TOP 5 TAKKAR NEWS OF THE DAY (2nd NOVEMBER 2023)

1. ECONOMIC AND TECHNOLOGY COOPERATION AGREEMENT (ETCA)

TAG: GS 2: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

THE CONTEXT: India and Sri Lanka held the 12th round of negotiations on the Economic and Technology Cooperation Agreement (ETCA) in Colombo, Sri Lanka from 30th October 2023 to 1st November 2023.

EXPLANATION:

  • The two countries had 11 rounds of bilateral talks from 2016 to 2018. Thereafter the negotiations were paused.
  • During this round, both the sides took stock of the progress made till the 11th round.
  • They engaged in discussions on various chapters including Trade in Goods, Technical Barriers to Trade, Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures, Trade in Services, Custom Procedure & Trade Facilitation, Rules of Origin etc.
  • Both sides identified the areas of convergence and areas where they need to find creative solutions.
  • Issues such as the quota on apparel and pepper and the procurement of pharmaceuticals were also discussed and both sides decided to continue the discussion and explore new options for resolution of the matter.
  • On the proposed ETCA, both sides agreed on the need to build on progress made in past, while revisiting their positions wherever possible to reflect new developments.
  • The conclusion of the negotiations is expected to open new opportunities for trade and economic cooperation for both countries.
  • The India-Sri Lanka ETCA will be a pivotal move to further enhance bilateral trade between the two countries.
  • Both sides acknowledged the huge potential in India and Sri Lanka trade partnership and the possibilities for enhanced economic relations in areas of mutual interest.

ECONOMIC AND TECHNOLOGY COOPERATION AGREEMENT (ETCA):

  • In 1998, the India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement was established.
  • Subsequently, efforts were made to negotiate a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) to liberalize trade in services and investment, starting in the mid-2000s.
  • The CEPA negotiations faced significant opposition within Sri Lanka, particularly from the business community, and they dragged on for nearly a decade.
  • In light of the challenges with CEPA, India is now advocating for a new trade pact known as the Economic and Technological Cooperation Agreement (ETCA).
  • ETCA is being negotiated as an extension of the existing Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between India and Sri Lanka.
  • The key focus of the ETCA is to establish an agreement on trade in services and technological exchange, an objective that was not fully realized under CEPA.
  • ETCA aims to enhance cooperation in technical areas, scientific expertise, and research among institutions.
  • It seeks to raise the standards of goods and services to enable them to compete in the global market, as well as to improve opportunities for manpower training and human resource development.
  • Investments under ETCA would be directed towards sectors such as oil farms in Trincomalee, renewable energy, infrastructure, and other new areas of business.
  • India views ETCA as a means to participate in Sri Lanka’s post-war economic development by making Indian investments in specific sectors.
  • The Sri Lankan government intends to leverage ETCA to become part of the Indian supply chain and benefit from India’s “Make in India” initiative, which aims to boost India’s manufacturing sector.
  • ETCA will enable Indian manufacturers to establish factories in Sri Lanka and export their products to countries with which Sri Lanka has existing or planned Free Trade Agreements.

SOURCE: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1973859

2. AMENDMENTS IN THE GUIDELINES FOR THE APPOINTMENT OF STATE DGP

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has recently amended its guidelines for the appointment of State Director General of Police (DGP).

EXPLANATION:

  • The key changes include:
    • Setting a minimum service requirement of at least six months left before retirement for consideration,
    • Reducing the minimum service years requirement from 30 to 25 years, and
    • Limiting the number of shortlisted officers to three, except in “exceptional circumstances.

 AMENDMENTS AND THEIR ADVANTAGES:

PREVENTING FAVORITISM:

  • The primary aim of these guideline amendments is to prevent States from appointing “favorite officers” who are on the verge of retirement in an attempt to extend their tenure.
  • This is done to ensure that appointments are based on merit and not political considerations.

BYPASSING UPSC PROCESS:

  • Several States have been appointing acting DGPs or officers with “full additional charge” rather than regular DGPs.
  • This allows them to bypass the UPSC’s selection process.
  • This has led to controversies and legal challenges in some cases, such as in Punjab.

IMPACT ON POLICE REFORMS:

  • The issue of appointing DGPs is related to broader police reforms in the country.
  • The Supreme Court’s 2006 verdict in the police reforms case led to the formulation of guidelines for DGP appointments by the UPSC.
  • The recent guideline amendments seek to address loopholes and ensure that these reforms are effectively implemented.

CENTRAL DEPUTATION:

  • Another significant change is that IPS officers on central deputation will not be considered for a State DGP’s post if the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) informs the State government that it cannot release the officers.
  • This is a step to clarify and enforce the process.

EXPERIENCE AND QUALIFICATIONS:

  • The revised guidelines also specify the required experience areas for an IPS officer to lead a State police department, which includes various aspects of policing and central deputation in key agencies.

STATES’ CONCERNS:

  • Some States have expressed concerns about the lack of adequate officers available for central deputation.
  • States have resisted the Union government’s attempts to depute officers to the Center without State consent.

COMMITTEE COMPOSITION:

  • The appointment of State DGPs involves a committee headed by the UPSC Chairman and includes other high-ranking officials.
  • This ensures a structured and unbiased approach to the selection process.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/state-dgp-appointees-must-have-at-least-six-months-to-retire-those-on-deputation-need-central-consent-amended-upsc-guidelines/article67485609.ece/amp/

3. NexCAR19

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, Mumbai-based Immunoadoptive Cell Therapy Private Limited (ImmunoACT) announced the approval of India’s first chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy Called NexCAR19 by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO).

EXPLANATION:

  • ImmunoACT is an IIT Bombay-incubated company founded in 2018 and works on converting research into pharmaceutical products.
  • CAR-T cell therapy cost around $400,000 or over Rs 3.3 crore and patients could avail of it in the United States.
  • With this development, the therapy will be accessible at 20 Indian government and private hospitals treating cancer across major cities at around Rs 30-35 lakh per patient,

NexCAR19:

  • It is an indigenously developed CD19-targeted CAR-T cell therapy.
    • CD-19 is biomarker for B lymphocytes and can be utilised as a target for leukaemia immunotherapies.
  • It will be used for treating relapsed-refractory B-cell lymphoma and leukaemia.

HOW DOES IT WORK?

  • For CAR-T-cell therapy, a type of cancer immunotherapy treatment, blood is first drawn from the patient.
  • Then, immune cells called T-cells are genetically modified in a laboratory and are injected back into the patient to enable the cells to locate and destroy cancer cells more effectively.
  • Investigations were led by Dr Hasmukh Jain and Dr Gaurav Narula and their teams at Tata Memorial Hospital in Mumbai.
  • It is a major breakthrough as the therapy is not available in India outside of clinical trials.
  • The multi-centre Phase I and II clinical trials were conducted with 60 patients with r / r B-cell lymphomas and leukemia.
  • The clinical data indicated a 70 per cent overall response rate.

  • Availability:
    • The therapy is in the process of being introduced in various hospitals in India, including Tata Hospital, Nanavati, Fortis, and Jaslok, among others.
    • The availability of CAR-T therapy is expected in a matter of weeks to a few months, depending on government approvals.
  • Cost:
    • Initially, the cost of CAR-T therapy in India is estimated to be in the range of Rs 30-40 lakh.
    • However, the aim is to reduce the cost to Rs 10-20 lakh as technology matures and manufacturing processes improve.
    • The cost of the therapy remains a concern for accessibility.
  • Insurance Coverage:
    • Typically, when a therapy is approved by regulatory agencies like CDSCO or DCGI, it should be covered by national insurance schemes and private insurance companies.
    • However, the extent of coverage and accessibility to insurance may vary, and discussions with insurers and the government are planned to clarify this further.

SIDE EFFECTS:

  • CAR T-cell therapy is generally accompanied by some side effects.
  • One of them, according to the American Cancer Society, is cytokine release syndrome (CRS).
  • It is when CAR T-cells multiply, they can release large amounts of chemicals called cytokines into the blood, which can ramp up the immune system.
  • In comparison to other CAR T-cell therapies, the safety profile of CRS and the absence of neurotoxicity indicates a significant improvement.
  • NexCAR19 has shown an excellent balance of efficacy and low toxicity, which is a significant advantage in clinical management (post-infusion) of the patients in our resource-constrained settings.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/indias-own-car-t-cell-therapy-what-is-it-when-will-it-be-available-and-at-what-cost-9009776/

4. UNESCO CREATIVE CITIES NETWORK (UCCN)

TAG: GS 2: ART AND CULTURE

THE CONTEXT: Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh and Kozhikode in Kerala are among the 55 new cities which have joined the UNESCO Creative Cities Network.

EXPLANATION:

  • On World Cities Day, UNESCO announced the addition of 55 new cities to the Creative Cities Network. These cities join the existing network of creative cities across the globe.
  • Gwalior is recognized in the ‘Music’ category, while Kozhikode has been designated in the ‘Literature’ category. This recognition highlights their contributions to the fields of music and literature.
  • UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) acknowledged these cities for their commitment to harnessing culture and creativity as part of their development strategies.
  • These cities also demonstrate innovative practices in human-centered urban planning.

SIGNIFICANCE OF ADDITION OF GWALIOR AND KOZHIKODE:

  • Seven Creative Fields:
    • The UCCN comprises cities from seven creative fields, which include Crafts and Folk Art, Design, Film, Gastronomy, Literature, Media Arts, and Music.
    • The addition of Gwalior and Kozhikode expands the network’s diversity.
  • Urban Resilience and Development:
    • UNESCO Director-General emphasized that cities in the Creative Cities Network are at the forefront of enhancing access to culture.
    • UCCN Cities will leverage the power of creativity for urban resilience and development.
  • Upcoming Policy Paper:
    • UNESCO is set to release a policy paper titled “The added value of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network at local, national, and international level,”.
    • It will showcase the role cities play in achieving the 2030 Agenda.
    • The paper will demonstrate how UNESCO supports UCCN members through dialogue, peer-to-peer learning, and collaboration.
  • Annual Conference:
    • The newly designated Creative Cities are invited to participate in the 2024 UCCN Annual Conference to be held in Braga, Portugal.
    • The theme for the conference is “Bringing Youth to the table for the next decade.”

UNESCO CREATIVE CITIES NETWORK (UCCN):

  • It was created in 2004 to promote cooperation with and among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for sustainable urban development.
  • The cities which currently make up this network work together towards a common objective:
    • placing creativity and cultural industries at the heart of their development plans at the local level and cooperating actively at the international level.
  • By joining the Network, cities commit to sharing their best practices and developing partnerships involving the public and private sectors as well as civil society in order to:
    • strengthen the creation, production, distribution and dissemination of cultural activities, goods and services;
    • develop hubs of creativity and innovation and broaden opportunities for creators and professionals in the cultural sector;
    • improve access to and participation in cultural life, in particular for marginalized or vulnerable groups and individuals;
    • fully integrate culture and creativity into sustainable development plans.

INDIAN CITIES ON UCCN:

  • Srinagar – Crafts and Folk Arts (2021)
  • Mumbai – Film (2019).
  • Hyderabad – Gastronomy (2019).
  • Chennai- Creative city of Music (2017).
  • Jaipur- Crafts and Folk Arts (2015).
  • Varanasi- Creative city of Music (2015).

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/gwalior-kozhikode-unesco-creative-cities-network-9009592/

5. COMMITTEE OF PRIVILEGES

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: A meeting of the Rajya Sabha’s privileges committee scheduled to take place in November to review the pending cases of breach of privilege against lawmakers.

EXPLANATION:

  • The primary focus of this meeting is to review the pending cases of breach of privilege against lawmakers, particularly those involving the suspension of certain Members of Parliament (MPs) such as Raghav Chadha, Sanjay Singh, and Derek O’Brien.
  • Background on Suspensions:
    • Raghav Chadha, a 34-year-old AAP MP, was suspended during the monsoon session of Parliament over an alleged breach of privilege.
    • This suspension was related to his inclusion of five Rajya Sabha MPs’ names in a select committee without their consent.
    • Sanjay Singh was suspended for repeatedly violating the directives of the chair.
    • Derek O’Brien faces at least three pending privilege notices.
  • Supreme Court’s Recent Concerns:
    • The timing of this meeting is significant as it comes shortly after the Supreme Court expressed concerns about the indefinite suspension of an MP, especially one from the Opposition.
    • The court emphasized the importance of having diverse voices and representation in Parliament, indicating that excluding members of the Opposition is a serious concern for the constitutional court.
  • Pending Cases:
    • The meeting is expected to address cases involving suspended AAP lawmakers as well as Trinamool Congress (TMC) parliamentarian Derek O’Brien.
    • These cases have been under consideration by the privileges committee.

COMMITTEE OF PRIVILEGES:

  • This committee consists of 15 members in Lok Sabha (10 in case of Rajya Sabha) nominated by the Speaker (Chairman in case of Rajya Sabha).
  • In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges.

Powers and Functions:

  • The committee examines every question involving a breach of privilege of the House or of the members or of any Committee thereof referred to it by the House or by the Speaker/Chairman.
  • It also determines with reference to the facts of each case whether a breach of privilege is involved and makes suitable recommendations in its report.
  • It also states the procedure to be followed by the House in giving effect to its recommendations.
  • When a question of privilege is referred to the Committee by the House, the report of the Committee is presented to the House by the Chairman or, in his absence, by any member of the Committee.
  • Where a question of privilege is referred to the Committee by the Speaker, the report of the Committee is presented to the Speaker who may pass final orders thereon or direct that it be laid on the Table of the House.
  • The Speaker/Chairman may refer to the Committee any petition regarding the disqualification of a member on the ground of defection for making a preliminary inquiry and submitting a report to him.
  • The procedure to be followed by the Committee in these cases is so far as may be the same as in applicable to questions of breach of privilege.

SOURCE: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/rajya-sabha-panel-to-hold-meeting-take-up-pending-cases-of-privilege-breach-101698864510127.html




Today’s Important Articles for Pub Ad(02-11-2023)

  1. The blueprint to develop India by 2047 must factor in critical governance reforms READ MORE
  2. Impacting a woman’s freedom to reproductive choices READ MORE
  3. Law doesn’t bar states from counting castes READ MORE
  4. Small projects, big impact READ MORE



Today’s Important Articles for Geography (02-11-2023)

  1. WWF: 32 million acres of grasslands across US & Canadian Great Plains ploughed up since 2012 READ MORE
  2. View from the Himalayas | The ‘Third Pole’ is drying up READ MORE
  3. With El Nino around, the heat is on READ MORE



Today’s Important Articles for Sociology (02-11-2023)

  1. Divorce: Changing attitudes and social mores READ MORE
  2. Impacting a woman’s freedom to reproductive choices READ MORE
  3. Law doesn’t bar states from counting castes READ MORE



Ethics Through Current Development (02-11-2023)

  1. The birth and death of Ego READ MORE
  2. Essence of the Upanishads READ MORE



WSDP Bulletin (02-11-2023)

(Newspapers, PIB and other important sources)

Prelim and Main

  1. India and Sri Lanka re-launch negotiations of the Economic and Technology Cooperation Agreement (ETCA) READ MORE
  2. UPSC tightens guidelines for appointment of State DGPs READ MORE
  3. Haemoglobin isn’t used only in blood, scientists find in major discovery READ MORE
  4. Manufacturing PMI falls to an eight-month low READ MORE
  5. Gwalior, Kozhikode now on Unesco list of creative cities READ MORE
  6. Bangladesh PM Hasina’s daughter Saima Wazed voted as new WHO regional director READ MORE
  7. India-born author Nandini Das wins 2023 British Academy Book Prize READ MORE
  8. Rajya Sabha panel to hold meeting, take up pending cases of privilege breach READ MORE
  9. India’s cotton yield may be lowest in 15 years, to drop by 20% READ MORE

Main

GS Paper- 1

  1. Divorce: Changing attitudes and social mores READ MORE
  2. WWF: 32 million acres of grasslands across US & Canadian Great Plains ploughed up since 2012 READ MORE
  3. View from the Himalayas | The ‘Third Pole’ is drying up READ MORE
  4. With El Nino around, the heat is on READ MORE

GS Paper- 2

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

  1. The blueprint to develop India by 2047 must factor in critical governance reforms READ MORE
  2. Impacting a woman’s freedom to reproductive choices READ MORE
  3. Law doesn’t bar states from counting castes READ MORE
  4. Small projects, big impact READ MORE

SOCIAL ISSUES

  1. Challenges in equipping job seekers with skills READ MORE

INTERNATIONAL ISSUES

  1. Hope floats for a thaw in China-US relations READ MORE
  2. US can help India become battery manufacturing powerhouse. And decouple from China READ MORE

GS Paper- 3

ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT

  1. India is proud to be the biggest development partner of Bangladesh: PM READ MORE
  2. Why GST collections surged sharply in October READ MORE
  3. Supreme Court’s decision on tax treaties clarifies India’s Most Favoured Nation approach READ MORE
  4. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation: India and global supply chains READ MORE

ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

  1. India’s race to a green hydrogen future READ MORE

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

  1. AI and the issue of human-centricity in copyright law READ MORE

INTERNAL SECURITY

  1. Malware malice: On the Apple cyberattack alert READ MORE
  2. India’s Need for a National Security Strategy Cannot Be Ignored READ MORE
  3. Is it Time to Call India a Digital Dystopia? READ MORE

DISASTER MANAGEMENT

  1. Farm fires rage on: Stakeholders not doing enough to curb menace READ MORE

GS Paper- 4

ETHICS EXAMPLES AND CASE STUDY

  1. The birth and death of Ego READ MORE
  2. Essence of the Upanishads READ MORE

Questions for the MAIN exam

  1. One of the strengths of an effective administrator is the ability to retain equanimity and restraint in any situation and those in power do not act as the instruments of nemesis due to their inflamed egos. With the help of some real-life examples, justify this statement.
  2. To address the challenges posed by rapid and mass urbanisation, policymakers must shift their focus to organic rural development that involves farmers and local communities. Do you think, in this regard, a bottom-up infrastructure development approach over a top-down approach would be an effective strategy?
  3. Policymakers in India need to assume a more cautious approach against diluting the human-centricity in copyright law. Discuss why there is a need to have a cautious approach in extending existing IP protections to work generated by Artificial Intelligence?
  4. Caste censuses are essential for addressing socioeconomic inequalities and informing policymaking. How far do you agree with this view? Justify your view.
  5. India is deploying smart fencing, but there should be a balance between manned security and technologies. Comment on the statement in light of recent developments.
  6. Recent data breach shows that digital India, in reality, is too far from the claim and India needs to renew its efforts to de-mystify technology with the aim of surveillance reforms. Comment.

QUOTATIONS AND CAPTIONS

  • Science without religion is lame, religion without science is blind.
  • One of the strengths of an effective administrator is the ability to retain equanimity and restraint in any situation and those in power do not act as the instruments of nemesis due to their inflamed egos.
  • Policymakers and courts in India also need to assume a more cautious approach against diluting the human-centricity in copyright law.
  • The popularity and importance of the right to a piece of information has been used to hold local governments accountable for lapses in the delivery of services and secure access to basic rights and entitlements.
  • Aiming for a high 9% growth rate between 2030 and 2047 is laudable but factoring in alternative scenarios and changing course when warranted, is advisable.
  • There needs to be cautious approach in extending existing IP protections to work generated by Artificial Intelligence.
  • There is no place within our constitutional structure to see a foetus as anything but dependent on the mother. To see it as a separate, distinct personality would be tantamount to conferring a set of rights on it that the Constitution grants to no other class of person.
  • As economic realities change, negotiated relations among countries must also adapt. There is a need for periodic review of tax treaties, especially with respect to their economic benefits.
  • The Hamas attack on Israel and this colossal human crisis that is unfolding before our eyes has key lessons for India and the world.
  • Engaging with research organisations and academic institutions that focus on education, skills, and labour markets is critical to building capability.
  • India needs infrastructure, but the issue is that policymakers often prioritise large and impressive projects that often benefit only those directly connected to the larger economy.
  • To address the challenges posed by rapid and mass urbanisation, policymakers must shift their focus to organic rural development that involves farmers and local communities.
  • India is deploying smart fencing but the recent developments show that there needs to be a balance between manned security and technologies.
  • It is time to renew efforts to de-mystify technology with the aim of surveillance reforms, before this Digital Dystopia becomes a permanent future.
  • Digital India isn’t what it is being claimed, the reality is different on the ground. It is time to renew efforts to de-mystify technology with the aim of surveillance reforms, before this Digital Dystopia becomes a permanent future.

50-WORD TALK

  • India’s major IT companies have laid off 21,000 people between June and September, largely citing operational efficiency. This data is important. While there is the social cost of such a move, this is how markets function. It’s important for IT giants to think long and hire responsibly, not on impulse.
  • India is testing smart fencing in Kashmir using sensors by Magal, which developed systems in Gaza and US. But the Israel episode shows that there needs to be a balance between manned security and technologies that enable unmanned defence at borders. Reliance on such technologies can only go so far.

Things to Remember:

  • For prelims-related news try to understand the context of the news and relate with its concepts so that it will be easier for you to answer (or eliminate) from given options.
  • Whenever any international place will be in news, you should do map work (marking those areas in maps and exploring other geographical locations nearby including mountains, rivers, etc. same applies to the national places.)
  • For economy-related news (banking, agriculture, etc.) you should focus on terms and how these are related to various economic aspects, for example, if inflation has been mentioned, try to relate with prevailing price rises, shortage of essential supplies, banking rates, etc.
  • For main exam-related topics, you should focus on the various dimensions of the given topic, the most important topics which occur frequently and are important from the mains point of view will be covered in ED.
  • Try to use the given content in your answer. Regular use of this content will bring more enrichment to your writing.



MARATHA RESERVATION: WHY EVERYONE WANTS A ‘SARKARI NAUKRI’ IN NEW INDIA

THE CONTEXT: The demand for reservation by several communities in India, whether Maratha or Ahir, by constant protests, indicates the lure for government jobs in India. Despite the large presence of private jobs in India, this constant demand for ‘Sarkari naukari’ seems to be an issue of concern.

ISSUES:

  • Commonality of demands: Despite coming from the different backgrounds and different caste groups demand for reservation remains the same. Whether Maratha or Kunbi or even a skilled person, despite having other opportunities, skills tend to seek government jobs. These tend to dilute the privilege of getting trained and other opportunities which might have been a better opportunity for the person rather than chasing the same government job.
  • Misconception of government job: There are misconceptions related to the government job that it comes with stability and higher perks than compared to private jobs. Arguments are also given regarding the respect and power associated with government jobs in society. Therefore, many choose to chase behind the government job despite vast expansion of private sector jobs.
  • State’s centrality in lives of people: There is continuing significance and attraction of the state in the life of the common people. Also, rather than becoming less important, the state has actually become more important. With the perception that state is the only safe place to save against the uncertainties of the private sector, state control became more prominent.
  • Cut-throat competition: According to a report by the Department of Personnel and Training, over 22 crore applicants have applied for government jobs since 2014, and over 7.22 lakh have received permanent positions in the central government. This shows the level of cut-throat competition, which ultimately leads to jobs only in a few hands, and most remain unemployed.
  • High unemployment: Preparation of government jobs majorly leads to waste of youth lives of many. Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy has stated that the rate of unemployment for those in the 20-24-years age category stood at 41.9%. The rate of unemployment for those in the 25-29-years age category was at 9.8%. This indicates that when many individuals become ineligible for most government jobs, they tend to take up employment in private sector.
  • No regulation by State: With the expansion of private enterprise over the last few decades, the state has abandoned its responsibility towards appropriate regulation of the market. For example, constant weakening of labour laws has affected the perception of private sector jobs.

GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES FOR SKILL DEVELOPMENT

Since the period of the 11th Five Year Plan (2007-12), various governments have formulated programmes for “skill development” among poor urban and rural youth.

  • A variety of small and large corporations have been contracted by the government to establish residential Skill Development Centres.
  • The companies, known as Project Implementation Agencies (PIAs), provide training across different “domains” such as Hospitality, Customer Retail Service and Health Care.
  • In 2014, the government created the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), intended to provide a more coordinated focus on training activities that have otherwise been spread across various individual ministries.
  • The Skill India Programme launched in 2015 aimed to train 402 million people by 2022, and the 2015 budget allocated Rs 5,040 crore for skill development.
  • The flagship Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) scheme was launched in 2015 to provide short-term training, skilling through ITIs and under the apprenticeship scheme.
  • The SANKALP programme focuses on the district-level skilling ecosystem and the STRIVE project aims to improve the performance of ITIs are other significant skilling interventions.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Reforms in private sector: To shift focus from the government sector jobs, there is a need for reform in private sector by bringing in the job security and stability along with the other benefits for a healthy work life balance. Also, there is a need for proper utilisation of CSR funds in the private sector to make the employees feel satisfied and responsible.
  • Reforms in government sector: There is a need to bring reforms in government sector as well. The government should examine the feasibility of replacing the system of permanent employment with a liberal contractual system based on periodic performance-based reviews. With new technology and new market situation, government should bring the solution and skills as per the market needs.
  • Government initiatives : Government needs to re-energise its efforts in skill development of the youth by imparting the skill according to the needs of the existing market demand. Also, the government needs to regulate the market just enough to ensure that the most vulnerable do not get harm in the excesses of the market by strengthening of labour laws.
  • Revamp reservation process: The reservation policy should be implemented in a way that does not hamper the free movement of manpower resources by ensuring inclusiveness of all the classes in India. The reservation policy needs to be revisited periodically to assess its impact on the economy and industries in the state.
  • Bringing in proper framework: There is a need to bring proper framework for job ecosystem. As the role of the government is not in the matter of job creation but that of building an ecosystem conducive to creation of jobs. It has become common to suggest that the “New India” is characterised by the overwhelming importance of private enterprise, therefore new frameworks are needed.

THE CONCLUSION:

As long as the control of the state exists in the job market, the issue of unemployability and the lure of the government jobs will remain. Here, both the state and non-state actors need to work together to harness the full potential of India’s young population by addressing the structural issues to accelerate economic growth.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1 “While we flaunt India’s demographic dividend, we ignore the dropping rates of employability.” What are we missing while doing so? Where will the jobs that India desperately needs come from? Explain. (2014)

Q.2 Demographic Dividend in India will remain only theoretical unless our manpower becomes more educated, aware, skilled and creative.” What measures have been taken by the government to enhance the capacity of our population to be more productive and employable?  (2016)

Q.3 Most of the unemployment in India is structural in nature. Examine the methodology adopted to compute unemployment in the country and suggest improvements.”(2023)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q.1 Despite several government initiatives for skill development in India, the employment rate in India is still very low. What are the possible reasons for this and suggest measures to address the situation?

Q.2 Job creation in India is seen only as a government responsibility as the state seems to be the only safe haven against arbitrary actions of markets. Comment.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/maratha-reservation-why-everyone-wants-a-sarkari-naukri-in-new-india-9009710/#:~:text=The%20reservations%2Dfor%2DMarathas%20demand,on%20the%20percentage%20quota%20limits.




UN REPORT ON GROUND WATER EXTRACTION: EVERY DROP COUNTS

THE CONTEXT:  The report ‘Interconnected Disaster Risks Report 2023’ has found that 27 of the world’s 31 major aquifers are depleting faster than they can be replenished.

MORE ON THE NEWS:

  • The report ‘Interconnected Disaster Risks Report 2023’, highlights that world is approaching at six environmental tipping points: accelerating extinctions, groundwater depletion, mountain glacier melting, space debris, unbearable heat and an uninsurable future.
  • United Nations University has warned that 27 of the world’s 31 major aquifers are depleting faster than they can be replenished.
  • According to the report:
    • 78% of wells in Punjab are considered overexploited.
    • The north-western region as a whole is predicted to experience critically low groundwater availability by 2025.
  • Several other reports, including those commissioned by the Niti Aayog and the Central Water Commission, have underlined the poor state of the country’s aquifers.

GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES:

  • National Aquifer Mapping and Management Programme (NAQUIM): The Programme was launched in March 2021.It is an initiative by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India. It is being implemented as a part of the Ground Water Management and Regulation scheme to facilitate better planning and management of groundwater resources.
  • Atal Bhujal Yojana: It was launched on 25 December 2019 under the Jal Jeevan Mission. It is a central sector scheme which aims for sustainable management of groundwater with community participation.
  • Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT): It was launched on 25th June 2015. The main objective is to ensure a proper supply of water and a sewage connection in every household.
  • Jal Shakti Abhiyan (JSA): It was launched in 2021. It aims at making water conservation a Jan Andolan through asset creation and extensive communication.

Reasons for Groundwater Extraction:

  • Excessive irrigation: Irrigation alone accounts for 90% of the total groundwater used in India today.
  • Land subsidence: Excessive withdrawal without proper replenishment can decrease the water level of aquifers.
  • Groundwater pollution: Water quality data obtained by the Central Ground Water Board shows that groundwater in as many as 154 districts across 21 states has arsenic contamination.
  • Climate change: Disturbances in the hydrological cycle causing long spells of floods and droughts adversely affect the quality and quantity of groundwater.
  • Poor knowledge of water management system: The mismatch in demand and supply at the local level represents a large part of the problem in India.

THE WAY FORWARD:

  • Atal Bhujal Yojana– Union Jal Shakti Ministry initiated the Atal Bhujal Yojana in 78 water-stressed districts. Groundwater extraction for irrigation, domestic and industrial uses came down by about 6 billion cubic metres in 2022 from 2020.
  • Use of technologies: Use of technologies allow people to monitor the water available in their borewells.
  • Effective regulation of groundwater pumping: We should have better understanding of our groundwater supply. Adequate funding should be granted towards researching groundwater supply.
  • Chemical Management: By properly disposing of all chemicals, we can prevent the toxic substances from contaminating the water.
  • Wastewater recycling and reuse: Implement a variety of different water recycling techniques.
  • Alternative source of water: Alternative water sources can be used to help replenish aquifers.

THE CONCLUSION:

The emphasis on the use of tubewells and borewells played an important role in ensuring food security. The gravity of the crisis is such that much more is required from the Centre and the states.

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS:

Q) What are the salient features of the Jal Shakti Abhiyan launched by the Government of India for water conservation and water security? (2020)

Q) Suggest measures to improve water storage and irrigation system to make its judicious use under the depleting scenario. (2020)

MAINS PRACTICE QUESTION:

Q) India’s groundwater situation is much more serious than previously thought. Discuss the statement in context of Interconnected Disaster Risks Report 2023. Also, discuss the technological and behavioural measures needed to deal with the situation.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/un-report-on-groundwater-extraction-every-drop-counts-9008120/




Day-528 | Daily MCQs | UPSC Prelims | ECONOMY

Day-528

Time limit: 0

Quiz-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

Information

To attempt the Quiz, simply click on START Button.

You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.

Quiz is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.

You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:

Results

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)

Average score
 
 
Your score
 
 

Categories

  1. Not categorized 0%
Your result has been entered into leaderboard
Loading
captcha
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  1. Answered
  2. Review
  1. Question 1 of 5
    1. Question
    2 points

    1. Consider the following statements regarding Off-budget borrowings:
    1. These borrowings are not counted while calculating the fiscal deficit.
    2. In these borrowings, the government takes loans directly.
    3. The budgetary resources cannot be used for repayment of these borrowings.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Off-budget borrowings refer to the borrowings undertaken by the public sector for which the principal and interest are serviced out of government budgets. These borrowings are kept out of the government books and are not counted while calculating the fiscal deficit.
    Or
    ● Off-budget borrowing or extra-budget borrowing is a way for the government to finance its expenditures while keeping the debt off the books. It means that the government asks another public institution to borrow on its behalf so that the collected loan is not counted in the fiscal deficit. This intends to help the government keep its fiscal deficit within acceptable limits, but on the other hand, it also reduces the transparency and accountability of its finances.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Off-budget borrowings (OBBs) are taken not by the government directly but by another public institution in its direction. For example, loans by FCI for paying food subsidy bills (this practice is discontinued from FY 2020-21).
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Government uses the budgetary resources for the repayment of Off-budget borrowings.
    ● Reasons for resorting to OBB:
    o Bypass Fiscal Deficit targets under the FRBM Act, 2003,
    o Avoid borrowing limits under Article 293 (3) of the Constitution.
    o Article mandates States to take consent of the Centre before raising any loan if they have any outstanding loan to the Centre or loans where the Centre is the guarantor.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    ● Statement 1 is correct: Off-budget borrowings refer to the borrowings undertaken by the public sector for which the principal and interest are serviced out of government budgets. These borrowings are kept out of the government books and are not counted while calculating the fiscal deficit.
    Or
    ● Off-budget borrowing or extra-budget borrowing is a way for the government to finance its expenditures while keeping the debt off the books. It means that the government asks another public institution to borrow on its behalf so that the collected loan is not counted in the fiscal deficit. This intends to help the government keep its fiscal deficit within acceptable limits, but on the other hand, it also reduces the transparency and accountability of its finances.
    ● Statement 2 is incorrect: Off-budget borrowings (OBBs) are taken not by the government directly but by another public institution in its direction. For example, loans by FCI for paying food subsidy bills (this practice is discontinued from FY 2020-21).
    ● Statement 3 is incorrect: Government uses the budgetary resources for the repayment of Off-budget borrowings.
    ● Reasons for resorting to OBB:
    o Bypass Fiscal Deficit targets under the FRBM Act, 2003,
    o Avoid borrowing limits under Article 293 (3) of the Constitution.
    o Article mandates States to take consent of the Centre before raising any loan if they have any outstanding loan to the Centre or loans where the Centre is the guarantor.

  2. Question 2 of 5
    2. Question
    2 points

    2. Consider the following statements regarding India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
    1. It is set up under the Ministry of Finance.
    2. It is fully owned by the Government of India.
    3. It is a scheduled payment bank.
    4. It does not offer credit to private entities.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2018, IPPB was established under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communication.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Its 100% equity is owned by the Government of India.
    o Vision: Build the most accessible, affordable and trusted bank for the common man in India.
    o Mandate: Spearheading financial inclusion by removing barriers and reducing costs for accessing banking services.
    ● IPPB is registered under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 duly licensed by RBI to carry on the business of payments banks in India.
    o Statement 3 is correct: It is a scheduled payment bank offering a range of products like savings and current accounts, remittances and money transfer, Aadhar Enabled Payment System etc.
    o It offers three accounts: Safal (regular account); Sugam, (Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)); and Saral (BSBDA-Small).
    o Statement 4 is correct: It can not offer loans or issue credit cards.
    ● Achievements of IPPB: More than 6 crore accounts have been opened across the country including 96 lakhs in aspirational districts.
    Functions of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
    ● DEPOSITS
    o Savings Account
    o Current Account
    ● MONEY TRANSFER
    o Simple & Secure
    o Instant
    o 24×7
    ● THIRD PARTY PRODUCTS
    o Loans referral services
    o Insurance
    o Investments
    o Post Office Savings schemes
    ● ENTERPRISE AND MERCHANT PAYMENTS
    o Postal products
    o Digital Payment of e-commerce delivery (CoD)
    o Small merchants/Kirana stores/unorganized retail
    o Offline payments
    o Cash Management Services
    Payment Banks:
    ● In August 2015, RBI granted licenses to 11 applicants for Payment Banks.
    ● RBI has put a cap of Rs. 2 lakhs on deposits that payment banks can receive from individual customers. This restriction will allow only those companies to seek payment bank licenses who are really interested in targeting the poor. Hence, the main target for payment banks will be migrant labourers, self-employed, low-income households etc. as they will offer low-cost savings accounts and remittance services so that those who now transact only in cash can take their first step into the formal banking system (payment banks will not be allowed to lend and issue credit cards. Payment banks will accept only demand deposits i.e., only savings account and current account facility will be available).
    ● The payment banks will be cashing in on mobile technology and applications to cater to the various services they will be offering and with the use of technology they can be cost efficient.
    ● The Payment banks will be acting as add-on to the already established banks, rather than their competitors.

    Incorrect

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2018, IPPB was established under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communication.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: Its 100% equity is owned by the Government of India.
    o Vision: Build the most accessible, affordable and trusted bank for the common man in India.
    o Mandate: Spearheading financial inclusion by removing barriers and reducing costs for accessing banking services.
    ● IPPB is registered under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 duly licensed by RBI to carry on the business of payments banks in India.
    o Statement 3 is correct: It is a scheduled payment bank offering a range of products like savings and current accounts, remittances and money transfer, Aadhar Enabled Payment System etc.
    o It offers three accounts: Safal (regular account); Sugam, (Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA)); and Saral (BSBDA-Small).
    o Statement 4 is correct: It can not offer loans or issue credit cards.
    ● Achievements of IPPB: More than 6 crore accounts have been opened across the country including 96 lakhs in aspirational districts.
    Functions of India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
    ● DEPOSITS
    o Savings Account
    o Current Account
    ● MONEY TRANSFER
    o Simple & Secure
    o Instant
    o 24×7
    ● THIRD PARTY PRODUCTS
    o Loans referral services
    o Insurance
    o Investments
    o Post Office Savings schemes
    ● ENTERPRISE AND MERCHANT PAYMENTS
    o Postal products
    o Digital Payment of e-commerce delivery (CoD)
    o Small merchants/Kirana stores/unorganized retail
    o Offline payments
    o Cash Management Services
    Payment Banks:
    ● In August 2015, RBI granted licenses to 11 applicants for Payment Banks.
    ● RBI has put a cap of Rs. 2 lakhs on deposits that payment banks can receive from individual customers. This restriction will allow only those companies to seek payment bank licenses who are really interested in targeting the poor. Hence, the main target for payment banks will be migrant labourers, self-employed, low-income households etc. as they will offer low-cost savings accounts and remittance services so that those who now transact only in cash can take their first step into the formal banking system (payment banks will not be allowed to lend and issue credit cards. Payment banks will accept only demand deposits i.e., only savings account and current account facility will be available).
    ● The payment banks will be cashing in on mobile technology and applications to cater to the various services they will be offering and with the use of technology they can be cost efficient.
    ● The Payment banks will be acting as add-on to the already established banks, rather than their competitors.

  3. Question 3 of 5
    3. Question
    2 points

    3. Which of the following statements correctly describes the term “Inflation Tax”?

    Correct

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    ● As a result of inflation (the opposite of deflation), the cost of goods and services rises, but the value of our money decreases. And that inflation is accompanied by inflation tax.
    ● Inflation tax is not a tax paid to the government. Instead “inflation tax” refers to the penalty for holding cash at a time of high inflation. When the government prints more money or reduces interest rates, it floods the market with cash, which raises inflation in the long run. If an investor is holding securities, real estate or other assets, the effect of inflation may be negligible. But, if a person is holding cash, the purchasing power of this cash reduces during a higher rate of inflation.

    Incorrect

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    ● As a result of inflation (the opposite of deflation), the cost of goods and services rises, but the value of our money decreases. And that inflation is accompanied by inflation tax.
    ● Inflation tax is not a tax paid to the government. Instead “inflation tax” refers to the penalty for holding cash at a time of high inflation. When the government prints more money or reduces interest rates, it floods the market with cash, which raises inflation in the long run. If an investor is holding securities, real estate or other assets, the effect of inflation may be negligible. But, if a person is holding cash, the purchasing power of this cash reduces during a higher rate of inflation.

  4. Question 4 of 5
    4. Question
    2 points

    4. Consider the following statements related to the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):
    1. This tool has been introduced through an amendment to the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
    2. It enables the RBI to absorb liquidity from the economy.
    3. Banks can deposit any amount for the long term under SDF.
    How many of the above statements are correct?

    Correct

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Introduced in April 2022 by an amendment in RBI Act 1934.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: A Standing Deposit Facility is an overnight deposit facility that allows banks to park excess liquidity (money) and earn interest. In a liquidity-surplus banking system, the RBI is focused on absorbing excess liquidity from banks without collateral.
    ● The following are its important features:
    o Statement 3 is incorrect: Banks can deposit any amount overnight with RBI at repo rate – 0.25% (it may change).
    o As there is no binding collateral constraint on RBI under SDF, it will strengthen the operating framework of monetary policy.
    o The SDF is also a financial stability tool in addition to its role in liquidity management.
    o SDF will be at the discretion of banks and will be available on all days of the week, throughout the year unlike repo and reverse repo which are available at the discretion of RBI.

    Incorrect

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Standing Deposit Facility (SDF):
    ● Statement 1 is incorrect: Introduced in April 2022 by an amendment in RBI Act 1934.
    ● Statement 2 is correct: A Standing Deposit Facility is an overnight deposit facility that allows banks to park excess liquidity (money) and earn interest. In a liquidity-surplus banking system, the RBI is focused on absorbing excess liquidity from banks without collateral.
    ● The following are its important features:
    o Statement 3 is incorrect: Banks can deposit any amount overnight with RBI at repo rate – 0.25% (it may change).
    o As there is no binding collateral constraint on RBI under SDF, it will strengthen the operating framework of monetary policy.
    o The SDF is also a financial stability tool in addition to its role in liquidity management.
    o SDF will be at the discretion of banks and will be available on all days of the week, throughout the year unlike repo and reverse repo which are available at the discretion of RBI.

  5. Question 5 of 5
    5. Question
    2 points

    5. Consider the following statements:
    Statement I: Inflation Indexed Bonds are tradable in the secondary market.
    Statement II: Inflation Indexed Bonds are the Government securities.
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    Correct

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    ● Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIBs) were issued in the name of Capital Indexed Bonds (CIBs) during 1997. The CIBs issued in 1997 provide inflation protection only to principal and not to interest payment. IIBs will provide inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.
    ● IIBs would be Government securities (G-Sec) and the different classes of investors eligible to invest in G-Secs would also be eligible to invest in IIBs.
    ● FIIs would be eligible to invest in the forthcoming IIBs but subject to the overall cap for their investment in G-Secs (currently USD 25 billion).
    ● Statement I and II are correct but its explanation is incorrect: G-Sec can be tradable in the secondary market like other G-Secs. Because IIBs are Government securities.
    ● Investors will be able to trade them in NDS-OM, NDS-OM (web-based), OTC market, and stock exchanges.
    ● As of now investors will not be able to participate in the primary auction of IIBs through a web-based platform.

    Incorrect

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    ● Inflation Indexed Bonds (IIBs) were issued in the name of Capital Indexed Bonds (CIBs) during 1997. The CIBs issued in 1997 provide inflation protection only to principal and not to interest payment. IIBs will provide inflation protection to both principal and interest payments.
    ● IIBs would be Government securities (G-Sec) and the different classes of investors eligible to invest in G-Secs would also be eligible to invest in IIBs.
    ● FIIs would be eligible to invest in the forthcoming IIBs but subject to the overall cap for their investment in G-Secs (currently USD 25 billion).
    ● Statement I and II are correct but its explanation is incorrect: G-Sec can be tradable in the secondary market like other G-Secs. Because IIBs are Government securities.
    ● Investors will be able to trade them in NDS-OM, NDS-OM (web-based), OTC market, and stock exchanges.
    ● As of now investors will not be able to participate in the primary auction of IIBs through a web-based platform.

window.wpAdvQuizInitList = window.wpAdvQuizInitList || []; window.wpAdvQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpAdvQuiz_2', init: { quizId: 2, mode: 1, globalPoints: 10, timelimit: 0, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 0, qpp: 0, catPoints: [10], formPos: 0, lbn: "Finish quiz", json: {"6":{"type":"single","id":6,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"7":{"type":"single","id":7,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"8":{"type":"single","id":8,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"9":{"type":"single","id":9,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"10":{"type":"single","id":10,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } });




TOP 5 TAKKAR NEWS OF THE DAY (1st NOVEMBER 2023)

1. DEEP OCEAN MISSION (DOM)

TAG: GS 3: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

THE CONTEXT: India’s ambitious “Deep Ocean Mission” (DOM) is a program aimed at exploring and harnessing the depths of the ocean.

EXPLANATION:

  • The mission has been approved by the Union Cabinet and has several pillars:
  • Development of Technologies for Deep-Sea Mining:
    • It involves the creation of technologies for deep-sea mining and a crewed submersible capable of reaching a depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean.
    • The submersible will be equipped with scientific sensors, tools, and a system for mining polymetallic nodules.
  • Ocean Climate Change Advisory Services:
    • It focuses on understanding and projecting future climate changes through ocean observations and models.
  • Technological Innovations for Deep-Sea Biodiversity:
    • The mission aims to develop technologies for exploring and conserving deep-sea biodiversity.
  • Deep-Ocean Survey and Exploration:
    • The objective here is to identify potential sites of multi-metal hydrothermal sulfides mineralization along the Indian Ocean mid-oceanic ridges.
  • Harnessing Energy and Freshwater from the Ocean:
    • This pillar aims to utilize the ocean as a source of energy and freshwater.
  • Establishing an Advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology:
    • It seeks to create a hub for ocean biology research and blue biotechnology development.

INSIGHTS INTO THE PROGRESS OF THE DOM:

  • The development of technologies for deep-sea mining and a crewed submersible, named Matsya6000, is led by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT).
  • Matsya6000 is designed to reach a depth of 6,000 meters and has been through the initial design phase.
  • Testing and experimentation will be conducted at a depth of 500 meters within a year, with the goal of realizing its full 6,000-meter capability within two to three years.
  • The Ministry is also working on an integrated system to mine polymetallic nodules.
  • The decision to target a depth of 6,000 meters is strategic, as it allows India to cater to both its Exclusive Economic Zone and the central Indian Ocean where valuable resources like polymetallic nodules are found.

CHALLENGES OF DEEP-OCEAN EXPLORATION:

  • Deep-ocean exploration presents unique challenges due to high pressure, soft and muddy ocean bed surfaces, and the need to extract materials.
  • Operating under high pressure requires specialized equipment.
  • Visibility and communication are also significant hurdles in the deep oceans.

MATSYA6000:

  • Matsya6000 is India’s deep-ocean submersible designed for exploration.
  • It accommodates three crew members and is constructed from durable materials to withstand high pressures.
  • It has an array of scientific tools, cameras, lights, and communication systems.
  • Matsya6000 combines features of remote operated vehicles (ROVs) and autonomous remote vehicles (AUVs) and is designed to operate untethered.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/2023-11-01/th_chennai/articleGFJBV12S4-4729109.ece

2. FISCAL DEFICIT

TAG: GS 3: ECONOMY

THE CONTEXT: The fiscal deficit of the central government in the first half of the 2023-24 financial year has risen to the 39.3% of the annual budget.

EXPLANATION:

  • Fiscal deficit of 2023-24 financial year is slightly higher than the 37.3% fiscal budget recorded in the same period in the previous year.
  • In actual terms, the fiscal deficit at the end of September 2023 stood at ₹7.02 lakh crore. This indicates the budgetary gap between government spending and income during this period.
  • The government had initially projected to reduce the fiscal deficit to 5.9% of the gross domestic product (GDP) in the 2023-24 financial year.
  • In the previous financial year (2022-23), the fiscal deficit was 6.4% of the GDP, slightly lower than the initial estimate of 6.71%.
  • Tax revenue reached ₹11.60 lakh crore, which is 49.8% of the annual target.
  • The central government’s total expenditure for the first half of the 2023-24 financial year was ₹21.19 lakh crore, which is 47.1% of the budget estimate for the year.
  • This expenditure figure is marginally higher than the corresponding period in the previous year.

FISCAL DEFICIT:

  • It is the gap between the government’s expenditure requirements and its receipts.
  • This equals the money the government needs to borrow during the year.
  • A surplus arises if receipts are more than expenditure.
  • Fiscal Deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts).
  • It indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all sources.
  • Gross fiscal deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from abroad
  • The gross fiscal deficit is a key variable in judging the financial health of the public sector and the stability of the economy.
  • The government’s ability to achieve the projected fiscal deficit target for the year will depend on various economic factors, including revenue collection and expenditure control in the coming months.
  • Fiscal deficits are important indicators of a government’s financial health and its ability to manage its budget effectively.

SOURCE: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/govts-fiscal-deficit-rises-to-393-of-annual-target-in-first-half-of-fy24/article67480542.ece/amp/

3. BRAZZAVILLE SUMMIT OF THE THREE BASINS

TAG: GS 3: ECOLOGY AND ENVIRONMENT

THE CONTEXT: Brazzaville Summit of the Three Basins took place in the Republic of Congo, bringing together delegates from countries in the Amazon, Congo, and Borneo-Mekong-Southeast Asia basins.

EXPLANATION:

  • The summit concluded with a declaration by the Heads of State and Government of States.
  • It focused on biodiversity, tropical forests, and climate change.

HIGHLIGHTS OF THE DECLARATION:

  • The declaration emphasizes the importance of the three ecosystems of biodiversity and tropical forests, which provide essential ecosystem services for humankind and sustainable development in the regions they cover.
  • It acknowledges the significance of protecting tropical forests, which occupy one-third of the world’s land surface.

The seven-point declaration urged nations to:

  • Recognise the value of enhanced cooperation between the three basins.
  • Recognise that sovereign management of biodiversity, forests and associated resources of the three basins is essential.
  • Develop solutions together.
  • Pool and capitalise on existing knowledge, experience, resources and achievements.
  • Involve all states and national authorities, including indigenous peoples, youth, women, civil society, academia and the private sector.
  • Encourage financial mobilisation and the development of traditional and innovative financing mechanisms.
  • Establish a sustainable system of remuneration for the ecosystem services provided by the three basins.

Climate Change and Financial Commitments:

  • The declaration also addresses climate change and calls for the creation of a fund to address loss and damage due to climate change.
  • It urges developed countries to meet their commitments, including providing $200 billion per year by 2030 for biodiversity and $100 billion per year in climate finance to developing countries.
  • These financial commitments are set out in the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.

Disappointment with the Outcome:

  • The civil society is disappointed, as the summit did not result in the formation of an Alliance of the three basins.
  • Such an alliance would have served as a platform for joint initiatives and knowledge-sharing between the countries in these regions.

Importance of Protected Areas:

  • The declaration acknowledges the significance of protected areas within these basins, which are home to a substantial portion of global biodiversity and forest cover.

Deforestation Concerns:

  • A report by the Forest Declaration Assessment, indicates that 4.1 million hectares of tropical forest were lost to deforestation in 2022.
  • It points out that the majority of global deforestation (96%) occurs in tropical regions, underscoring the ongoing challenges in forest conservation and sustainable management.

SOURCE: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/brazzaville-summit-of-the-three-basins-ends-with-a-declaration-92565

4. MELTING OF THE WEST ANTARCTIC ICE SHEET

TAG: GS 1: GEOGRAPHY

THE CONTEXT: Recently, a new study revealed that the melting of the West Antarctic ice sheet is now unavoidable.

MELTING OF THE WEST ANTARCTIC ICE SHEET:

  • The melting of the West Antarctic ice sheet is inevitable due to warming waters around it.
  • This melting is happening at an alarming rate and will continue, even if global carbon emissions are significantly reduced.
  • The West Antarctic ice sheet’s complete loss could raise global mean sea levels by 5.3 meters (17.4 feet).
  • The study considers various climate scenarios, including the best-case scenario of limiting global warming to 1.5 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels.
  • However, even in this scenario, the West Antarctic ice sheet will continue to melt at an accelerated pace, with water warming three times faster than in the 20th century.

An illustration of most of Earth’s ice features, including the ice sheet.

CONSEQUENCES OF ICE SHEET MELTING:

  • The melting of the West Antarctic ice sheet has serious implications for coastal regions around the world, including India.
  • A sea-level rise of this magnitude could be devastating for millions of people living in vulnerable coastal cities.
  • It can lead to increased risks of flooding, erosion, and displacement.

WHAT IS AN ICE SHEET?

  • Ice sheets are the massive masses of glacial ice that cover more than 50,000 square kilometers of land.
  • The two major ice sheets in the world today are the Greenland ice sheet and the Antarctica ice sheet.

    Antarctica ice mass variation since 2002

  • Ice Sheet Impact on Sea Level:
    • When ice sheets lose mass, they contribute to a rise in global mean sea level.
    • Conversely, when they gain mass, they contribute to a fall in global mean sea level.
    • This provides context for understanding the significance of the West Antarctic ice sheet’s melting.
  • How Ice Sheets Melt?
    • In the case of the West Antarctic ice sheet, warm ocean waters melt the ice shelves, which are the edges of the ice sheet floating on the ocean.
    • This can lead to the destabilization of land-based glaciers behind them, causing them to flow faster and discharge more ice into the ocean.

CLIMATE CHANGE MITIGATION:

  • Despite the bleak findings, the study emphasizes that the melting of the West Antarctic ice sheet is just one contributor to sea-level rise and one impact of climate change.
  • We have reached the point where some impacts of climate change can no longer be avoided, and substantial ice loss in West Antarctica is probably one of them.
  • There are many other impacts which we can still avoid or limit: like the loss of the East Antarctic Ice Sheet, or the severity of heatwaves, droughts, and extreme rainfall.
  • It underscores the importance of continued efforts to mitigate the impacts of climate change and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

SOURCE: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/ice-sheet-melt-west-antarctica-9006179/

5. WRIT PETITION AGAINST GOVERNOR

TAG: GS 2: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

THE CONTEXT: The Tamil Nadu government has moved a writ petition in the Supreme Court against Governor R.N. Ravi.

EXPLANATION:

  • The petition alleges that the Governor’s actions, particularly the delay in clearing crucial bills and government orders, are creating a “constitutional deadlock”.
  • Governor’s actions are disrupting the day-to-day governance of the state.
  • The writ petition filed in the Supreme Court seeks to address the perceived delays and inactions by the Governor.
  • The government requests the court to declare these actions as unconstitutional, illegal, arbitrary, and malafide exercise of power.

CONSTITUTIONAL CONFLICT:

  • The Tamil Nadu government sees a growing conflict between the elected government and the Governor, leading to an impasse.
  • The government contends that the Governor’s inactions have created a situation where he is positioned as a political rival to the elected government.
  • Specific Issues Raised:
    • These issues include the delay in granting approval for prosecutions and investigations into corruption cases involving public servants.
    • The delayed approval of bills passed by the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly.
  • The Tamil Nadu government is asking the Supreme Court to set a specific deadline or “outer time limit” within which the Governor should consider pending bills and government orders.

ALLEGATIONS OF POLITICALLY MOTIVATED CONDUCT:

  • The petition accuses the Governor of engaging in “politically motivated conduct” by denying sanctions for investigations into corruption cases despite evidence.
  • It cites instances where the Supreme Court and the Madras High Court have approved inquiries that the Governor allegedly obstructed.
  • A delegation of elected representatives, led by the State Law Minister, met with the President to seek her intervention in directing the Governor to act in accordance with the Constitution.

CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS RELATED TO THE GOVERNOR

  • Article 153 says that there shall be a Governor for each State. One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States.
  • A Governor is appointed by the President and is a nominee of the Central Government.
    • It is stated that the Governor has a dual role.
    • He is the constitutional head of the state, bound by the advice of his Council of Ministers (CoM).
  • He functions as a vital link between the Union Government and the State Government.
  • Articles 157 and 158 specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. A governor must:
    • Be a citizen of India.
    • Be at least 35 years of age.
    • Not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature.
    • Not hold any office of profit.
  • Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, etc. (Article 161).
  • There is a CoM with the CM at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except some conditions for discretion. (Article 163).
  • The Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers (Article 164).
  • Governor assents, withholds assent, or reserves the bill for the consideration of the President passed by the Legislative Assembly (Article 200).
  • Governors may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances (Article 213).
  • Governor’s role:
    • The Governor holds a constitutional position and is expected to perform specific functions, including granting assent to bills passed by the state legislature and ensuring the proper functioning of state administration.
    • The Governor’s actions are perceived as a hindrance to these responsibilities.

SOURCE: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/tamil-nadu-government-moves-supreme-court-against-governor-rn-ravi-over-delay-in-clearing-bills-101698730657484.html