods’ demand increases as price increases and vice-versa. Examples include potato and other staple goods. These goods have low substitutes and form a high percentage of a household’s budget. This phenomenon is witnessed in low-income households as the increase in their prices leaves less money for other goods. Hence, households buy more of these goods to compensate for other goods.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: Income elasticity measures the percentage change in quantity demanded with respect to percentage change in income of a consumer.
    Formula= Percentage change in quantity demanded/ percentage change in income
    Income elasticity can be greater than one, less than one or equal to one.
    Luxury goods are those goods whose demand increases more than proportionately with increase in its income. Thus, they have positive income elasticity of demand, which is greater than one. For example, high-end automobiles.
    On the other hand, Inferior goods are those commodities, which have a negative relationship with income. It means their demand reduces with increase in income and vice versa. For example, Parle-G biscuit.
    Statement 2 is correct: Giffen goods are those goods, which are an exception to law of demand and have an upward sloping demand curve. The law of demand states that, other factors being constant (cetris peribus), price and quantity demand of any good and service are inversely related, ie, the demand increases with fall in price and vice versa.
    Contrary to this this, Giffen goods’ demand increases as price increases and vice-versa. Examples include potato and other staple goods. These goods have low substitutes and form a high percentage of a household’s budget. This phenomenon is witnessed in low-income households as the increase in their prices leaves less money for other goods. Hence, households buy more of these goods to compensate for other goods.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following statements:
    1. High oil prices may adversely affect the capital account of an oil- importing country.
    2. High exchange rate of the domestic currency may improve the trade balance of an economy.
    3. Low exchange rate of the domestic currency may make the imports cheaper for an economy.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: High oil-prices negatively impacts the current account of an economy and not capital account. The balance of payment of the country consists of current account and capital account. Current account records all the transactions of trade in goods and services, in addition to private remittances, foreign aid, etc. A high current account deficit is not healthy for the economy.
    Capital account, on the other hand, records the net flow of all transactions of the country with the rest of the world that includes buying and selling of non- financial assets such as fixed assets, land, properties, etc and the financial components like FDI, FPI, external commercial borrowings, etc. India maintains a current account deficit on account of import of oil, electronic goods, etc.
    Statement 2 is correct: High exchange rate with respect to domestic currency also refers to the depreciation of a currency, which is the loss in its value. This makes the exports of a country cheaper in the foreign market, ie, increases its trade competitiveness. Thus, it results in the improvement of the trade balance.
    Statement 3 is correct: Low exchange rate is also known as appreciation of a currency. This results in increase in its value via-a-vis foreign currency. Thus, imports of a country become cheaper as the same value of a domestic currency can buy more goods.
    Additional information: Usually the BoP account doesn’t balance, so for this net errors and omissions account is maintained as not all the transactions can be recorded with the rest of the world.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation
    Statement 1 is incorrect: High oil-prices negatively impacts the current account of an economy and not capital account. The balance of payment of the country consists of current account and capital account. Current account records all the transactions of trade in goods and services, in addition to private remittances, foreign aid, etc. A high current account deficit is not healthy for the economy.
    Capital account, on the other hand, records the net flow of all transactions of the country with the rest of the world that includes buying and selling of non- financial assets such as fixed assets, land, properties, etc and the financial components like FDI, FPI, external commercial borrowings, etc. India maintains a current account deficit on account of import of oil, electronic goods, etc.
    Statement 2 is correct: High exchange rate with respect to domestic currency also refers to the depreciation of a currency, which is the loss in its value. This makes the exports of a country cheaper in the foreign market, ie, increases its trade competitiveness. Thus, it results in the improvement of the trade balance.
    Statement 3 is correct: Low exchange rate is also known as appreciation of a currency. This results in increase in its value via-a-vis foreign currency. Thus, imports of a country become cheaper as the same value of a domestic currency can buy more goods.
    Additional information: Usually the BoP account doesn’t balance, so for this net errors and omissions account is maintained as not all the transactions can be recorded with the rest of the world.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. Consider the following statements:
    1. A decline in yield spread between Indian and US government bonds may result in capital outflows from Indian markets.
    2. RBI buys dollar and sells rupee to check depreciation of rupee.
    3. Selling of Indian stocks by FIIs may result in appreciation of Indian currency.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    • Statement 1 is correct: Recently, the interest rate differential between the US and India has narrowed down due to the hike in policy rate by the Fed. Thus, effectively, yield spread between the US government bonds and Indian bonds has reduced. Due to this, investors may find the risk-reward ratio unfavourable due to high risk involved in the emerging markets, while they consider the US market to be a safe bet. This may result in a capital outflows from emerging markets, here India.
    • Statement 2 is incorrect: A depreciation of rupee represents high demand for foreign currency and low demand for Indian currency. To arrest the sharp depreciation of rupee, RBI may intervene by selling dollars and buying rupee, thus propping up the value of rupee. However, this would also result in decline in forex of the country. RBI became a net seller of dollar in FY23 to curb the fall in the value of rupee following Ukraine- Russia war.
    • Statement 3 is incorrect: Selling of Indian stocks by the foreign institutional investors represents capital outflows. This results in less demand for the Indian currency and high demand for foreign currency ( dollar) and would result in depreciation of rupee and not appreciation as there is low confidence on the Indian markets.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    • Statement 1 is correct: Recently, the interest rate differential between the US and India has narrowed down due to the hike in policy rate by the Fed. Thus, effectively, yield spread between the US government bonds and Indian bonds has reduced. Due to this, investors may find the risk-reward ratio unfavourable due to high risk involved in the emerging markets, while they consider the US market to be a safe bet. This may result in a capital outflows from emerging markets, here India.
    • Statement 2 is incorrect: A depreciation of rupee represents high demand for foreign currency and low demand for Indian currency. To arrest the sharp depreciation of rupee, RBI may intervene by selling dollars and buying rupee, thus propping up the value of rupee. However, this would also result in decline in forex of the country. RBI became a net seller of dollar in FY23 to curb the fall in the value of rupee following Ukraine- Russia war.
    • Statement 3 is incorrect: Selling of Indian stocks by the foreign institutional investors represents capital outflows. This results in less demand for the Indian currency and high demand for foreign currency ( dollar) and would result in depreciation of rupee and not appreciation as there is low confidence on the Indian markets.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. How many of the following are the likely effects of a tight monetary policy on the economy?
    1. Induces the consumers to spend more
    2. Investment cycle gets a boost due to lower interest rate
    3. Negatively impacts the growth rate in the medium term
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    • Statement 1 is incorrect: A contractionary/tight monetary policy is undertaken by the central bank, the Reserve Bank of India, in order reduce the inflationary situation in the economy. The banks will raise interest rates to make lending more expensive, thus discouraging the consumption activity in the economy.
    • Statement 2 is incorrect: A contractionary monetary policy by the central bank raises interest rate, which makes the borrowings costlier. This negatively impacts the investment cycle as the capital costs go up.
    • Statement 3 is correct: A contractionary monetary policy negatively impacts the growth rate in the medium term. Interest rates are raised to cool down the overheated economy. Prolonged high interest discourages the businesses, corporates to undertake capital expenditure, which reduces the gross fixed capital formation in the economy, thus reducing the economic growth.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation
    • Statement 1 is incorrect: A contractionary/tight monetary policy is undertaken by the central bank, the Reserve Bank of India, in order reduce the inflationary situation in the economy. The banks will raise interest rates to make lending more expensive, thus discouraging the consumption activity in the economy.
    • Statement 2 is incorrect: A contractionary monetary policy by the central bank raises interest rate, which makes the borrowings costlier. This negatively impacts the investment cycle as the capital costs go up.
    • Statement 3 is correct: A contractionary monetary policy negatively impacts the growth rate in the medium term. Interest rates are raised to cool down the overheated economy. Prolonged high interest discourages the businesses, corporates to undertake capital expenditure, which reduces the gross fixed capital formation in the economy, thus reducing the economic growth.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. When net factor income from abroad is positive, which of the following is necessarily correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement C is correct: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the aggregate value of final goods and services produced within the domestic economy during a year. On the other hand, Gross National Product (GNP) is the total value of all the final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country.
    GDP can be calculated with three different approaches— expenditure side, income side and output side— with each arriving at the same value. This principle is based on the concept that someone’s expenditure is other person’s income.
    According to expenditure approach:
    GDP= consumption + investment + government spending+ exports- imports
    Relationship between GDP and GNP
    GNP= GDP+net factor income from abroad
    Where net factor income from abroad is the difference between the factor income received from the rest of the world and the factor income paid to the rest of the world.
    Gross Value Added (GVA) or GDP at market prices is the difference between value of output and intermediate consumption of all primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector. While GVA at basic prices includes production taxes and exclude production subsidies, GVA at factor cost includes no taxes and excludes no subsidies.
    GVA/GDP at basic prices = GVA at factor cost + production taxes- production subsidies.
    GVA/GDP at market prices= GDP at basic prices+ product taxes- product subsidies.
    It is to be noted that production taxes and subsidies are not dependent on the volume of production, while product taxes and product subsidies are paid or received based on per unit of a product.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Statement C is correct: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the aggregate value of final goods and services produced within the domestic economy during a year. On the other hand, Gross National Product (GNP) is the total value of all the final goods and services produced by the normal residents of a country.
    GDP can be calculated with three different approaches— expenditure side, income side and output side— with each arriving at the same value. This principle is based on the concept that someone’s expenditure is other person’s income.
    According to expenditure approach:
    GDP= consumption + investment + government spending+ exports- imports
    Relationship between GDP and GNP
    GNP= GDP+net factor income from abroad
    Where net factor income from abroad is the difference between the factor income received from the rest of the world and the factor income paid to the rest of the world.
    Gross Value Added (GVA) or GDP at market prices is the difference between value of output and intermediate consumption of all primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector. While GVA at basic prices includes production taxes and exclude production subsidies, GVA at factor cost includes no taxes and excludes no subsidies.
    GVA/GDP at basic prices = GVA at factor cost + production taxes- production subsidies.
    GVA/GDP at market prices= GDP at basic prices+ product taxes- product subsidies.
    It is to be noted that production taxes and subsidies are not dependent on the volume of production, while product taxes and product subsidies are paid or received based on per unit of a product.

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FIRED UP AND PLUGGED IN – DRIVING INDIA’S ENERGY SECURITY AND DECARBONISATION THIS DECADE

THE CONTEXT: India’s quest for economic growth within COP-28’s coal phase-down commitments necessitates a balance between development, energy security, and decarbonization. The power sector must optimize existing thermal assets, enhance coal plant flexibility, promote energy storage integration, and establish self-reliant RE technology supply chains. Strategic planning in these areas will support India’s dual sustainable development objectives and meet its climate action goals.

ISSUES:

  • Economic Growth and COP-28 Commitments: India aims to be the fastest-growing economy but faces the challenge of global agreements to phase down unabated coal. Adherence to COP-28 dictates a shift from traditional coal reliance to sustainable energy sources.
  • Climate Action and Vulnerability: India is the seventh most vulnerable country to the impacts of climate change. Reduction in fossil fuel subsidies by 76% between FY14 and FY22. Goal to triple installed renewable power generation by 2030.
  • Energy Sector Dynamics: Over 100 GW from coal-based plants meets the base power load most days. Coal remains indispensable for peak demands and backup during non-solar hours.
  • Decarbonization and Energy Security: Strategies to make existing coal plants flexible and more responsive to peak demand periods, reducing unplanned outages. ~38 GW thermal plants faced unplanned outages in 2023. Enhancing coal fleet flexibility to integrate renewable energy smoothly.
  • Renewable Energy Integration: Plans to retrofit approximately 92% of coal and lignite-based capacity for better integration of renewables. Payment mechanisms developed by CERC and state regulators for retrofitting costs.
  • Energy Storage Systems :There is a need for incentivizing storage solutions like battery energy storage systems (BESS) to balance the grid during renewable downtime. Introducing ’round-the-clock’ bids combining renewable energy production with energy storage.
  • Supply Chain Indigenization :Emphasis on indigenizing supply chains for battery storage and renewable energy (RE) technology. FY22 data: Coal worth approx. INR 1.5 lakh crore produced, supporting central and state revenue, and Indian Railways. The Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme commits INR 19,000 crore to solar manufacturing.
  • Policy and Future Commitments :Policymakers are urged to balance domestic energy security with long-term decarbonization plans. Importance of transparent assessment of long-term costs associated with traditional versus renewable energy sources. Focus on providing low-cost and affordable electricity essential for the economy and living standards.

WAY FORWARD:

  • Enhancing Grid Stability and Reducing Outages: Implement advanced grid management using big data analytics and AI to predict and mitigate outages. Strengthen regulatory frameworks to incentivize the reliability of power plants.
  • Integrating Renewable Energy: Accelerate the retrofitting of coal-based power plants to handle variable loads from renewable sources. Develop new market mechanisms to compensate plants for providing flexible services.
  • Renewable Energy Storage Incentives: Establish financial subsidies or tax rebates for energy storage solutions to complement renewable energy sources. Promote public-private partnerships to scale up battery storage infrastructure.
  • Domestic Manufacturing and Atmanirbhar Bharat: Expand the scope of the PLI scheme to include battery storage and other renewable energy technologies. Encourage joint ventures and knowledge sharing with global leaders to build technical expertise.
  • Sustainable Energy Policies: Formulate policies favoring low-carbon technologies and consider total life-cycle costs to make renewables more competitive. Implement robust Feed-in Tariff (FIT) policies to ensure favorable returns on renewable energy investments.
  • Infrastructure for Renewable Integration: Upgrade transmission infrastructure to handle increased renewable capacity. Invest in smart grids capable of two-way communication and dynamic response to changing energy demands.
  • Research and Development: Allocate a significant portion of the national budget to R&D in clean energy technologies. Establish Centers of Excellence for renewable energy research with global partnerships.
  • Public Awareness and Education: Launch nationwide campaigns to raise public awareness regarding the benefits of renewable energy and energy efficiency. Integrate energy conservation and renewable energy principles into educational curriculums.
  • International Cooperation: Maintain active dialogues with international bodies to share best practices and technology transfer in renewable energy. Seek international funding and technical expertise for large-scale renewable projects.
  • Long-term Energy Planning: Conduct comprehensive assessments of the long-term returns and sustainability of energy investments. Frame long-term energy policies that balance immediate energy security needs with long-term decarbonization goals.

THE CONCLUSION:

Proactive strategies to enhance energy sector efficiencies, foster renewable energy integration, and build self-reliant supply chains are crucial and inevitable steps toward a greener future. With judicious policymaking and tech-enabled solutions, India can achieve the dual objectives of energy security and a thriving, sustainable economy.

UPSC PAST YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q 1) Explain the purpose of the Green Grid Initiative launched at the World Leaders Summit of the COP26 UN Climate Change Conference in Glasgow in November 2021. When was this idea first floated in the International Solar Alliance (ISA)? (2021)

Q 2) The adoption of electric vehicles is rapidly growing worldwide. How do electric vehicles contribute to reducing carbon emissions, and what are their key benefits compared to traditional combustion engine vehicles? (2023)

Q 3) With growing energy needs, should India keep expanding its nuclear energy program? Discuss the facts and fears associated with nuclear energy. (2018)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q.1) Discuss the proactive strategies that India can adopt to enhance energy sector efficiencies, foster renewable integration, and build self-reliant supply chains. How can these strategies help India achieve the dual objectives of energy security and a thriving, sustainable economy?”

SOURCE:

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/fired-up-and-plugged-in-driving-indias-energy-security-and-decarbonisation-this-decade/article67765417.ece




ONE NATION, ONE ELECTION PANEL

THE CONTEXT: Recently, a High-Level Committee headed by a former president, Ram Nath Kovind, issued a public notice asking for suggestions for simultaneous election between January 5-15, 2024. According to the Union Law Ministry, 81% of the 20,000-plus responses received by the High-Level Committee on One Nation, One Election have favoured the idea.

ABOUT THE RECENT COMMITTEE:

  • Government has constituted an eight-member high level committee to examine One Nation, One Election in September, 2023.
  • Former President Ram Nath Kovind has been appointed as Chairman of the committee. Union Home Minister Amit Shah, Congress MP Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury, Former Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha Ghulam Nabi Azad, Former Chairman 15th Finance CommissionK. Singh and others are appointed as the members of the committee.
  • The high level committee will examine and make recommendation for holding simultaneous elections of Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, Municipalities and Panchayats, keeping in view the existing framework under the Constitution and other statutory provisions.
  • It will examine and recommend, if the amendments to the Constitution would require ratification by the States.
  • They will also suggest a framework for synchronisation of elections and specifically, suggest the phases and time frame within which simultaneous elections may be held.
  • The committee will also examine the logistics and manpower required, including EVMs and VVPATs for holding simultaneous elections.

CONCEPT OF SIMULTANEOUS ELECTIONS AND BACKGROUND

  • ‘Simultaneous Elections’ is defined as structuring the Indian election cycle in a manner such that elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies are synchronized together.
  • The elections to the House of the People and Legislative Assemblies of States were mostly held simultaneously from 1951-52 to 1967 after which this cycle got broken.
  • Lok Sabha and State legislatures went to polls together in 1952 and 1957, with the Congress initially comfortably placed all over the country.
  • The synchronised cycle was first broken in Kerala, in July 1959, when the Centre invoked Article 356 of the Constitution to dismiss the ministry headed by E M S Namboodiripad of the Communist Party. This was followed by state elections in February 1960.
  • As the Congress’s popularity declined, it suffered major setbacks in several states Bihar, UP, Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala in the 1967 elections.
  • Consequently, Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments, comprising Bharatiya Kranti Dal, SSP, PSP, Swatantra Party, Jana Sangh and Congress defectors, came to power.
  • Defections and counter-defections ultimately led to the dissolution of Assemblies, which separated the poll cycles of many states from the central one.
  • At present, Assembly elections in Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim are held together with Lok Sabha polls.

PREVIOUS RECOMMENDATIONS:

  • Election Commission (1983): In 1983, the Election Commission proposed the idea of holding simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies.
  • The Law Commission (1999): The Law Commission, led by Justice B.P. Jeevan Reddy, presented its 170th report in May 1999. The report recommended exploring a system where elections for the Lok Sabha and all legislative assemblies are held simultaneously.
  • Election Commission (2019): In 2019, Chief Election Commissioner Sunil Arora expressed support for the idea of simultaneous elections, calling it a desirable goal. He suggested aligning the terms of state assemblies with the life of the Parliament for successful implementation.
  • Parliamentary Standing Committee (2015): The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law, and Justice, led by E.M. Sudarsana Natchiappan, compiled a report in 2015. The report highlighted benefits such as
  • Massive expenditure that is currently incurred for the conduct of separate elections
  • Policy paralysis that results from the imposition of the Model Code of Conduct during election time;
  • Impact on delivery of essential services
  • Burden on crucial manpower that is deployed during election time,” the report observed.
  • Law Commission’s Draft Report (2018): In August 2018, the Law Commission, under the leadership of Justice B.S. Chauhan, drafted a report stating that simultaneous elections couldn’t be held within the existing constitutional framework. The Commission recommended amendments to the Constitution, the Representation of the People Act 1951, and parliamentary procedures for its implementation. The report suggested that at least 50% of states ratify constitutional amendments.

ISSUES:

  • Partisan committee: Given the constitution and manner of functioning and the larger context of one-party dominance, the newly formed committee gives the impression of just being the rubber stamp.
  • Constitutional Amendments:Implementing simultaneous elections needs extensive amendments to the Constitution and electoral laws, which requires complex negotiations and consensus-building.
  • Impact on Federal Structure:Simultaneous elections has the potential to weaken the federal structure and eroding the autonomy of state elections.
  • Financial burden:Coordinating simultaneous elections would place a significant burden on the Election Commission’s resources, possibly affecting the efficiency and credibility of the electoral process.
  • Lack of engagement of opposition: There is a lack of robust debate on the proposal of simultaneous elections as there is lack of engagement of opposition. For example, Congress leader in the Lok Sabha, refused to be a part of the Committee arguing that it is imbalanced.

THE WAY FORWARD

  • Taking into account opposition viewpoint: Though, the Committee’s terms of reference assume that One Nation, One Election is in “national interest”. But despite this, there is a need for opposition leader to play an important role by pushing for greater transparency in the process. As such a fundamental change in the democratic structure and process cannot be brought without adequate engagement with the Opposition’s concerns.
  • Consultative approach: Achieving simultaneous elections in India requires a consultative approach and stakeholder consultations to adapt a framework that can pave the way for a synchronized electoral process.
  • Uphold federalism: There is a need to balance the benefits of streamlined governance with the complexities of diverse regional dynamics to uphold federalism. A system of election should be devised that respects federal structures while enhancing administrative efficiency.

THE CONCLUSION:

The concept of one nation, one election remains a subject of ongoing deliberation in Indian politics. While proponents emphasize the potential advantages of simultaneous election and critics raise valid concerns about its implementation and impact on regional dynamics. The future of this proposal of simultaneous election will depend on various factors in the evolving political landscape of India.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (2018)

Q.2 To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (2017)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1 Discuss the challenges for conducting simultaneous election in India and suggest measures to ensure federalism while upholding democratic process in the country.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/one-nation-one-election-union-law-ministry-high-level-committee-lok-sabha-elections-2024-9122617/




WITH THE RAM TEMPLE CONSECRATION IN AYODHYA, RECALLING WHAT GANDHI SAID ABOUT RAM RAJYA

THE CONTEXT: –“Ram Rajya” is an ideal state associated with moral values such as justice, equality, and truth. As envisioned by Mahatma Gandhi, it was not limited to a particular religion but was about respect for all faiths and religious harmony. Mahatma Gandhi believed that Ram Rajya meant the kingdom of God, where even the most marginalized would receive swift justice. He associated it with democracy, equality, and non-violence.

ISSUES:

  • Misinterpretation of Gandhian Ideology: Risk of Gandhi’s concept of ‘Ram Rajya’ being misunderstood or misrepresented, aligning it with religious connotations rather than the broader moral governance he advocated for.
  • Political Symbolism versus Reality: The risk of political leaders using the term ‘Ram Rajya’ for symbolic value rather than committing to its underlying principles of justice, equality, and truth in policy and governance.
  • Religious Pluralism and Secularism: Challenges to secularism with the promotion of symbols associated with a particular religion, which may lead to feelings of alienation or discrimination among minority communities.
  • Economic and Social Disparities: Although leaders speak of ‘Ram Rajya’ in the context of development and prosperity, actualizing these ideals amidst persistent economic inequality and poverty remains an issue.
  • Justice and Access to Rights: The complexity and cost of legal procedures contrast Gandhi’s vision of a system where the most marginalized can swiftly obtain justice.
  • Communal Harmony: The invocation of ‘Ram Rajya’ comes at a time of heightened communal sensitivity in India, potentially disrupting harmony if the term is seen as exclusionary.
  • Constitutional Values: Upholding the fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution in the light of Gandhian philosophy, emphasizing equality and non-discrimination across all spectrums of society.

WAY FORWARD: –

  • Enhancing Constitutional Understanding and Moral Governance: Strengthen civic education to enhance understanding of constitutional values and the vision of ‘Ram Rajya’ as a moral and ethically governed state. Educational reforms incorporate teachings on justice, equality, and truth in the curriculum to build a socially conscious citizenry.
  • Enforcing Secularism and Religious Harmony: Reinforce the secular ethos through policies and public discourse, emphasizing the state’s neutral stance on religion. Encourage interfaith dialogue and initiatives that promote mutual respect and understanding among diverse religious communities.
  • Bridging Socio-Economic Inequalities: Implement equitable economic policies to minimize disparities and ensure that the benefits of growth reach the most marginalized segments. Monitor and address the root causes of poverty and social injustice to realize the welfare state envisioned in ‘Ram Rajya’.
  • Streamlining Access to Justice: Simplify legal processes and improve access to justice for all, particularly the impoverished and marginalized communities. Invest in legal aid services and judicial infrastructure to ensure fairness and efficiency in dispensing justice.
  • Promotion of Non-Violence and Peaceful Coexistence: Adopt Gandhian principles of ahimsa (non-violence) in conflict resolution at both domestic and international levels. Engage civil society and community leaders in peace-building efforts to foster non-violent advocacy and action.
  • Inclusive Development and Political Integrity: Development policies must be people-centric, focusing on improving the quality of life for every citizen, irrespective of their socio-economic status. Uphold political integrity and accountability, ensuring that governance is transparent, responsive, and corrupt-free.
  • Fostering Self-Introspection and Personal Growth: Promote self-introspection for personal and societal growth inspired by Gandhian philosophy. Encourage self-improvement and community service to contribute to collective welfare. Achieve “Ram Rajya” – where everyone is treated with dignity, has rights, and can live harmoniously.

THE CONCLUSION: –

The ‘Ram Rajya’ concept advocated by Mahatma Gandhi represents a secular framework that upholds justice, equality, and truth. It aligns with the constitution and promotes democratic values, moral governance, and non-violent reform for all citizens, irrespective of their socio-economic background.

UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Q.1) “Anger and intolerance are the enemies of correct understanding.” Mahatma Gandhi (2018)

Q.2) Throw light on the significance of Mahatma Gandhi’s thoughts in the present times. (2018)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION

Q.1) What were some key elements of Gandhi’s “Ram Rajya” concept, and how did he interpret it? How did Gandhi link Ram Rajya to principles such as justice, non-violence, and democratic governance?

SOURCE:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/this-quote-means-ayodhya-ram-temple-gandhi-ram-rajya-9120495/




WSDP Bulletin (23/01/2024)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

1. Jammu CSIR lab finds cannabis plant compound has antibiotic effects | Explained READ MORE

2. Govt expands scope of financial services on offer at IFSC READ MORE

3. PM Modi announces solar roof-top scheme for one crore households READ MORE

4. Odisha government seeks urgent deployment of kumki elephants from Tamil Nadu READ MORE

5. PM Modi launches new rooftop solar power scheme: What it is, why it is needed READ MORE

6. How food inflation in India has been de-globalised, what factors can drive prices now READ MORE

7. Over 17,000 tree species face heightened risk of extinction due to global change READ MORE

8. What ails climate-smart agriculture in South Asia? Limited state resources & incentives, unequal tech dissemination READ MORE

9. Over 3% of all cancer patients in India are under 15; 4.6% under 20: Study READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

1. Women in small towns see a future in business READ MORE

2. How smartphones can make education inclusive READ MORE

3. Unravelling Antarctica’s Shrinking Sea Ice Levels READ MORE

4. Multi-pronged strategy needed to conserve groundwater READ MORE

5. China’s population dip is a global concern READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1. Why was FCRA registration for several NGOs cancelled? | Explained READ MORE

2. On equal access to benefits for all Scheduled Caste communities | Explained READ MORE

3. The idea of one nation, one election is against federalism READ MORE

4. How the Union Govt Is Slowly but Surely Blurring India’s Federal Structure READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

1. Time to move beyond 1-2-3-4: What the ASER report reveals about Indian education system READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

1. Delving into the Iran-Pak dispute: While tensions may have been defused for now, the underlying causes persist READ MORE   

2. India-Maldives ties: Turbulence in paradise READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

1. Tax contribution by States needs to be revisited READ MORE

2. Fired up and plugged in – Driving India’s energy security and decarbonisation this decade READ MORE

3. Building on financial inclusion’s success READ MORE

4. Cooperative route to build rural economy READ MORE

5. India’s fight for food security at WTO READ MORE

6. What next for India’s fintech revolution? READ MORE

7. WTO | Permanent solution to central pool stocks critical for India READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

1. Warming up to climate change: What is the 1.5 degree Celsius threshold, and what happens when we breach it? READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

1. Better use of technology needs free access READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

1. Army needs smartsizing to optimise resource utilisation READ MORE   

2. Will Myanmar fence end problems? READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

1. In Morbi’s debris, the role of the State in PPP projects READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

1. Ram represents triumph of responsibility READ MORE

2. Education’s role in opening the mind READ MORE

CASE STUDY

1. How Aadhaar is strangling MGNREGA in a Maharashtra district and pushing workers to migrate READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

1. India’s growing economy and Azerbaijan’s strategic location as a gateway to Europe and Asia offer the potential for increased trade and investment. Comment.

2. It is important to focus on technical and vocational education from the school level onwards so that children are equipped with skills that are needed in a growing economy. Comment in the light of ASER’s survey.

3. AI can lead to economic growth, but it also has the potential to destabilise national policies and disrupt financial systems. Critically comment.

4. The Right to Education Act, 2009 may have ensured universal access to education, but there is many a gap to fill before it touches every child in the true spirit of the law. Comment on the statement in the light of recent ASER’s report.

5. Asia is one of the fastest-growing regions globally and a united Asian front could serve as a counterbalance allowing for a more multipolar world order where India plays a significant role. Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • Everyone’s worried about stopping terrorism. Well, there’s really an easy way: Stop participating in it.
  • The cost of holding free and fair elections to elect a government of the choice of the people is a price that can never be high.
  • The Model Code of Conduct and other guidelines issued by the Election Commission are necessary pains to ensure that executive influence over voters is kept to a minimum and the playing field, during the election period, remains level.
  • The Indian constitutional architecture is structured differently granting higher courts inherent and broad powers of judicial review when executive actions transgress the fields assigned to them.
  • Efficiency is to reward the States that are efficient in collecting revenue and rationalising spending. The trade-off between equity and efficiency is normative and remains dynamic in successive Finance Commission recommendations.
  • In the case of Union excise duties, the value of taxable products consumed in a State is essential to decide its contribution. Due to the unavailability of proper consumption statistics, contribution was never a determinant in the distribution formula for Union excise duties.
  • In this critical decade, the spotlight will be on how India decarbonises its power sector while ensuring economic development and energy security.
  • To effectively advance financial inclusion in India, a comprehensive and multifaceted strategy is essential, addressing the varied needs of its diverse population.
  • Overcoming geographical and social barriers, such as inaccessibility, illiteracy and other socio-economic constraints, is imperative to achieve financial inclusion vision.
  • In this evolving scenario, maintaining consistency in international relations and diplomatic finesse becomes paramount for India to navigate the stormy waters of the India-Maldives controversy.
  • With AI, cyber-risks will pose a significant threat. But the challenges can spur agile and proactive regulatory resposes to safeguard users while fostering innovation.
  • Through generative AI India see conversational interfaces that support a range of regional languages and this evolution reflects a more interactive and accessible approach across the country, further bridging the digital and financial divide.
  • The fintech landscape in India, as with other digital new-age sectors, will continue to face challenges with cyber risk and data security, especially as we enter the AI-led future.
  • Apart from issuing guidelines and directives, the health authorities should ensure that they are strictly followed. It is not known whether there are inspections and checks and those who violate the rules are penalised.
  • Responsibilities of the state governments are being slowly overtaken by the Centre, keen as it is to take credit for all welfare programmes. Meanwhile, state coffers are not getting the assistance they need from the Union government.
  • In a federal structure it is critical that Union government responds to the needs of states and there is complete transparency and accountability in the functioning of both these organs.

ESSAY TOPIC

  • Happiness is when what you think, what you say, and what you do are in harmony.

50-WORD TALK

  • Supreme Court’s refusal to extend the deadline for surrender of Bilkis Bano’s rape convicts is a bold iteration of the rule of law. Their reasons for extension were flimsy and an obvious sham to buy more time. It was a travesty that they were even released in the first place.
  • Health ministry’s direction to doctors ordering them to specify the reason every time they prescribe antibiotics has come not a day too soon. With high incidence of antibiotics abuse, India’s contribution to the global drug-resistant pathogen is very high. And it is now also India’s burden to fix the problem.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



NHRC ADVOCATES IMPLEMENTATION OF IDATE COMMISSION REPORT FOR NOMADIC TRIBES’ PROTECTION

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has emphasized the critical need for implementing the Idate Commission report, which recommends the establishment of a permanent commission for Nomadic, Semi-Nomadic, and De-Notified Tribes (NTs, SNTs, and DNTs) in India.

EXPLANATION:

  • The commission’s call for action also includes the repeal of the Habitual Offenders Act, 1952, and the formulation of specific policies for the welfare of these marginalized communities.
  • One of the commission members stressed the importance of changing the colonial mindset that labels De-Notified Tribes as having “criminal tendencies.”
  • The need for proper documentation of their identities to ensure they benefit from welfare schemes and receive basic necessities has been also highlighted.
  • De-Notified communities lacking citizenship documents, leads to challenges in obtaining government benefits and constitutional rights.

Recommendations from the Idate Commission Report:

  • The Idate Commission report suggests several key measures for the protection and empowerment of NTs, SNTs, and DNTs:
    • Establishment of a Permanent Commission:
      • The Idate Commission proposes the creation of a permanent commission dedicated to addressing the unique needs and challenges faced by Nomadic, Semi-Nomadic, and De-Notified Tribes.
    • Repealing the Habitual Offenders Act, 1952:
      • The NHRC stresses the urgency of repealing this act, which has been a source of stigma and discrimination against these communities.
      • Alternatively, it recommends the appointment of a representative from the De-Notified Tribe community as stipulated in the Act.
    • Non-Inclusion under SC/ST/OBC:
      • The report advocates for the non-inclusion of DNTs/NTs/SNTs under the Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Other Backward Classes (OBC) categories.
      • It emphasized the need for specific policies tailored to their requirements.

Addressing Stigma and Discrimination:

  • Historical Context:
    • The NHRC acknowledges the historical challenges faced by NTs, SNTs, and DNTs, stemming from enactments like the Criminal Tribes Act, 1872, and the Habitual Offenders Act, 1952.
    • It underscores the necessity to modify discriminatory provisions of the latter.
  • Identifying Challenges and Facilitating Basic Facilities:
    • The NHRC calls for the identification of challenges faced by these communities, particularly in accessing basic facilities such as education, employment, healthcare, and legal documents.
    • It urges the development of measures to mitigate these challenges.
  • Ensuring Representation:
    • The NHRC advocates for the representation of De-Notified tribes in parliament, government institutions, and higher education, with a specific focus on women and children.

Idate Commission

  • The Idate Commission has made a total of 20 recommendations which concern the various ministries and departments.
  • Some of the issues raised by the report with regard to these ministries involve:
    • the repealing of the Habitual Offenders Act (which still results in harassment of the community by the police),
    • provision of PDS cards,
    • special housing schemes for the largely landless community,
    • establishment of a separate academy to preserve their art and culture,
    • special education and health schemes.

Conclusion:

  • The NHRC’s proactive stance on implementing the Idate Commission report and addressing the multifaceted challenges faced by Nomadic, Semi-Nomadic, and De-Notified Tribes reflects a commitment to human rights, social justice, and the eradication of discriminatory practices.
  • The recommendations underscore the need for a comprehensive and inclusive approach to uplift these marginalized communities and ensure their meaningful participation in India’s socio-economic and political landscape.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/protection-of-nomadic-tribes-nhrc-stress-on-need-for-implementation-of-the-idate-commission-report/article67757054.ece#:~:text=The%20National%20Human%20Rights%20Commission,%2C%20and%20DNTs)%20in%20India




NAMIBIAN CHEETAH BIRTHS AT KUNO NATIONAL PARK

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: In a significant development for India’s wildlife conservation efforts, a Namibian cheetah named Jwala has given birth to three cubs at the Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh.

EXPLANATION:

  • This follows closely after another Namibian cheetah, Aasha, gave birth to three cubs a few weeks earlier.
  • The news was shared by Union Environment Minister highlighting the success of ‘Project Cheetah.’

Project Cheetah and Reintroduction Efforts:

  • Project Cheetah is the world’s first intercontinental large wild carnivore translocation project.
  • The project aimed at the reintroduction of Cheetahs in the country which had become extinct in 1950s in the country.
  • The cheetahs, including Jwala and Aasha, were translocated from Namibia as part of this ambitious conservation initiative.
  • The cheetahs were translocated from Namibia and South Africa, showcasing global collaboration in wildlife conservation.
  • The first batch of eight cheetahs arrived in India in September 2022, followed by a second batch of 12 cheetahs from South Africa in February.
  • Project Cheetah aimed at establishing a self-sustaining population of about 35 cheetahs in the country over the next decade.
  • However the Project has faced several criticisms with the death of 9 cheetahs (6 adults and 3 cubs) out of the 20 translocated cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa.

  • The birth of three cubs by Namibian cheetah Jwala adds to the growing success of the reintroduction program at Kuno National Park.
  • Earlier, Aasha had given birth to three cubs on January 3, showcasing the adaptability and reproductive success of the translocated cheetahs.

Challenges:

  • Jwala had previously given birth to four cubs in March, but unfortunately, only one of them survived.
  • This highlights the challenges and uncertainties associated with the reintroduction process and the delicate nature of wildlife conservation.

Importance of Cheetah Reintroduction:

  • The reintroduction of cheetahs holds ecological significance, contributing to the restoration of a balanced ecosystem.
  • Cheetahs, as apex predators, play a crucial role in controlling herbivore populations, ensuring the health of the overall ecosystem.

Conclusion:

  • The birth of three cubs by Namibian cheetah Jwala at Kuno National Park marks a positive step forward in India’s efforts to reintroduce this magnificent species.
  • It underscores the success of ‘Project Cheetah’ and highlights the dedication of wildlife conservationists.
  • As the cubs grow, they symbolize hope for the revival of a species once extinct in India, contributing to the country’s rich biodiversity and ecological balance.
  • The collaborative efforts and achievements in cheetah translocations exemplify India’s commitment to global conservation initiatives.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/three-cubs-born-to-namibian-cheetah-at-kuno-national-park/article67767867.ece




GOVERNMENT EXPANDS FINANCIAL SERVICES SCOPE AT IFSC

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The Indian government has recently broadened the range of activities permissible at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC), including services like bookkeeping, accounting, taxation, and financial crime compliance.

EXPLANATION:

  • This strategic move aims to enhance the appeal and functionality of the IFSC, a designated financial hub set up to attract international businesses and investors.
  • In a gazette notification issued by the Ministry of Finance, various financial services, crucial for international financial transactions, have been explicitly incorporated into the scope of activities at the IFSC.
  • The services mentioned include bookkeeping, accounting, taxation, and financial crime compliance.

Regulatory Framework and IFSC Authority:

  • The financial services offered at the IFSC will be regulated by the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA).
  • This regulatory body ensures adherence to global standards and provides a conducive environment for financial activities within the IFSC.

Target Audience and Business Set-Up Conditions:

  • The notification specifies that the financial services can be offered by IFSC-regulated units to non-residents.
  • However, these non-resident businesses should not be set up through the splitting up of existing businesses in India or the reconstruction/reorganization of businesses already in existence in India.

Restrictions on Transferring Existing Contracts:

  • To prevent any misuse or evasion of regulations, the notification imposes a restriction on IFSC units.
  • These units are not allowed to offer financial services by transferring or receiving existing contracts or work arrangements from their group entities based in India.

Enhancing IFSC’s Competitive Edge:

  • The expansion of financial services at the IFSC aligns with the government’s efforts to position it as a competitive global financial hub.
  • By including critical services like bookkeeping and accounting, the IFSC becomes more versatile, catering to the diverse needs of international businesses and investors.
  • The role of the IFSCA becomes pivotal in ensuring that the financial services offered at the IFSC comply with international standards, maintain transparency, and adhere to regulatory guidelines.
  • This is crucial for building trust among international stakeholders and attracting a wide range of financial activities.

International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) :

  • An IFSC enables bringing back the financial services and transactions that are currently carried out in offshore financial centres by Indian corporate entities and overseas branches/subsidiaries of Financial Institutions (such as banks, insurance companies, etc.) to India.
  • It offers a business and regulatory environment that is comparable to other leading international financial centres in the world like London and Singapore.
  • IFSCs are intended to provide Indian corporates with easier access to global financial markets, and to complement and promote further development of financial markets in India.
  • The first IFSC in India has been set up at the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in Gandhinagar.

Conclusion:

  • The government’s decision to broaden the scope of financial services at the IFSC demonstrates a commitment to fostering a business-friendly environment and positioning India as a key player in the global financial landscape.
  • By incorporating services like bookkeeping and accounting, the IFSC aims to become a one-stop destination for diverse financial activities, attracting international businesses seeking a well-regulated and dynamic financial ecosystem.
  • The success of this initiative will not only boost India’s economic standing but also contribute to the global competitiveness of the IFSC.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/govt-expands-scope-of-financial-services-on-offer-at-ifsc/article67766402.ece




FCRA REGISTRATION CANCELLATIONS

TAG: GS 2: POLITY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 (FCRA) registration of two prominent non-governmental organisations (NGOs) — Centre for Policy Research (CPR) and World Vision India (WVI) have been cancelled.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) plays a crucial role in regulating foreign donations to NGOs in India.
  • The Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the FCRA, ensuring that foreign funds do not compromise the country’s internal security.
  • Thousands of NGOs faced FCRA registration renewal in 2020-2021, with the process being impacted by the COVID-19 pandemic and amendments to the FCRA Act in 2020.
  • The MHA, recognizing these challenges, extended the renewal deadline multiple times, with the latest extension set until March 31, 2024.

Evolution of FCRA Legislation:

  • Enacted in 1976, the FCRA underwent significant changes, culminating in the 2010 legislation.
  • Further amendments were made in 2020.
  • It solidified the legal framework for NGOs receiving foreign donations.
  • Registration under FCRA is mandatory for entities intending to receive foreign contributions.

Scale of FCRA Cancellations:

  • Since 2015, over 16,000 NGOs have seen their FCRA registrations canceled due to violations.
  • As of January 22, there were 16,989 FCRA-registered NGOs.
  • Nearly 6,000 NGOs had their registrations cease from January 1, 2022, either due to MHA refusals or the NGOs not applying for renewal.

MHA Report on NGO Vulnerability:

  • A 2012 MHA report highlighted the vulnerability of the NGO sector, acknowledging over 20 lakh registered NGOs in the country.
  • Less than 2% of these are registered under FCRA.
  • The report emphasized the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing, necessitating rigorous enforcement and international coordination.

Fresh FCRA Registrations and Trends:

  • In 2023, a record 1,111 associations gained fresh FCRA registration.
  • Analysis revealed that nearly half of these registrations under the religious category were for Christian NGOs.
  • Out of 1,615 applications received in 2021 and 2022, 722 were granted clearance, while 225 applications were rejected.

Foreign Contribution Statistics:

  • The MHA reported that 13,520 associations received ₹55,741.51 crore in foreign contributions during the financial years 2019-2022.
  • It indicates the substantial impact of foreign aid on various social, economic, and cultural programs.
  • The MHA alleged that Centre for Policy Research (CPR) diverted foreign donations for protests against developmental projects, impacting India’s economic interests.
  • CPR’s involvement in producing current affairs programs, using foreign funds, was deemed a violation.
  • World Vision India’s (WVI) registration was canceled for FCRA violations spanning from 2012-13 to 2020-21.

Responses and Controversies:

  • CPR contested the MHA’s decision, labeling it incomprehensible and disproportionate.
  • CPR argued that some reasons challenged the very functioning of a research institution.
  • WVI, a major recipient of foreign donations, faced cancellations over alleged violations, raising questions about the application of FCRA regulations.

Conclusion:

  • The cancellations of FCRA registrations for CPR and WVI shed light on the government’s commitment to ensuring accountability in the utilization of foreign contributions.
  • The broader context of FCRA cancellations underscores the challenges and complexities of regulating the NGO sector, balancing transparency, and safeguarding national interests.
  • As FCRA continues to evolve, the need for fair assessments and clear communication between regulatory authorities and NGOs becomes imperative.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/why-was-fcra-registration-for-several-ngos-cancelled-explained/article67766734.ece




PRADHAN MANTRI SURYODAYA YOJANA

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: Prime Minister recently launched the ‘Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana’, a pivotal government initiative aimed at installing rooftop solar power systems in one crore households.

EXPLANATION:

  • This initiative comes in the backdrop of the existing Rooftop Solar Programme.
    • It was launched in 2014 with the ambitious goal of achieving 40 GW of cumulative installed capacity by 2022.
    • It was later extended to 2026.
  • The primary objective of this scheme is to install solar power systems on residential rooftops, benefiting approximately one crore households.
  • This initiative not only aims to reduce electricity bills for the poor and middle class but also aligns with India’s broader goal of achieving self-reliance in the energy sector.

Current Solar Capacity in India:

  • As of December 2023, India’s solar power installed capacity stands at approximately 73.31 GW, with rooftop solar contributing around 11.08 GW.
  • Noteworthy leaders in total solar capacity include Rajasthan with 18.7 GW and Gujarat with 10.5 GW.
  • In the rooftop solar segment, Gujarat leads with 2.8 GW, followed by Maharashtra with 1.7 GW.
  • Solar power holds a significant share in India’s total renewable energy capacity, reaching around 180 GW.
  • India is projected to experience the highest growth in energy demand globally over the next three decades.
  • Meeting this demand necessitates a reliable energy source, and with a commitment to reaching 500 GW of renewable energy capacity by 2030, solar energy becomes pivotal.
  • The expansion is evident in the trajectory of solar capacity, growing from less than 10 MW in 2010 to 70.10 GW in 2023.

Rooftop Solar Programme:

  • The Rooftop Solar Programme, initiated in 2014, focuses on expanding rooftop solar capacity in the residential sector.
  • It provides Central Financial Assistance and incentives to distribution companies (DISCOMs).
  • The target of achieving 40 GW of rooftop solar capacity by March 2026 has seen significant progress, with capacity increasing from 1.8 GW in March 2019 to 10.4 GW in November 2023.
  • Consumers can benefit from the programme through DISCOM tendered projects or the National Portal (www.solarrooftop.gov.in).
  • The National Portal offers consumers the flexibility to choose vendors, select solar equipment based on brand and quality, and receive subsidy directly in their bank accounts after installation and inspection.
  • The surplus solar power generated can be exported to the grid, with consumers receiving monetary benefits based on prevailing regulations.

Pradhanmantri Suryoday Yojana Eligibility:

  • Applicants are required to be permanent residents of India.
  • The annual income of applicants should not surpass Rs 1 or 1.5 lakh.
  • All necessary documents must be submitted accurately.
  • Applicants should not be engaged in government service.

Benefits:

  • Approximately one crore households will receive solar rooftop systems installed on their residences.
  • The scheme specifically targets assisting those who are economically disadvantaged, including citizens below the poverty line, with their electricity expenses and other issues related to lighting.
  • Participants in the scheme will have solar-powered lights installed in their homes, ensuring a continuous 24-hour supply of electricity.
  • It is envisioned as a lasting solution, offering citizens a permanent and reliable source of electricity.

Conclusion:

  • The Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana, in conjunction with the ongoing Rooftop Solar Programme, reflects India’s commitment to harnessing solar energy for a sustainable and self-reliant future.
  • The initiatives not only address the pressing need for clean energy but also empower households, especially those in the lower-income brackets, by reducing electricity bills and contributing to India’s renewable energy goals.
  • The success of these programs is crucial in shaping India’s energy landscape and combating the challenges posed by increasing energy demand and environmental concerns.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/modi-launches-new-rooftop-solar-scheme-pradhan-mantri-suryodaya-yojana-9122514/




Day-578 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | CURRENT DEVELOPMENTS

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  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question

    1. With reference to the UN Democracy Fund (UNDEP), consider the following statements:
    1. The primary objective of the UN Democracy Fund is to facilitate peace and security, protect civilians, and support the restoration of stable governance structures.
    2. India is the fourth highest donor to the UN Democracy Fund.
    3. It mobilises finances by mandatory contributions from its member states in accordance with their voting power.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: India, a founding member of UNDEF, has no objections to the Fund giving grants to NGOs funded by George Soros, while he is put on the watchlist in India in April, 2023.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: UNDEF funds projects that empower civil society, promote human rights, and encourage the participation of all groups in democratic processes. The large majority of UNDEF funds go to local civil society organizations. In this way, UNDEF plays a novel and unique role in complementing the UN’s other, more traditional work — the work with Governments — to strengthen democratic governance around the world.
    Statement 2 is correct: India is a founding member of UNDEF. India is the fourth highest donor to the UN Democracy Fund (UNDEF).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It subsists entirely on voluntary contributions from Governments.
    Additional information:
    About UN Democracy Fund:
    • It was created by the former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2005 as a United Nations General Trust Fund to support democratization efforts around the world.
    Advisory Board:
    It is constituted by the Secretary-General and includes eight largest Member State contributors and six other states to reflect diverse geographical representation. India has been a member of the Board since the beginning.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: India, a founding member of UNDEF, has no objections to the Fund giving grants to NGOs funded by George Soros, while he is put on the watchlist in India in April, 2023.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: UNDEF funds projects that empower civil society, promote human rights, and encourage the participation of all groups in democratic processes. The large majority of UNDEF funds go to local civil society organizations. In this way, UNDEF plays a novel and unique role in complementing the UN’s other, more traditional work — the work with Governments — to strengthen democratic governance around the world.
    Statement 2 is correct: India is a founding member of UNDEF. India is the fourth highest donor to the UN Democracy Fund (UNDEF).
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It subsists entirely on voluntary contributions from Governments.
    Additional information:
    About UN Democracy Fund:
    • It was created by the former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2005 as a United Nations General Trust Fund to support democratization efforts around the world.
    Advisory Board:
    It is constituted by the Secretary-General and includes eight largest Member State contributors and six other states to reflect diverse geographical representation. India has been a member of the Board since the beginning.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question

    2. Consider the following pairs:
    Militant group – Places
    1. Fano militia – Ethiopia
    2. Hezbollah – Sudan
    3. Hamas – Niger
    How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: Various militant groups have been in news recently due to launch of devastating attack in different regions.
    Explanation:
    Given below is the correctly matched pairs:
    Militant group – Places
    1) Fano militia – Ethiopia
    2) Hezbollah – Lebanon
    3) Hamas – Palestine
    Additional information:
    • Hamas, an acronym of its official name, the Islamic Resistance Movement, is a Palestinian Sunni Islamist political and military organization governing the Gaza Strip of the Palestinian territories, which are occupied by Israel under international law.
    • Hezbollah is a Shiite Islamic militant organisation from Lebanon. The think tank Centre for Strategic and International Studies (CSIS) has described it as “The world’s most heavily armed non-state actor, with a large and diverse stockpile of unguided artillery rockets, as well as ballistic, antiair, antitank, and antiship missiles.” Hezbollah originated during the Lebanese Civil War (1975-1990), which was a result of “long-simmering discontent over the large, armed Palestinian presence in the country”, according to the Council on Foreign Relations (CFR).
    • Fano is an ethno-nationalist Amhara youth militia and former protest movement. Fano first emerged in the 2010s and during the 2016-2018 state of emergency as a protest movement against the former Ethiopian People’s Revolutionary Democratic Front (EPRDF) government. . Fano members declare themselves as “protectors of Ethiopia” – demonstrating the rhetoric that “Amhara nationalism is Ethiopianism”.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: Various militant groups have been in news recently due to launch of devastating attack in different regions.
    Explanation:
    Given below is the correctly matched pairs:
    Militant group – Places
    1) Fano militia – Ethiopia
    2) Hezbollah – Lebanon
    3) Hamas – Palestine
    Additional information:
    • Hamas, an acronym of its official name, the Islamic Resistance Movement, is a Palestinian Sunni Islamist political and military organization governing the Gaza Strip of the Palestinian territories, which are occupied by Israel under international law.
    • Hezbollah is a Shiite Islamic militant organisation from Lebanon. The think tank Centre for Strategic and International Studies (CSIS) has described it as “The world’s most heavily armed non-state actor, with a large and diverse stockpile of unguided artillery rockets, as well as ballistic, antiair, antitank, and antiship missiles.” Hezbollah originated during the Lebanese Civil War (1975-1990), which was a result of “long-simmering discontent over the large, armed Palestinian presence in the country”, according to the Council on Foreign Relations (CFR).
    • Fano is an ethno-nationalist Amhara youth militia and former protest movement. Fano first emerged in the 2010s and during the 2016-2018 state of emergency as a protest movement against the former Ethiopian People’s Revolutionary Democratic Front (EPRDF) government. . Fano members declare themselves as “protectors of Ethiopia” – demonstrating the rhetoric that “Amhara nationalism is Ethiopianism”.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question

    3. With reference to the International Air Transport Association (IATA), consider the following statements:
    1. It is a specialized organization of the United Nations that helps formulate industrial policy for aviation.
    2. Its headquarters is located in Montreal, Canada.
    3. It was established by the Convention on International Civil Aviation, known as Chicago Convention.
    How many of the statements given above are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: The upcoming Noida International Airport (NIA) in Jewar was awarded its own unique international three-letter code, ‘DXN’, by the International Air Transport Association (IATA) in September, 2023.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: IATA is a trade association that represents its airlines around the world. Initially founded by 57 carriers, it now has some 300 member airlines from 120 countries. International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) on the other hand, is a specialized organization that is part of the United Nations with 193 members, with its headquarters in Montreal, Canada.
    Statement 2 is correct: Its headquarters is located in Montreal, Canada.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: IATA was formed in April 1945 in Havana, Cuba. It is the successor to the International Air Traffic Association, which was formed in 1919 at The Hague, Netherlands. At its founding, IATA consisted of 57 airlines from 31 countries. Much of IATA’s early work was technical and IATA provided input to the newly created International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), which was reflected in the annexes of the Chicago Convention in 1944.
    Additional information:
    International Air Transport Association (IATA):
    • IATA is an international trade body founded in 1945 by a group of airlines. Currently, IATA represents some 300 airlines comprising 94% of the international scheduled air traffic.
    • IATA members include the world’s leading passenger and cargo airlines.
    • Mission: To represent, lead and serve the airline industry.
    • IATA supports many areas of aviation activity and helps formulate industry policy on critical aviation issues, including environmental concerns.
    International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO):
    • ICAO is an intergovernmental specialized agency associated with the United Nations (UN).
    • It was established in 1947 by the Convention on International Civil Aviation (1944) known as Chicago Convention.
    • Headquarters: Montreal, Canada
    • ICAO is dedicated to developing safe and efficient international air transport for peaceful purposes and ensuring a reasonable opportunity for every state to operate international airlines.
    • It sets standards and regulations necessary for aviation safety, security and facilitation, efficiency, and economic development of air transport as well as to improve the environmental performance of aviation.
    • It also serves as a clearinghouse for cooperation and discussion on civil aviation issues among its 193 member states.
    • It also promotes regional and international agreementsaimed at liberalizing aviation markets.
    • It helps to establish legal standards to ensure that the growth of aviation does not compromise safety and encourages the development of other aspects of international aviation law.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: The upcoming Noida International Airport (NIA) in Jewar was awarded its own unique international three-letter code, ‘DXN’, by the International Air Transport Association (IATA) in September, 2023.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is incorrect: IATA is a trade association that represents its airlines around the world. Initially founded by 57 carriers, it now has some 300 member airlines from 120 countries. International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) on the other hand, is a specialized organization that is part of the United Nations with 193 members, with its headquarters in Montreal, Canada.
    Statement 2 is correct: Its headquarters is located in Montreal, Canada.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: IATA was formed in April 1945 in Havana, Cuba. It is the successor to the International Air Traffic Association, which was formed in 1919 at The Hague, Netherlands. At its founding, IATA consisted of 57 airlines from 31 countries. Much of IATA’s early work was technical and IATA provided input to the newly created International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), which was reflected in the annexes of the Chicago Convention in 1944.
    Additional information:
    International Air Transport Association (IATA):
    • IATA is an international trade body founded in 1945 by a group of airlines. Currently, IATA represents some 300 airlines comprising 94% of the international scheduled air traffic.
    • IATA members include the world’s leading passenger and cargo airlines.
    • Mission: To represent, lead and serve the airline industry.
    • IATA supports many areas of aviation activity and helps formulate industry policy on critical aviation issues, including environmental concerns.
    International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO):
    • ICAO is an intergovernmental specialized agency associated with the United Nations (UN).
    • It was established in 1947 by the Convention on International Civil Aviation (1944) known as Chicago Convention.
    • Headquarters: Montreal, Canada
    • ICAO is dedicated to developing safe and efficient international air transport for peaceful purposes and ensuring a reasonable opportunity for every state to operate international airlines.
    • It sets standards and regulations necessary for aviation safety, security and facilitation, efficiency, and economic development of air transport as well as to improve the environmental performance of aviation.
    • It also serves as a clearinghouse for cooperation and discussion on civil aviation issues among its 193 member states.
    • It also promotes regional and international agreementsaimed at liberalizing aviation markets.
    • It helps to establish legal standards to ensure that the growth of aviation does not compromise safety and encourages the development of other aspects of international aviation law.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question

    4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Sulina Channel?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: In August, 2023, Russia, in overnight drone strikes targeted ports and grain storage facilities along the Danube river in Ukraine. The Danube delta has provided Ukraine with an alternative passage for its grain and the ‘new’ trade route is the Sulina Channel.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Sulina Channel is situated in the Southeastern part of Romania.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It connects the Ukranian ports to the Mediterranean Sea, providing a direct passage for ships traveling to and from the river and the sea.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It is situated at the mouth of the Danube River which is second longest river in Europe.
    Statement 4 is incorrect: Suez canal connects Gulf of Suez and the Mediterranean Sea, separating Asia from Africa.
    Additional information:
    • Sulina channel is a distributary of the Danube River with a total length of 71.7 km. The Sulina Channel is the primary navigational route for ships entering or leaving the Danube River from the Black Sea. It provides a well-maintained and marked passage that allows ships to traverse the delta region and reach the deeper waters of the river.
    Danube river:
    • The Danube River originates in the Black Forest region of Germany, near the town of Donaueschingen.
    • It begins as two smaller streams, the Brigach and the Breg, which eventually merge to form the Danube proper.
    • The river then flows eastward, passing through several countries before emptying into the Black Sea.
    • The Danube River passes through or forms the border of ten countries, making it one of the most international rivers in the world.
    • The countries it flows through include: Germany; Austria; Slovakia; Hungary; Croatia; Serbia; Bulgaria; Romania; Moldova; Ukraine.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: In August, 2023, Russia, in overnight drone strikes targeted ports and grain storage facilities along the Danube river in Ukraine. The Danube delta has provided Ukraine with an alternative passage for its grain and the ‘new’ trade route is the Sulina Channel.
    Explanation:
    Statement 1 is correct: Sulina Channel is situated in the Southeastern part of Romania.
    Statement 2 is incorrect: It connects the Ukranian ports to the Mediterranean Sea, providing a direct passage for ships traveling to and from the river and the sea.
    Statement 3 is incorrect: It is situated at the mouth of the Danube River which is second longest river in Europe.
    Statement 4 is incorrect: Suez canal connects Gulf of Suez and the Mediterranean Sea, separating Asia from Africa.
    Additional information:
    • Sulina channel is a distributary of the Danube River with a total length of 71.7 km. The Sulina Channel is the primary navigational route for ships entering or leaving the Danube River from the Black Sea. It provides a well-maintained and marked passage that allows ships to traverse the delta region and reach the deeper waters of the river.
    Danube river:
    • The Danube River originates in the Black Forest region of Germany, near the town of Donaueschingen.
    • It begins as two smaller streams, the Brigach and the Breg, which eventually merge to form the Danube proper.
    • The river then flows eastward, passing through several countries before emptying into the Black Sea.
    • The Danube River passes through or forms the border of ten countries, making it one of the most international rivers in the world.
    • The countries it flows through include: Germany; Austria; Slovakia; Hungary; Croatia; Serbia; Bulgaria; Romania; Moldova; Ukraine.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question

    5. Recently seen in the news, the ‘Nature restoration law’, is an initiative of which of the following?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Context: EU lawmakers and member states have struck a deal on a landmark law to protect nature after watering down rules that critics argued would trouble farmers in July, 2023.
    Explanation:
    Nature restoration law is an initiative of European union.
    Nature Restoration Law
    • The law plans to fix the 80% of European living spaces that are in rough shape by 2050.
    • There will be legally binding targets for each member state.
    • By 2030, nature restoration law should cover at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas, eventually reaching all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.
    The targets proposed include
    • Reversing the decline of pollinator populations by 2030 and expanding their population from that point on.
    • By 2030, there will be no net loss of green urban spaces, and by 2050, there will be a 5% increase and a minimum of 10% canopy cover.
    • In agricultural ecosystems, a general increment of biodiversity, and a positive pattern for prairie butterflies, farmland birds, natural carbon.
    • Reclamation and rewetting of depleted peatlands under farming use and in peat extraction destinations.
    • A positive trend in forest connectivity, the number of forest birds, and the stock of organic carbon in forest ecosystems, as well as an overall increase in biodiversity.
    • Restoring the habitats of iconic marine species like dolphins and porpoises, sharks, and seabirds, as well as marine habitats like seagrasses and sediment bottoms.
    • Eliminating river barriers so no less than 25 000 km of streams would be transformed into free-streaming waterways by 2030.
    Significance of The Nature Restoration Law
    • The Nature Restoration Law is significant because it adheres to the scientific consensus and recommendations for restoring Europe’s ecosystems and is an essential component of the European Green Deal.
    • It ensures a habitable planet for future generations and will benefit fishermen and farmers.
    • The law puts into effect a significant agreement in which member nations, including the EU, agreed to safeguard 30% of the world’s oceans and lands.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Context: EU lawmakers and member states have struck a deal on a landmark law to protect nature after watering down rules that critics argued would trouble farmers in July, 2023.
    Explanation:
    Nature restoration law is an initiative of European union.
    Nature Restoration Law
    • The law plans to fix the 80% of European living spaces that are in rough shape by 2050.
    • There will be legally binding targets for each member state.
    • By 2030, nature restoration law should cover at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas, eventually reaching all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050.
    The targets proposed include
    • Reversing the decline of pollinator populations by 2030 and expanding their population from that point on.
    • By 2030, there will be no net loss of green urban spaces, and by 2050, there will be a 5% increase and a minimum of 10% canopy cover.
    • In agricultural ecosystems, a general increment of biodiversity, and a positive pattern for prairie butterflies, farmland birds, natural carbon.
    • Reclamation and rewetting of depleted peatlands under farming use and in peat extraction destinations.
    • A positive trend in forest connectivity, the number of forest birds, and the stock of organic carbon in forest ecosystems, as well as an overall increase in biodiversity.
    • Restoring the habitats of iconic marine species like dolphins and porpoises, sharks, and seabirds, as well as marine habitats like seagrasses and sediment bottoms.
    • Eliminating river barriers so no less than 25 000 km of streams would be transformed into free-streaming waterways by 2030.
    Significance of The Nature Restoration Law
    • The Nature Restoration Law is significant because it adheres to the scientific consensus and recommendations for restoring Europe’s ecosystems and is an essential component of the European Green Deal.
    • It ensures a habitable planet for future generations and will benefit fishermen and farmers.
    • The law puts into effect a significant agreement in which member nations, including the EU, agreed to safeguard 30% of the world’s oceans and lands.

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